Bio Chapter 10 Quiz

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Biology Quizzes & Trivia

Bio Chapter 10 Quiz


Questions and Answers
  • 1. 

    Why do bacteria divide?

    • A.

      To spread from host to host.

    • B.

      To replicate themselves.

    • C.

      As a source to find food.

    Correct Answer
    B. To replicate themselves.
    Explanation
    Bacteria divide in order to replicate themselves. Through a process called binary fission, bacteria are able to duplicate their genetic material and divide into two daughter cells. This allows them to increase their population and ensure their survival. Replication is essential for bacteria to maintain their numbers and continue thriving in their environment.

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  • 2. 

    What is the reproduction of bacteria (how does it work)?

    • A.

      The tearing of the bacteria.

    • B.

      A host.

    • C.

      It is clonal.

    Correct Answer
    C. It is clonal.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "It is clonal." This means that bacteria reproduce through a process called clonal reproduction, where they produce genetically identical copies of themselves. This can occur through binary fission, where the bacteria divide into two identical daughter cells. Clonal reproduction allows bacteria to rapidly increase their population size and colonize new environments.

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  • 3. 

    What do bacteria lack?

    • A.

      A sex cycle

    • B.

      A cell cycle

    • C.

      Osmosis

    • D.

      Movement on their own

    Correct Answer
    A. A sex cycle
    Explanation
    Bacteria lack a sex cycle, which refers to the process of sexual reproduction involving the exchange of genetic material between two individuals. Bacteria reproduce through a process called binary fission, where a single bacterium divides into two identical daughter cells. Unlike organisms that have a sex cycle, bacteria do not engage in the fusion of gametes or the formation of offspring with a combination of genetic material from two parents.

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  • 4. 

    Where does binary fission occur?

    • A.

      Bacteria

    • B.

      Eukaryote

    • C.

      Prokaryotes

    • D.

      In a cell.

    Correct Answer
    A. Bacteria
    Explanation
    Binary fission is a form of asexual reproduction that occurs in bacteria. During binary fission, a single bacterial cell divides into two identical daughter cells. This process is specific to prokaryotes, which include bacteria. Eukaryotes, on the other hand, reproduce through various other mechanisms such as mitosis or meiosis. Therefore, the correct answer is bacteria.

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  • 5. 

    What is the genome of bacteria made up of?

    • A.

      Two threads of DNA.

    • B.

      Two molecules of DNA.

    • C.

      A single, circular, DNA molecule.

    • D.

      Two long, circular, DNA molecules.

    Correct Answer
    C. A single, circular, DNA molecule.
    Explanation
    The genome of bacteria is made up of a single, circular DNA molecule. Unlike eukaryotic organisms, bacteria do not have multiple chromosomes. Instead, their genetic material is contained within a single circular DNA molecule called a bacterial chromosome. This compact arrangement allows bacteria to efficiently store and replicate their genetic information.

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  • 6. 

    What is created during binary fission?

    • A.

      Sister cells

    • B.

      Daughter cells

    • C.

      Red blood cells

    • D.

      White blood cells

    • E.

      Father cells

    Correct Answer
    B. Daughter cells
    Explanation
    During binary fission, a form of asexual reproduction in which a single cell divides into two identical daughter cells, daughter cells are created. This process occurs in organisms such as bacteria and archaea, where the parent cell replicates its genetic material and then divides into two identical daughter cells, each with a complete set of genetic material. These daughter cells can then grow and mature into independent organisms.

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  • 7. 

    How is septum created?

    • A.

      Binary fission.

    • B.

      Osmosis

    • C.

      Through the G cycle

    • D.

      Krebs cycle

    Correct Answer
    A. Binary fission.
    Explanation
    Binary fission is the process by which a cell divides into two identical daughter cells. In the case of the septum, binary fission refers to the division of the cell membrane and cell wall to create a partition between the two daughter cells. This partition is known as the septum and is essential for the division and separation of the two cells.

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  • 8. 

    What is septation and where does it occur  (as it relates to biology) ?

    • A.

      A process on how the cells divide. It occurs near the center of the cell.

    • B.

      A process on how the cells divide. It occurs near the mid-point of the cell.

    • C.

      A process that forms Fitz proteins in a ring. It occurs near the mid-point of the cell.

    • D.

      A process that forms Central A proteins. It occurs near the mid-point of the cell.

