Adult Psychopathology Part 1

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Quizzes Created: 11 | Total Attempts: 7,081
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Adult Quizzes & Trivia

Questions and Answers
  • 1. 

    Which of the following is NOT a limitation of the DSM-IV?

    • A.

      Problems related to ethnic/culture differences

    • B.

      Limited research for how well diagnosis criteria apply to children

    • C.

      If a patient only meets 4 out of 5 of the necessary symptoms you can't diagnose them with anything

    • D.

      A disease-based model over-emphasizes within-person traits and minimizes contextual influence

    Correct Answer
    C. If a patient only meets 4 out of 5 of the necessary symptoms you can't diagnose them with anything
    Explanation
    The DSM-IV does not have a limitation that states if a patient only meets 4 out of 5 necessary symptoms, they cannot be diagnosed with anything. This means that even if a patient does not meet all the required symptoms for a specific diagnosis, they can still be diagnosed with a different condition or disorder. The DSM-IV allows for flexible diagnosis based on the presence of symptoms, rather than requiring a strict checklist of all symptoms.

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  • 2. 

    Which of the following does not match correctly?

    • A.

      Axis I: Clinical Disorders

    • B.

      Axis II: Personality Disorders

    • C.

      Axis III: General Medical Conditions & Intellectual Disabilities

    • D.

      Axis IV: Psychosocial Factors & Environmental Factors

    • E.

      Axis V: Global Assessment of Functioning

    Correct Answer
    C. Axis III: General Medical Conditions & Intellectual Disabilities
    Explanation
    Axis III: General Medical Conditions & Intellectual Disabilities does not match correctly because Axis III is actually used to diagnose general medical conditions and Axis II is used to diagnose personality disorders. Intellectual disabilities are typically diagnosed on Axis II.

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  • 3. 

    Which of the following describes the time-line of the prodormal stage of a disorder?

    • A.

      Days, months or years prior to the active stage

    • B.

      The time right before the active stage (aka the antecedent)

    • C.

      The actual active stage

    • D.

      The symptoms that continue to occur after the active stage subsides

    Correct Answer
    A. Days, months or years prior to the active stage
    Explanation
    The prodromal stage of a disorder refers to the period of time before the active stage, where individuals may experience subtle changes or symptoms that indicate the onset of the disorder. These changes can occur over days, months, or even years before the active stage begins. It is during this prodromal stage that individuals may start to notice early signs or symptoms that eventually progress into the active stage of the disorder.

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  • 4. 

    Which of the following affect descriptions doesn't match up?

    • A.

      Flat - lacking in expression

    • B.

      Blunt - limited repertoire of emotion expressions but with sharp sudden onset

    • C.

      Labile - rapidly shifting and intense emotion expressions

    • D.

      Inappropriate - laughing during a funeral

    • E.

      Restricted - specific range of affect shown (like smiling but never laughing)

    Correct Answer
    B. Blunt - limited repertoire of emotion expressions but with sharp sudden onset
    Explanation
    The given answer is correct because it accurately identifies the affect description that doesn't match up with the others. While the other descriptions (Flat, Labile, Inappropriate, Restricted) all refer to different patterns of emotion expression, the description of Blunt does not fit with the others. Blunt refers to a limited repertoire of emotion expressions but with a sharp sudden onset, which is not consistent with the other descriptions.

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  • 5. 

    Which of the following delusions does not match up?

    • A.

      Somatic - there's something wrong with my body

    • B.

      Persecutory - someone is after me

    • C.

      Grandiose - I'm God

    • D.

      Jealousy - related to martial infidelity

    • E.

      Erotomania - related to sexuality (Koro is a cultural example)

    Correct Answer
    E. Erotomania - related to sexuality (Koro is a cultural example)
    Explanation
    The given answer is correct because erotomania is not related to sexuality. Erotomania is a delusion in which a person believes that someone, usually of higher social status, is in love with them. On the other hand, Koro is a cultural example of a delusion related to sexuality, characterized by the fear of one's genitals retracting into the body or disappearing. Therefore, the delusion of erotomania does not match up with the others mentioned in the question.

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  • 6. 

    Which of the following is true:

    • A.

      The hypnagogic state occurs as we're falling asleep and hallucinations that occur during this state are not clinically significant.

    • B.

      The hypnopompic state occurs as we're falling asleep and hallucinations that occur during this state are not clinically significant.

