Block 9 Pharm Cholinergic W Exp Prt 2

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  • 1/15 Questions

    A 52-year-old farmer, brought unconscious to the emergency department, was salivating profusely and was incontinent with regard to both urine and feces. His skin was warm and moist, pupils were pinpoint in size, respiration was shallow and the extremities showed subcutaneous muscle fasciculations. Blood pressure was 110/65 mm Hg, pulse 56 bpm. The patient died shortly after admission. Which of the following disorders most likely caused the death of this patient?

    • Kidney failure
    • Liver failure
    • Hypertensive crisis
    • Respiratory failure
    • Adynamic ileus
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Block 9 Pharm Cholinergic W Exp Prt 2 - Quiz
About This Quiz

This quiz assesses knowledge of cholinergic pharmacology, focusing on scenarios involving organophosphate poisoning, drug treatments for urinary incontinence and glaucoma, and antidotes for muscle paralysis. It is crucial for understanding emergency responses and medication mechanisms.

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  • 2. 

    A 52-year-old diabetic woman presented to the emergency room with severe ocular pain and redness, decreased vision, colored halos, and nausea and vomiting. Ophthalmoscopy revealed anterior chamber inflammation and tonometry measured an intraocular pressure of 48 mm Hg in the right eye (normal 10-20). A diagnosis of acute glaucoma attack was made and two drugs were instilled into the conjunctival sac. Another drug was given by the same route 15 minutes later. Which of the following three drugs were most likely administered?

    • Timolol, apraclonidine and pilocarpine

    • Homatropine, carbachol and timolol

    • Scopolamine, dorzolamide and phenylephrine

    • Homatropine, carbachol and dorzolamide

    • Prazosin, physostigmine and mannitol

    Correct Answer
    A. Timolol, apraclonidine and pilocarpine
    Explanation
    Answer : A
    An acute glaucoma attack is usually the first symptom of an acute angle-closure glaucoma, a
    disease associated with a closed anterior chambre angle. When this occurs intraocular pressure
    raises because the normal drainage of aqueous humor from the eye is prevented by the
    obstruction of peripheral iris. An acute glaucoma attack is a medical emergency, because vision
    can be lost quickly. The production of the aqueous humor must be decreased and therefore a
    topical beta-blocker and an alpha-2 agonist are immediately administered. Then pilocarpine is
    given to increase aqueous humor outflow ( cholinergic drugs alone are generally ineffective when
    the intraocular pressure is > 40 mm Hg).
    B, C, D) Scopolamine and homatropine are contraindicated in angle-closure glaucoma since they
    induce mydriasis which increase the risk of closing the anterior chamber.
    E) Prazosin is ineffective in glaucoma. Mannitol is not given topically, but IV, and is used to lower
    the intraocular pressure only if the response to the first treatment is inadequate.

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  • 3. 

    A 63-year-old man underwent a surgical operation to remove a colonic carcinoma. Tree days after surgery he developed fever (103° F), abdominal distension and vomiting. Palpation showed tenderness over the entire abdomen, and auscultation revealed no bowel sound. Which of the following therapeutic measures is absolutely contraindicated in this case?

    • Parenteral administration of an antipyretic

    • Nasogastric intubation and suction

    • Parenteral antibiotic therapy

    • SC administration of neostigmine

    • IV administration of fluid and electrolytes

    Correct Answer
    A. SC administration of neostigmine
    Explanation
    Answer: D.
    The signs and symptoms of the patient strongly suggest the diagnosis of adynamic ileus, due to
    intraperitoneal infection (see the high grade fever). Ileus means paralysis of the gut. When this
    paralysis is due only to a lack of autonomic neurotransmission (as in most cases of postoperative
    ileus), a drug that increases the levels of acetylcholine can help to restore the motor activity of the
    gut. On the other hand, when the paralysis is due to obstruction or inflammation of the gut,
    cholinergic drugs are absolutely contraindicated since to increase the gut motility in these
    conditions can exacerbate the inflammation and lead to the perforation of the intestine.
    A, B, C, E) All these therapeutic measures are indicated in case of ileus due to intraperitoneal
    infection.

