AP Psychology Final Test

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AP Psychology Final Test - Quiz

This test is structured like the AP Exam and many of the questions are real questions from previous AP exams.


Questions and Answers
  • 1. 

    1) If there is a .8 correlation between hand size and brain size, then there is a:

    • A.

      A. weak positive correlation

    • B.

      B. strong positive correlation

    • C.

      C. weak negative correlation

    • D.

      D. strong negative correlation

    • E.

      E. no correlation

    Correct Answer
    B. B. strong positive correlation
    Explanation
    A correlation coefficient of .8 indicates a strong positive correlation between hand size and brain size. This means that as hand size increases, brain size also tends to increase, and vice versa. The correlation coefficient ranges from -1 to 1, with values closer to 1 indicating a stronger positive correlation. Therefore, the correct answer is B. strong positive correlation.

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  • 2. 

    This man campaigned to make psychology its own separate science and made the first laboratory for psychology research. 

    • A.

      G. Stanely Hall

    • B.

      B. F. Skinner

    • C.

      Sigmund Freud

    • D.

      Wilhelm Wundt

    Correct Answer
    D. Wilhelm Wundt
    Explanation
    Wilhelm Wundt is the correct answer because he campaigned to make psychology its own separate science and established the first laboratory for psychology research. He is considered the founder of experimental psychology and his work laid the foundation for the development of modern psychology as a distinct scientific discipline.

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  • 3. 

    Pete Psych examined the effects of room temperature on the effectiveness of studying. He took the first 50 students who came to school and asked them to participate in the experiment. He treated each student equally and told them what was going on. Then, pete executed the experiment and found that the closer to 71.8 degrees Fahrenheit the room was, the more effective the studying. What was Pete's error? 

    • A.

      Social desirability bias

    • B.

      Sampling bias

    • C.

      Placebo effect

    • D.

      Experimenter bias

    • E.

      All of the above

    Correct Answer
    B. Sampling bias
    Explanation
    Pete's error is sampling bias. He only selected the first 50 students who came to school, which may not be representative of the entire student population. This could lead to skewed results and an inaccurate conclusion about the effects of room temperature on studying.

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  • 4. 

    The "All-or-None" law states that: 

    • A.

      Either a neuron fires off, or it doesn't

    • B.

      All of the hormones are released into the bloodstream at once

    • C.

      They Synaptic Cleft absorbs every neurotransmitter or none

    • D.

      Either all of the neurons in the Central Area are effected or none are

    Correct Answer
    A. Either a neuron fires off, or it doesn't
    Explanation
    The "All-or-None" law states that a neuron either fires off completely, resulting in an action potential, or it does not fire at all. This means that the strength or intensity of the stimulus does not affect the firing of the neuron. Once the threshold is reached, the neuron fires with maximum strength, but if the threshold is not reached, no firing occurs. This principle applies to the generation of action potentials in individual neurons throughout the nervous system.

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  • 5. 

    An Electroencephalography (EEG) studies the brain by: 

    • A.

      Stimulating a portion of the brain with electricity and observing the effects

    • B.

      Enhancing or suppressing activity in a particular region of the brain

    • C.

      Monitoring electrical activity in the brain

    • D.

      Monitoring radioactive chemicals as they flow through the blood into the brain

    Correct Answer
    C. Monitoring electrical activity in the brain
    Explanation
    An Electroencephalography (EEG) is a technique used to study the brain by monitoring its electrical activity. This involves placing electrodes on the scalp to detect and record the electrical signals produced by the brain. By analyzing these signals, researchers can gain insights into brain function, such as identifying abnormal patterns associated with certain neurological conditions or studying the effects of different stimuli on brain activity. This method does not involve stimulating the brain with electricity or monitoring radioactive chemicals, but rather focuses on observing and analyzing the natural electrical activity of the brain.

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  • 6. 

    The part of the brain that acts as a relay system by monitoring all incoming information and sending it to the correct place

    • A.

      Thalamus

    • B.

      Medulla

    • C.

      Cerebrum

    • D.

      Pons

    Correct Answer
    A. Thalamus
    Explanation
    The thalamus is a part of the brain that acts as a relay system by monitoring all incoming information and sending it to the correct place. It receives sensory information from various parts of the body and relays it to the appropriate regions of the cerebral cortex for further processing. The thalamus also plays a role in regulating consciousness, sleep, and alertness. It acts as a central hub for sensory information, ensuring that it is properly directed and processed by the brain.

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  • 7. 

    Ethnocentrism is: 

    • A.

      Behavior explained in terms of Psychological processes

    • B.

      The mental process involved in acquiring knowledge

    • C.

