Medical Aspects Of Chemical, Biological, And Radiological Warfare Assignment 7

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  • 1/71 Questions

    Who, if anyone, is responsible for maintaining adequate supplies for the decontamination and treatment of CBR casualties?

    • Medical officer
    • Damage control officer
    • Supply officer
    • No one
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Assignment Quizzes & Trivia
About This Quiz

“Medical Aspects of Chemical, Biological, and Radiological Warfare,” chapter 8, pages 8-1 to 8-18; "Diet and Nutrition," chapter 9, pages 9-1 to 9-11; "Emergency Dental Care and Preventive Medicine," chapter 10, pages 10-1 to 10-6.

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  • 2. 

    Nerve agents produce their effect by interfacing with normal transmission of nerve impulses.

    • TRUE

    • FALSE

    Correct Answer
    A. TRUE
    Explanation
    Nerve agents are highly toxic substances that interfere with the normal transmission of nerve impulses in the body. They inhibit the activity of an enzyme called acetylcholinesterase, which is responsible for breaking down the neurotransmitter acetylcholine. By inhibiting this enzyme, nerve agents cause an excessive accumulation of acetylcholine in the synapses, leading to overstimulation of the nervous system. This disruption in nerve impulse transmission can result in a wide range of symptoms, including paralysis, convulsions, respiratory failure, and even death. Therefore, the statement that nerve agents produce their effect by interfacing with normal transmission of nerve impulses is true.

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  • 3. 

    The tendency of a chemical agent to remain effective in a contaminated area is known as

    • Lethality

    • Persistency

    • Volatility

    • Permeability

    Correct Answer
    A. Persistency
    Explanation
    Persistency refers to the ability of a chemical agent to remain effective in a contaminated area. It indicates the longevity of the agent's effectiveness and its ability to remain active over time. This characteristic is important in various contexts, such as warfare or pest control, where the agent needs to have a lasting impact on the target. Lethality refers to the ability to cause death, volatility refers to the tendency to evaporate or vaporize quickly, and permeability refers to the ability to pass through or penetrate a substance.

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  • 4. 

    Inhalation of nerve gas characteristically results in which of the symptoms listed below?

    • Local muscular twitching

    • Dry mouth

    • Pinpoint pupils

    • Pulmonary edema

    Correct Answer
    A. Pinpoint pupils
    Explanation
    Inhalation of nerve gas can cause pinpoint pupils as one of the symptoms. This is because nerve gases, such as sarin or VX, can affect the autonomic nervous system and disrupt the normal functioning of the pupils. Pinpoint pupils, also known as miosis, occur when the muscles in the iris constrict, causing the pupil to become very small. This symptom is a result of the nerve gas interfering with the neurotransmitters that regulate pupil size, leading to a constricted or pinpoint appearance.

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  • 5. 

    In a definitive care facility, the indicated treatment of a nerve agent victim includes which of the following therapies?

    • 2 mg atropine and 600 mg 2-PAM chloride every 15 minutes until recovery

    • 2 mg atropine every 15 minutes until the victim has a dry mouth and mild tachycardia

    • 600 mg 2-PAM chloride every 15 minutes until the victim is conscious

    • Respiratory support only

    Correct Answer
    A. 2 mg atropine every 15 minutes until the victim has a dry mouth and mild tachycardia
    Explanation
    The indicated treatment for a nerve agent victim in a definitive care facility is to administer 2 mg of atropine every 15 minutes until the victim has a dry mouth and mild tachycardia. Atropine is used to counteract the effects of the nerve agent on the body, specifically to treat the symptoms of excessive salivation and increased heart rate. Administering atropine in this manner helps to manage these symptoms and provide relief to the victim.

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  • 6. 

    What part of the body is most sensitive to the effects of mustard gases?

    • Eyes

    • Lungs

    • Liver

    • Skin

    Correct Answer
    A. Eyes
    Explanation
    Mustard gases are known to cause severe damage to the eyes, making them the most sensitive part of the body to the effects of these gases. Exposure to mustard gases can lead to eye irritation, pain, redness, and even blindness. The corrosive nature of these gases can cause long-lasting damage to the delicate tissues of the eyes, making them particularly vulnerable to their effects.

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  • 7. 

    Specific antidotal therapy is available for which, if any, of the following vesicants?