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  • 4. 

    A 74-year-old man complained to his physician of an increasing memory impairment over the past 2 months. He also referred that he had increasing difficulty in recognizing familiar objects and in planning everyday activities like shopping. Physical examination revealed no neurological deficits, but the man performed very poorly in the Folstein Mini- Mental Status Exam. The physician prescribed a drug which might help to slow the progression of the patient’s symptoms. Which of the following statements best explains the central mechanism of action of that drug?

    • Inhibition of norepinephrine reuptake

    • Stimulation of norepinephrine release

    • Blockade of Nn receptors

    • Inhibition of cholinesterase

    • Blockade of M1 receptors

    • Inhibition of choline acetyltransferase

    Correct Answer
    A. Inhibition of cholinesterase
    Explanation
    Answer: D
    The symptoms of the patient and the results of the Mini-Mental Status Exam indicate that he is
    most likely in the early stages of Alzheimer’s disease (AD). To date no drugs are available that can
    alt or reverse the progression of the disease, but drug are approved for the treatment of memory
    deficit associated with the AD. Acetylcholine is significantly reduced in AD and drugs that can
    increase its levels in the brain have shown moderate success in slowing down the progression of
    the disease.
    Donepezil selectively inhibits cholinesterase in the CNS with less effect on cholinesterase in
    peripheral tissues and was most likely the drug prescribed by the physician.
    A, B, C, E, F) (see explanation above)

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  • 5. 

    A 54-year-old woman presented to the hospital because of a gradual onset of a scratchy sensation on both eyes and an extreme dryness of the mouth and lips. Lab exams showed elevated levels of antibodies against gamma-globulin. A diagnosis of Sjögren’s syndrome was made and a drug was prescribed to relieve patient’s xerostomia. Which of the following drugs was most likely administered?

    • Acetylcholine

    • Phenylephrine

    • Prazosin

    • Donepezil

    • Pilocarpine

    Correct Answer
    A. Pilocarpine
    Explanation
    Answer: E
    Sjögren’s syndrome is a diffuse connective tissue disease in which lymphocytes infiltrate mucosal
    and other tissues. Lymphocytic infiltration in salivary glands causes gland atrophy. Saliva
    diminishes, resulting in extreme dryness of the mouth and lips. If glands are not severely
    atrophied, pilocarpine can be used to stimulate salivary production.
    A) Acetylcholine is not used for systemic therapy, because of its very short duration of action.
    B, C, D) These drugs have little effects on salivary production.

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  • 6. 

    A 62-year-old man suffering from open-angle glaucoma has been receiving an ophthalmic medication (one drop four times a day) for one month. The disease is well controlled but now the man complains of brow ache and difficulty in far vision and in poor light. Which of the following drugs was most likely administered?

    • Pilocarpine

    • Timolol

    • Apraclonidine

    • Epinephrine

    • Phenylephrine

    • Neostigmine

    Correct Answer
    A. Pilocarpine
    Explanation
    Answer: A
    Pilocarpine is a cholinergic agonist that activates only M1, M2 and M3 receptors (activation of
    nicotinic receptors is negligible). Activation of M3 receptors in the ciliary muscle causes
    cyclospasm which in turn increases the lens curvature. The eye is accommodated for near vision
    and far vision becomes difficult. Activation of M3 receptors in the sphincter muscle of iris causes
    miosis which impairs the vision in poor light.
    B, C) These drugs decrease the production of aqueous humor but have negligible effect on
    accommodation.
    D, E) These drugs activate alpha-1 receptors in the radial muscle of iris. This would cause
    mydriasis which would favor, not impair, the vision in poor light.
    F) Neostigmine is a cholinesterase inhibitor that could have caused effect similar to those of
    pilocarpine. However it has been approved only for the treatment of myasthenia gravis and of
    some gastrointestinal and urological problems. It is not used to treat glaucoma.

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  • 7. 

    A 55-year-old man, recently diagnosed with myasthenia gravis, was treated with a cholinesterase inhibitor and with a second drug which should antagonize some of the adverse effects of the first one. Which of the following pairs of drugs were most likely given?