      An emphasis on the unique qualities of humans

    • D.

      Viewing ones group as superior and as the standard judging

    Correct Answer
    D. Viewing ones group as superior and as the standard judging
    Explanation
    Ethnocentrism refers to the belief or attitude that one's own ethnic or cultural group is superior to others and should be used as the standard for judging and evaluating others. It involves viewing one's group as superior and often leads to biased judgments and discrimination against other groups. Ethnocentrism can hinder intercultural understanding and cooperation, as it promotes a narrow perspective that disregards the value and diversity of other cultures.

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  • 8. 

    The requirements for control group are: 

    • A.

      Random Sampling

    • B.

      Random Assignment

    • C.

      Results must be due to independent variable

    • D.

      All of the Above

    Correct Answer
    D. All of the Above
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "All of the Above" because all three requirements mentioned - random sampling, random assignment, and results being due to the independent variable - are essential for a control group. Random sampling ensures that the participants in the control group are representative of the population, random assignment helps in distributing potential confounding variables equally among groups, and results being due to the independent variable ensures that any observed effects can be attributed to the treatment or intervention being studied.

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  • 9. 

    In order to use deception in an experiment, the experimenter must: 

    • A.

      Tell the participants that they will be deceived in some way

    • B.

      Fully debrief the participant after the experiment is over

    • C.

      Only deceive when necessary

    • D.

      Both A & C are correct

    • E.

      Both B & C are correct

    Correct Answer
    E. Both B & C are correct
    Explanation
    In order to use deception in an experiment, the experimenter must fully debrief the participant after the experiment is over and only deceive when necessary. This means that the participants should be informed about the deception that will occur in the experiment and should be provided with a complete explanation of the purpose and procedures of the study after it is finished. Additionally, deception should only be used when it is essential for the research and cannot be conducted without it. Therefore, both statements B and C are correct.

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  • 10. 

    Which of the following is not a part of the Pheripheral Nervous System? 

    • A.

      Central Nervous System

    • B.

      Somatic Nervous System

    • C.

      Autonomic Nervous System

    • D.

      Sympathetic Nervous System

    Correct Answer
    A. Central Nervous System
    Explanation
    The central nervous system is not a part of the peripheral nervous system. The peripheral nervous system consists of the somatic nervous system and the autonomic nervous system, which includes the sympathetic nervous system. The central nervous system, on the other hand, includes the brain and spinal cord and is responsible for processing and coordinating information received from the peripheral nervous system.

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  • 11. 

    When asked which of two countries has a larger population, participants are likely to judge the country that is more familiar to them as being more populous. Which of the following best explains this finding? 

    • A.

      A means-end analysis

    • B.

      The representativeness heuristic

    • C.

      The availability heuristic

    • D.

      Algorithms

    • E.

      Inductive Reasoning

    Correct Answer
    C. The availability heuristic
    Explanation
    The availability heuristic best explains this finding. This heuristic refers to the tendency of individuals to rely on easily accessible information or examples that come to mind when making judgments or decisions. In the context of population size, individuals are more likely to judge a country as having a larger population if they are more familiar with it or if it is more easily accessible in their memory. This can lead to biased judgments, as familiarity does not always correlate with actual population size.

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  • 12. 

    An individual with damage to Wernicke's area is most likely to have difficulty with 

    • A.

      Identifying an object held in the hand but not seen

    • B.

      Planning what to wear to a party

    • C.

      Remembering the name of a person in a photograph

    • D.

      Comprehending a spoken request for information

    • E.

      Distinguishing between red and green

    Correct Answer
    D. Comprehending a spoken request for information
    Explanation
    An individual with damage to Wernicke's area is most likely to have difficulty with comprehending a spoken request for information. Wernicke's area is responsible for language comprehension, so damage to this area can result in difficulties understanding and interpreting spoken language. This can include difficulty in processing and comprehending requests for information.

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  • 13. 

    They psychoanalytic concept of repression suggests a difficulty in the functioning of which aspect of memory? 

    • A.

      Encoding

    • B.

      Short-term memory

    • C.

      Procedural memory

    • D.

      Explicit memory

    • E.

      Retrieval

    Correct Answer
    E. Retrieval
    Explanation
    The correct answer is retrieval. The concept of repression in psychoanalysis suggests that certain memories or thoughts are pushed into the unconscious mind and are difficult to retrieve consciously. This means that individuals may have difficulty accessing or recalling these repressed memories. Therefore, the functioning of retrieval, which involves the process of accessing stored information from memory, is affected by repression.

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  • 14. 

    Which psychologist reported that infant attachment to another goes beyond the satisfaction of the need for nourishmnet? 

    • A.

      Albert Bandura

    • B.

