Blood Bank Final

97 Questions | Total Attempts: 146

Settings
Please wait...
Blood Bank Final

.


Questions and Answers
  • 1. 
    What is a cold panel?
  • 2. 
    What are the four different mechanisms of drug induced red cell sensitization?
  • 3. 
    List those who are at risk for TA-GVHD
  • 4. 
    List the disease testing that is performed on ALL allogeneic donor units
  • 5. 
    If your patient is type AB, what type of plasma can they receive?
  • 6. 
    List 5 Different Factors that affect sensitization
  • 7. 
    List the three mechanisms that can cause weak D
  • 8. 
    What is the equation to calculate the number of RhIg needed?
  • 9. 
    Which major types of AIHA has a non reactive eluate?
    • A. 

      WAIHA

    • B. 

      COLD

    • C. 

      MIXED

    • D. 

      PCH

  • 10. 
    Which types of AIHA's show AHG reactivity
    • A. 

      WARM

    • B. 

      COLD

    • C. 

      MIXED

    • D. 

      PCH

  • 11. 
    Which type of hemolysis is destroyed in the bloodstream releasing hemoglobin into plasma?[Blank]
  • 12. 
    Intact red cell is removed from circulation by RE system; coated with IgG
    • A. 

      Intravascular

    • B. 

      Extravascular

  • 13. 
    • Most common @ 4C
    • Low titer @ 4C
      • <64 
      • Negative DAT 
      • Can interfere with ABO typing, Rh and DAT
    • A. 

      Benign Cold Auto

    • B. 

      Pathologic cold Auto

    • C. 

      PCH

  • 14. 
    • Reactivity up to 32 C
    • Idiopathic
    • Spontaneous agglutination that disperses at 37
    • C3 only 
    • Only a problem with heart surgery - when temp is decreased 
    • A. 

      Benign

    • B. 

      Pathologic

    • C. 

      PCH

  • 15. 
    What is associated with Mycoplasma pneumoniae
    • A. 

      Benign cold auto

    • B. 

      Pathologic cold auto

    • C. 

      PCH

  • 16. 
    PCH can be associated with...
    • A. 

      Children

    • B. 

      Viral infections

    • C. 

      Age

    • D. 

      Gender

    • E. 

      Rapid intravascular hemolysis

  • 17. 
    PCH reacts at less than [Blank] C
  • 18. 
    What can aid in the detection of warm autoantibodies
    • A. 

      DAT

    • B. 

      Panels

    • C. 

      Eluates

    • D. 

      Adsorptions

  • 19. 
    Prewarm testing is done to...
    • A. 

      Remove the C3b

    • B. 

      Determine whether there are leukocytes presesnt

    • C. 

      Determine whether warm reacting antibodies are present in the serum that also contains complement binding cold antibody

    • D. 

      Determines host versus graft

  • 20. 
    • Caused by antibodies in the host to the donors WCs
    • Give leuko reduced or washed, deglyced cells 
    • Can be pretreated with anti-pyretics
    • Increase in 1C without any causes
    • A. 

      IHTR

    • B. 

      TRALI

    • C. 

      Febrile

    • D. 

      DHTR

  • 21. 
    Symptoms include: erythema, pruritis, hives IgEVery mild and non-life threateningTreat with benadryl
    • A. 

      Febrile

    • B. 

      TRALI

    • C. 

      TACO

    • D. 

      Allergic

  • 22. 
    • Symptoms: mild jaundice, fever and decrease hct/hgb
    • Anamnestic response - previously sensitized 
    • Extravascular 
    • No complement activation 
    • DAT positive
    • Occurs 3 - 7 days after transfusion
    • A. 

      Immediate Hemolytic Transfusion Rxn

    • B. 

      Febrile

    • C. 

      Transfusion related acute lung Injury

    • D. 

      Delayed Hemolytic Transfusion Rxn

  • 23. 
    • The transfusion of the donor's antibodies to the recipient white cells 
    • Complement is activated
    • Symptoms: chills, cough, fever, cyanosis, hypotension, increased respiratory distress
    • X-ray would show pulmonary edema
    • Give leuko reduced 
    • A. 

      Immediate Hemolytic Transfusion Rxn

    • B. 

      Delayed hemolytic transfusion rxn

    • C. 

