AHS 307 - Urinary System Drugs

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Covers material from the urinary system lecture and from chapter 12.


Questions and Answers
  • 1. 

    The Bowman's capsule consists of a nephron, glomerulus and proximal collecting tubule.

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    B. False
    Explanation
    The NEPHRON consists of a Bowman's capsule, glomerulus, and proximal collecting tubule.

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  • 2. 

    The functional units of the kidneys are called ___________

    Correct Answer
    nephron
    nephrons
    Explanation
    The functional units of the kidneys are called nephrons. Nephrons are tiny structures within the kidneys that are responsible for filtering waste products from the blood and producing urine. Each kidney contains millions of nephrons, which consist of a glomerulus and a tubule. The glomerulus filters the blood, while the tubule reabsorbs essential substances and removes waste products. Together, these nephrons play a crucial role in maintaining the body's fluid balance and regulating the concentration of various substances in the blood.

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  • 3. 

    When we say that something is reabsorbed in the proximal collecting tubule, it means that it is....

    • A.

      Remains in the proximal collecting tubule and excreted from the body

    • B.

      Remains in the body and not excreted

    Correct Answer
    B. Remains in the body and not excreted
    Explanation
    When something is reabsorbed in the proximal collecting tubule, it means that it remains in the body and is not excreted. This process occurs in the kidneys, where substances are filtered out of the blood and then reabsorbed back into the bloodstream. The proximal collecting tubule is responsible for reabsorbing important substances such as water, glucose, amino acids, and electrolytes, while waste products and excess substances are excreted in the urine. Therefore, when something is reabsorbed in the proximal collecting tubule, it means that it is retained in the body and not eliminated.

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  • 4. 

    When we say that something is secreted from the proximal collecting tubule, it means that it is...

    • A.

      Remains in the proximal collecting tubule and excreted from the body

    • B.

      Remains in the body and not excreted

    Correct Answer
    A. Remains in the proximal collecting tubule and excreted from the body
    Explanation
    When a substance is secreted from the proximal collecting tubule, it means that it remains in this specific part of the kidney tubule and is then excreted from the body. This process involves the active transport of certain substances from the blood into the proximal collecting tubule, followed by their elimination from the body through urine. Therefore, the correct answer states that the substance remains in the proximal collecting tubule and is eventually excreted from the body.

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  • 5. 

    Sodium typically is _____, potassium typicaly is ______.

    • A.

      Reabsorbed, secreted

    • B.

      Secreted, reabsorbed

    • C.

      Secreted, secreted

    • D.

      Reabsorbed, reabsorbed

    Correct Answer
    A. Reabsorbed, secreted
    Explanation
    Sodium is typically reabsorbed, meaning it is taken back into the bloodstream from the kidney tubules. On the other hand, potassium is typically secreted, which means it is excreted into the urine by the kidneys.

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  • 6. 

    Diuretics are drugs which block renal ionic transport, causing diuresis, often associated with natriuresis.

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    Diuresis = Increase in urine volume. Natriuresis = Increase in sodium excretion.

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  • 7. 

    Diuresis lowers fluid volume in the tissues

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    Diuresis refers to the increased production of urine by the kidneys, leading to increased excretion of water and electrolytes from the body. This process helps to lower fluid volume in the tissues by removing excess fluids and reducing fluid retention. Therefore, the statement "Diuresis lowers fluid volume in the tissues" is true.

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  • 8. 

    Diuretics specifically block the reabsorption of _____, so that ____ will follow it out of the kidneys and into the urinary bladder.

    • A.

      Sodium, water

    • B.

      Water, sodium

    • C.

      Chloride, sodium

    • D.

      Sodium, chloride

    Correct Answer
    A. Sodium, water
    Explanation
    Diuretics are medications that help increase urine production by blocking the reabsorption of certain substances in the kidneys. In this case, the correct answer is "sodium, water." Diuretics specifically block the reabsorption of sodium, which causes water to follow it out of the kidneys and into the urinary bladder. This leads to increased urine production and helps to reduce fluid retention in the body.