      Jean Piaget

    • C.

      Harry Harlow

    • D.

      Erik Erikson

    • E.

      Kondrad Lorenz

    Correct Answer
    C. Harry Harlow
    Explanation
    Harry Harlow is the correct answer because he conducted a series of experiments with rhesus monkeys that showed that attachment between infants and their caregivers is not solely based on the satisfaction of physical needs such as nourishment. Harlow's research demonstrated that infants also seek comfort and emotional support from their caregivers, highlighting the importance of social and emotional connections in attachment relationships.

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  • 15. 

    Edward L. Thorndike argued that responses that lead to satisfying outcomes are more likely to be repeated, and that responses followed by unpleasant outcomes are less likely to be repeated. This became known as the law of

    • A.

      Reinforcement

    • B.

      Associations

    • C.

      Punishment

    • D.

      Effect

    • E.

      Outcomes

    Correct Answer
    D. Effect
    Explanation
    Edward L. Thorndike argued that responses that lead to satisfying outcomes are more likely to be repeated, and that responses followed by unpleasant outcomes are less likely to be repeated. This suggests that the effect of these outcomes on behavior is what determines whether a response will be repeated or not. Therefore, the correct answer is "Effect".

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  • 16. 

    When trying to solve a problem, Bret uses a logical, step-by-step formula called

    • A.

      A heuristic

    • B.

      Incubation

    • C.

      Insight

    • D.

      Priming

    • E.

      An algorithm

    Correct Answer
    E. An algorithm
    Explanation
    Bret uses a logical, step-by-step formula called an algorithm when trying to solve a problem. An algorithm is a set of instructions or rules that are followed in order to solve a problem or complete a task. It involves breaking down the problem into smaller, more manageable steps and following a specific sequence to reach a solution. Algorithms are often used in computer programming and problem-solving processes to ensure a systematic approach to finding solutions.

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  • 17. 

    It is well established that certain autonomic responses such as heart rate, perspiration, and respiration change under stress. In view of the fact that people generally have stronger autonomic responses when lying than when telling the truth, it follows that the polygraph would be a foolproof approach to lie detection. Which statement best explains why the polygraph is not more widely used in courtrooms and in testing of job applicants? 

    • A.

      Most people can avoid detection when they lie

    • B.

      Physiological arousal is much the same for several emotions, so the polygraph cannot always reliably distinguish guilt from other reactions.

    • C.

      A significant number of people show paradoxical autonomic reactions, responding more strongly when telling the truth than when lying.

    • D.

      In controlled studies, the polygraph has correctly identified guilty individuals in only a small percentage of cases.

    • E.

      The polygraph has been shown to be reliable only in highly emotional cases, such as child abuse and spying.

    Correct Answer
    B. pHysiological arousal is much the same for several emotions, so the polygrapH cannot always reliably distinguish guilt from other reactions.
    Explanation
    The polygraph is not more widely used in courtrooms and in testing of job applicants because physiological arousal, such as heart rate, perspiration, and respiration, can occur in response to various emotions, not just guilt. Therefore, the polygraph cannot always accurately distinguish between guilt and other reactions, making it an unreliable method for lie detection.

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  • 18. 

    The principles of operant conditioning are best illustrated by 

    • A.

      Exposing a client to anxiety-provoking stimuli

    • B.

      Replacing a response to a stimulus with an alternative response

    • C.

      Deep relaxation techniques

    • D.

      A token economy to reinforce adaptive behaviors

    • E.

      Development of intrinsic motivation

    Correct Answer
    D. A token economy to reinforce adaptive behaviors
    Explanation
    The principles of operant conditioning involve using rewards and punishments to shape behavior. A token economy is a system where individuals earn tokens for engaging in desired behaviors, which can then be exchanged for rewards. This system reinforces adaptive behaviors by providing a tangible incentive for individuals to engage in them. This aligns with the principles of operant conditioning as it involves using positive reinforcement (tokens) to increase the likelihood of adaptive behaviors occurring again in the future.

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  • 19. 

    A man is feeling depressed about his inability to provide for his family after losing his job. The fact that the patient is currently unemployed is coded on which axis in the Diagnostic and Statistical Manual of Mental Disorders (DSM-IV-TR)? 

    • A.

      Axis I

    • B.

      Axis II

    • C.

      Axis III

    • D.

      Axis IV

    • E.

      Axis V

    Correct Answer
    D. Axis IV
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Axis IV. Axis IV in the DSM-IV-TR is used to code psychosocial and environmental problems that may contribute to the diagnosis, treatment, and prognosis of mental disorders. In this case, the man's unemployment and resulting financial stressors would be coded on Axis IV because they are external factors that are impacting his mental well-being.