      Transfusion Related Acute Lung Injury

    • D. 

      Anaphylactic

  • 24. 
    Transfusion of donor IgA to a patient with IgA antibodies, can be characterized with NO FEVER & abdominal cramps. Symptoms also includes coughing, dyspnea, nausea, flushing, chest pain.  
    • A. 

      TRALI

    • B. 

      Anaphylactic

    • C. 

      TACO

    • D. 

      Bacterial contamination

  • 25. 
    What are common to cause bacterial contamination in TRs?
    • A. 

      Serratia specie

    • B. 

      Pseudomonas aerguginosa

    • C. 

      Campylobacterm pseudomona

    • D. 

      Yersinia enterocolitica

  • 26. 
    Occurs when a patient's cardiopulmonary system exceeds its volume capacity. 
    • A. 

      Transfusion related acute lung injury

    • B. 

      Delayed hemolytic transfusion reaction

    • C. 

      Bacterial contamination

    • D. 

      Transfusion associated circulatory overload

  • 27. 
    Symptoms: dyspnea, coughing, cyanosis, headache, restlessnessSystolic hypertension (>50)
    • A. 

      TACO

    • B. 

      TRALI

    • C. 

      Allergic

    • D. 

      Anaphylactic

  • 28. 
    • Screening tests for unexpected antibodies are negative
    • High titer IgG - anti penicillin antibody is always present in the serum
    • DAT is strong due to IgG coating
    • A. 

      Drug adsorption

    • B. 

      Immune complex adsorption

    • C. 

      Non-immune adsorption of proteins

    • D. 

      Induction of autoimmunity

  • 29. 
    • Causes a positive DAT 3 - 6 months after tx 
    • Red cells are coated with IgG
    • DAT diminishes after therapy is discontinued but can take 1 month to 2 years to clear
    • immune hemolysis antibodies are formed that reacts with intrinsic red cells antigens
    • A. 

      Drug adsorption

    • B. 

      Immune complex adsorption

    • C. 

      Nonimmune adsorption of proteins

    • D. 

      Induction of autoimmunity

  • 30. 
    When does GVHD occur?
    • A. 

      When the donor and the recipient share the same blood type

    • B. 

      When the donor is homozygous for one of the recipients HLA haplotypes

    • C. 

      When the blood has been sitting out for too long

    • D. 

      When the unit is close to expiring

  • 31. 
    Select those that are associated with GVHD
    • A. 

      Bone marrow failure - asplasia

    • B. 

      Increased bilirubin & liver enzymes

    • C. 

      Increased urination

    • D. 

      Skin Rash

    • E. 

      High fever

    • F. 

      Gastrointestinal disturbances

  • 32. 
    When the drug alters the red cell membrane cause the membrane to absorb proteins including IgG and complement components. 
    • Causes a + DAT
    • A. 

      Drug adsorption

    • B. 

      Immune complex adsorption

    • C. 

      Nonimmune adsorption of proteins

    • D. 

      Induction of autoimmunity

  • 33. 
    What's the hct/hgb ratio that is required of eligible donors?
    • A. 

      36%/12.5 g

    • B. 

      42%/13.4 g

    • C. 

      38%/12.5 g

    • D. 

      50%/13.0 g

  • 34. 
    After transfusion of a unit of RBCs or WB there should be a [Blank]  % increase in hematocrit or [Blank]  g increase in hemoglobin
  • 35. 
    Storage lesion leads to [Blank] in pH[Blank] in lactic acid[Blank] of glucose concentration [Blank] in hemoglobin oxygen affinity [Blank] of ATP levels[Blank] of 2,3 DPG levels 
  • 36. 
    For those who are platelet donors, they must.. 
    • A. 

      Take aspirin before the donation and have HCT levels of < 36%

    • B. 

      Avoid taking aspirin 48 hours before donation wit HCT levels of 36%

    • C. 

      Fast 48 hours before donation

    • D. 

      Have hematocrit levels greater than 38%

  • 37. 
    What is the normal range of Hgb levels for newborns?
    • A. 

      20 - 25 g/dl

    • B. 

      6 - 8 g/dl

    • C. 

      14 - 20 g/dl

    • D. 

