Blood Bank Final

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| By Julie Huynh
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Julie Huynh
Community Contributor
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Blood Bank Final - Quiz

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Questions and Answers
  • 1. 

    What is a cold panel?

  • 2. 

    What are the four different mechanisms of drug induced red cell sensitization?

  • 3. 

    List those who are at risk for TA-GVHD

  • 4. 

    List the disease testing that is performed on ALL allogeneic donor units

  • 5. 

    If your patient is type AB, what type of plasma can they receive?

  • 6. 

    List 5 Different Factors that affect sensitization

  • 7. 

    List the three mechanisms that can cause weak D

  • 8. 

    What is the equation to calculate the number of RhIg needed?

  • 9. 

    Which major types of AIHA has a non reactive eluate?

    • A.

      WAIHA

    • B.

      COLD

    • C.

      MIXED

    • D.

      PCH

    Correct Answer(s)
    B. COLD
    D. PCH
    Explanation
    The major types of AIHA that have a non-reactive eluate are COLD and PCH. In COLD (cold agglutinin disease), the antibodies are activated by cold temperatures, causing red blood cells to clump together. However, the eluate, which is the fluid obtained from washed red blood cells, does not react with the antibodies. In PCH (paroxysmal cold hemoglobinuria), the antibodies are also activated by cold temperatures, leading to the destruction of red blood cells. Again, the eluate does not show reactivity with the antibodies.

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  • 10. 

    Which types of AIHA's show AHG reactivity

    • A.

      WARM

    • B.

      COLD

    • C.

      MIXED

    • D.

      PCH

    Correct Answer(s)
    A. WARM
    C. MIXED
    Explanation
    The types of AIHA's that show AHG reactivity are WARM and MIXED. WARM AIHA is characterized by the presence of warm-reacting autoantibodies that bind to red blood cells at body temperature. MIXED AIHA, on the other hand, is a combination of warm and cold-reacting autoantibodies. It is important to note that COLD AIHA and PCH (Paroxysmal Cold Hemoglobinuria) do not show AHG reactivity.

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  • 11. 

    Which type of hemolysis is destroyed in the bloodstream releasing hemoglobin into plasma?________

    Correct Answer(s)
    Intravascular
    Explanation
    Intravascular hemolysis refers to the destruction of red blood cells within the bloodstream, leading to the release of hemoglobin into the plasma. This can occur due to various factors such as autoimmune disorders, infections, or certain medications. The released hemoglobin can then be filtered by the kidneys, resulting in the presence of hemoglobin in the urine. Intravascular hemolysis can lead to anemia and other complications if not properly managed.

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  • 12. 

    Intact red cell is removed from circulation by RE system; coated with IgG

    • A.

      Intravascular

    • B.

      Extravascular

    Correct Answer
    B. Extravascular
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "Extravascular." This means that intact red cells, which are coated with IgG, are removed from circulation by the reticuloendothelial (RE) system outside of the blood vessels. This process occurs outside of the bloodstream, suggesting that the removal of these cells happens in tissues or organs rather than within the blood vessels themselves.

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  • 13. 

    • Most common @ 4C
    • Low titer @ 4C
      • <64 
      • Negative DAT 
      • Can interfere with ABO typing, Rh and DAT

    • A.

      Benign Cold Auto

    • B.

      Pathologic cold Auto

    • C.

      PCH

    Correct Answer
    A. Benign Cold Auto
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "Benign Cold Auto" because it is the most common type of cold autoantibody. It is characterized by a low titer at 4C (

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  • 14. 

    • Reactivity up to 32 C
    • Idiopathic
    • Spontaneous agglutination that disperses at 37
    • C3 only 
    • Only a problem with heart surgery - when temp is decreased 

    • A.

      Benign

    • B.

      Pathologic

    • C.

      PCH

    Correct Answer
    B. Pathologic
    Explanation
    The given answer "Pathologic" is the correct answer because it is the opposite of "Benign" which means that the condition described is not harmless or normal, but rather indicative of a disease or abnormality. The information provided in the question suggests that there is a problem with spontaneous agglutination that disperses at 37C, which is not a normal physiological response. Therefore, it can be concluded that the condition described is pathologic.

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  • 15. 

    What is associated with Mycoplasma pneumoniae

    • A.

      Benign cold auto

    • B.

      Pathologic cold auto

    • C.