    • Physostigmine and atropine

    • Neostigmine and atropine

    • Neostigmine and pralidoxime

    • Donepezil and atropine

    • Physostigmine and pralidoxime

    Correct Answer
    A. Neostigmine and atropine
    Explanation
    Answer: B
    Neostigmine is a drug of choice for myasthenia gravis. The drug increases the availability of
    acetylcholine at the motor end plate and it can also activate directly Nm receptors. Both actions
    contributes to the therapeutic effect of improvement of skeletal muscle strength. Neostigmine
    increases the availability of acetylcholine at all cholinergic synapses and can therefore elicits
    muscarinic effects, mainly in the gastrointestinal tract. In order to block these unwanted effects
    atropine is often given concurrently.
    A, D) These cholinesterase inhibitors are not used in myasthenic patients since they enter the
    brain and can cause central adverse effects.
    C, E) Pralidoxime is a cholinesterase regenerator used only in case of poisoning by
    organophosphates.

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  • 8. 

    A 42-year-old man was brought to the emergency department because of severe vomiting and diarrhea which initiated about one hour after meal. The patient showed profuse salivation, lacrimation and wheezing. His skin was warm and moist, and pupils were miotic. Skeletal muscle movements were normal. Blood pressure was 80/50 mm Hg, pulse 46/min. Poisoning of this patient was most likely due to which of the following agents?

    • Muscarine-containing mushrooms

    • Nicotine-containing insecticide

    • Organophosphate containing insecticide

    • Atropine-containing mushrooms

    • Carbamate-containing insecticide

    Correct Answer
    A. Muscarine-containing mushrooms
    Explanation
    Answer: A
    The signs and symptoms of the patients are consistent with the diagnosis of muscarine poisoning.
    High concentrations of muscarine are present in various species of Inocybe and Clitocybe
    mushrooms and poisoning is not exceptional because of the habit to consume wild mushrooms.
    The symptoms of muscarine intoxication start within one hour after the ingestion and are all
    attributable to activation of muscarinic receptors.
    B) Nicotine poisoning results from the activation, and later the blockade, of Nn and Nm receptors.
    Activation of Nn receptors in ganglia and adrenal medulla causes increase in sympathetic firing
    and increased release of norepinephrine. Early signs include cold sweat, rapid and irregular pulse
    and hypertension, followed by hypotension and collapse. Moreover the activation of Nm receptors
    at the motor end plate would cause muscle paralysis due to depolarization blockade.
    C) Poisoning by organophosphates causes all symptoms due to activation of muscarinic receptors,
    but in addition there are also symptoms due to activation of nicotinic receptors (ie. skeletal muscle
    paralysis due to depolarization blockade).
    D) Some mushroom species contain atropine. The symptoms of atropine poisoning are due to
    blockade of muscarinic receptors, so are the opposite of those exhibited by the patient.
    E) Carbamate insecticides are reversible cholinesterase inhibitors. Symptoms of poisoning by
    these agents are the same as the symptoms of poisoning by organophosphates.

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  • 9. 

    A 23-year-old man told his physician that he had frequent and painful bowel movements. The man, recently diagnosed with myasthenia gravis, started a treatment with neostigmine few days previously. Which of the following complains could also be expected by the patient?

    • Photophobia

    • Overflow incontinence

    • Palpitations

    • Sweating

    • Drowsiness

    Correct Answer
    A. Sweating
    Explanation
    Answer: D
    All cholinesterase inhibitors (neostigmine, physostigmine, organophosphates ,etc.) increase the
    amount of acetylcholine available at cholinergic synapses, so causing both muscarinic and
    nicotinic effects. Sweat glands are sympathetically innervated but the neurotransmitter is
    acetylcholine. Therefore sweating can be an adverse effect of neostigmine administration..
    A) Acetylcholine causes miosis, so photophobia is unlikely.
    B) Overflow incontinence is due to relaxation of the detrusor muscle. Acetylcholine contract the
    detrusor muscle, which in turn can cause urge, not overflow, incontinence.
    C) Acetylcholine tends to cause bradycardia, so palpitations are unlikely.
    E) An increase availability of acetylcholine in the brain causes mainly excitatory effects (unless
    huge concentrations are present) so drowsiness is unlikely.