      18 - 22 g/dl

  • 38. 
    When are crossmatches done on neonates?
    • A. 

      Always

    • B. 

      Only every 3 days

    • C. 

      When they are scheduled for surgery

    • D. 

      When the mother has a known Antibody

  • 39. 
    Platelet transfusions are indicated for 
    • A. 

      Platelet counts < 20,000

    • B. 

      Platelet counts < 200,000

    • C. 

      Bleeding due to thrombocytopenia

    • D. 

      Febrile reactions

  • 40. 
    Eight units of platelets were pooled without a sterile connecting device. The new expiration is 
    • A. 

      24 hours

    • B. 

      6 hours

    • C. 

      4 hours

    • D. 

      2 hours

  • 41. 
    In preparing platelets from a unit of whole blood, the correct order of centrifugation is 
    • A. 

      Hard spin followed by hard spin

    • B. 

      Light spin followed by hard spin

    • C. 

      Hard spin followed by light spin

    • D. 

      Light spin followed by light spin

  • 42. 
    RBCs that have been frozen are stored at which minimum temperature and maximum storage of time?
    • A. 

      - 65C for 5 years

    • B. 

      - 65 C for 10 years

    • C. 

      -85C for 10 years

    • D. 

      -80 C for 10 years

  • 43. 
    Although ABO compatibility is preferred, ABO incompatibility is acceptable for which of the following components?
    • A. 

      Cryoprecipitated AHF

    • B. 

      Apheresis PLTS

    • C. 

      Apheresis Granulocytes

    • D. 

      PF24

  • 44. 
    Cryo contains
    • A. 

      FVIII

    • B. 

      FX

    • C. 

      VWF

    • D. 

      FXIII

    • E. 

      Fibrinogen

  • 45. 
    Select the benefits of an exchange transfusion
    • A. 

      Removal of elevated bilirubin

    • B. 

      Removal of maternal circulating antibody

    • C. 

      Removal of sensitized ab

    • D. 

      Removal of the antibodies created by the fetus

    • E. 

      Replacement of incompatible RBC with compatible RBC

  • 46. 
    FFP can be stored and kept for how long at its maximum?
    • A. 

      -18C for 2 years

    • B. 

      -65 for 7 years

    • C. 

      -80 for 10 years

    • D. 

      -24 for 7 days

  • 47. 
    Complications that can occur with transfusing sickle cell patients include 
    • A. 

      Iron overload

    • B. 

      Sensitization of RBCS

    • C. 

      Rejection of the RBCs

  • 48. 
    What blood group antibody is associated with paroxysmal cold hemoglobinuria?
    • A. 

      Anti-P

    • B. 

      Anti-P1

    • C. 

      Anti - B

    • D. 

      Anti - lea

  • 49. 
    List the three antigens that are not present on cord cells 
    • A. 

      Fya

    • B. 

      I

    • C. 

      P

    • D. 

      Lewis Ags

    • E. 

      P1

  • 50. 
    Hydatid cyst fluid is a neutralizing substance for 
    • A. 

      P1

    • B. 

      ABO

    • C. 

      Sda

    • D. 

      Chido

  • 51. 
    A fetal screen is done on 
    • A. 

      Every Rh positive women who delivers a Rh positive baby or a baby

    • B. 

      All Rh negative mothers

    • C. 

      Every Rh negative women who delivers a Rh positive baby or a baby of an unknown Rh

    • D. 

      All Rh positive mothers regardless of the babies Rh

  • 52. 
    Which antibodies are not effected by proteolytic enzymes?
    • A. 

      Kell

    • B. 

      Duffys

    • C. 

      Lewis

    • D. 

      Kidd

  • 53. 
    Select the antibodies that are enhanced by proteolytic enzymes
    • A. 

      Rh

    • B. 

      MNS

    • C. 

      Kidds

    • D. 

      Lewis

    • E. 

      Duffy

    • F. 

      P

  • 54. 
    A cord blood workup consists of 
    • A. 

      Weak D

    • B. 

      ABO/Rh - Forward

    • C. 

      DAT

    • D. 

      ABO/ Rh - Reverse

  • 55. 
    Objectives for performing an exchange transfusion include all of the following except to: 
    • A. 

      Decrease the level of maternal antibody

    • B. 