      PCH

    Correct Answer
    B. Pathologic cold auto
    Explanation
    Mycoplasma pneumoniae is associated with Pathologic cold auto. Mycoplasma pneumoniae is a bacteria that causes respiratory infections, including pneumonia. Pathologic cold auto refers to the presence of cold agglutinins in the blood, which are antibodies that can cause the red blood cells to clump together at low temperatures. This can lead to complications such as anemia and circulation problems.

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  • 16. 

    PCH can be associated with...

    • A.

      Children

    • B.

      Viral infections

    • C.

      Age

    • D.

      Gender

    • E.

      Rapid intravascular hemolysis

    Correct Answer(s)
    A. Children
    B. Viral infections
    E. Rapid intravascular hemolysis
    Explanation
    PCH, or Paroxysmal Cold Hemoglobinuria, is a rare autoimmune disorder that is commonly associated with children. It is often triggered by viral infections, leading to the destruction of red blood cells and subsequent hemolysis. Rapid intravascular hemolysis, where red blood cells are destroyed within blood vessels, is also a characteristic feature of PCH. Age and gender may play a role in the susceptibility to PCH, but they are not exclusive factors associated with the condition.

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  • 17. 

    PCH reacts at less than ________ C

    Correct Answer(s)
    20
    Explanation
    The given statement suggests that PCH (possibly referring to a chemical compound or a physical process) undergoes a reaction at a temperature lower than 20 degrees Celsius.

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  • 18. 

    What can aid in the detection of warm autoantibodies

    • A.

      DAT

    • B.

      Panels

    • C.

      Eluates

    • D.

      Adsorptions

    Correct Answer(s)
    A. DAT
    B. Panels
    C. Eluates
    D. Adsorptions
    Explanation
    DAT (Direct Antiglobulin Test) is a laboratory test that aids in the detection of warm autoantibodies. Warm autoantibodies are antibodies that react with red blood cells at body temperature. Panels are also used for detecting warm autoantibodies, as they contain a variety of red blood cell samples to test for antibody reactions. Eluates are obtained by washing red blood cells and collecting the antibodies that are bound to them, which can be useful for identifying the specific warm autoantibodies. Adsorptions involve removing unwanted antibodies from the patient's serum, allowing for more accurate detection of warm autoantibodies.

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  • 19. 

    Prewarm testing is done to...

    • A.

      Remove the C3b

    • B.

      Determine whether there are leukocytes presesnt

    • C.

      Determine whether warm reacting antibodies are present in the serum that also contains complement binding cold antibody

    • D.

      Determines host versus graft

    Correct Answer
    C. Determine whether warm reacting antibodies are present in the serum that also contains complement binding cold antibody
    Explanation
    Prewarm testing is done to determine whether warm reacting antibodies are present in the serum that also contains complement binding cold antibody. This test helps in identifying the presence of antibodies that react at warmer temperatures and can cause adverse reactions in blood transfusions or organ transplants. By detecting these antibodies, healthcare professionals can take necessary precautions and select compatible blood or organs for transplantation to ensure the safety and success of the procedure.

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  • 20. 

    • Caused by antibodies in the host to the donors WCs
    • Give leuko reduced or washed, deglyced cells 
    • Can be pretreated with anti-pyretics
    • Increase in 1C without any causes

    • A.

      IHTR

    • B.

      TRALI

    • C.

      Febrile

    • D.

      DHTR

    Correct Answer
    C. Febrile
    Explanation
    Febrile reactions are caused by antibodies in the host to the donor's leuko reduced or washed, deglyced cells. These reactions can be pretreated with anti-pyretics. Febrile reactions are characterized by an increase in body temperature (1C) without any identifiable causes.

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  • 21. 

    Symptoms include: erythema, pruritis, hives IgEVery mild and non-life threateningTreat with benadryl

    • A.

      Febrile

    • B.

      TRALI

    • C.

      TACO

    • D.

      Allergic

    Correct Answer
    D. Allergic
    Explanation
    The symptoms described in the question, such as erythema, pruritis, and hives, are characteristic of an allergic reaction. The mention of IgE suggests that this reaction is mediated by immunoglobulin E, which is commonly involved in allergic responses. Additionally, the fact that the symptoms are described as very mild and non-life threatening indicates that this is likely an allergic reaction rather than a more severe condition like febrile, TRALI, or TACO. The suggested treatment of benadryl further supports the idea that this is an allergic reaction.