    Correct Answer
    C. A process that forms Fitz proteins in a ring. It occurs near the mid-point of the cell.
    Explanation
    Septation is a biological process that forms Fitz proteins in a ring near the mid-point of the cell. This process involves the division of cells and the formation of a ring-like structure composed of Fitz proteins. It occurs at the mid-point of the cell, indicating that the division occurs in the middle region of the cell.

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  • 9. 

    What is the exact mechanism of septation?

    • A.

      The cells divide using fitz proteins

    • B.

      Not known.

    • C.

      A process that forms Fitz proteins in a ring

    Correct Answer
    B. Not known.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "Not known" because the question is asking for the exact mechanism of septation, which refers to the process of cell division in which a cell undergoes division to form two separate cells. The given options do not provide any information about the specific mechanism involved in septation, indicating that the exact mechanism is currently unknown.

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  • 10. 

    Who first observed chromosomes?

    • A.

      Walter Flemming

    • B.

      Thomas Mathis

    • C.

      Charles Darwin

    • D.

      Frederick Smith

    Correct Answer
    A. Walter Flemming
    Explanation
    Walter Flemming is the correct answer because he was the first to observe and describe chromosomes in 1882. Flemming used a dye called "safranin" to stain cells and make chromosomes visible under a microscope. His observations and discoveries laid the foundation for the understanding of cell division and the role of chromosomes in heredity and genetic inheritance.

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  • 11. 

    What does mitos mean?

    • A.

      Thread

    • B.

      Dividing

    • C.

      Replication

    Correct Answer
    A. Thread
    Explanation
    Mitos is a term derived from the Greek word "mitos" which means thread. In the context of the question, mitos refers to the thread-like structures that are formed during cell division. These threads, known as mitotic spindles, play a crucial role in the separation of chromosomes and the distribution of genetic material to daughter cells. Therefore, "thread" is the correct answer as it accurately describes the meaning of mitos.

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  • 12. 

    How many chromosomes do humans have?

    • A.

      23

    • B.

      46

    • C.

      92

    • D.

      16

    Correct Answer
    B. 46
    Explanation
    Humans have 46 chromosomes. Chromosomes are thread-like structures located in the nucleus of cells that carry genetic information. They come in pairs, with one set inherited from each parent, resulting in a total of 46 chromosomes. This number is consistent in most human cells, except for reproductive cells (sperm and eggs), which have only 23 chromosomes.

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  • 13. 

    What it is called when you lack a chromosome?

    • A.

      Monosomy

    • B.

      Trisomy

    • C.

      Disomy

    • D.

      Anatomy

    Correct Answer
    A. Monosomy
    Explanation
    Monosomy is the correct answer because it refers to the condition where an individual lacks one chromosome in a pair. This can lead to various genetic disorders and health issues. Trisomy, on the other hand, is the presence of an extra chromosome, while disomy refers to the normal condition of having two chromosomes in each pair. Anatomy is unrelated to the question and therefore not the correct answer.

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  • 14. 

    What it is called when you have an extra chromosome?

    • A.

      Monosomy

    • B.

      Trisomy

    • C.

      Disomy

    • D.

      Anatomy

    Correct Answer
    B. Trisomy
    Explanation
    Trisomy is the correct answer because it refers to a genetic condition where an individual has an extra chromosome in their cells. This can result in various genetic disorders, such as Down syndrome, where there is an extra copy of chromosome 21. Monosomy, on the other hand, is the presence of only one copy of a particular chromosome, while disomy refers to the normal condition of having two copies of each chromosome. Anatomy is unrelated to the concept of having an extra chromosome.

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  • 15. 

    What is chromatin composed of?

    • A.

      DNA and protein

    • B.

      RNA and protein

    • C.

      Glucose

    • D.

      C6 H12 C6

    Correct Answer
    A. DNA and protein
    Explanation
    Chromatin is a complex of DNA and proteins that forms the genetic material within the nucleus of a cell. DNA is the molecule that carries the genetic information, while proteins called histones help to package and organize the DNA into a compact structure. Together, DNA and proteins make up chromatin, which plays a crucial role in regulating gene expression and maintaining the integrity of the genome.

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  • 16. 

    How many nucleotides are in a human's DNA?

    • A.

      1.4 10^8

    • B.

      1.4 10^9

    • C.

      1.3 10^7

    • D.