    • C.

      The hypnagogic state occurs as we're falling asleep and hallucinations that occur during this state are clinically significant.

    • D.

      The hypnopompic state occurs as we're falling asleep and hallucinations that occur during this state are clinically significant.

    Correct Answer
    A. The hypnagogic state occurs as we're falling asleep and hallucinations that occur during this state are not clinically significant.
    Explanation
    The hypnagogic state refers to the transitional period between wakefulness and sleep, occurring as we are falling asleep. During this state, hallucinations can occur, such as seeing flashes of light or hearing voices. However, these hallucinations are considered to be normal and not clinically significant. They are often a result of the brain's transition from wakefulness to sleep and do not indicate any underlying medical or psychiatric condition. Therefore, the correct answer is that the hypnagogic state occurs as we're falling asleep and hallucinations during this state are not clinically significant.

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  • 7. 

    Which of the following is true?

    • A.

      A person with initial insomnia will generally awaken in the first third of the night

    • B.

      A person with late insomnia will generally fall asleep very late

    • C.

      A person with middle insomnia will often wake up in the middle of the night AND have difficulty falling back asleep

    • D.

      A person with late insomnia will often have difficulty getting to work on time

    Correct Answer
    C. A person with middle insomnia will often wake up in the middle of the night AND have difficulty falling back asleep
    Explanation
    A person with middle insomnia will often wake up in the middle of the night AND have difficulty falling back asleep. Middle insomnia refers to a sleep disorder where individuals frequently wake up during the night and struggle to fall back asleep. This can lead to fragmented sleep and overall poor sleep quality.

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  • 8. 

    You could reasonably expect to work on idealization & devaluation of intimate partners with a client diagnosed with _______________.

    • A.

      Dependent Personality Disorder

    • B.

      Borderline Personality Disorder

    • C.

      Schizoid Personality Disorder

    • D.

      Schizotypal Personality Disorder

    Correct Answer
    B. Borderline Personality Disorder
    Explanation
    Borderline Personality Disorder is characterized by unstable and intense relationships, which often involve idealization and devaluation of intimate partners. Individuals with this disorder tend to have a distorted sense of self and struggle with maintaining stable and healthy relationships. They may idolize their partners initially, only to quickly switch to devaluing them. This pattern of idealization and devaluation is a common feature of Borderline Personality Disorder and would be a focus of therapy for clients with this diagnosis.

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  • 9. 

    An individual has had recurrent substance-related legal problems as well as recurrent substance abuse in situations in which it is physically hazardous. In addition, the individual reports experiencing both tolerance and withdrawal to alcohol and has had numerous failed attempts to stop drinking so much. Based on this, which of the following would the client be diagnosed with?

    • A.

      Substance Abuse

    • B.

      Substance Dependence

    • C.

      Both Substance Abuse and Substance Dependence

    • D.

      Neither Disorder

    Correct Answer
    B. Substance Dependence
    Explanation
    Based on the information provided, the client would be diagnosed with Substance Dependence. This is because the client has recurrent substance-related legal problems and recurrent substance abuse in physically hazardous situations, which are criteria for Substance Dependence. Additionally, the client reports experiencing tolerance and withdrawal to alcohol, further supporting the diagnosis of Substance Dependence. Substance Abuse would not be the correct diagnosis because it does not include the criteria of tolerance and withdrawal. Therefore, the client would not be diagnosed with both Substance Abuse and Substance Dependence or neither disorder.

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  • 10. 

    A client believes that the government has a plot to make sure he is never happy. He believes cameras monitor his every motion and if he displays any positive emotional expression, they will make sure the rest of his day is bad. As a result, he displays no emotional expressions. Under the diagnostic criteria for schizophrenia, this qualifies as a 'negative symptom' (affective flattening).

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    B. False
    Explanation
    The statement is false because the given scenario does not meet the diagnostic criteria for schizophrenia's negative symptom of affective flattening. Affective flattening refers to a reduction or absence of emotional expression, while the client in the scenario is purposely suppressing their emotions due to a belief about government surveillance. This belief falls under paranoid delusions, which are not specific to schizophrenia and can occur in other mental health conditions as well. Therefore, the client's behavior does not fit the criteria for a negative symptom of schizophrenia.

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  • 11. 

    Which of the following regarding psychotic and mood time-lines is not true?

    • A.