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  • 22. 

    • Symptoms: mild jaundice, fever and decrease hct/hgb
    • Anamnestic response - previously sensitized 
    • Extravascular 
    • No complement activation 
    • DAT positive
    • Occurs 3 - 7 days after transfusion

    • A.

      Immediate Hemolytic Transfusion Rxn

    • B.

      Febrile

    • C.

      Transfusion related acute lung Injury

    • D.

      Delayed Hemolytic Transfusion Rxn

    Correct Answer
    D. Delayed Hemolytic Transfusion Rxn
    Explanation
    The given symptoms of mild jaundice, fever, and decrease in hct/hgb suggest a delayed hemolytic transfusion reaction. This type of reaction occurs when the recipient has been previously sensitized to the donor's red blood cell antigens, leading to destruction of the transfused red blood cells. It is an extravascular reaction, meaning it occurs outside of the bloodstream. There is no complement activation in this type of reaction, and the direct antiglobulin test (DAT) is positive. Delayed hemolytic transfusion reactions typically occur 3-7 days after transfusion.

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  • 23. 

    • The transfusion of the donor's antibodies to the recipient white cells 
    • Complement is activated
    • Symptoms: chills, cough, fever, cyanosis, hypotension, increased respiratory distress
    • X-ray would show pulmonary edema
    • Give leuko reduced 

    • A.

      Immediate Hemolytic Transfusion Rxn

    • B.

      Delayed hemolytic transfusion rxn

    • C.

      Transfusion Related Acute Lung Injury

    • D.

      Anaphylactic

    Correct Answer
    C. Transfusion Related Acute Lung Injury
    Explanation
    Transfusion Related Acute Lung Injury (TRALI) is the correct answer because the symptoms mentioned, such as chills, cough, fever, cyanosis, hypotension, increased respiratory distress, and pulmonary edema on X-ray, are consistent with TRALI. TRALI occurs when transfused antibodies react with the recipient's white blood cells, leading to an inflammatory response in the lungs. This can result in fluid accumulation in the lungs, causing respiratory distress. Leuko reduction, which involves removing white blood cells from the transfusion product, is a preventive measure for TRALI.

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  • 24. 

    Transfusion of donor IgA to a patient with IgA antibodies, can be characterized with NO FEVER & abdominal cramps. Symptoms also includes coughing, dyspnea, nausea, flushing, chest pain.  

    • A.

      TRALI

    • B.

      Anaphylactic

    • C.

      TACO

    • D.

      Bacterial contamination

    Correct Answer
    B. Anaphylactic
    Explanation
    The symptoms described in the question, including coughing, dyspnea, nausea, flushing, and chest pain, are consistent with an anaphylactic reaction. Anaphylaxis is a severe allergic reaction that can occur when a person is exposed to an allergen, in this case, donor IgA. This reaction can cause a range of symptoms, including respiratory distress, gastrointestinal symptoms, and cardiovascular symptoms. The absence of fever and abdominal cramps suggests that the reaction is not due to bacterial contamination or TRALI (transfusion-related acute lung injury). TACO (transfusion-associated circulatory overload) is also unlikely as it typically presents with symptoms such as fluid overload and pulmonary edema, which are not mentioned in the question.

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  • 25. 

    What are common to cause bacterial contamination in TRs?

    • A.

      Serratia specie

    • B.

      Pseudomonas aerguginosa

    • C.

      Campylobacterm pseudomona

    • D.

      Yersinia enterocolitica

    Correct Answer(s)
    A. Serratia specie
    C. Campylobacterm pseudomona
    D. Yersinia enterocolitica
    Explanation
    The common causes of bacterial contamination in TRs include Serratia species, Campylobacterm pseudomona, and Yersinia enterocolitica. These bacteria can contaminate TRs and cause infections or illnesses in individuals who come into contact with them. It is important to prevent and control bacterial contamination in TRs to ensure the safety and well-being of the people using them.

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  • 26. 

    Occurs when a patient's cardiopulmonary system exceeds its volume capacity. 

    • A.

      Transfusion related acute lung injury

    • B.

      Delayed hemolytic transfusion reaction

    • C.

      Bacterial contamination

    • D.