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  • 10. 

    A 35-year-old farmer was brought to the emergency room complaining of severe abdominal cramps, vomiting and excess salivation. His skin was flushed, warm, and moist to the touch. He stated that he was working in his field with an organophosphate pesticide. Which of the following mechanisms best explains the cause of the flushed skin in this patient?

    • Increased firing of efferent vagal fibers

    • Activation of Nn receptors on autonomic ganglia

    • Activation of M2 autoreceptors

    • Inhibition of norepinephrine release from adrenergic terminals

    • NO-induced increase in cGMP

    Correct Answer
    A. NO-induced increase in cGMP
    Explanation
    Answer: E
    The signs and symptoms of the patients are consistent with the diagnosis of organophosphate
    poisoning and are all due to an excessive amount of acetylcholine at the synaptic cleft of
    cholinergic terminals. The arteriolar vasodilation that causes the flushed skin is mainly due to the
    acetylcholine induced activation of non innervated M3 receptors which in turn trigger the release of
    NO. NO acts by increasing the synthesis of cGMP which is a powerful smooth muscle relaxant.
    A) By activating Nn receptors on autonomic ganglia acetylcholine can increase the firing of
    efferent vagal fibers, but this cannot explain the flushed skin (in fact this activation increases the
    firing of sympathetic fibers too).
    B) (see explanation above)
    C) Activation of presynaptic M2 receptors actually causes a decrease of acetylcholine release from
    cholinergic terminals.
    D) Acetylcholine can inhibit the release of norepinephrine from adrenergic terminals (by activating
    M2 receptors) but this is not the main action that causes the flushed skin.

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  • 11. 

    A 63-year-old man recently diagnosed with open angle glaucoma started a treatment which included pilocarpine eye drops. Which of the following is most likely the main site of the therapeutic action of this drug?

    • Ciliary epithelium

    • Radial muscle of iris

    • Ciliary muscle

    • Uveal vessels

    • Zonula fibers

    • Sphincter muscle of iris

    • Lateral rectus muscle

    Correct Answer
    A. Ciliary muscle
    Explanation
    Answer: C
    By activating M3 receptors in the eye pilocarpine constricts the ciliary muscle. which in turn opens
    the pores of the trabecular meshwork, so facilitating the outflow of the aqueous humor into the
    Schlemm’s canal. In this way intraocular pressure is decreased.
    F) Pilocarpine constricts the sphincter muscle of iris so causing miosis, but miosis is not related to
    the decrease in intraocular pressure.
    A, B, D , E, G) Pilocarpine action on these structures is negligible.

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  • 12. 

    A 81-year-old woman underwent ocular surgery for cataract extraction. Upon completion of the surgery she received a drug that is able to lower the intraocular pressure by activating both Nn and M3 receptors. Which of the following drugs was most likely administered?

    • Pilocarpine

    • Timolol

    • Bethanechol

    • Carbachol

    • Apraclonidine

    Correct Answer
    A. Carbachol
    Explanation
    Answer: D
    Carbachol is currently used to lower intraocular pressure after cataract extraction. This is
    accomplished by contracting the ciliary muscle, which in turn opens the pores of the trabecular
    meshwork, so facilitating the outflow of the aqueous humor into the Schlemm’s canal. Ciliary
    muscle receives mainly a parasympathetic innervation and the receptors on the muscle membrane
    are M3. By activating those receptors as well as the Nn receptors on parasympathetic ganglia
    carbachol can enhance significantly the parasympathetic activity.
    A) C) Pilocarpine an bethanechol can lower intraocular pressure by activating M3 receptors but
    are devoid of significant activity on Nn receptors.
    B, E) Timolol and apraclonidine can reduce aqueous humor production but have negligible effect
    on aqueous humor outflow.

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  • 13. 

