Antibacterial Agents Quiz

35 Questions | Total Attempts: 1023

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Agent Quizzes & Trivia

An antimicrobial is an agent that interferes with the growth and reproduction of bacteria. They may either kill or inhibit the growth of bacteria. There are different types of these drugs in use and a nurse should know when to prescribe each. Take up the quiz below and learn more on them.


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Questions and Answers
  • 1. 
    The folowing are narrow spectrum penicillins, except:
    • A. 

      Penicillin G

    • B. 

      Penicillin V

    • C. 

      Benzathine penicillin

    • D. 

      Ampicillin

    • E. 

      Procaine Penicillin

  • 2. 
    All the following describe Penicillin G's general properties except:
    • A. 

      Highest G+ coverage

    • B. 

      High antipseudomonal activity

    • C. 

      Eliminated through filtration

    • D. 

      Some G- coverage

    • E. 

      B-lactamase sensitive

  • 3. 
    Penicillin G works against:
    • A. 

      G+ cocci

    • B. 

      G- cocci

    • C. 

      G+ bacilli

    • D. 

      Treponema Pallidum

    • E. 

      All of the above

  • 4. 
    What are the known side effects of Pen. G?
    • A. 

      Hypersensitivity

    • B. 

      Diarrhea

    • C. 

      A and B

    • D. 

      This test is killing me

    • E. 

      I can't wait till i'm done with it tomorrow

  • 5. 
    Which Pen. is only available in oral form?
    • A. 

      Pen. G

    • B. 

      Pen. V

    • C. 

      Pen. C

    • D. 

      Pen. H

    • E. 

      Pen. B

  • 6. 
    What three antimicrobial agents are designated antistaphylococcal penicillins?
    • A. 

      Nafcillin

    • B. 

      Ampicillin

    • C. 

      Cloxacillin

    • D. 

      Oxacillin

    • E. 

      A, C, and D

  • 7. 
    What major properties do penicillinase resistant antibiotics have?
    • A. 

      Lower G+ activity, and some G- coverage

    • B. 

      Some anaerobe coverage

    • C. 

      Some are acid stable (oxacillin)

    • D. 

      Hepatic metabolism and renal excretion

    • E. 

      All of the above

  • 8. 
    Name the two mos popular extended spectrum penicillins
    • A. 

      Nafcillin and Ampicillin

    • B. 

      Amoxicillin and Methicillin

    • C. 

      Ampicillin and Amoxicillin

    • D. 

      Cloxacillin and Oxacillin

    • E. 

      None of the above

  • 9. 
    Ampicillin rash is not a hypersensitivity reaction in children or patients with EBV infection.
    • A. 

      False

    • B. 

      True

  • 10. 
    Augmentin...
    • A. 

      Is only administered parenterally

    • B. 

      Is obtained when Amoxicillin is combined with sulbactam

    • C. 

      Can treat B-lactamase-producing organisms due to clavulanic acid

    • D. 

      Should not be offered to patients with a previous history of seizures

    • E. 

      All of the above

  • 11. 
    Which of the following is not characteristic of antipseudomonal penicillins?
    • A. 

      Comprised of Ticarcillin and Piperacillin

    • B. 

      Extended spectrum plus enteric G- bacilli

    • C. 

      Acid resistant (can be administered orally)

    • D. 

      Renal excretion

    • E. 

      Susceptible to B-lactam

  • 12. 
    By what means bacteria build resistance against antipseudomonaal penicillins?
    • A. 

      Inactivation ( destruction by b-lactamase)

    • B. 

      Decreased permeability of bact. cell wall or lack of cell wall

    • C. 

      Alteration in PBP's to hinder penicillin binding

    • D. 

      Inactivation of autolytic enzymes

    • E. 

      All of the above

  • 13. 
    What is the single best answer for penicillin toxicity?
    • A. 

      Allergy-anaphylactic shock (give Epinephrine)

    • B. 

      Electrolyte imbalance

    • C. 

      GI dsturbances

    • D. 

      Superinfections

    • E. 

      All of the above

  • 14. 
    Cephalosporins attack bacteria by blocking terminal cross-linking of peptidoglycans and by activating cell wall autolytic enzymes.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 15. 
    Which best describes the general properties of 1st generation cephalosporins?
    • A. 

      Good G+ coverage and moderate G- activity

    • B. 

      No antipseudomonal activity

    • C. 

      Renal excretion

    • D. 

      Acid resistance-orally given

    • E. 

      All of the above are true

  • 16. 
    Second generation Cephalosporins do not:
    • A. 

      Have lower G+ activity

    • B. 

      Have higher G- activity

    • C. 

      Lack antipseudomonal activity and are acid sensitive

    • D. 

      Have B-lactamase resistance and are excreted by the kidney

    • E. 

      Include Cephaclor and Cefprozil

  • 17. 
    Third generation cephalosporins are:
    • A. 

      Metabolized by the liver and excreted by the kidney

    • B. 

      Have good CNS penetration (cefoperazone, cefotaxime)

    • C. 

      Are very effective against G-, less effective against G+, and have antipseudomonal activity (few)

    • D. 

      Acid resistant and increased B-lactamase resistance

    • E. 

      All of the above

  • 18. 
    • A. 

      Is the only 4th generation cephalosporin

    • B. 

      Is more resistant to B-lactamase and can only be given parenterally

    • C. 

      Has antipseudomonal activity and has better G+ coverage

    • D. 

      Is excreted renally

    • E. 

      All of the above

  • 19. 
    How toxic are cephalosporins in general?
    • A. 