      Transfusion associated circulatory overload

    Correct Answer
    D. Transfusion associated circulatory overload
    Explanation
    Transfusion associated circulatory overload (TACO) occurs when a patient's cardiopulmonary system exceeds its volume capacity due to a rapid or excessive transfusion of blood products. This can lead to fluid overload and pulmonary edema, causing symptoms such as shortness of breath, coughing, and chest pain. TACO is a serious complication of blood transfusion and requires prompt recognition and management to prevent further complications.

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  • 27. 

    Symptoms: dyspnea, coughing, cyanosis, headache, restlessnessSystolic hypertension (>50)

    • A.

      TACO

    • B.

      TRALI

    • C.

      Allergic

    • D.

      Anaphylactic

    Correct Answer
    A. TACO
    Explanation
    TACO stands for Transfusion-Associated Circulatory Overload. This condition occurs when a person receives a blood transfusion too quickly or receives too much blood, causing fluid to accumulate in the lungs and leading to symptoms such as dyspnea, coughing, cyanosis, headache, and restlessness. Systolic hypertension, which is mentioned in the symptoms, can also be a sign of TACO. Therefore, TACO is the most likely explanation for the given symptoms and systolic hypertension.

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  • 28. 

    • Screening tests for unexpected antibodies are negative
    • High titer IgG - anti penicillin antibody is always present in the serum
    • DAT is strong due to IgG coating

    • A.

      Drug adsorption

    • B.

      Immune complex adsorption

    • C.

      Non-immune adsorption of proteins

    • D.

      Induction of autoimmunity

    Correct Answer
    A. Drug adsorption
    Explanation
    The correct answer is drug adsorption. Drug adsorption refers to the binding of drugs to proteins in the blood, which can result in the formation of immune complexes. In this case, the high titer IgG anti-penicillin antibody is present in the serum due to the drug adsorption phenomenon. The screening tests for unexpected antibodies are negative because the antibodies are bound to the drug and not freely circulating in the blood. This can also explain the strong direct antiglobulin test (DAT) due to the IgG coating on the drug-protein complexes.

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  • 29. 

    • Causes a positive DAT 3 - 6 months after tx 
    • Red cells are coated with IgG
    • DAT diminishes after therapy is discontinued but can take 1 month to 2 years to clear
    • immune hemolysis antibodies are formed that reacts with intrinsic red cells antigens

    • A.

      Drug adsorption

    • B.

      Immune complex adsorption

    • C.

      Nonimmune adsorption of proteins

    • D.

      Induction of autoimmunity

    Correct Answer
    D. Induction of autoimmunity
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "Induction of autoimmunity." This is because the statement mentions that the DAT (Direct Antiglobulin Test) becomes positive 3-6 months after therapy, indicating the presence of antibodies that react with intrinsic red cell antigens. This suggests that the therapy has induced an autoimmune response, where the body's immune system mistakenly targets its own red blood cells.

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  • 30. 

    When does GVHD occur?

    • A.

      When the donor and the recipient share the same blood type

    • B.

      When the donor is homozygous for one of the recipients HLA haplotypes

    • C.

      When the blood has been sitting out for too long

    • D.

      When the unit is close to expiring

    Correct Answer
    B. When the donor is homozygous for one of the recipients HLA haplotypes
    Explanation
    GVHD (Graft-versus-host disease) occurs when the donor's immune cells recognize the recipient's tissues as foreign and attack them. This happens when the donor is homozygous for one of the recipient's HLA (human leukocyte antigen) haplotypes. HLA molecules are responsible for immune system regulation and matching between donor and recipient is important to prevent GVHD. Homozygosity increases the likelihood of a match and therefore increases the risk of GVHD.

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  • 31. 

    Select those that are associated with GVHD

    • A.

      Bone marrow failure - asplasia

    • B.

      Increased bilirubin & liver enzymes

    • C.

      Increased urination

    • D.

      Skin Rash

    • E.

      High fever

    • F.

      Gastrointestinal disturbances

    Correct Answer(s)
    A. Bone marrow failure - asplasia
    B. Increased bilirubin & liver enzymes
    D. Skin Rash
    E. High fever
    F. Gastrointestinal disturbances
    Explanation
    The correct answer options are all associated with graft-versus-host disease (GVHD). GVHD is a condition that can occur after a bone marrow or stem cell transplant, where the donor's immune cells attack the recipient's tissues. Bone marrow failure or aplasia can occur as a result of GVHD. Increased bilirubin and liver enzymes are indicative of liver damage, which can occur in GVHD. Skin rash is a common symptom of GVHD, often presenting as a red, itchy rash. High fever is another common symptom, as the immune system is activated and fighting against the recipient's tissues. Gastrointestinal disturbances, such as diarrhea and abdominal pain, are also associated with GVHD.