    A 58-year-old man resident in a nursing facility was recently diagnosed with urinary incontinence and a treatment with bethanechol was prescribed. Which of the following actions most likely mediated the therapeutic effectiveness of the drug in this patient?

    • Increased tone of bladder sphincter

    • Decreased ureteral peristalsis

    • Decreased compliance of the bladder

    • Decreased diuresis

    • Increased tone of prostate capsule

    • Increased tone of bladder trigone

    Correct Answer
    A. Decreased compliance of the bladder
    Explanation
    Answer: C
    Bethanechol is a cholinergic agonist which activates mainly M3 receptors. This activation causes a
    contraction of the detrusor muscle of the bladder and therefore the amount of bladder space that
    can be filled (i.e. the distensibility of the bladder, that is its compliance) is decreased
    A, B, F) Actually activation of M3 receptors causes effects opposite to those described
    D) Diuresis refers to the production of urine by the kidney. Bethanechol does not affect diuresis.
    E) The prostate capsule has mainly alpha-1 receptors. Anyhow an increased tone of prostate
    capsule would hinder the voiding of the bladder.

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  • 14. 

    A 63-year-old woman underwent total abdominal hysterectomy to remove an endometrial carcinoma. General anesthesia was induced with thiopental sodium, maintained with halothane and nitrous oxide, and supplemented with tubocurarine. Which of the following drugs did the patient most likely receive after the operation, in order to reverse the skeletal muscle paralysis?

    • Physostigmine

    • Edrophonium

    • Neostigmine

    • Bethanechol

    • Pralidoxime

    Correct Answer
    A. Neostigmine
    Explanation
    Answer: C
    Reversible cholinesterase inhibitors are currently used to reverse the paralysis induced by
    nondepolarizing neuromuscular blocking drugs, like tubocurarine. This drug blocks Nm receptors
    at the motor end plate while acetylcholine activates these receptors. The two drugs competitively
    antagonize each other and an increase availability of acetylcholine at the motor end plate can
    therefore reverse the muscle paralysis induced by tubocurarine. Neostigmine is the preferred drug
    since it does not enter the brain and it is therefore free of central adverse effects.
    A) Physostigmine is not indicated since it can cross the blood brain barrier.
    B) Edrophonium is not indicated since it has a very short duration of action (its half-life is 1-10 min)
    C, E) These drugs do not act at Nm receptors.

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  • 15. 

    A 45-year-old man was admitted to the emergency room because of extreme muscle weakness, ptosis, diplopia, difficulty in swallowing, speaking and breathing. The man, recently diagnosed with severe myasthenia gravis has been receiving neostigmine for the past three months. Which of the following responses to 2 mg edrophonium IV would indicate a cholinergic crisis?

    • No fasciculations, increased muscle strength

    • Fasciculations, decreased muscle strength

    • No fasciculations, no change in muscle strength

    • No fasciculations, decreased muscle strength

    • Fasciculations, increased muscle strength

    Correct Answer
    A. Fasciculations, decreased muscle strength
    Explanation
    Answer: B
    Myasthenic patients under treatment with cholinesterase inhibitors may exhibit decrease muscle
    strength, because of an excessive concentration of acetylcholine that causes depolarization
    blockade of the motor end plate. This is called cholinergic crisis. On the other hand, these patients
    may also exhibit decrease muscle strength because of a sudden exacerbation of the disease. This
    is called myasthenic crisis. Edrophonium can be used to distinguish between the two syndromes.
    In fact ,in case of cholinergic crisis edrophonium administration will produce no relief or worsen the
    syndrome. (a decrease in muscle strength) whereas in case of myasthenic crisis the drug will
    improve the syndrome (an increase in muscle strength).
    Moreover an edrophonium-induced decrease of muscle strength is accompanied by fasciculations
    (brief muscle contractions before the paralysis) since acetylcholine activates nicotinic receptors,
    whereas an increase in muscle strength is not accompanied by fasciculations.
    A, C, D , E) (see explanation above)

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  • Current Version
  • Mar 20, 2023
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • Jun 03, 2012
    Quiz Created by
    Chachelly

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