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  • 20. 

    Researchers find that there is a significant, positive correlation between the number of hours students sleep and their grades. The researcher would be justified in concluding that 

    • A.

      Earning good grades causes people to sleep more.

    • B.

      Sleeping more causes students to perform better in school.

    • C.

      Students who earn good grades tend to sleep more than those who do not.

    • D.

      More sleep has beneficial impact on students' grades.

    • E.

      Sleep deprivation has no impact on school performance.

    Correct Answer
    C. Students who earn good grades tend to sleep more than those who do not.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "Students who earn good grades tend to sleep more than those who do not." This conclusion is supported by the statement that there is a significant, positive correlation between the number of hours students sleep and their grades. This means that as the number of hours students sleep increases, their grades also tend to improve. Therefore, it can be inferred that students who earn good grades are more likely to prioritize sleep and get more hours of sleep compared to those who do not perform well academically.

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  • 21. 

    In phase one of a study, a researcher classically conditions a dog to salivate to the ringing of a bell. In the second phase, the researcher pairs a flashing light with the ringing of the bell. After several pairings of the light and the bell, the dog will

    • A.

      No longer salivate when the bell is rung

    • B.

      Only salivate when the bell is rung

    • C.

      Salivate when the light is flashed

    • D.

      Stop salivating when the light is flashed

    • E.

      Salivate when the researcher comes into the room

    Correct Answer
    C. Salivate when the light is flashed
    Explanation
    In classical conditioning, an initially neutral stimulus (flashing light) is paired with a conditioned stimulus (ringing bell) that already elicits a response (salivation). Through repeated pairings, the flashing light becomes associated with the bell, and the dog learns to associate the light with the impending presentation of food, which leads to salivation. Therefore, after several pairings of the light and the bell, the dog will start to salivate when the light is flashed.

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  • 22. 

    Jason is attending a parade that features the local high school band. Jason's friend Brent plays the trombone in the band. It is difficult for Jason to hear Brent play at the parade. Which of the following would best allow Jason to hear Brent's trombone? 

    • A.

      Sensory adaptation

    • B.

      Selective attention

    • C.

      Perceptual constancy

    • D.

      Weber's law

    • E.

      Functional fixedness

    Correct Answer
    B. Selective attention
    Explanation
    Selective attention would best allow Jason to hear Brent's trombone. Selective attention refers to the ability to focus on specific stimuli while filtering out irrelevant information. In this scenario, Jason can use selective attention to focus his auditory attention on Brent's trombone amidst the noise and distractions of the parade. By selectively attending to the sound of the trombone, Jason can effectively hear Brent's performance.

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  • 23. 

    In psychological research, which of the following is most appropriate for identifying cause and effect? 

    • A.

      Participant observation

    • B.

      Survey methodology

    • C.

      Case study

    • D.

      Experimentation

    • E.

      Correlational techniques

    Correct Answer
    D. Experimentation
    Explanation
    Experimentation is the most appropriate method for identifying cause and effect in psychological research. This method involves manipulating an independent variable and observing its effects on a dependent variable, while controlling for other variables. By randomly assigning participants to different conditions and manipulating the independent variable, researchers can establish a cause and effect relationship. This allows for greater control over extraneous variables and provides stronger evidence for causal claims compared to other methods such as participant observation, survey methodology, case study, or correlational techniques.

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  • 24. 

    The region of the brain most involved in the experience of emotions is the 

    • A.

      Cerebellum

    • B.

      Basal Ganglia

    • C.

      Limbic System

    • D.

      Reticular Activating System

    • E.

      Parasympathetic Nervous System

    Correct Answer
    C. Limbic System
    Explanation
    The limbic system is the region of the brain most involved in the experience of emotions. It includes several structures such as the amygdala, hippocampus, and hypothalamus, which play crucial roles in processing emotions, forming memories, and regulating physiological responses. The limbic system is responsible for generating emotional responses, such as fear, pleasure, and anger, and also plays a role in motivation and decision-making.

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  • 25. 

    Which part of the cerebral cortex receives information about temperature, pressure, touch, and pain? 

    • A.

      Motor cortex

    • B.

      Prefrontal cortex

    • C.

      Temporal lobe

    • D.

      Occipital lobe

    • E.

      Parietal lobe

    Correct Answer
    E. Parietal lobe
    Explanation
    The parietal lobe is responsible for receiving information about temperature, pressure, touch, and pain. This region of the cerebral cortex is involved in processing sensory information from different parts of the body, allowing us to perceive and respond to various stimuli. The motor cortex is responsible for controlling voluntary movements, the prefrontal cortex is involved in higher cognitive functions, the temporal lobe is associated with auditory processing and memory, and the occipital lobe is responsible for visual processing.