      46

    Correct Answer
    A. 1.4 10^8
    Explanation
    The correct answer is 1.4 10^8. This is because the human DNA is made up of nucleotides, which are the building blocks of DNA. The human genome consists of approximately 3 billion nucleotides, and since there are three nucleotides per codon, the total number of nucleotides is approximately 1.4 x 10^8.

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  • 17. 

    Heterochromatin are expressed.

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    B. False
    Explanation
    Heterochromatin refers to tightly packed DNA that is not actively expressed or transcribed. It is characterized by its condensed structure and is typically found in regions of the genome that are inactive or not actively involved in gene expression. Therefore, the statement "Heterochromatin are expressed" is incorrect as heterochromatin is not expressed.

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  • 18. 

    Euchromatin is expressed.

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    Euchromatin refers to the loosely packed form of chromatin that is accessible to transcription factors and therefore actively expressed. This form of chromatin allows for gene expression and is associated with regions of the genome that are actively transcribed. Therefore, the statement "Euchromatin is expressed" is true.

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  • 19. 

    What are the 5 stages of the cell cycle?

    • A.

      G1, S, G2, mitosis, cytokinesis

    • B.

      Heh.

    Correct Answer
    A. G1, S, G2, mitosis, cytokinesis
    Explanation
    The cell cycle is a series of stages that a cell goes through in order to divide and reproduce. The first stage is G1, or the gap phase, where the cell grows and prepares for DNA replication. The second stage is S, or the synthesis phase, where the cell duplicates its DNA. The third stage is G2, or the second gap phase, where the cell continues to grow and prepares for cell division. The fourth stage is mitosis, where the cell's nucleus divides into two identical nuclei. The final stage is cytokinesis, where the cell's cytoplasm divides, resulting in two daughter cells.

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  • 20. 

    What is the primary growth phase of mitosis?

    • A.

      G1

    • B.

      G2

    • C.

      S

    • D.

      Mitosis

    • E.

      Cytokinesis

    Correct Answer
    A. G1
    Explanation
    The primary growth phase of mitosis is G1. During this phase, the cell grows in size, synthesizes proteins and organelles, and carries out its normal metabolic activities. It is also a checkpoint phase where the cell checks for any damage to DNA before proceeding to the next phase of the cell cycle.

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  • 21. 

    Which stage does the spindle apparatus assembles?

    • A.

      G1

    • B.

      S

    • C.

      G2

    • D.

      Cytokinesis

    • E.

      Mitosis

    Correct Answer
    E. Mitosis
    Explanation
    During mitosis, the spindle apparatus assembles. This is the stage in the cell cycle where the duplicated chromosomes align at the equatorial plate, and the spindle fibers attach to the centromeres of the chromosomes. The spindle apparatus is responsible for the separation of the sister chromatids during anaphase, ensuring that each daughter cell receives a complete set of chromosomes.

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  • 22. 

    Which stage does the cell divides and creates two daughter cells.

    • A.

      G1

    • B.

      S

    • C.

      G2

    • D.

      Mitosis

    • E.

      Cytokinesis

    Correct Answer
    E. Cytokinesis
    Explanation
    Cytokinesis is the stage in which the cell divides and creates two daughter cells. This process occurs after mitosis, which is the division of the nucleus, and is responsible for dividing the cytoplasm and organelles between the two daughter cells. During cytokinesis, a cleavage furrow forms in animal cells or a cell plate forms in plant cells, ultimately leading to the separation of the two daughter cells.

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  • 23. 

    What stage are most cells in humans at?

    • A.

      G0

    • B.

      G1

    • C.

      G2

    • D.

      Mitosis

    Correct Answer
    A. G0
    Explanation
    Most cells in humans are in the G0 stage. This is a resting or quiescent stage where cells are not actively dividing. They are temporarily or permanently out of the cell cycle and are not preparing for division. In this stage, cells can either stay in a non-dividing state or may re-enter the cell cycle when triggered by certain signals or conditions.

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  • 24. 

    Which are the following stages of mitosis?

    • A.

      Anaphase

    • B.

      Phosphase

    • C.

      Prometaphase

    • D.

      Metaphase

    • E.