    • Mustard (HD)

    • Nitrogen mustard (HN)

    • Lewisite (L)

    • None of the above

    Correct Answer
    A. None of the above
    Explanation
    There is no specific antidotal therapy available for mustard (HD), nitrogen mustard (HN), or lewisite (L). These vesicants, also known as blister agents, can cause severe skin burns and respiratory damage. Treatment for exposure to these agents typically involves supportive care, such as decontamination, wound care, and respiratory support. However, there is no specific antidote that can reverse the effects of these vesicants. Therefore, the correct answer is "None of the above."

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  • 8. 

    First aid treatment for blood agents is amyl nitrite ampules followed by which of the compounds listed below?

    • Oral potassium chloride

    • Oral sodium thiosulfate

    • Intravenous potassium chloride

    • Intravenous sodium thiosulfate

    Correct Answer
    A. Intravenous sodium thiosulfate
    Explanation
    The correct answer is intravenous sodium thiosulfate. Blood agents are toxic substances that interfere with the body's ability to use oxygen, such as cyanide. Amyl nitrite ampules are used as a first aid treatment to help counteract the effects of blood agents. However, amyl nitrite alone is not sufficient, and it needs to be followed by the administration of intravenous sodium thiosulfate. Sodium thiosulfate helps to detoxify cyanide by converting it into a less toxic form that can be eliminated from the body. Oral potassium chloride and oral sodium thiosulfate are not as effective as intravenous administration in treating blood agents.

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  • 9. 

    The symbol for phosgene gas is

    • C1

    • CN

    • CG

    • CK

    Correct Answer
    A. CG
    Explanation
    Phosgene gas is represented by the symbol CG. The other options, C1, CN, and CK, do not represent phosgene gas.

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  • 10. 

    Which of the following odors is an early indication of exposure to phosgene gas in casualty-producing amounts?

    • Bitter almonds

    • A freshly mown lawn

    • Geraniums

    • None of the above. Phosgene is undetectable

    Correct Answer
    A. A freshly mown lawn
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "A freshly mown lawn." Phosgene gas, which is highly toxic and can cause severe respiratory distress, has a smell similar to freshly mown grass or hay. This odor is an early indication of exposure to phosgene gas in dangerous amounts. Bitter almonds and geraniums do not have any association with phosgene gas exposure, and the statement that phosgene is undetectable is incorrect.

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  • 11. 

    Exposure to fresh air and allowing wind to blow across wide open eyes is generally sufficient treatment for which of the following agents?

    • Psychochemicals

    • Lacrimators

    • Vomiting agents

    • Glycolates

    Correct Answer
    A. Lacrimators
    Explanation
    Exposure to fresh air and allowing wind to blow across wide open eyes is generally sufficient treatment for lacrimators. Lacrimators are substances that cause tears and eye irritation. By allowing fresh air and wind to blow across the eyes, it helps to dilute and remove the lacrimators, providing relief from the irritation.

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  • 12. 

    With exposure to Adamsite, which, if any, of the following actions must be taken to minimize or inhibit the symptoms of exposure?

    • Don a protective mask and continue duties as vigorously as possible

    • Give an intramuscular injection of physostigmine

    • Give an intravenous infusion of sodium thiosulfate

    • Do none of the above

    Correct Answer
    A. Don a protective mask and continue duties as vigorously as possible
    Explanation
    Donning a protective mask and continuing duties as vigorously as possible is the correct answer because Adamsite is a chemical warfare agent that can cause respiratory irritation and other symptoms. Wearing a protective mask can help minimize inhalation of the agent and reduce the severity of symptoms. Continuing duties as vigorously as possible can also help minimize exposure by reducing the time spent in the contaminated area. The other options, such as giving an intramuscular injection of physostigmine or an intravenous infusion of sodium thiosulfate, are not appropriate actions for minimizing or inhibiting the symptoms of Adamsite exposure.

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  • 13. 

    What is the proper treatment for burning white phosphorus particles embedded in the skin?

    • Surgical removal followed by a copper sulfate wet dressing

    • A copper sulfate rinse then surgical removal

    • A copper sulfate rinse only

    • Allowing them to burn out

    Correct Answer
    A. A copper sulfate rinse then surgical removal
    Explanation
    The proper treatment for burning white phosphorus particles embedded in the skin is to first rinse the affected area with copper sulfate solution to neutralize the phosphorus. This helps to prevent further burning and potential absorption into the body. After rinsing, surgical removal of the particles should be performed to ensure complete removal and prevent any potential complications or infection.