      Reduce the level of indirect bilirubin

    • C. 

      Provide platelets to prevent disseminated intravascular coagulation

    • D. 

      Provide compatible RBCs to correct anemia

  • 56. 
    The greatest danger to the fetus (before delivery) affected by HDFN is 
    • A. 

      Kernicterus

    • B. 

      Anemia

    • C. 

      Hyperbilirubinemia

    • D. 

      Hypertension

  • 57. 
    RhIG should be administered within how many hours of delivery?
    • A. 

      6

    • B. 

      24

    • C. 

      72

    • D. 

      48

  • 58. 
    An often fatal condition characterized by general edema that results from anemia is 
    • A. 

      Kernicterus

    • B. 

      DIC

    • C. 

      Erythroblastosis fetalis

    • D. 

      Hydrops fetalis

  • 59. 
    HDFN occurs when
    • A. 

      Maternal antigens react with fetal antibodies

    • B. 

      Fetal antibodies react with maternal antibodies

    • C. 

      Maternal antibodies react with fetal antigens

    • D. 

      Fetal antigens reacts with maternal antigens

  • 60. 
    Which antibodies are not a risk of HDFN
    • A. 

      Anti-Lea

    • B. 

      Anti-C

    • C. 

      Anti-K

    • D. 

      Anti-S

  • 61. 
    Which of the following is not a characteristic of ABO HDFN
    • A. 

      May occur in first pregnancy

    • B. 

      Usually treated with phototherapy

    • C. 

      Strongly positive DAT

    • D. 

      Most frequent in babies born to group O mothers

  • 62. 
    The principle of the Kleihauer Betke test is that 
    • A. 

      Fetal hgb resists acid elution

    • B. 

      Adult hgb resists acid elution

    • C. 

      Fetal red cells lose hgb under alkaline conditions

    • D. 

      Adult red cells accept dye under alkaline conditions

  • 63. 
    For disease testing, "RPR" is for testing 
    • A. 

      Hepatitis C

    • B. 

      Hepatitis B

    • C. 

      Syphilis

    • D. 

      Zika

  • 64. 
    Which cells have the least amount of H antigens?
    • A. 

      A2B

    • B. 

      A1B

    • C. 

      A2

    • D. 

      O

  • 65. 
    Deacetylating enzyme alters N-acetylgalactosamine(A-antigen) by removing the acetyl group, N-galactosamine resembles D-galactose (B-antigen) and cross reacts with B reagents
    • A. 

      Group A with acquired B Ag

    • B. 

      B(A) phenotype

    • C. 

      Missing antigen

    • D. 

      Weak antigen

  • 66. 
    When the B gene transfers trace amounts of N-acetylgalactosamine and D-galactose to the H-Ag acceptor molecules 
    • The trace amounts react with Anti-A
    • A. 

      Group A with acquired B Ag

    • B. 

      B(A) phenotype

    • C. 

      Subgroup A

    • D. 

      Group B transfused with Group O RBCs

  • 67. 
    Bombay phenotypes..
    • A. 

      Have H, ABO antigens

    • B. 

      Have Z antigens

    • C. 

      Lack H and therefore lacks ABO antigens

    • D. 

      Can be transfused with any other blood types

  • 68. 
    Rouleaux can.. 
    • A. 

      Be related to increase serum protein levels

    • B. 

      Resemble stacked coins under microscopic examination

    • C. 

      Be resolved involving a saline replacement

    • D. 

      Be positive after a saline replacement

  • 69. 
    R1
    • A. 

      CDe

    • B. 

      CDe

    • C. 

      CE

    • D. 

      Ce

  • 70. 
    Rz
    • A. 

      CDE

    • B. 

      CDe

    • C. 

      Ce

    • D. 

      CE

  • 71. 
    The secretor gene is 
    • A. 

      Rh null

    • B. 

      Se

    • C. 

      Those who have the Bombay phenotype

  • 72. 
    Which one of these are naturally occuring Abs?
    • A. 

      Anti-Fya

    • B. 

      Anti-Jka

    • C. 

      Anti-M

    • D. 

      Anti-Lua

  • 73. 
    A single vial of RhIG can suppress how mL of fetal hemorrhage?
    • A. 

      40

    • B. 

      10 

    • C. 

      30

    • D. 