      If the mood symptoms only occur during the active psychotic stage, and vice versa, then the individual may have Mood Disorder with Psychotic Features

    • B.

      If the mood symptoms only occur during the active psychotic stage, but the active psychotic symptoms occur in the absence of mood symptoms, the individual may have Schizoaffective Disorder

    • C.

      If the mood symptoms only occur during the active psychotic stage, and take up a large part of the psychotic episode, the individual may have Schizophrenia

    • D.

      If the mood symptoms only occur during the residual psychotic stage and do not occur during a large part of the psychotic episode, the individual may have Schizophrenia

    Correct Answer
    C. If the mood symptoms only occur during the active psychotic stage, and take up a large part of the psychotic episode, the individual may have Schizophrenia
    Explanation
    The given statement is not true because it states that if mood symptoms occur during the active psychotic stage and take up a large part of the psychotic episode, the individual may have Schizophrenia. However, Schizophrenia is characterized by the presence of positive symptoms (such as hallucinations and delusions) and negative symptoms (such as social withdrawal and lack of motivation), but not necessarily mood symptoms. Therefore, the statement is incorrect as it incorrectly associates mood symptoms with Schizophrenia.

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  • 12. 

    If a client with schizophrenia experiences catatonic behaviors, disorganized speech & behavior, hallucinations, and delusions, their Schizophrenia subtype is:

    • A.

      Paranoid

    • B.

      Disorganized

    • C.

      Catatonic

    • D.

      Undifferentiated

    • E.

      Residual

    Correct Answer
    C. Catatonic
    Explanation
    If a client with schizophrenia experiences catatonic behaviors, such as immobility or excessive motor activity, along with disorganized speech and behavior, hallucinations, and delusions, their Schizophrenia subtype is catatonic. Catatonic schizophrenia is characterized by disturbances in movement, speech, and behavior, which can range from extreme immobility to purposeless and excessive motor activity. This subtype is often associated with severe symptoms and requires specialized treatment and care.

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  • 13. 

    A client could NOT be diagnosed with:

    • A.

      Delusional Disorder & Paranoid Personality Disorder

    • B.

      Delusional Disorder & Schizotypal Personality Disorder

    • C.

      Schizotypal Personality Disorder & Paranoid Personality Disorder

    • D.

      Delusional Disorder & Paranoid Personality Disorder & Schizotypal Personality Disorder

    • E.

      All of these are valid sets of diagnoses

    Correct Answer
    E. All of these are valid sets of diagnoses
  • 14. 

    When considering diagnosing Schizoaffective Disorder, a patient's lack of eating due to a delusion that people are poisoning his food should not count as a symptom of mood disorder.

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    The statement is true because in order to diagnose Schizoaffective Disorder, the patient must exhibit symptoms of both a mood disorder (such as depression or mania) and schizophrenia (such as hallucinations or delusions). In this case, the patient's lack of eating due to a delusion falls under the category of schizophrenia symptoms, not mood disorder symptoms. Therefore, it should not be counted as a symptom of a mood disorder when diagnosing Schizoaffective Disorder.

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  • 15. 

    An individual has been having a non-bizarre delusion for six weeks and has been diagnosed with Delusional Disorder. The individual is now experiencing a concurrent Major Depressive Episode (with depressed mood) in addition to the delusion. Since the individual experienced psychotic symptoms with and without a mood disorder for sufficient time, they should be rediagnosed as Schizoaffective Disorder.

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    B. False
    Explanation
    The statement is false because the individual's symptoms do not meet the criteria for a diagnosis of Schizoaffective Disorder. In order to be diagnosed with Schizoaffective Disorder, the individual would need to experience a period of uninterrupted illness during which they have both a Major Depressive Episode and a period of psychosis in the absence of prominent mood symptoms. In this case, the individual is experiencing a concurrent Major Depressive Episode with depressed mood, which does not meet the criteria for Schizoaffective Disorder. Therefore, the individual should not be rediagnosed and the correct answer is false.

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  • 16. 

    Hypochondriasis and Delusional Disorder, Somatic Type both share a preoccupation with fear of contracting or having a serious disease. The way to differentiate them is based on:

    • A.

      Duration of symptom presentation

    • B.

      Presence of other psychotic symptoms

    • C.

      Intensity of belief

    • D.