      They're fairly safer than penicillins

    • B. 

      Still cause superinfections

    • C. 

      Can cause dose-dependend renal tubular necrosis

    • D. 

      Synergistic nephrotoxicity with aminoglycosides

    • E. 

      All of the above

  • 20. 
    Monobactams...
    • A. 

      Are resistant to B-lactamases

    • B. 

      Have no activity agains G+ and anaerobes

    • C. 

      Acid sensitive (IM/IV only)

    • D. 

      No cross-sensitivity with other b-lactam antibiotics

    • E. 

      All of the above

  • 21. 
    Carbapenems
    • A. 

      Are Imipenem and Meropenem

    • B. 

      Given IV only

    • C. 

      Broad spectrum activity but pseudomonal resistance may develop (combination with aminoglycosides is recommended)

    • D. 

      Imipenem can cause seizures

    • E. 

      All of the above

  • 22. 
    Vancomycin
    • A. 

      Prevents peptidoglycan elongation and is bactericidal

    • B. 

      Is very useful against penicillin/methicillin-resistant S. aureus

    • C. 

      VRE are usually resistant to all other antibiotics (drug of last resort)

    • D. 

      Adverse effects are ototoxicity, nephrotoxicity, and red man syndrome (flushing from histamine release)

    • E. 

      All of the above

  • 23. 
    Bacitracin...
    • A. 

      Inhibits transmembrane transport of the peptidoglycan subunits

    • B. 

      Is a cyclic polypeptide

    • C. 

      Is used topically due to nephrotoxicity

    • D. 

      A, B, and C are correct

    • E. 

      All of the above are incorrect

  • 24. 
    Cycloserine...
    • A. 

      Is a broad-spectrum antibiotic

    • B. 

      Inhibits attachment of peptide side chain to the peptidoglycan

    • C. 

      Used only to treat TB (second line)

    • D. 

      All of the above

    • E. 

      None of the above

  • 25. 
    Macrolides and aminoglycosides are generally known as...
    • A. 

      Cell wall formatio inhibitors

    • B. 

      Inhibitors of cell membrane permeability

    • C. 

      Inhibitors of protein synthesis

    • D. 

      Broad-spectrum

    • E. 

      Penicillins are among them

  • 26. 
    Macrolides...
    • A. 

      Bind the 50S subunit irreversibly

    • B. 

      Effective againt lots of G+, but majority of G- is resistant to it

    • C. 

      All are taken orally

    • D. 

      All except Azithromycin are eliminated by bile and through feces

    • E. 

      All of the above

  • 27. 
    Erythromycin is...
    • A. 

      Powerless agains many G- bacteria

    • B. 

      The DOC for treatment of Legionnaire's disease and M. pneumoniae

    • C. 

      All of the above are correct

  • 28. 
    Clindamycin...
    • A. 

      Reversibly binds 50S ribosomal subunit and is metabolized by the liver

    • B. 

      Against a wide range of G+ aerobics and anaerobic G+ and G-

    • C. 

      Bactericidal or bacteriostatic and can cross the placenta readily

    • D. 

      Can be given in any way but exhibits poor CNS penetration

    • E. 

      All of the above

  • 29. 
    Aminoglycosides are...
    • A. 

      Streptomycin, gentamycin, tobramycin, amikacin, and neomycin

    • B. 

      Bind 30 S subunit

    • C. 

      Poor cns penetration (except in case of inflammation) and should be given parenterally

    • D. 

      Rapidly excreted by the kidney

    • E. 

      All of the above

  • 30. 
    Chloramphenicol...
    • A. 

      Reversibly binds 50S subunit and is bacteriostatic

    • B. 

      Broad spectrum and rapid absorption after oral consumption

    • C. 

      Best CNS penetration and effective against anaerobes

    • D. 

      Liver metabolism, renal excretion

    • E. 

      All of the above

  • 31. 
    Tetracyclines...
    • A. 

      Bind reversibly to 30S

    • B. 

      Bacteriostatic in therapeutic concentrations

    • C. 

      Deposited in bones/teeth (Fe2+)

    • D. 

      Used to treat severe acne (topical/oral administration)

    • E. 

      All of the above

  • 32. 
    Inhibitors of folate metabolism...
    • A. 

      Compete with PABA in folate synthesis

    • B. 

      Generally bacteriostatic

    • C. 

      Oral absorption

    • D. 

      Liver metabolism and renal excretion

    • E. 

      All of the above

  • 33. 
    Inhibitors of DNA synthesis...
    • A. 

      Fluoroquinolones (ciprofloxacin, ofloxacin, moxifloxacin)

    • B. 

      Bactericidal/inhibition of DNA gyrase

    • C. 

      Effective against G- aerobic cocci and antipseudomonal

    • D. 

      Prophylaxis against antrax, oral, excellent tissue penetration

    • E. 

      All of the above

  • 34. 
    Metronidazole...
    • A. 

      Mechanism not understood

    • B. 

      Bactericidal (ROS)

    • C. 

      Effective against anaerobes

    • D. 

      Disulfiram-like effect

    • E. 

      All of the above

  • 35. 
    Which pair is mismatched?
    • A. 

      Standard prophylaxis-amoxicillin

    • B. 

      Allergic to penicillins-ampicillins

    • C. 

      Unable to take orally-ampicillin

    • D. 

      Allergic to penicillin and can't swallow pills-cindamycin/cefazolin

    • E. 

      Allergic to penicillin-clindamycin/cephalexin/azithromycin