ACE Personal Trainer Test!

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1. Ace certified Personal Trainers must complete a minimum of 20 hours of continuing edcuation every 2 years to maintain their certifications. The PRIMARY reason ACE has established this minimum continuing-education requirement is to help ACE Perosnal Trainers to _____________________.

Explanation

The primary reason ACE has established the minimum continuing-education requirement is to ensure that ACE Personal Trainers stay current with the latest exercise science research and guidelines for fitness and health. By completing the required hours of continuing education every 2 years, trainers can stay updated on new developments in the field, which allows them to provide the most accurate and effective training programs to their clients. This requirement helps trainers maintain a high level of knowledge and expertise, ultimately benefiting their clients' health and fitness outcomes.

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About This Quiz
ACE Personal Trainer Test! - Quiz

Are you preparing for the ACE certification exam? If yes, then you must take up this ACE Personal Trainer Test. This quiz consists of a few multiple choices based questions that are based on the study material of the ACE exam. This quiz will test your knowledge and help you... see moremaster the manual and be an ACE personal trainer. So, try attempting this quiz and see how well you understood your training. Your final score will determine how deep an understanding you have of this subject. So, are you ready to take this quiz? All the best!
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2. What is the MOST common excuse used by people when dropping out of an exercise program?

Explanation

The most common excuse used by people when dropping out of an exercise program is a lack of time. This is often cited as a reason because people lead busy lives with work, family, and other commitments, making it difficult to find time for exercise. Many individuals prioritize other activities over exercise, leading to a lack of consistency and ultimately dropping out of the program.

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3. What should a personal trainer do if a client insists on using dietray supplements desipte the trainer's assurance that his or her fitness goals can be met without them?

Explanation

If a client insists on using dietary supplements despite the trainer's assurance that their fitness goals can be met without them, the best course of action would be to refer the client to a registered dietitian or physician. These professionals have the expertise to provide accurate and personalized advice regarding the use of dietary supplements. They can assess the client's specific needs, goals, and health conditions, and recommend appropriate supplements, if necessary, while ensuring their safety and effectiveness. This referral ensures that the client receives reliable guidance from qualified professionals in the field of nutrition and medicine.

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4. When designing an exercise program for a beginning exerciser, it is best to focus on enhancing muscular strength before shifting the focus to improving client's posture. 

Explanation

When designing an exercise program for a beginning exerciser, it is not necessary to focus on enhancing muscular strength before shifting the focus to improving the client's posture. Both aspects can be addressed simultaneously or in any order based on the individual's specific needs and goals. It is important to consider the client's overall fitness level, any existing postural issues, and their specific preferences when designing an exercise program. Therefore, the statement that it is best to focus on enhancing muscular strength before improving posture is false.

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5. In which scenario is the personal trainer MOST likely to be found guilty of negligence? 

Explanation

The personal trainer is most likely to be found guilty of negligence in the scenario where the trainer is talking with another club member while the client injures himself due to poor form. This is because the trainer's inattention and failure to provide proper guidance and supervision directly contributed to the client's injury. The trainer had a duty of care to ensure the client's safety and by neglecting this responsibility, they can be held accountable for their negligence.

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6. Which of these follow-up actions would be most appropriate for an individual who answers "yes" to the following questions on the PAR-Q? "Is your doctor currently prescribing drugs for your blood pressure or heart conditions?" "In the past month, have you had chest pain when you were not doing physical activity?" 

Explanation

An individual who answers "yes" to the questions about their doctor prescribing drugs for blood pressure or heart conditions and experiencing chest pain when not doing physical activity should talk with a doctor before beginning to exercise or undergoing a fitness appraisal. These symptoms indicate potential underlying health issues that need to be addressed and evaluated by a medical professional before starting any physical activity program. It is important to ensure that the individual's health is stable and that they can safely engage in exercise without exacerbating their existing conditions or putting themselves at risk.

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7. People with low self-efficacy are more likely to choose non-challenging tasks that are easy to accomplish. 

Explanation

People with low self-efficacy tend to doubt their abilities to successfully complete challenging tasks. As a result, they are more inclined to choose tasks that they perceive as easy and within their capabilities. By selecting non-challenging tasks, individuals with low self-efficacy can avoid the risk of failure and maintain a sense of accomplishment. This behavior is driven by their belief that they lack the necessary skills and resources to tackle more demanding tasks.

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8. What should you do FIRST with a person who suddenly falls to the floor while exercising? 

Explanation

The first thing you should do when a person suddenly falls to the floor while exercising is to assess if the person is conscious and ask if he or she is okay. This is important to determine the person's level of consciousness and to assess their immediate condition. It allows you to quickly gauge if they are responsive and if further medical intervention is required.

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9. A loud, tense voice communicates and professionalism when speaking to a new client.

Explanation

A loud, tense voice does not communicate professionalism when speaking to a new client. It can come across as aggressive or intimidating, which is not conducive to building a positive and professional relationship. Instead, a calm and confident voice is more likely to convey professionalism and create a comfortable environment for effective communication with a new client.

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10. A balanced workout routine should include both cardiovascular exercises and strength training.