      None, in this situation Delusional Disorder always preempts Hypochondriasis

    Correct Answer
    C. Intensity of belief
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "Intensity of belief." Hypochondriasis and Delusional Disorder, Somatic Type both involve a preoccupation with fear of having a serious disease. However, the key difference between them lies in the intensity of belief. In hypochondriasis, individuals may have excessive worry about their health but are aware that their fears may be irrational. In Delusional Disorder, Somatic Type, individuals have a strong and fixed belief that they have a serious medical condition, despite evidence to the contrary. Therefore, the intensity of belief is used to differentiate between these two disorders.

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  • 17. 

    An individual has a sudden onset of psychotic symptoms (hallucinations and delusions) and mood symptoms (meeting criteria for a Major Depressive Episode), These concurrent symptoms last three weeks and then become completely resolved.What is the diagnosis?

    • A.

      Brief Psychotic Disorder and Mood Disorder with Psychotic Features

    • B.

      Brief Psychotic Disorder and Mood Disorder NOS

    • C.

      Mood Disorder with Psychotic Features

    • D.

      Brief Psychotic Disorder

    Correct Answer
    C. Mood Disorder with Psychotic Features
    Explanation
    The individual in the question has both psychotic symptoms (hallucinations and delusions) and mood symptoms (meeting criteria for a Major Depressive Episode). The symptoms last for three weeks and then completely resolve. This pattern is consistent with the diagnosis of Mood Disorder with Psychotic Features. Brief Psychotic Disorder may be considered due to the sudden onset of psychotic symptoms, but the presence of mood symptoms for a Major Depressive Episode indicates the need for a diagnosis of Mood Disorder with Psychotic Features. The other options, Brief Psychotic Disorder and Mood Disorder NOS, do not fully capture the combination of symptoms described in the question.

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  • 18. 

    An individual experienced a Major Depressive Episode, but has a full remission lasting three months. After this, the individual begins to experience depressed mood for most of the day along with overeating and low self-esteem for the next two years. Since three months separated the Major Depressive Episode from the onset of the new symptoms, there is a diagnosis of Dysthymic Disorder.

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    The explanation for the given correct answer is that according to the information provided, the individual experienced a Major Depressive Episode followed by a full remission lasting three months. After this remission, the individual begins to experience symptoms of depressed mood, overeating, and low self-esteem for the next two years. Since the new symptoms occurred after the three-month period of remission, it is consistent with the criteria for a diagnosis of Dysthymic Disorder. Therefore, the statement "Since three months separated the Major Depressive Episode from the onset of the new symptoms, there is a diagnosis of Dysthymic Disorder" is true.

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  • 19. 

    An individual had a Major Depressive Episode four years ago. Starting two years ago, the individual experienced recurrent periods of depressive symptoms (none meeting Major Depressive Episode criteria) and hypomanic symptoms (only half of which meet criteria for Hypomanic Episodes) for two years. What may the diagnosis be?

    • A.

      Dysthymic Disorder

    • B.

      Cyclothymic Disorder

    • C.

      Bipolar I Disorder

    • D.

      Bipolar II Disorder

    Correct Answer
    D. Bipolar II Disorder
    Explanation
    Based on the information provided, the individual experienced recurrent periods of depressive symptoms that did not meet the criteria for a Major Depressive Episode, as well as hypomanic symptoms that only partially met the criteria for a Hypomanic Episode. This pattern of symptoms is consistent with Bipolar II Disorder, which is characterized by episodes of depression and hypomania. Dysthymic Disorder is not the correct diagnosis because it does not involve hypomanic symptoms. Cyclothymic Disorder is also not the correct diagnosis because it requires the presence of numerous periods of hypomanic symptoms that do not meet the criteria for a Hypomanic Episode. Bipolar I Disorder is not the correct diagnosis because it requires the presence of at least one manic episode, which is more severe than a hypomanic episode.

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  • 20. 

    How many episodes does Rapid Cycling require per year?

    • A.

      2

    • B.

      4

    • C.

      8

    • D.

      12

    Correct Answer
    B. 4
    Explanation
    Rapid cycling refers to a pattern of bipolar disorder where individuals experience at least four or more mood episodes (either manic, hypomanic, or depressive) within a year. Therefore, Rapid Cycling requires at least four episodes per year.

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  • 21. 