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  • 9. 

    The glomerular membrane is very capable of adapting and responding to foreign bodies and conditions; it is hardy and resistant to damage.

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    B. False
    Explanation
    The glomerular membrane is very fragile - it can be easily damaged.

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  • 10. 

    Thiazides most often manage edema associated with congestive heart failure.

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    Thiazides are a type of diuretic medication that are commonly used to manage edema, or fluid retention, associated with congestive heart failure. They work by increasing the excretion of water and sodium from the body, which helps to reduce fluid buildup and alleviate symptoms of edema. Therefore, it is true that thiazides are most often used to manage edema associated with congestive heart failure.

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  • 11. 

    A side effect of prolonged thiazide administration is...

    • A.

      Hypokalemia

    • B.

      Hypernatremia

    Correct Answer
    A. Hypokalemia
    Explanation
    Prolonged thiazide administration can lead to a decrease in potassium levels in the body, known as hypokalemia. Thiazide diuretics increase the excretion of water and sodium from the body, but they also increase the excretion of potassium. This can result in low potassium levels, which can lead to symptoms such as muscle weakness, fatigue, and irregular heart rhythms. Hypernatremia, on the other hand, refers to high sodium levels in the blood and is not a common side effect of thiazide administration.

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  • 12. 

    The loop diuretic furosemide is used to treat _____ in small animals. Select all that apply.

    • A.

      Pulmonary edema

    • B.

      Hypertension

    • C.

      CHF

    • D.

      Udder edema

    • E.

      Respiratory hemorrhage

    Correct Answer(s)
    A. Pulmonary edema
    B. Hypertension
    C. CHF
    Explanation
    Furosemide, a loop diuretic, is commonly used in small animals to treat pulmonary edema, hypertension, and congestive heart failure (CHF). Pulmonary edema refers to the accumulation of fluid in the lungs, which can be treated by using furosemide to increase urine production and reduce fluid overload. Hypertension, or high blood pressure, can also be managed using furosemide as it helps to lower blood volume and decrease pressure. CHF, a condition where the heart is unable to pump blood effectively, can benefit from furosemide's diuretic properties to reduce fluid retention and ease the workload on the heart. Udder edema and respiratory hemorrhage are not typically treated with furosemide.

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  • 13. 

    Which diuretic is primarily used to treat post race pulmonary hemorrhage in horses?

    • A.

      Furosemide

    • B.

      Hydrochlorothiazide

    • C.

      Spironolactone

    • D.

      Acetazolamide

    Correct Answer
    A. Furosemide
    Explanation
    Furosemide is primarily used to treat post-race pulmonary hemorrhage in horses. This diuretic helps to reduce the amount of fluid in the body, including the lungs, which can help alleviate the symptoms of pulmonary hemorrhage. Hydrochlorothiazide, Spironolactone, and Acetazolamide are not commonly used for this specific condition in horses.

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  • 14. 

    Which diuretic completely inhibits aldosterone and has the main side effect of causing hyperkalemia?

    • A.

      Furosemide

    • B.

      Hydrochlorothiazide

    • C.

      Spironolactone

    • D.

      Acetazolamide

    Correct Answer
    C. Spironolactone
    Explanation
    Spironolactone is a diuretic that completely inhibits aldosterone, a hormone that regulates sodium and potassium balance in the body. By blocking aldosterone, spironolactone promotes the excretion of sodium and water while retaining potassium, which can lead to hyperkalemia (high levels of potassium in the blood). Therefore, spironolactone is known for its main side effect of causing hyperkalemia.

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  • 15. 

    A diuretic used to control glaucoma by blocking carbonic anhydrase. Has the main side effect of metabolic acidosis.

    • A.

      Furosemide

    • B.

      Hydrochlorothiazide

    • C.

      Spironolactone

    • D.