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  • 26. 

    Visual negative afterimages are a result of 

    • A.

      Opponent-processes

    • B.

      Simultaneous contrast

    • C.

      Spatial summation

    • D.

      Brightness oversensitivity

    • E.

      Color intensity

    Correct Answer
    A. Opponent-processes
    Explanation
    Visual negative afterimages are a result of opponent-processes. Opponent-processes theory suggests that our visual system perceives colors in pairs, such as red-green, blue-yellow, and black-white. When we stare at a color for an extended period of time, the cells responsible for detecting that color become fatigued. As a result, when we look away, the cells responsible for the opposing color become more active, creating a negative afterimage. This is why we see a complementary color after staring at a color for a while.

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  • 27. 

    During REM sleep, which of the following is most likely to occur? 

    • A.

      Slowed respiration

    • B.

      Sleepwalking

    • C.

      Stable blood pressure

    • D.

      Decreased heart rate

    • E.

      Suppressed muscle tone

    Correct Answer
    E. Suppressed muscle tone
    Explanation
    During REM sleep, the body experiences muscle atonia, which is the suppression or inhibition of muscle tone. This is necessary to prevent individuals from physically acting out their dreams and potentially causing harm to themselves or others. This state of muscle relaxation is a characteristic feature of REM sleep and allows for vivid dreaming while keeping the body immobile. Slowed respiration, sleepwalking, stable blood pressure, and decreased heart rate are not typically associated with REM sleep.

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  • 28. 

    Which of the following illustrates a variable ratio schedule of reinforcement? 

    • A.

      Receiving five dollars weekly for completing household chores

    • B.

      Receiving a grade of A on every paper submitted in a course

    • C.

      Winning the lottery after playing many times

    • D.

      Receiving a dollar for each mile completed in a charity walkathon

    • E.

      Being given increased use of the family car after reaching age 18

    Correct Answer
    C. Winning the lottery after playing many times
  • 29. 

    The concepts of functional fixedness refers to the fact that 

    • A.

      Experts solve problems intuitively while beginners solve them by trial and error

    • B.

      Solutions to problems often occur suddenly after an incubation period

    • C.

      Individuals differ in their ability to visualize how objects will appear when rotated in space

    • D.

      Individuals often do not see unusual uses or applications for familiar objects

    • E.

      Learning under partial reinforcement is very resistant to extinction

    Correct Answer
    D. Individuals often do not see unusual uses or applications for familiar objects
    Explanation
    The concept of functional fixedness refers to the tendency of individuals to only see familiar objects in their usual or intended use, and not consider alternative or unusual uses for them. This means that individuals often do not think creatively or outside of the box when it comes to using familiar objects, limiting their problem-solving abilities.

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  • 30. 

    This past year donna was promoted from eighth to ninth grade and was assigned a new school locker with a new combination. Donna has found that she has trouble remembering her new combinatino because it is similar to her old one. The memory problem Donna is experiencing is most probably a result of 

    • A.

      Sensory memory decay

    • B.

      Proactive interference

    • C.

      Retroactive interference

    • D.

      State-dependent memory

    • E.

      Encoding failure

    Correct Answer
    B. Proactive interference
    Explanation
    Donna's memory problem is most likely a result of proactive interference. Proactive interference occurs when previously learned information interferes with the recall of new information. In this case, Donna's old locker combination is interfering with her ability to remember her new combination because they are similar. This interference is proactive because the old information is affecting the recall of new information.

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  • 31. 

    Current research suggest that a sense of self-efficacy is most likely to be associated with 

    • A.

      A high degree of social compliance

    • B.

      A low threshold for emotional arousal

    • C.

      A stable external attributional style

    • D.

      An external locus of control

    • E.

      An internal locus of control

    Correct Answer
    E. An internal locus of control
    Explanation
    Research suggests that individuals with a high sense of self-efficacy are more likely to have an internal locus of control. This means that they believe they have control over their own actions and outcomes. They are likely to attribute their successes and failures to their own abilities and efforts rather than external factors. This internal locus of control gives them a sense of empowerment and confidence, leading to a higher sense of self-efficacy.

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  • 32. 

    According to Erik Erikson, the major developmental task during adolescence is to achieve a sense of 

    • A.

      Competence

    • B.

      Responsibility

    • C.

      Integrity

    • D.

      Identity

    • E.