    After serving in the Vietnam War, an individual develops PTSD and is diagnosed and treated for it. Years later, he seeks a therapist because he's experienced panic attacks and doesn't understand why. Although they feel unexpected to the client, the therapist recognizes they're situationally bound to anytime the client hears planes flying overhead (because of his PTSD). What type of panic attack is this therefore?

    • A.

      Unexpected

    • B.

      Situationally predisposed

    • C.

      Situationally bound

    • D.

      It depends on the client's reaction when the therapist tells him

    Correct Answer
    C. Situationally bound
    Explanation
    The panic attacks experienced by the individual are situationally bound. This means that they are specifically triggered by a certain situation or cue, in this case, the sound of planes flying overhead. The therapist recognizes that the panic attacks are directly linked to the client's PTSD from the Vietnam War, which is why they occur in response to the specific trigger.

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  • 22. 

    Specific Phobia IS TO Hypochondriasis AS _____________ IS TO ______________.

    • A.

      Fear of currently having a disease; fear of contracting a disease

    • B.

      Fear of currently having a disease; fear of spreading disease

    • C.

      Fear of contracting disease; fear of currently having a disease

    • D.

      Fear of contracting disease; fear of spreading disease

    Correct Answer
    C. Fear of contracting disease; fear of currently having a disease
  • 23. 

    A person with _________________ is likely to be concerned about their quality of performance when there are observers, whereas a person with ________________ is likely to be concerned about the quality of their performance regardless of observers.

    • A.

      Social Phobia; Generalized Anxiety Disorder

    • B.

      Generalized Anxiety Disorder; Social Phobia

    • C.

      Generalized Anxiety Disorder; Agoraphobia

    • D.

      Social Phobia; Avoidant Personality Disorder

    Correct Answer
    A. Social Phobia; Generalized Anxiety Disorder
    Explanation
    A person with Social Phobia is likely to be concerned about their quality of performance when there are observers because they have an intense fear of being embarrassed, humiliated, or judged by others. On the other hand, a person with Generalized Anxiety Disorder is likely to be concerned about the quality of their performance regardless of observers because they experience excessive and uncontrollable worry and anxiety about various aspects of their life, including their own abilities and performance.

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  • 24. 

    Which of the following is true?

    • A.

      If an individual meets all of the criteria for PTSD in response to a non-extreme stressor, they may meet the criteria for an Adjustment Disorder

    • B.

      If an individual meets almost all of the criteria for PTSD in response to an extreme stressor, they may meet the criteria for an Adjustment Disorder

    • C.

      Both A & B are true

    • D.

      Nothing about diagnostic criteria regarding PTSD relates to Adjustment Disorder

    Correct Answer
    C. Both A & B are true
    Explanation
    Both A and B are true because individuals who meet all or almost all of the criteria for PTSD in response to either a non-extreme or an extreme stressor may also meet the criteria for an Adjustment Disorder. Adjustment Disorder is a diagnosis given when an individual experiences significant distress in response to a stressor, but does not meet the full criteria for another specific disorder like PTSD. Therefore, if someone meets the criteria for PTSD but it is in response to a non-extreme stressor, or if they meet almost all of the criteria for PTSD in response to an extreme stressor, they may be diagnosed with an Adjustment Disorder.

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  • 25. 

    Brief Psychotic Disorder IS TO Schizophreniform Disorder AS ______________ IS TO ___________.

    • A.

      Acute Stress Disorder; Posttraumatic Stress Disorder

    • B.

      Adjustment Disorder; Posttraumatic Stress Disorder

    • C.

      Acute Stress Disorder; Adjustment Disorder

    • D.

      Acute Stress Disorder; Anxiety Disorder NOS

    Correct Answer
    A. Acute Stress Disorder; Posttraumatic Stress Disorder
    Explanation
    Brief Psychotic Disorder and Schizophreniform Disorder are two related but distinct psychiatric disorders. Brief Psychotic Disorder is characterized by the sudden onset of psychotic symptoms, such as hallucinations or delusions, that last for a short period of time (less than one month). Schizophreniform Disorder, on the other hand, is characterized by similar symptoms but lasts for a longer duration (one to six months). Therefore, the correct analogy would be Acute Stress Disorder and Posttraumatic Stress Disorder, as Acute Stress Disorder is a shorter-term reaction to a traumatic event, while Posttraumatic Stress Disorder is a longer-term condition that can develop after experiencing a traumatic event.

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  • 26. 