      Acetazolamide

    Correct Answer
    D. Acetazolamide
    Explanation
    Acetazolamide is a diuretic that works by blocking the enzyme carbonic anhydrase, which reduces the production of aqueous humor in the eye and helps control glaucoma. One of the main side effects of acetazolamide is metabolic acidosis, which is an imbalance in the body's acid-base levels. This occurs because acetazolamide inhibits the reabsorption of bicarbonate in the kidneys, leading to an increase in acidity in the blood. Therefore, acetazolamide is the correct answer based on its mechanism of action and side effect profile.

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  • 16. 

    Thiazide diuretics work on what area?

    • A.

      Distal convoluted tubule

    • B.

      Proximal tubule

    • C.

      Loop of Henle

    • D.

      Glomerulus

    Correct Answer
    A. Distal convoluted tubule
    Explanation
    Thiazide diuretics work on the distal convoluted tubule. These medications inhibit the reabsorption of sodium and chloride ions in this part of the nephron, leading to increased excretion of water and electrolytes. By targeting the distal convoluted tubule, thiazide diuretics help to reduce blood volume and lower blood pressure.

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  • 17. 

    Calcium Channel Blocker diuretics used for treating hypertension

    • A.

      Diltiazem

    • B.

      Vepramil

    • C.

      Enalapril

    Correct Answer(s)
    A. Diltiazem
    B. Vepramil
    Explanation
    Diltiazem and Vepramil are both calcium channel blockers, which are a type of medication used for treating hypertension (high blood pressure). These drugs work by blocking calcium from entering certain cells in the blood vessels and heart, which helps to relax and widen the blood vessels, reducing blood pressure. Enalapril, on the other hand, is an ACE inhibitor, another type of medication used for treating hypertension but it works by blocking the production of a hormone that causes blood vessels to narrow. Therefore, Diltiazem and Vepramil are the correct answers as they are both calcium channel blockers specifically used for treating hypertension.

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  • 18. 

    Vasodilator diuretics used to treat hypertension

    • A.

      Hydrazaline

    • B.

      Minoxidol

    • C.

      Captopril

    Correct Answer(s)
    A. Hydrazaline
    B. Minoxidol
    Explanation
    Hydralazine and minoxidil are both vasodilator diuretics that are commonly used to treat hypertension. Vasodilators work by relaxing and widening the blood vessels, which helps to lower blood pressure. Diuretics, on the other hand, increase urine production and help to remove excess fluid from the body, which can also help to lower blood pressure. Both hydralazine and minoxidil have been proven effective in reducing blood pressure in patients with hypertension, making them suitable options for treatment. Captopril, on the other hand, is an ACE inhibitor, not a vasodilator diuretic, and is used for the treatment of hypertension through a different mechanism of action.

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  • 19. 

    Non-selective beta-adrenergic antagonists result in bradycardia and bronchodilation. An example of such a drug is propanolol.

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    B. False
    Explanation
    Bradycardia and bronchoCONSTRICTION

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  • 20. 

    Urinary acidifiers

    • A.

      Ammonium chloride

    • B.

      Methionine

    • C.

      Baking soda

    • D.

      Allopurinol

    • E.

      Xanthine oxidase inhibitors

    • F.

      Potassium citrate

    Correct Answer(s)
    A. Ammonium chloride
    B. Methionine
    Explanation
    Ammonium chloride and methionine are both urinary acidifiers. Urinary acidifiers are substances that increase the acidity of urine, which can help prevent the formation of certain types of urinary stones. Ammonium chloride and methionine work by acidifying the urine, which can help dissolve or prevent the formation of stones composed of certain minerals. These substances are often used as part of a treatment plan for urinary stones or as a preventive measure for individuals at risk of developing them.

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  • 21. 

    Urinary alkalinizers

    • A.

      Ammonium chloride

    • B.

      Methionine

    • C.

      Baking soda

    • D.

      Allopurinol

    • E.

      Xanthine oxidase inhibitors

    • F.