      100

  • 74. 
    How does the indicator cells work in Fetal screens?
    • A. 

      They are D negative cells that bind to anti-D generated by the mother

    • B. 

      They are positive D cells that bind to antibodies made by the fetus

    • C. 

      They are positive D cells that bind to the abs that are already coating the positive fetal cells

    • D. 

      They are negative D cells that do not bind to anything

  • 75. 
    DAT positive + Eluate negative can be due to 
    • A. 

      Completment coating cells

    • B. 

      Warm Ab

    • C. 

      Nonspecific binding of proteins 

    • D. 

      Cold Ab

    • E. 

      Antibodies to drugs

    • F. 

      Antibodies to drugs

  • 76. 
    After the “best” solution has been implemented in a Process Improvement undertaking, you should:
    • A. 

      Pat yourself on the back

    • B. 

      Collect data to assess the impact

    • C. 

      Report your efforts to the FDA as soon as possible

    • D. 

      Apply the same solution to all blood bank procedures

  • 77. 
    A good Document Control Plan:
    • A. 

      Requires blood bank staff to carry copies of procedures in their lab coat pockets

    • B. 

      Includes storage locations for outdated versions of blood bank forms in case we run out of the current version

    • C. 

      Ensures that only current versions of forms and procedures are in use

    • D. 

      Allows all staff members to make hand-written corrections in written procedures

  • 78. 
    Calibration is an important part of cGMPs because it: 
    • A. 

      Provides information regarding the accuracy of our measuring devices

    • B. 

      Ensures that all procedures are up to date

    • C. 

      Documents the functionality of all blood bank equipment

    • D. 

      Gives us confidence that all staff have been adequately trained

  • 79. 
    —57 yr old F was admitted for transfusion of 2 units to treat chronic anemia. Pt is multiply transfused (another facility). Samples were drawn and sent for T/S, 2 units of RBCs to be transfused tomorrow.What is most likely the cause of this discrepancy if the auto control is also positive?Anti AAnti BA1 CellB cells4+4+1+1+ 
    • A. 

      Cold auto

    • B. 

      Warm auto

    • C. 

      Old Age

    • D. 

      Rouleaux

  • 80. 
    —64 yr old M admitted for GI bleed. Hx of intestinal cancer. Samples sent for T/S and 2 RBCs STAT.What is the discrepancy? Anti AAnti BA1 cellsB cells 4+1+ 04+
    • A. 

      A sub group

    • B. 

      B acquired phenotype

    • C. 

      Rouleaux

    • D. 

      Newborns

  • 81. 
    A patient is found to have anti-Kell. Four units of RBC’s are requested for surgery tomorrow. How many units should you screen in order to fill this order?
    • A. 

      5 units

    • B. 

      6 units

    • C. 

      4 units

    • D. 

      10 units

  • 82. 
    Is [your statement here] true or false?
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 83. 
    Packed RBCs are transfused to treat deficiency in O2 carrying capacity
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 84. 
    When whole blood is collected using CPDA-1, what is the expiration 
    • A. 

      21 days

    • B. 

      35 days

    • C. 

      42 days

    • D. 

      1 year

  • 85. 
    Adsol would give RBCs a ___ expiration
    • A. 

      42 day

    • B. 

      30 day

    • C. 

      7 day

    • D. 

      21 day

  • 86. 
    Shortens the life span of RBCs to 28 days 
    • A. 

      Washing red cells

    • B. 

      Irradiating red cells

    • C. 

      Creating an open system

    • D. 

      Sterilize connecting

  • 87. 
    Leukocyte Reduction/filtration is done to 
    • A. 

      Prevent CMV infection and HLA alloimmunization

    • B. 

      Prevent an overload of volume

    • C. 

      To prevent iron overload

    • D. 

      To prevent disease transmission

  • 88. 
    Washed red cells would most likely be given to patients who 
    • A. 

      Who have antibodies against the WBCs that they were transfused with

    • B. 

      Are lacking the D antigen

    • C. 

      Are IgA deficient & have made anti-IgA

    • D. 

      Who have been transfused with antibodies

  • 89. 
    FFP is prepared within how many hours of collection?
    • A. 

      16

    • B. 

      24

    • C. 

      48

    • D. 

      8