    A client who had developed Anorexia Nervosa one year ago has now been successfully treated for it. However, the client now has clinically significant social phobic symptoms that are related to the social impact of having had the disorder (client is still visibly very very thin). What diagnose may this meet the criteria for?

    • A.

      Body Dysmorphic Disorder

    • B.

      Social Phobia

    • C.

      Specific Phobia, Somatic Type

    • D.

      Anxiety Disorder Due to a General Medical Condition

    • E.

      Anxiety Disorder - NOS

    Correct Answer
    E. Anxiety Disorder - NOS
    Explanation
    This client may meet the criteria for Anxiety Disorder - NOS (Not Otherwise Specified). This diagnosis is used when an individual experiences significant anxiety symptoms that do not fit into any specific anxiety disorder category. In this case, the client's social phobic symptoms are related to the social impact of having had Anorexia Nervosa, indicating a general anxiety disorder. The client's thin appearance may contribute to their anxiety in social situations.

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  • 27. 

    An individual meets the criteria for Depressive Disorder. The patient complains that the hypersomnia and low energy lead to chronic headaches. These headaches have been occurring for over six months and are not due to use of medication. Which diagnoses may be applied?

    • A.

      Undifferentiated Somatoform Disorder & Depressive Disorder

    • B.

      Undifferentiated Somatoform Disorder

    • C.

      Depressive Disorder

    • D.

      Somatoform Disorder NOS & Depressive Disorder NOW

    Correct Answer
    C. Depressive Disorder
    Explanation
    The individual meets the criteria for Depressive Disorder as they complain of hypersomnia and low energy, which are common symptoms of depression. The chronic headaches that have been occurring for over six months and are not due to medication use can also be attributed to the Depressive Disorder. Therefore, the diagnosis of Depressive Disorder is appropriate in this case.

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  • 28. 

    Following a severe stressor, a man develops symptoms that meet the criteria of Acute Stress Disorder. Concurrent with that, the man reports having localized amnesia stemming from the stressor. What diagnoses may be applied the client?

    • A.

      Acute Stress Disorder

    • B.

      Acute Stress Disorder & Dissociative Amnesia

    • C.

      Dissociative Amnesia

    • D.

      Posttraumtic Stress Disorder

    Correct Answer
    A. Acute Stress Disorder
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Acute Stress Disorder & Dissociative Amnesia. Acute Stress Disorder is diagnosed when an individual experiences symptoms such as intrusive thoughts, nightmares, and flashbacks following a traumatic event. In this case, the man meets the criteria for Acute Stress Disorder. Additionally, the man reports localized amnesia, which is a symptom of Dissociative Amnesia. Therefore, both diagnoses may be applied to the client. Posttraumatic Stress Disorder is a similar diagnosis, but it does not include the symptom of localized amnesia.

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  • 29. 

    A person experiences a recurrent sensation of being detached from their body, as if they were in a dream. If they maintain adequate reality testing, they may be diagnosed as ____________. If they fail to maintain reality testing and intensely believe they really are in a dream, they may be diagnosed as ____________.

    • A.

      Depersonalization Disorder; Delusional Disorder

    • B.

      Depersonalization Disorder; Dissociative Disorder NOS

    • C.

      Dissociative Disorder NOS; Delusional Disorder

    • D.

      Dissociative Disorder NOS; Dissociative Disorder NOS

    Correct Answer
    A. Depersonalization Disorder; Delusional Disorder
    Explanation
    Depersonalization Disorder is a diagnosis that involves recurrent feelings of detachment from one's body, as if they were in a dream. However, individuals with this disorder are able to maintain adequate reality testing, meaning they are aware that their experiences are not real. On the other hand, individuals with Delusional Disorder intensely believe that they really are in a dream, failing to maintain reality testing. Therefore, the correct answer is Depersonalization Disorder; Delusional Disorder.

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  • 30. 

    Four months after a traumatic stressor, an individual begins to experience many stressful symptoms related to the experience. Without knowing the symptoms, which one of the following could it be?

    • A.

      Acute Stress Disorder

    • B.

      Posttraumatic Stress Disorder

    • C.

      Adjustment Disorder

    • D.