      Potassium citrate

    Correct Answer(s)
    C. Baking soda
    D. Allopurinol
    E. Xanthine oxidase inhibitors
    F. Potassium citrate
  • 22. 

    An animal with calcium oxalate, cystine, or ammonium urate uroliths might be treated with...

    • A.

      Potassium citrate

    • B.

      Baking soda over food

    • C.

      Ammonium chloride

    • D.

      Allopurinol

    • E.

      Methionine

    • F.

      Urinary alkalizers

    • G.

      Urinary acidifiers

    Correct Answer(s)
    A. Potassium citrate
    B. Baking soda over food
    D. Allopurinol
    F. Urinary alkalizers
    Explanation
    An animal with calcium oxalate, cystine, or ammonium urate uroliths might be treated with potassium citrate, baking soda over food, allopurinol, and urinary alkalizers. Potassium citrate helps to prevent the formation of certain types of kidney stones by increasing the pH of the urine. Baking soda over food can also increase the pH of the urine, making it less acidic and reducing the risk of stone formation. Allopurinol is used to treat urate uroliths by reducing the production of uric acid in the body. Urinary alkalizers can help to increase the pH of the urine, which can help dissolve certain types of stones.

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  • 23. 

    An animal that is prone to forming struvite uroliths should be fed a urine-____ (acidifiers/alkalinizers), meaning that they tend to form in _______ urine (acidic/alkaline). Separate answers with a single space.

    Correct Answer(s)
    acidifiers alkaline
    Explanation
    An animal that is prone to forming struvite uroliths should be fed a urine-acidifiers, meaning that they tend to form in alkaline urine. Struvite uroliths are commonly formed in alkaline urine due to the presence of magnesium and ammonium phosphate. By feeding acidifiers, the goal is to lower the pH of the urine and make it more acidic, which helps prevent the formation of struvite uroliths.

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  • 24. 

    Cholinergic agonsits are also ________ agents

    • A.

      Sympathomimetic

    • B.

      Parasympathomimetic

    Correct Answer
    B. Parasympathomimetic
    Explanation
    Cholinergic agonists are substances that mimic the action of acetylcholine, a neurotransmitter that primarily acts on the parasympathetic nervous system. Therefore, cholinergic agonists are referred to as parasympathomimetic agents. They enhance the activity of the parasympathetic nervous system, which is responsible for rest and digest functions in the body. This can lead to various effects such as increased gastrointestinal motility, pupil constriction, and bronchoconstriction.

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  • 25. 

    Anticholinergics are also called  _________ drugs

    • A.

      Parasympatholytic

    • B.

      Sympatholytic

    Correct Answer
    A. Parasympatholytic
    Explanation
    Anticholinergics are referred to as parasympatholytic drugs because they block the action of acetylcholine, a neurotransmitter that is involved in the parasympathetic nervous system. By inhibiting the effects of acetylcholine, these drugs reduce the activity of the parasympathetic nervous system, leading to various effects such as relaxation of smooth muscles, decreased glandular secretions, and decreased gastrointestinal motility. Therefore, the term "parasympatholytic" accurately describes the mechanism of action and effects of anticholinergic drugs.

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  • 26. 

    Select all that are true about cholinergic agonists

    • A.

      Tx for inappropriate retention of urine

    • B.

      Promotes voiding of urine

    • C.

      Promotes retention of urine

    • D.

      Relaxes the detrusor muscle

    • E.

      Contracts the detrusor muscle

    • F.

      Tx for spastic bladders after FUS treatment

    • G.

      Ex. drug is Bethanechol

    Correct Answer(s)
    A. Tx for inappropriate retention of urine
    B. Promotes voiding of urine
    E. Contracts the detrusor muscle
    G. Ex. drug is Bethanechol
    Explanation
    Cholinergic agonists such as Bethanechol are used to treat inappropriate retention of urine by promoting voiding of urine and contracting the detrusor muscle. They help to relax the detrusor muscle and stimulate urination, making them effective in cases of spastic bladders after FUS treatment.