      Intimacy

    Correct Answer
    D. Identity
    Explanation
    During adolescence, individuals go through a period of self-discovery and exploration, trying to establish their own identity and sense of self. This involves developing a clear understanding of one's values, beliefs, and goals, as well as forming a coherent sense of identity that is consistent with one's own experiences and aspirations. Erik Erikson believed that successfully navigating this stage leads to a strong and stable sense of identity, while failure to do so can result in confusion and a lack of direction in life. Therefore, according to Erikson, the major developmental task during adolescence is to achieve a sense of identity.

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  • 33. 

    In which of the following Piagetian stages is propositional reasoning most likely to be used? 

    • A.

      Secondary circular reasoning

    • B.

      Preoperational

    • C.

      Formal operational

    • D.

      Concrete operational

    • E.

      Internalization of schemes

    Correct Answer
    C. Formal operational
    Explanation
    Propositional reasoning involves the ability to think logically and systematically about abstract concepts and hypothetical situations. This type of reasoning is characteristic of the formal operational stage in Piaget's theory of cognitive development. During this stage, which typically occurs in adolescence and adulthood, individuals can engage in abstract thinking, consider multiple perspectives, and use deductive reasoning to solve problems. Therefore, propositional reasoning is most likely to be used during the formal operational stage.

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  • 34. 

    According to psychoanalytic theory, one of the most important functions of the ego is to 

    • A.

      Facilitate gratification of desires at an appropriate time

    • B.

      Govern behavior prior to the development of the superego and the id

    • C.

      Achieve immediate gratification of desires

    • D.

      Satisfy the demands of the superego

    • E.

      Act as the conscience of the individual

    Correct Answer
    A. Facilitate gratification of desires at an appropriate time
    Explanation
    According to psychoanalytic theory, the ego's main function is to facilitate the gratification of desires at an appropriate time. This means that the ego helps to balance and manage the conflicting demands of the id (which seeks immediate gratification) and the superego (which represents societal norms and moral values). The ego acts as a mediator, allowing the individual to satisfy their desires in a way that is socially acceptable and appropriate.

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  • 35. 

    Which of the following best illustrates a humanistic approach to personality? 

    • A.

      Establishing gender schema in the development of sex roles

    • B.

      Recognizing the importance of unconscious forces and biological instincts

    • C.

      Using functional analyses to specify external variables that regulate behavior

    • D.

      Emphasizing personal growth and achievement of individual potential

    • E.

      Exploring the childhood roots of behavior

    Correct Answer
    D. EmpHasizing personal growth and achievement of individual potential
    Explanation
    The correct answer emphasizes personal growth and achievement of individual potential. This is a key principle of the humanistic approach to personality, which focuses on the unique qualities and potential of each individual. It emphasizes self-actualization, personal fulfillment, and the importance of subjective experiences and self-perception in shaping personality. This approach emphasizes the positive aspects of human nature and the belief that individuals have the capacity to grow, change, and reach their full potential.

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  • 36. 

    The reliability of a test is best indicated by which of the following? 

    • A.

      The difficulty of the test for the intended population of test takers

    • B.

      The spread of scores on the test

    • C.

      The extent to which scores on the test correlate with a different measure of performance

    • D.

      The degree to which scores on the test form a normal distribution

    • E.

      The consistency of scores on repeated administrations of the test

    Correct Answer
    E. The consistency of scores on repeated administrations of the test
    Explanation
    The reliability of a test is best indicated by the consistency of scores on repeated administrations of the test. This means that if the same test is given to the same group of individuals multiple times, the scores should be consistent and show minimal variability. This indicates that the test is reliable and is measuring the same construct consistently.

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  • 37. 

    Which of the following sets of numbers has the largest standard deviation? 

    • A.

      -2, -1, 0, +1, +2

    • B.

      1.00, 1.25, 1.50, 1.75, 2.00, 2.25, 2.50, 2.75, 3.00

    • C.

      2, 6, 10, 14, 18

    • D.

      5.756, 5.765, 5.890, 5.895, 5.923

    • E.

      91, 92, 93, 94, 95

    Correct Answer
    C. 2, 6, 10, 14, 18
    Explanation
    The set of numbers 2, 6, 10, 14, 18 has the largest standard deviation because the numbers in this set are more spread out compared to the other sets. The range between each number is larger, resulting in a larger spread of data points from the mean. This leads to a larger standard deviation, which measures the dispersion or variability of the data set.

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  • 38. 

    An individual who experiences major distortions of reality is most likely suffering from which of hte following types of disorders? 

    • A.

      Anxiety

    • B.

      Mood

    • C.

      Adjustment

    • D.

      Schizophrenic

    • E.