      Brief Psychotic Disorder

    Correct Answer
    B. Posttraumatic Stress Disorder
    Explanation
    Given that the individual is experiencing stressful symptoms related to a traumatic stressor four months after the event, the most likely diagnosis would be Posttraumatic Stress Disorder (PTSD). PTSD is a mental health condition that can develop after experiencing or witnessing a traumatic event, and it is characterized by symptoms such as intrusive thoughts, nightmares, flashbacks, avoidance of reminders, negative mood, and hyperarousal. Acute Stress Disorder may be a possibility, but it typically lasts for a shorter duration (up to one month) after the traumatic event. Adjustment Disorder may also be considered, but it is typically related to a specific stressor and the symptoms are less severe than those seen in PTSD. Brief Psychotic Disorder is less likely as it is characterized by psychotic symptoms, which are not mentioned in the question.

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  • 31. 

    Autism and Schizoid Personality Disorder share this in common, ____________, but can be differentiated because ________________.

    • A.

      Flattened affect; the former typically chooses solitary activities

    • B.

      Flattened affect; the latter displays no repetitive stereotyped behavior

    • C.

      Paranoid ideation; the former typically chooses solitary activities

    • D.

      Paranoid ideation; the latter displays no repetitive stereotyped behavior

    Correct Answer
    B. Flattened affect; the latter displays no repetitive stereotyped behavior
    Explanation
    Autism and Schizoid Personality Disorder both share the characteristic of flattened affect, which refers to a lack of emotional expression or limited range of emotions. However, they can be differentiated because individuals with autism typically choose solitary activities, while individuals with Schizoid Personality Disorder do not display repetitive stereotyped behavior.

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  • 32. 

    Narcissistic Personality Disorder and Obessive-Compulsive Personality Disorder share this in common, ____________, but can be differentiated because ________________.

    • A.

      Perceive self in grandiose ways; the former claims to have reached perfection whereas the latter is self-critical

    • B.

      Perceive self in grandiose ways; the latter engages in antisocial behavior

    • C.

      Profess commitment to perfectionism; the former claims to have reached perfection whereas the latter is self-critical

    • D.

      Profess commitment to perfectionism; the latter engages in antisocial behavior

    Correct Answer
    C. Profess commitment to perfectionism; the former claims to have reached perfection whereas the latter is self-critical
    Explanation
    Both Narcissistic Personality Disorder and Obsessive-Compulsive Personality Disorder share the trait of professing commitment to perfectionism. However, they can be differentiated because individuals with Narcissistic Personality Disorder claim to have reached perfection, whereas individuals with Obsessive-Compulsive Personality Disorder tend to be self-critical.

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  • 33. 

    Borderline Personality Disorder and Dependent Personality Disorder share this in common, ____________, but can be differentiated because ________________.

    • A.

      Paranoid ideation; the former acts glib for attention whereas the latter acts glib for material gains

    • B.

      Paranoid ideation; the former responds to potential abandonment with emptiness and rage whereas the latter responds with submissiveness

    • C.

      Intense need to be in a relationship; the former acts glib for attention whereas the latter acts glib for material gains

    • D.

      Intense need to be in a relationship; the former responds to potential abandonment with emptiness and rage whereas the latter responds with submissiveness

    Correct Answer
    D. Intense need to be in a relationship; the former responds to potential abandonment with emptiness and rage whereas the latter responds with submissiveness
    Explanation
    Borderline Personality Disorder and Dependent Personality Disorder share an intense need to be in a relationship. However, they can be differentiated because individuals with Borderline Personality Disorder respond to potential abandonment with emptiness and rage, while individuals with Dependent Personality Disorder respond with submissiveness.

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  • 34. 

    A key characteristic that Personality Disorders have in common is __________________.

    • A.

      Each corresponds to an Axis I disorder

    • B.

      Inflexibility

    • C.

      Inappropriately intense emotional reactions to certain stimuli

    • D.

      Must be seen from very early childhood

    Correct Answer
    B. Inflexibility
    Explanation
    Personality Disorders have a key characteristic in common, which is inflexibility. This refers to a rigid and fixed pattern of thinking, feeling, and behaving that is resistant to change. Individuals with personality disorders often have difficulty adapting to different situations and may struggle with accepting alternative perspectives or approaches. This inflexibility can lead to interpersonal conflicts and difficulties in various areas of life.

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Our quizzes are rigorously reviewed, monitored and continuously updated by our expert board to maintain accuracy, relevance, and timeliness.

  • Current Version
  • Mar 22, 2023
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • Nov 15, 2010
    Quiz Created by
    Hruka22
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