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  • 27. 

    Select all that are true about parasympatholytic drugs that treat urinary incontinence.

    • A.

      Tx for inappropriate retention of urine

    • B.

      Promote voiding of urine

    • C.

      Promote retention of urine

    • D.

      Relaxes the detrusor muscle

    • E.

      Contracts the detrusor muscle

    • F.

      Tx for spastic bladders after FUS treatment

    • G.

      Ex. drug is Bethanechol

    • H.

      Ex. drug is Propantheline

    Correct Answer(s)
    C. Promote retention of urine
    D. Relaxes the detrusor muscle
    F. Tx for spastic bladders after FUS treatment
    H. Ex. drug is Propantheline
    Explanation
    Parasympatholytic drugs that treat urinary incontinence promote retention of urine by relaxing the detrusor muscle. They are also used to treat spastic bladders after FUS treatment. An example of such a drug is Propantheline.

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  • 28. 

    The relaxation of the detrusor muscle allows the voiding of urine.

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    B. False
    Explanation
    The detrusor muscle is the smooth muscle of the bladder wall. When it contracts, it squeezes urine out of the bladder.

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  • 29. 

    An alpha adrenergic antagonist would ________ (increase/decrease) the tone of the urethral sphincter.

    Correct Answer
    decrease
    Explanation
    An alpha adrenergic antagonist would decrease the tone of the urethral sphincter. Alpha adrenergic receptors are found in smooth muscle, including the urethral sphincter. When these receptors are blocked by an antagonist, it inhibits the action of norepinephrine, a neurotransmitter that typically causes smooth muscle contraction. As a result, the tone of the urethral sphincter decreases, leading to relaxation and potentially improved urinary flow.

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  • 30. 

    Promote voiding of urine by increasing detrusor muscle tone

    • A.

      Bethanechol

    • B.

      Propantheline

    • C.

      Phenoxybenzamine

    • D.

      Phenylpropanolamine

    Correct Answer
    A. Bethanechol
    Explanation
    Bethanechol is a medication that promotes voiding of urine by increasing detrusor muscle tone. The detrusor muscle is responsible for contracting and emptying the bladder. By increasing the tone of this muscle, bethanechol helps to facilitate the emptying of urine from the bladder. Therefore, bethanechol is the correct answer as it directly addresses the action of promoting voiding of urine by increasing detrusor muscle tone.

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  • 31. 

    Promote retention of urine by relaxing the detrusor muscle

    • A.

      Bethanechol

    • B.

      Propantheline

    • C.

      Phenoxybenzamine

    • D.

      Phenylpropanolamine

    Correct Answer
    B. Propantheline
    Explanation
    Propantheline is a medication that promotes the retention of urine by relaxing the detrusor muscle. The detrusor muscle is responsible for the contraction of the bladder during urination. By relaxing this muscle, propantheline helps to prevent the involuntary release of urine and promotes urine retention. Bethanechol, on the other hand, stimulates the detrusor muscle, causing increased contraction and promoting urination. Phenoxybenzamine is an alpha-adrenergic antagonist used for the treatment of high blood pressure and phenylpropanolamine is a sympathomimetic drug used as a decongestant. Therefore, propantheline is the correct answer in this context.

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  • 32. 

    Promotes the voiding of urine by decreasing the tone of the urethral sphincters

    • A.

      Bethanechol

    • B.

      Propantheline

    • C.

      Phenoxybenzamine

    • D.

      Phenylpropanolamine

    Correct Answer
    C. Phenoxybenzamine
    Explanation
    Phenoxybenzamine is the correct answer because it promotes the voiding of urine by decreasing the tone of the urethral sphincters. This medication belongs to a class of drugs called alpha-adrenergic blockers, which work by blocking the action of certain chemicals in the body that cause the muscles in the urethral sphincters to contract. By decreasing the tone of these muscles, phenoxybenzamine helps to relax the urethral sphincters and allows for easier urination.