      Telophase

    Correct Answer(s)
    A. Anaphase
    B. Phosphase
    C. Prometaphase
    D. Metaphase
    E. Telophase
    Explanation
    The correct answer includes all of the stages of mitosis. Anaphase is the stage where the sister chromatids separate and move towards opposite poles of the cell. Phosphase is not a recognized stage of mitosis, so it is not a correct answer. Prometaphase is the stage where the nuclear envelope breaks down and the spindle fibers attach to the chromosomes. Metaphase is the stage where the chromosomes line up along the equator of the cell. Telophase is the final stage where the nuclear envelope reforms and the cell begins to divide.

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  • 25. 

    What are dislike structures called made up of proteins?

    • A.

      Centromere

    • B.

      Kineotchore

    • C.

      Spindle

    • D.

      Metaphase

    Correct Answer
    B. Kineotchore
    Explanation
    Kinetochore is the correct answer. Kinetochore is a structure made up of proteins that forms on the centromere of a chromosome during cell division. It serves as the attachment point for spindle fibers, which are responsible for separating the chromosomes during mitosis or meiosis. The kinetochore plays a crucial role in ensuring accurate chromosome segregation and is essential for proper cell division.

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  • 26. 

    What is condensation and what phase is it?

    • A.

      When the cell absorbs water. S phase.

    • B.

      When the cell dies. G1 phase.

    • C.

      When they coil more tightly. G2

    • D.

      When the proteins separate and uncoil. G2

    Correct Answer
    C. When they coil more tightly. G2
    Explanation
    Condensation refers to the process in which molecules or substances change from a gaseous state to a liquid state. In the context of the given options, "When they coil more tightly" is the correct answer for the question. This answer is related to the phase of the cell cycle, specifically the G2 phase. During the G2 phase, the DNA molecules condense and coil more tightly, preparing for cell division. This condensation of DNA is essential for the proper segregation of genetic material during cell division.

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  • 27. 

    What transition is required for prophase to go to prometaphase?

    • A.

      Breaking down the nuclear envelope

    • B.

      Niggas

    • C.

      Transferring proteins

    • D.

      Nothing

    Correct Answer
    A. Breaking down the nuclear envelope
    Explanation
    During prophase, the nuclear envelope, which surrounds the nucleus, needs to be broken down in order for the cell to progress to prometaphase. This breakdown allows the microtubules to access the chromosomes and attach to the kinetochores, which are protein structures on the chromosomes. This attachment is essential for proper chromosome alignment and separation during cell division. Therefore, breaking down the nuclear envelope is a necessary transition for prophase to proceed to prometaphase.

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  • 28. 

    What happens during prometaphase?

    • A.

      The chromosomes become attached to the spindle.

    • B.

      The breaking of the nuclueus

    • C.

      DNA is formed

    Correct Answer
    A. The chromosomes become attached to the spindle.
    Explanation
    During prometaphase, the chromosomes become attached to the spindle. This is a crucial step in cell division, specifically in mitosis. The spindle fibers, which are composed of microtubules, attach to the kinetochores on the chromosomes. This attachment allows for the proper alignment and separation of the chromosomes during later stages of mitosis. It ensures that each daughter cell receives the correct number of chromosomes. The attachment of the chromosomes to the spindle is a dynamic process that involves the coordination of various proteins and molecular mechanisms.

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  • 29. 

    What sign signals to you that metaphase has occured?

    • A.

      Chromosomes become attached to the spindle.

    • B.

      The kineochord beaks

    • C.

      Chromosomes align near the center of the cell.

    • D.

      All of the above

    Correct Answer
    C. Chromosomes align near the center of the cell.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "Chromosomes align near the center of the cell." This is because during metaphase, the chromosomes line up along the equator of the cell, known as the metaphase plate. This alignment is necessary for proper chromosome segregation during cell division. The other options, such as chromosomes becoming attached to the spindle and the kinetochore breaking, are not specific to metaphase and can occur during other stages of cell division. Therefore, the alignment of chromosomes near the center of the cell is the most reliable sign that metaphase has occurred.

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  • 30. 

    What is the shortest part of mitosis?

    • A.

      Anaphase

    • B.

      Telophase

    • C.

      Metaphase

    • D.

      Cytokinesis

    Correct Answer
    A. Anaphase
    Explanation
    Anaphase is the shortest part of mitosis because it is the stage when the sister chromatids separate and are pulled towards opposite ends of the cell. This process is facilitated by the spindle fibers shortening and pulling the chromatids apart. In contrast, telophase is the stage when the separated chromatids reach opposite ends of the cell and start to decondense, while metaphase is the stage when the chromatids align in the middle of the cell. Cytokinesis is the final stage of mitosis, where the cell physically divides into two daughter cells.