      Bipolar

    Correct Answer
    D. SchizopHrenic
    Explanation
    An individual who experiences major distortions of reality is most likely suffering from Schizophrenic disorder. Schizophrenia is a chronic mental disorder characterized by distorted thinking, hallucinations, delusions, and impaired social functioning. These individuals may experience a break from reality, hearing voices, having false beliefs, and having difficulty distinguishing between what is real and what is not. Anxiety, mood, adjustment, and bipolar disorders do not typically cause major distortions of reality like schizophrenia does.

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  • 39. 

    A person with agoraphobia is best described as an individual who 

    • A.

      Displays suicidal behavior in stressful situations

    • B.

      Shows little regard for social norms

    • C.

      Suffers from an irrational fear and avoidance of public places

    • D.

      Suffers from chronic fatigue and paranoia in social situations

    • E.

      Shows excessive mood swings without warning

    Correct Answer
    C. Suffers from an irrational fear and avoidance of public places
    Explanation
    A person with agoraphobia is best described as an individual who suffers from an irrational fear and avoidance of public places. Agoraphobia is a type of anxiety disorder in which a person has an intense fear of situations or places where they feel trapped, embarrassed, or helpless. This fear often leads to avoidance of these situations or places, such as crowded areas, public transportation, or open spaces. The person may experience panic attacks or extreme anxiety when faced with these situations, and their fear can significantly impact their daily life and functioning.

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  • 40. 

    Jared wants to use the foot-in-the-door technique to try to convince his parents to buy him a car. Which of the following would most clealry demonstrate his correct application of the technique? 

    • A.

      He asks his parents for a very expensive truck, and when they refuse, he asks for an economy car.

    • B.

      He tells his parents that he will sacrifice half his allowance for a year if they will buy him a car.

    • C.

      He asks his parents to buy him a bicycle, and when they agree to do that, he asks them to buy him a car instead.

    • D.

      He tells his parents that if they buy him a car, he will wash their car every week and drive his little sister to school.

    • E.

      Before asking his parents to buy him a car, he comments on what a fantastic job they have done in raising him.

    Correct Answer
    C. He asks his parents to buy him a bicycle, and when they agree to do that, he asks them to buy him a car instead.
    Explanation
    This answer demonstrates the foot-in-the-door technique because Jared starts by making a small request (asking for a bicycle) that his parents are likely to agree to. Once they agree to this request, he then follows up with a larger request (asking for a car) which is more likely to be granted due to the initial compliance with the smaller request. This technique works by gradually escalating the size of the requests, increasing the likelihood of compliance.

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  • 41. 

    With which of the following would a cognitively oriented therapist most likely be concerned? 

    • A.

      The number of negative self-statements made by the patient

    • B.

      The temperament of the patient as a child

    • C.

      The number of individuals in the patient's household

    • D.

      The physiological makeup of the patient

    • E.

      The responses made by the patient on a projective test

    Correct Answer
    A. The number of negative self-statements made by the patient
    Explanation
    A cognitively oriented therapist focuses on the thoughts and beliefs of the patient. Negative self-statements indicate negative thinking patterns and low self-esteem, which are important concerns for a cognitively oriented therapist. By addressing and challenging these negative thoughts, the therapist can help the patient develop healthier and more positive cognitive patterns, leading to improved mental well-being.

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  • 42. 

    Social learning experiments on the modeling of aggresssive behavior have demonstrated that 

    • A.

      Children are not affected by watching violence on television

    • B.

      Abusive parenting accounts for most children's aggressive acts

    • C.

      Children can develop aggressive behavior simply by watching others perform aggressive acts

    • D.

      Children's aggressive behavior must be reinforced for it to be repeated

    • E.

      Children imitate aggressive behavior seen on television only if the media violence is performed by children

    Correct Answer
    C. Children can develop aggressive behavior simply by watching others perform aggressive acts
    Explanation
    Children can develop aggressive behavior simply by watching others perform aggressive acts. This is supported by social learning experiments on the modeling of aggressive behavior. These experiments have shown that children can learn and imitate aggressive behavior by observing others engaging in such acts, even without any reinforcement or direct involvement. This suggests that exposure to aggressive behavior can have a significant impact on children's behavior and may contribute to the development of aggression in them.

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  • 43. 

    "I am primarily interested in thinking processes; I am a _______________ psychologist." 

    • A.

      Cognitive

    • B.

      Learning

    • C.

      Perception

    • D.

      Personality

    Correct Answer
    A. Cognitive
    Explanation
    The given statement suggests that the person is primarily interested in studying thinking processes. This aligns with the field of cognitive psychology, which focuses on understanding mental processes such as perception, memory, attention, and problem-solving. Therefore, the correct answer is cognitive.

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  • 44. 

    Like Carl Rogers, I believe people choose to live more creative and meaningful lives. My name is

    • A.