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  • 14. 

    By what means can biological agents can be detected?

    • Physical senses

    • Chemical detectors

    • Laboratory examination

    • All of the above

    Correct Answer
    A. All of the above
    Explanation
    Biological agents can be detected through physical senses, such as sight, smell, and touch, which can help identify certain signs or symptoms of infection or contamination. Chemical detectors can also be used to identify the presence of specific biological agents by detecting their unique chemical signatures. Additionally, laboratory examination involves analyzing samples, such as blood or tissue, using various techniques and tests to detect and identify biological agents. Therefore, all of these means can be used to detect biological agents.

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  • 15. 

    When entering an area known to be contaminated with biological agents, which of the following actions should be taken?

    • Put on gloves, if available

    • Button up clothing

    • Put on a protective mask

    • Do all of the above

    Correct Answer
    A. Do all of the above
  • 16. 

    What is the appropriate procedure to follow when biological agents are known to have been placed in your drinking water?

    • Double the amount of chlorine in the water

    • Double the time the water is exposed to the chlorine

    • Boil the water before you drink any of it

    • Refrain from drinking the water

    Correct Answer
    A. Boil the water before you drink any of it
  • 17. 

    Presenting a serious internal radiation hazard, alpha particles can enter the body through which of the following?

    • The digestive system

    • The respiratory system

    • Open wounds

    • Any of the above

    Correct Answer
    A. Open wounds
  • 18. 

    Of the following, which type of radiation has the greatest penetrating power?

    • Alpha

    • Beta

    • Gamma

    • Neutron

    Correct Answer
    A. Gamma
  • 19. 

    In the event of a nuclear detonation, what is the best position to assume?

    • Sitting, with the knees drawn up to the chest, facing away from the blast

    • Face down, with your face covered

    • On your side, in a fetal position facing away from the blast

    • Supine, with your face covered

    Correct Answer
    A. Face down, with your face covered
  • 20. 

    The treatment of thermal burns from a nuclear detonation differs from more conventional burn wounds in which, if any, of the following ways?

    • Conventional burn wounds are generally less serious

    • Conventional burn wounds are more likely to become infected

    • Burns resulting from a nuclear detonation are more painful

    • There is no difference

    Correct Answer
    A. There is no difference
  • 21. 

    When using antibiotics for victims of radiation injuries, what is the recommended dosage?

    • One-half of the normal dosage

    • The normal dosage

    • Two times the normal dosage

    • Three times the normal dosage

    Correct Answer
    A. Three times the normal dosage
    Explanation
    In cases of radiation injuries, the recommended dosage of antibiotics is three times the normal dosage. This increased dosage is necessary to combat the potential infections that can occur as a result of the weakened immune system caused by radiation exposure. By prescribing a higher dosage, healthcare professionals aim to ensure that the antibiotics are effective in preventing and treating any infections that may arise in these patients.

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  • 22. 

    Approximately what number of calories must be burned or consumed for the average individual to lose or gain one pound?

    • 1,500

    • 2,000

    • 3,500

    • 5,000

    Correct Answer
    A. 3,500
    Explanation
    The correct answer is 3,500. This is because it is generally accepted that in order to lose or gain one pound of weight, an individual must create a calorie deficit or surplus of 3,500 calories. This means that in order to lose one pound, a person would need to burn 3,500 more calories than they consume, while to gain one pound, they would need to consume 3,500 more calories than they burn.

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  • 23. 

    What happens to protein consumed that is in excess of body requirements?

    • Used to supply energy only

    • Changed into fat only

    • Both 1 and 2

    • Excreted from the body through elimination

    Correct Answer
    A. Both 1 and 2
  • 24. 

    What total number of amino acids are obtained solely from the food we eat?

    • 3

    • 7

    • 9

    • 11

    Correct Answer
    A. 9
  • 25. 

    What amount of protein should a nonpregnant person consume on a daily basis?

    • 0.8 g/kg

    • 1.2 g/kg

    • 2.2 lbs

    • There is no specific recommended amount

    Correct Answer
    A. 0.8 g/kg
  • 26. 

    Protein deficiency can result in which of the following conditions?

    • Nutritional edema

    • Secondary anemia

    • Restricted growth

    • Each of the above

    Correct Answer
    A. Each of the above
  • 27. 

    The number of calories generated by each gram of protein, fat, and carbohydrate, respectively is

    • 3, 6, 4

    • 4, 9, 4

    • 6, 3, 9

    • 9, 4, 6

    Correct Answer
    A. 4, 9, 4
  • 28. 