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  • 32. 

    When the drug alters the red cell membrane cause the membrane to absorb proteins including IgG and complement components. 
    • Causes a + DAT

    • A.

      Drug adsorption

    • B.

      Immune complex adsorption

    • C.

      Nonimmune adsorption of proteins

    • D.

      Induction of autoimmunity

    Correct Answer
    C. Nonimmune adsorption of proteins
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "Nonimmune adsorption of proteins." This is because when the drug alters the red cell membrane, it causes the membrane to absorb proteins, including IgG and complement components. This process is referred to as nonimmune adsorption of proteins.

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  • 33. 

    What's the hct/hgb ratio that is required of eligible donors?

    • A.

      36%/12.5 g

    • B.

      42%/13.4 g

    • C.

      38%/12.5 g

    • D.

      50%/13.0 g

    Correct Answer
    A. 36%/12.5 g
    Explanation
    The hct/hgb ratio that is required of eligible donors is 36%/12.5 g. This means that the hematocrit (hct) level should be 36% and the hemoglobin (hgb) level should be 12.5 g. This ratio is used to determine if a person's blood is suitable for donation.

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  • 34. 

    After transfusion of a unit of RBCs or WB there should be a ________  % increase in hematocrit or ________  g increase in hemoglobin

    Correct Answer
    3
    1
    Explanation
    After transfusion of a unit of RBCs or WB, there should be a 3% increase in hematocrit or 1g increase in hemoglobin. This means that the transfusion should result in a small but measurable increase in the concentration of red blood cells or hemoglobin in the recipient's blood. This increase is important for improving oxygen-carrying capacity and overall blood volume.

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  • 35. 

    Storage lesion leads to ________ in pH________ in lactic acid________ of glucose concentration ________ in hemoglobin oxygen affinity ________ of ATP levels________ of 2,3 DPG levels 

    Correct Answer
    Decrease
    Increase
    Decrease
    Increase
    Decrease
    Decrease
    Explanation
    Storage lesion refers to the changes that occur in blood components during storage. These changes can lead to a decrease in pH, an increase in lactic acid levels, a decrease in glucose concentration, an increase in hemoglobin oxygen affinity, and a decrease in ATP levels and 2,3 DPG levels. These changes can affect the quality and function of stored blood components, making them less effective when transfused into patients.

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  • 36. 

    For those who are platelet donors, they must.. 

    • A.

      Take aspirin before the donation and have HCT levels of < 36%

    • B.

      Avoid taking aspirin 48 hours before donation wit HCT levels of 36%

    • C.

      Fast 48 hours before donation

    • D.

      Have hematocrit levels greater than 38%

    Correct Answer
    B. Avoid taking aspirin 48 hours before donation wit HCT levels of 36%
    Explanation
    Platelet donors must avoid taking aspirin 48 hours before donation with HCT levels of 36% because aspirin can affect platelet function and increase the risk of bleeding during the donation process. HCT levels below 36% may indicate anemia, which can also affect the ability to donate platelets. Therefore, it is important for platelet donors to abstain from aspirin and ensure their HCT levels are within the appropriate range to ensure a safe and successful donation.

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  • 37. 

    What is the normal range of Hgb levels for newborns?

    • A.

      20 - 25 g/dl

    • B.

      6 - 8 g/dl

    • C.

      14 - 20 g/dl

    • D.

      18 - 22 g/dl

    Correct Answer
    C. 14 - 20 g/dl
    Explanation
    The normal range of Hgb (hemoglobin) levels for newborns is 14 - 20 g/dl. Hemoglobin is a protein in red blood cells that carries oxygen throughout the body. This range is considered normal for newborns and helps ensure that they have enough oxygen in their blood. Levels below or above this range may indicate anemia or other health conditions.

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  • 38. 

    When are crossmatches done on neonates?

    • A.

      Always

    • B.

      Only every 3 days

    • C.

      When they are scheduled for surgery

    • D.

      When the mother has a known Antibody

    Correct Answer
    D. When the mother has a known Antibody
    Explanation
    Crossmatches are done on neonates when the mother has a known Antibody. This is because the mother's antibodies can potentially cross the placenta and cause harm to the baby. By performing a crossmatch, healthcare providers can determine if there is compatibility between the mother's antibodies and the baby's blood, and take appropriate measures to prevent any adverse reactions.