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  • 33. 

    Tx. for non-neurologically caused incontinence

    • A.

      Bethanechol

    • B.

      Propantheline

    • C.

      Phenoxybenzamine

    • D.

      Phenylpropanolamine

    Correct Answer
    D. Phenylpropanolamine
    Explanation
    Phenylpropanolamine is the correct answer because it is commonly used to treat non-neurologically caused incontinence. It works by constricting blood vessels and increasing bladder tone, which helps to control urine flow. Bethanechol, propantheline, and phenoxybenzamine are not typically used for this purpose, making them incorrect choices.

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  • 34. 

    Select all that are true about phenylpropanolamine

    • A.

      Alpha and beta andrenergic agonist

    • B.

      Alpha adrenergic antagonist

    • C.

      Increases tone of urethral sphincters

    • D.

      Decreases tone of urethral sphincters

    • E.

      Tx. of non-neurologically caused incontinence

    • F.

      Tx. of neurologically caused incontinence

    • G.

      SE: arteriolar constriction

    • H.

      SE: weakness due to decreased BP

    Correct Answer(s)
    A. Alpha and beta andrenergic agonist
    C. Increases tone of urethral sphincters
    E. Tx. of non-neurologically caused incontinence
    G. SE: arteriolar constriction
    Explanation
    Phenylpropanolamine is an alpha and beta adrenergic agonist, meaning it activates both alpha and beta adrenergic receptors. This leads to an increase in the tone of urethral sphincters, which can be beneficial in the treatment of non-neurologically caused incontinence. One of the side effects of phenylpropanolamine is arteriolar constriction, which can help in reducing nasal congestion. However, it does not cause weakness due to decreased blood pressure.

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  • 35. 

    Select all that are examples of non-neurologically caused incontinence

    • A.

      Spayed female dog, hormone-responsive incontinence causes dribbling when asleep

    • B.

      Cat with spastic bladder, recently treated for FUS

    Correct Answer
    A. Spayed female dog, hormone-responsive incontinence causes dribbling when asleep
    Explanation
    The spayed female dog with hormone-responsive incontinence causing dribbling when asleep is an example of non-neurologically caused incontinence. This condition occurs due to a lack of estrogen, which weakens the muscles controlling the bladder. As a result, the dog may experience involuntary urine leakage while sleeping. The other option, a cat with a spastic bladder recently treated for FUS, suggests a neurological cause for the incontinence, as Feline Urologic Syndrome (FUS) typically affects the lower urinary tract and can lead to bladder dysfunction.

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  • 36. 

    Select the non-competitive depolarizing agents

    • A.

      Succinylcholine

    • B.

      Gallamine

    • C.

      Curare

    • D.

      Neostigmine

    Correct Answer
    A. Succinylcholine
    Explanation
    Succinylcholine is a non-competitive depolarizing agent because it binds to and activates the nicotinic acetylcholine receptors in skeletal muscles, causing a prolonged depolarization. This leads to muscle paralysis and is commonly used in medical procedures requiring muscle relaxation, such as endotracheal intubation or electroconvulsive therapy. Gallamine, curare, and neostigmine, on the other hand, are competitive neuromuscular blocking agents or cholinesterase inhibitors, which have different mechanisms of action and effects on muscle function.

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  • 37. 

    Robaxin is...

    • A.

      Methocarbamol

    • B.

      Metaclopramide

    • C.

      A spasmolytic

    • D.

      Acts centrally

    • E.

      Act peripherally

    Correct Answer(s)
    A. Methocarbamol
    C. A spasmolytic
    D. Acts centrally
    Explanation
    Robaxin is a medication that contains methocarbamol, which is a muscle relaxant and spasmolytic. It is used to relieve muscle spasms and pain. Methocarbamol acts centrally, meaning it works in the central nervous system to inhibit the nerve impulses that cause muscle spasms. It does not act peripherally, meaning it does not directly affect the muscles themselves.

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  • Mar 22, 2023
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