    The serum cholesterol level of adults over the age of 30 should be less than

    • 100 mg/dl

    • 150 mg/dl

    • 200 mg/dl

    • 300 mg/dl

    Correct Answer
    A. 200 mg/dl
  • 29. 

    Of the following, which is NOT a source of dietary fat?

    • Rice

    • Whole milk

    • Avocados

    • Egg yolks

    Correct Answer
    A. Rice
    Explanation
    Rice is not a source of dietary fat because it is a carbohydrate-rich food. It primarily provides carbohydrates for energy and does not contain a significant amount of fat. On the other hand, whole milk, avocados, and egg yolks are all sources of dietary fat. Whole milk contains both saturated and unsaturated fats, avocados are rich in monounsaturated fats, and egg yolks contain a combination of saturated and unsaturated fats.

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  • 30. 

    Refined and processed sugars should make up no more than what percent of an individual’s total caloric intake?

    • 5

    • 10

    • 15

    • 20

    Correct Answer
    A. 10
    Explanation
    Refined and processed sugars should make up no more than 10% of an individual's total caloric intake. This recommendation is based on the fact that excessive sugar consumption can lead to various health issues such as obesity, diabetes, and heart disease. By limiting the intake of refined and processed sugars to 10% or less, individuals can maintain a healthier diet and reduce the risk of these health problems.

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  • 31. 

    Fish.

    • Complex carbohydrates

    • Simple carbohydrates

    • Proteins

    • Fats

    Correct Answer
    A. Proteins
    Explanation
    Proteins are a type of macronutrient that is essential for the growth and repair of tissues in the body. They are made up of amino acids, which are the building blocks of proteins. Fish is a good source of protein, as it contains all the essential amino acids that the body needs. Therefore, the correct answer is proteins.

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  • 32. 

    Honey.

    • Complex carbohydrates

    • Simple carbohydrates

    • Proteins

    • Fats

    Correct Answer
    A. Simple carbohydrates
    Explanation
    Simple carbohydrates are the correct answer because honey is primarily composed of simple sugars such as glucose and fructose. Simple carbohydrates are easily broken down by the body and provide quick energy. Honey is a natural sweetener that is often used as a source of quick energy, making it a good example of a simple carbohydrate.

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  • 33. 

    Butter.

    • Complex carbohydrates

    • Simple carbohydrates

    • Proteins

    • Fats

    Correct Answer
    A. Fats
    Explanation
    Fats are a type of nutrient that provides a concentrated source of energy for the body. They are essential for various bodily functions, including hormone production, insulation, and cushioning of organs. While carbohydrates also provide energy, they are not as concentrated as fats. Proteins are primarily responsible for building and repairing tissues, while complex carbohydrates are a type of carbohydrate that takes longer to digest and provides sustained energy. Simple carbohydrates, on the other hand, are quickly digested and provide a rapid source of energy. Therefore, the correct answer is fats.

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  • 34. 

    Eggs.

    • Complex carbohydrates

    • Simple carbohydrates

    • Proteins

    • Fats

    Correct Answer
    A. Proteins
    Explanation
    Proteins are essential macronutrients that play a crucial role in the growth, repair, and maintenance of body tissues. They are made up of amino acids, which are the building blocks of life. Unlike carbohydrates and fats, proteins contain nitrogen, which is required for the synthesis of DNA, enzymes, and hormones. Additionally, proteins are involved in various bodily functions such as muscle contraction, immune response, and transportation of molecules. Therefore, proteins are the correct answer as they have unique properties and functions compared to other macronutrients.

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  • 35. 

    Corn.

    • Complex carbohydrates

    • Simple carbohydrates

    • Proteins

    • Fats

    Correct Answer
    A. Complex carbohydrates
    Explanation
    Complex carbohydrates, such as corn, are made up of long chains of sugar molecules. These molecules take longer to break down in the body, providing a slow and steady release of energy. This makes complex carbohydrates a healthier choice compared to simple carbohydrates, which are quickly broken down and can cause blood sugar spikes. Proteins and fats are not carbohydrates and do not fall into the same category as corn.

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  • 36. 

    An otherwise normal, healthy diet is always sufficient to provide an individual with adequate levels of minerals.

    • TRUE

    • FALSE

    Correct Answer
    A. TRUE
  • 37. 