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  • 39. 

    Platelet transfusions are indicated for 

    • A.

      Platelet counts < 20,000

    • B.

      Platelet counts < 200,000

    • C.

      Bleeding due to thrombocytopenia

    • D.

      Febrile reactions

    Correct Answer(s)
    A. Platelet counts < 20,000
    C. Bleeding due to thrombocytopenia
    Explanation
    Platelet transfusions are indicated when platelet counts are below 20,000 and when bleeding is due to thrombocytopenia. Platelets are responsible for blood clotting, and when the platelet count is very low, it can lead to excessive bleeding and difficulty in clotting. Transfusing platelets can help increase the platelet count and improve clotting ability, reducing the risk of bleeding. Febrile reactions, on the other hand, are not directly related to platelet transfusions and do not indicate the need for transfusion.

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  • 40. 

    Eight units of platelets were pooled without a sterile connecting device. The new expiration is 

    • A.

      24 hours

    • B.

      6 hours

    • C.

      4 hours

    • D.

      2 hours

    Correct Answer
    C. 4 hours
    Explanation
    When platelets are pooled without a sterile connecting device, there is an increased risk of bacterial contamination. Bacteria can multiply rapidly in the pooled platelets, leading to a higher chance of infection when transfused to a patient. To minimize this risk, the pooled platelets should be used within a shorter timeframe. In this case, the new expiration is set at 4 hours, which allows for a safer transfusion and reduces the risk of bacterial contamination.

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  • 41. 

    In preparing platelets from a unit of whole blood, the correct order of centrifugation is 

    • A.

      Hard spin followed by hard spin

    • B.

      Light spin followed by hard spin

    • C.

      Hard spin followed by light spin

    • D.

      Light spin followed by light spin

    Correct Answer
    B. Light spin followed by hard spin
    Explanation
    The correct order of centrifugation for preparing platelets from a unit of whole blood is first performing a light spin followed by a hard spin. This order ensures that the platelets are separated from the other components of the blood in an efficient manner. The light spin helps to separate the red and white blood cells from the plasma, while the hard spin further concentrates the platelets at the bottom of the tube. This sequential centrifugation process allows for the isolation of a higher concentration of platelets for further use.

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  • 42. 

    RBCs that have been frozen are stored at which minimum temperature and maximum storage of time?

    • A.

      - 65C for 5 years

    • B.

      - 65 C for 10 years

    • C.

      -85C for 10 years

    • D.

      -80 C for 10 years

    Correct Answer
    B. - 65 C for 10 years
    Explanation
    RBCs (red blood cells) that have been frozen are stored at a minimum temperature of -65°C for a maximum storage time of 10 years. This temperature and duration ensures the preservation of the RBCs and maintains their viability for future use. Freezing RBCs helps to extend their shelf life and allows for their storage in blood banks or medical facilities for an extended period, ensuring a steady supply of blood for transfusions when needed.

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  • 43. 

    Although ABO compatibility is preferred, ABO incompatibility is acceptable for which of the following components?

    • A.

      Cryoprecipitated AHF

    • B.

      Apheresis PLTS

    • C.

      Apheresis Granulocytes

    • D.

      PF24

    Correct Answer
    A. Cryoprecipitated AHF
    Explanation
    ABO compatibility is preferred for all blood components, but ABO incompatibility can be acceptable for Cryoprecipitated AHF. Cryoprecipitated AHF is a blood product that contains high levels of clotting factors, including fibrinogen, von Willebrand factor, and factor VIII. It is primarily used in the treatment of bleeding disorders, such as hemophilia. ABO incompatibility in this case refers to the fact that the donor's blood type may not match the recipient's blood type. However, because Cryoprecipitated AHF is a concentrated product, the small amount of ABO antibodies present in the donor's plasma is unlikely to cause a significant reaction in the recipient.

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  • 44. 

    Cryo contains

    • A.

      FVIII

    • B.

      FX

    • C.

      VWF

    • D.

      FXIII

    • E.