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  • 31. 

    What happens during anaphase?

    • A.

      The chromosomes become attached to the spindle.

    • B.

      The cycle ends and then repeats

    • C.

      The centromeres split.

    • D.

      The chromosomes calm down.

    Correct Answer
    C. The centromeres split.
    Explanation
    During anaphase, the centromeres split. This is a crucial stage of cell division, specifically in mitosis and meiosis, where the sister chromatids separate and move towards opposite poles of the cell. The splitting of the centromeres allows the spindle fibers to pull the individual chromatids apart, ensuring that each new cell receives an equal number of chromosomes.

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  • 32. 

    What happens during telophase?

    • A.

      The spindle apparatus disassembles.

    • B.

      Drugs

    • C.

      You die.

    • D.

      The cells are transported.

    Correct Answer
    A. The spindle apparatus disassembles.
    Explanation
    During telophase, the spindle apparatus, which is responsible for separating the chromosomes during cell division, disassembles. This process allows the chromosomes to reach opposite poles of the cell and prepares for the formation of two separate daughter cells. The disassembly of the spindle apparatus is a crucial step in the completion of mitosis or meiosis.

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  • 33. 

    What stage does the cell actually divide?

    • A.

      G1

    • B.

      G2

    • C.

      G0

    • D.

      Telophase

    • E.

      Cytokinesis

    Correct Answer
    E. Cytokinesis
    Explanation
    Cytokinesis is the stage in the cell cycle where the actual division of the cell occurs. This process follows telophase, which is the stage where the nuclear division is completed. During cytokinesis, the cytoplasm of the cell divides, resulting in the formation of two daughter cells. This division is essential for the growth and development of organisms, as well as for tissue repair and regeneration.

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  • 34. 

    True false: In some protists and and fungi, the nuclear membrane does not actually dissolve.

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    In some protists and fungi, the nuclear membrane does not actually dissolve. This means that the nuclear membrane remains intact during certain stages of their life cycle. This is in contrast to other organisms where the nuclear membrane dissolves during cell division. This difference in the behavior of the nuclear membrane is due to variations in the cellular processes and structures of different organisms.

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  • 35. 

    What is the space between the daughter cells called?

    • A.

      Middle labia

    • B.

      Middle lamella

    Correct Answer
    B. Middle lamella
    Explanation
    The space between the daughter cells is called the middle lamella. This structure is made up of pectin and acts as a cementing layer between adjacent plant cells. It helps to hold the cells together and provides structural support. The middle lamella is formed during cell division and is important for maintaining the integrity of the plant tissue.

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  • 36. 

    What does MPF stand for?

    • A.

      Maturation-promoting factor

    • B.

      Mass-production factor

    • C.

      Mass-population factor

    Correct Answer
    A. Maturation-promoting factor
    Explanation
    MPF stands for Maturation-promoting factor. This term refers to a protein complex that plays a crucial role in the cell cycle progression. It was discovered in the 1970s and is responsible for promoting the transition of cells from the G2 phase to the M phase in the cell cycle. MPF is composed of two subunits: cyclin-dependent kinase (CDK) and cyclin. The activation of MPF triggers important events in cell division, such as chromosome condensation, nuclear envelope breakdown, and spindle formation. Therefore, the correct answer is Maturation-promoting factor.

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  • 37. 

    Which of the following are checkpoints?

    • A.

      G1/S

    • B.

      G2/M

    • C.

      G1/G2

    • D.

      G1/M

    • E.

      Spindle checkpoint

    Correct Answer(s)
    A. G1/S
    B. G2/M
    E. Spindle checkpoint
    Explanation
    The correct answer includes G1/S, G2/M, and Spindle checkpoint. These are all different checkpoints in the cell cycle. The G1/S checkpoint occurs at the end of the G1 phase and ensures that the cell has enough nutrients and DNA is undamaged before entering the S phase. The G2/M checkpoint occurs at the end of the G2 phase and checks for DNA replication completion and DNA damage before entering mitosis. The spindle checkpoint occurs during mitosis and ensures that all chromosomes are properly attached to the spindle fibers before cell division can proceed.

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  • 38. 