    Consumption of excessive amounts of certain vitamins can, in some circumstances, be fatal.

    • TRUE

    • FALSE

    Correct Answer
    A. FALSE
  • 38. 

    Which of the following is sometimes referred to as "the forgotten nutrient"?

    • Selenium

    • Phosphorus

    • Water

    • Fructose

    Correct Answer
    A. Water
  • 39. 

    According to the Dietary Guidelines for Americans, upon which of the following dietary elements should a nutritional diet be based?

    • Fruits and vegetables

    • Complex carbohydrates

    • Fats

    • Dairy

    Correct Answer
    A. Complex carbohydrates
  • 40. 

    Fried foods, as long as they are not too crisp, may be included in a soft diet.

    • TRUE

    • FALSE

    Correct Answer
    A. FALSE
    Explanation
    Fried foods are generally not recommended for a soft diet. Soft diets are typically prescribed for individuals with difficulty chewing or swallowing, and fried foods can be hard and crunchy, making them difficult to consume. Additionally, fried foods are often high in fat and can be harder to digest, which may not be suitable for individuals on a soft diet. Therefore, the statement that fried foods may be included in a soft diet is false.

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  • 41. 

    When a liquid diet has been ordered by the attending physician or dietician, the feedings should be ____ ounces and administered every ____ hours.

    • 4-6, 3-4

    • 6-8, 2-3

    • 8-10, 6-8

    • 10-12, 2-3

    Correct Answer
    A. 6-8, 2-3
    Explanation
    When a liquid diet has been ordered, the feedings should be 6-8 ounces and administered every 2-3 hours. This ensures that the patient receives an adequate amount of nutrition throughout the day without overwhelming their digestive system. The 6-8 ounce serving size allows for a sufficient amount of calories and nutrients, while the 2-3 hour interval allows for proper digestion and absorption of the nutrients before the next feeding.

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  • 42. 

    A high-calorie diet may be effected by modifying the regular diet in which of the following ways?

    • Adding snacks

    • Increasing portions

    • Providing commercial supplements

    • Each of the above

    Correct Answer
    A. Each of the above
    Explanation
    A high-calorie diet can be achieved by modifying the regular diet in each of the mentioned ways. Adding snacks can increase the overall calorie intake, while increasing portion sizes can also contribute to consuming more calories. Additionally, providing commercial supplements can be an effective way to add extra calories to the diet. Therefore, all of the mentioned options can help in achieving a high-calorie diet.

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  • 43. 

    Malnourishment.

    • Liquid

    • High-calorie

    • High-protein

    • Low-calorie

    Correct Answer
    A. High-calorie
    Explanation
    Malnourishment refers to a condition where the body does not receive adequate nutrition. High-calorie foods provide a larger amount of energy, which is essential for individuals who are malnourished as it helps in meeting their increased energy needs. Therefore, high-calorie foods are beneficial in combating malnourishment by providing the necessary energy to the body.

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  • 44. 

    Hypothyroidism.

    • Low-protein

    • Low-calorie

    • High-protein

    • High-calorie

    Correct Answer
    A. Low-calorie
    Explanation
    The correct answer is low-calorie because hypothyroidism is a condition where the thyroid gland does not produce enough thyroid hormone, leading to a slower metabolism. In order to manage weight and prevent further weight gain, individuals with hypothyroidism are often advised to follow a low-calorie diet. This helps to create a calorie deficit and promote weight loss.

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  • 45. 

    Inflammatory GI tract.

    • Liquid

    • High-calorie

    • High-protein

    • Low-calorie

    Correct Answer
    A. Liquid
  • 46. 

    Low production of antibodies.

    • Low-protein

    • Low-calorie

    • High-protein

    • High-calorie

    Correct Answer
    A. Low-protein
  • 47. 

    Chronic nephrotic edema.

    • High-calorie

    • High-protein

    • Low-calorie

    • Low-protein

    Correct Answer
    A. High-protein
  • 48. 

    Which of the following is appropriate procedure in the administration of a highresidue diet?

    • Ensure adequate fluid intake

    • Limit caffeine intake

    • Provide raw or tender-cooked vegetables

    • All of the above

    Correct Answer
    A. Provide raw or tender-cooked vegetables
  • 49. 

    Peptic ulcers.

    • Low-carbohydrate, highprotein

    • Bland

    • Low-sodium

    • Low-residue

    Correct Answer
    A. Bland

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