      Wertheimer

    • B.

      Washburn

    • C.

      Skinner

    • D.

      Maslow

    Correct Answer
    D. Maslow
    Explanation
    This statement aligns with the beliefs of Maslow, who proposed the theory of self-actualization and the hierarchy of needs. Maslow argued that individuals have an innate drive to fulfill their potential and strive for personal growth and self-fulfillment. He emphasized the importance of self-actualization and the pursuit of creative and meaningful lives. Therefore, the given statement is consistent with Maslow's views.

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  • 45. 

    Of the following, who is a humanistic psychologist? 

    • A.

      Sigmund Freud

    • B.

      Carl Rogers

    • C.

      B. F. Skinner

    • D.

      John Watson

    Correct Answer
    B. Carl Rogers
    Explanation
    Carl Rogers is considered a humanistic psychologist because he developed the person-centered approach to therapy. He believed that individuals have the ability to reach their full potential and that therapy should focus on providing a supportive and empathetic environment for personal growth and self-discovery. Rogers emphasized the importance of unconditional positive regard, empathy, and genuineness in the therapeutic relationship, allowing clients to explore their feelings and experiences without judgment. His approach revolutionized the field of psychology and contributed significantly to the humanistic perspective.

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  • 46. 

    The final step (within the ear) required to convert vibrations into sound sensatins is movement of the 

    • A.

      Hair cells

    • B.

      Cochlea

    • C.

      Pinna

    • D.

      Ossicles

    Correct Answer
    A. Hair cells
    Explanation
    The final step within the ear that converts vibrations into sound sensations is the movement of the hair cells. These hair cells are located within the cochlea, a spiral-shaped structure in the inner ear. When sound vibrations enter the ear, they cause the fluid in the cochlea to move, which in turn causes the hair cells to bend. This movement of the hair cells generates electrical signals that are then sent to the brain, where they are interpreted as sound. The pinna and ossicles (small bones in the middle ear) play important roles in capturing and transmitting sound, but the actual conversion of vibrations into sound sensations occurs with the movement of the hair cells.

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  • 47. 

    Which theory of hearing explains the perception of lower sounds? 

    • A.

      Tone

    • B.

      Place

    • C.

      Frequency

    • D.

      Auditory

    Correct Answer
    C. Frequency
    Explanation
    Frequency theory of hearing explains the perception of lower sounds. According to this theory, the pitch of a sound is determined by the frequency of the sound waves. Lower frequency sound waves are perceived as lower pitch sounds. This theory suggests that the auditory system detects the rate at which the sound waves vibrate and translates it into our perception of pitch.

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  • 48. 

    The theory of color vision which states that the visual system analyzes informaiton into 'either-or' messages is the ___________ theory. 

    • A.

      Opponent-process

    • B.

      Trichromatic

    • C.

      Primary-color

    • D.

      Polaroid

    Correct Answer
    A. Opponent-process
    Explanation
    The opponent-process theory of color vision suggests that the visual system analyzes information into 'either-or' messages. This theory proposes that there are three pairs of opposing color channels in the visual system: red-green, blue-yellow, and black-white. According to this theory, when one color in a pair is stimulated, the other color is inhibited, resulting in the perception of color. This theory helps explain phenomena such as afterimages and color blindness.

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  • 49. 

    Black and white vision with greatest sensitivity under low levels of illumination describes the function of

    • A.

      The cones

    • B.

      The visual pigments

    • C.

      The rods

    • D.

      The phosphenes

    Correct Answer
    C. The rods
    Explanation
    The rods are responsible for black and white vision with the greatest sensitivity under low levels of illumination. They are photoreceptor cells located in the retina of the eye that are highly sensitive to light. Unlike cones, which are responsible for color vision and function best under bright light conditions, rods are specialized for low-light situations. They allow us to see in dimly lit environments and are crucial for our night vision.

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  • 50. 

    The fact that we see negative afterimages supports which theory of color vision? 

    • A.

      Opponent-process

    • B.

      Trichromatic

    • C.

      Image formation

    • D.

      Both opponent-process and trichromatic

    Correct Answer
    A. Opponent-process
    Explanation
    The fact that we see negative afterimages supports the opponent-process theory of color vision. According to this theory, color vision is based on three pairs of opposing color receptors: red-green, blue-yellow, and black-white. When we stare at a color for a prolonged period, the receptors become fatigued and send signals that oppose the original color, resulting in a negative afterimage. This phenomenon suggests that our perception of color is influenced by the interaction between these opposing color receptors.

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  • Current Version
  • Apr 26, 2024
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • Apr 16, 2012
    Quiz Created by
    Emilyshorey
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