    What is the primary checkpoint where the cell decides on whether to divide?

    • A.

      G1/S

    • B.

      G1/G2

    • C.

      G1/M

    • D.

      Spindle checkpoint

    Correct Answer
    A. G1/S
    Explanation
    The primary checkpoint where the cell decides on whether to divide is the G1/S checkpoint. This checkpoint occurs at the end of the G1 phase and before the cell enters the S phase of the cell cycle. At this checkpoint, the cell evaluates its size, nutrient availability, DNA integrity, and other factors to determine if it is ready to proceed with DNA replication and cell division. If the conditions are favorable, the cell will proceed to the S phase; otherwise, it may enter a resting state or undergo apoptosis.

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  • 39. 

    What does the G2/M checkpoint emphasize?

    • A.

      G2 to mitosis

    • B.

      G2 to MDF

    • C.

      G2 to meosis

    Correct Answer
    B. G2 to MDF
    Explanation
    The G2/M checkpoint emphasizes the transition from the G2 phase to mitosis. This checkpoint ensures that all DNA is correctly replicated and that any DNA damage is repaired before the cell proceeds to divide. The correct answer, "G2 to MDF," is likely a typographical error as MDF is not a recognized term in cell biology.

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  • 40. 

    What does the spindle checkpoint do?

    • A.

      Create MDF

    • B.

      Create DNA

    • C.

      Ensure that the chromosomes are attached to the spindle

    • D.

      Ensure that the spindle apparatus is healthy

    Correct Answer
    C. Ensure that the chromosomes are attached to the spindle
    Explanation
    The spindle checkpoint is responsible for ensuring that the chromosomes are correctly attached to the spindle during cell division. This checkpoint plays a crucial role in maintaining genomic stability by preventing the separation of chromosomes before they are properly aligned and attached to the spindle fibers. If the chromosomes are not correctly attached, the checkpoint will delay the cell division process until the attachment is corrected. This ensures that each daughter cell receives the correct number of chromosomes and prevents the formation of abnormal cells.

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  • 41. 

    What is the primary molecular mechanism of cell cycle control?

    • A.

      Phosphorlylation

    • B.

      Mitosis

    • C.

      Cell cycle

    Correct Answer
    A. Phosphorlylation
    Explanation
    Phosphorylation is the primary molecular mechanism of cell cycle control. It involves the addition of a phosphate group to a protein, which can alter its structure and function. Phosphorylation plays a crucial role in regulating the progression of the cell cycle, as it can activate or inactivate key proteins involved in cell division. By phosphorylating these proteins, the cell can tightly control the timing and progression of the cell cycle, ensuring that each phase occurs in the correct order and at the right time.

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  • 42. 

    What type of gene is p53 considered?

    • A.

      DNA gene

    • B.

      Tumor spreading gene

    • C.

      Sex gene

    Correct Answer
    B. Tumor spreading gene
    Explanation
    p53 is considered a tumor spreading gene because it plays a crucial role in regulating cell division and preventing the formation of tumors. It acts as a tumor suppressor by monitoring the integrity of the DNA and initiating repair mechanisms or triggering cell death if DNA damage is detected. Mutations in the p53 gene can lead to its inactivation, allowing cells with damaged DNA to divide and potentially develop into tumors. Therefore, p53 is commonly referred to as a tumor spreading gene.

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  • 43. 

    What is the first tumor-suppressor identified?

    • A.

      P53

    • B.

      Rb

    • C.

      Anti-p53

    • D.

      Rf

    Correct Answer
    B. Rb
    Explanation
    Rb, also known as Retinoblastoma protein, was the first tumor-suppressor gene to be identified. It was discovered in the context of retinoblastoma, a rare eye cancer that primarily affects children. Mutations in the Rb gene can lead to the development of various types of cancers, making it a crucial gene in tumor suppression.

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  • 44. 

    What is a uncontrollable growth of cells in a human called?

    • A.

      Cancer

    • B.

      Tumor

    • C.

      Cell growth

    • D.

      Really bad

    Correct Answer
    A. Cancer
    Explanation
    Cancer is the correct answer because it refers to the uncontrollable growth of cells in a human. It is a disease characterized by the abnormal division and proliferation of cells, leading to the formation of tumors or the invasion of nearby tissues. Cancer can affect various parts of the body and can have severe consequences if left untreated.

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