      Fibrinogen

    Correct Answer(s)
    A. FVIII
    C. VWF
    D. FXIII
    E. Fibrinogen
    Explanation
    Cryo, short for cryoprecipitate, is a blood component that contains several important proteins. These proteins include Factor VIII (FVIII), Von Willebrand Factor (VWF), Factor XIII (FXIII), and Fibrinogen. FVIII is essential for blood clotting, while VWF helps with platelet adhesion and clot formation. FXIII is involved in stabilizing the clot, and fibrinogen is a precursor to fibrin, the main component of a blood clot. Therefore, cryo is a valuable resource for patients with deficiencies in these proteins or those experiencing bleeding disorders.

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  • 45. 

    Select the benefits of an exchange transfusion

    • A.

      Removal of elevated bilirubin

    • B.

      Removal of maternal circulating antibody

    • C.

      Removal of sensitized ab

    • D.

      Removal of the antibodies created by the fetus

    • E.

      Replacement of incompatible RBC with compatible RBC

    Correct Answer(s)
    A. Removal of elevated bilirubin
    B. Removal of maternal circulating antibody
    C. Removal of sensitized ab
    E. Replacement of incompatible RBC with compatible RBC
    Explanation
    An exchange transfusion is a medical procedure that involves removing a patient's blood and replacing it with donor blood. This procedure can be beneficial in several ways. Firstly, it can help remove elevated levels of bilirubin, which is a waste product of red blood cell breakdown and can be toxic in high amounts. Secondly, it can eliminate maternal circulating antibodies, which can cause complications in the fetus. Thirdly, it can remove sensitized antibodies, which can lead to immune reactions. Lastly, it can replace incompatible red blood cells with compatible ones, preventing further complications.

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  • 46. 

    FFP can be stored and kept for how long at its maximum?

    • A.

      -18C for 2 years

    • B.

      -65 for 7 years

    • C.

      -80 for 10 years

    • D.

      -24 for 7 days

    Correct Answer
    B. -65 for 7 years
    Explanation
    FFP (Fresh Frozen Plasma) can be stored and kept at a temperature of -65 degrees Celsius for a maximum of 7 years. This means that if FFP is stored at this temperature, it can be used for transfusion purposes for up to 7 years. It is important to store FFP at the correct temperature to maintain its effectiveness and safety for patients in need of plasma transfusion.

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  • 47. 

    Complications that can occur with transfusing sickle cell patients include 

    • A.

      Iron overload

    • B.

      Sensitization of RBCS

    • C.

      Rejection of the RBCs

    Correct Answer
    A. Iron overload
    Explanation
    Transfusing sickle cell patients can lead to complications such as iron overload. This is because these patients require regular blood transfusions, which can cause an accumulation of iron in the body over time. Iron overload can lead to organ damage and other health problems. Sensitization of RBCs refers to the development of antibodies against red blood cells, which can cause transfusion reactions. Rejection of the RBCs is not a common complication in sickle cell patients.

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  • 48. 

    What blood group antibody is associated with paroxysmal cold hemoglobinuria?

    • A.

      Anti-P

    • B.

      Anti-P1

    • C.

      Anti - B

    • D.

      Anti - lea

    Correct Answer
    A. Anti-P
    Explanation
    Paroxysmal cold hemoglobinuria (PCH) is a rare autoimmune hemolytic anemia that is associated with the presence of anti-P antibodies. These antibodies bind to the P antigen on red blood cells, causing them to be destroyed. The P antigen is a complex carbohydrate found on the surface of red blood cells, and the presence of anti-P antibodies can lead to complement-mediated destruction of red blood cells, especially in cold temperatures. Therefore, the correct answer is Anti-P.

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  • 49. 

    List the three antigens that are not present on cord cells 

    • A.

      Fya

    • B.

      I

    • C.

      P

    • D.

      Lewis Ags

    • E.

      P1

    Correct Answer(s)
    B. I
    D. Lewis Ags
    E. P1
    Explanation
    The three antigens that are not present on cord cells are I, Lewis Ags, and P1.

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  • 50. 

    Hydatid cyst fluid is a neutralizing substance for 

    • A.

      P1

    • B.

      ABO

    • C.

      Sda

    • D.

      Chido

    Correct Answer
    A. P1
    Explanation
    Hydatid cyst fluid is a neutralizing substance for P1 antigen.

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Quiz Review Timeline +

Our quizzes are rigorously reviewed, monitored and continuously updated by our expert board to maintain accuracy, relevance, and timeliness.

  • Current Version
  • Mar 22, 2023
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • Nov 14, 2017
    Quiz Created by
    Julie Huynh
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