Explanation

A well-rounded fitness program combines cardiovascular exercises, like running or cycling, to improve endurance and heart health, with strength training, such as weightlifting, to enhance muscle strength and tone. This holistic approach provides comprehensive health benefits, including improved metabolism, increased muscle mass, and overall functional fitness. It's essential to strike a balance between these components for optimal physical well-being. So, whether you're aiming for weight loss, muscle gain, or overall fitness, incorporating both cardiovascular and strength exercises is key to achieving your fitness goals.

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11. Which treatment of soft-tissue injuries is within the personal trainer scope of practice? 

Explanation

The correct answer is educating the client on the proper administration of ice using PRICE. This is within the personal trainer scope of practice because it involves providing information and guidance to the client on how to use ice as a treatment for soft-tissue injuries. This does not involve directly administering any medication or performing any hands-on treatment, which would be outside the scope of practice for a personal trainer.

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12. _________________ is the most common excuse for not exercising and for dropping out of an exercise program.

Explanation

The most common excuse for not exercising and for dropping out of an exercise program is the perceived lack of time. Many individuals believe that they do not have enough time in their busy schedules to dedicate to exercise. This perception often leads to a lack of motivation and commitment to maintaining a regular exercise routine.

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13. An elevated shoulder may present with an overdeveloped or tight upper trapezius muscle. 

Explanation

An elevated shoulder may present with an overdeveloped or tight upper trapezius muscle. This is because the upper trapezius muscle is responsible for elevating the shoulder. When this muscle becomes overdeveloped or tight, it can cause the shoulder to appear elevated. Therefore, the statement is true.

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14. Which of the following is an appropriate response to a client who mentions being sore following a weekend tennis tournament? 

Explanation

The appropriate response to a client who mentions being sore following a weekend tennis tournament is discussing the proper technique for icing affected areas. This response addresses the client's concern by providing a solution that can help relieve the soreness. Icing affected areas can reduce inflammation and provide pain relief, making it a suitable recommendation in this situation.

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15. What are the five primary movements that are the focus of the movement-training phase? 

Explanation

The correct answer is Squatting, lunging, pushing, pulling, and rotational movements. These five movements are the primary focus of the movement-training phase. Squatting and lunging movements help to strengthen the lower body and improve stability. Pushing and pulling movements target the upper body muscles and help to develop strength and power. Rotational movements work on improving core strength and stability. By incorporating these five movements into the training phase, individuals can enhance their overall movement abilities and functional fitness.

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16. A personal trainer who wants to provide massage to help clients who have tight or sore muscles can do so ONLY if __________.

Explanation

The correct answer is that the personal trainer becomes a licensed massage therapist. This means that they have completed the necessary training and obtained the proper credentials to provide professional massage therapy services. Without this license, the personal trainer would not have the legal authority or expertise to provide massages to clients.

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17. The following list presents the four phases of the functional movement and resistance training component of the ACE IFT Model in their proper order.  Stability and mobility training  Movement training  Load training Performance training

Explanation

The correct answer is true because the ACE IFT Model follows a specific order for the four phases of the functional movement and resistance training component. The first phase is stability and mobility training, which focuses on improving balance and flexibility. The second phase is movement training, which involves teaching proper movement patterns and technique. The third phase is load training, which includes gradually increasing resistance and intensity. The final phase is performance training, which aims to enhance athletic performance and optimize overall fitness.

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18. Which of the following is MOST accurate regarding personal trainers recommending supplements to their clients? 

Explanation

The answer states that unless a personal trainer has additional credentials such as an R.D. or M.D., they do not have the qualifications to legally recommend supplements. This implies that there are legal requirements or regulations in place regarding the recommendation of supplements, and that personal trainers must have specific credentials to meet these requirements. Without these credentials, personal trainers may not have the necessary knowledge or expertise to safely and effectively recommend supplements to their clients.

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19. When developing SMART goals, which of the following types of goals should be AVOIDED? 

Explanation

Negative goals should be avoided when developing SMART goals. Negative goals focus on what not to do or what to avoid rather than what to achieve. This type of goal-setting approach can be demotivating and counterproductive as it does not provide a clear direction or target to work towards. Instead, SMART goals should be positive and specific, outlining what needs to be accomplished and setting a clear path for success.

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20. Which of the following would be MOST likely to enhance program participation and goal attainment? 

Explanation

Setting a series of progressively attainable short-term goals would be most likely to enhance program participation and goal attainment. This approach allows clients to experience a sense of achievement as they reach each short-term goal, which can increase motivation and engagement in the program. Additionally, setting attainable goals ensures that clients do not feel overwhelmed or discouraged, increasing the likelihood of continued participation and ultimately reaching their long-term goals.

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21. What should you do FIRST with a person who suddenly falls to the floor while exercising? 

Explanation

The first thing you should do when someone suddenly falls to the floor while exercising is to assess if the person is conscious and ask if they are okay. This is important to determine their level of responsiveness and if they require immediate medical attention. It is crucial to ensure their safety and well-being before proceeding with any further actions or assessments.

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22. To renew certification for a new two-year cycle, ACE-certified Professionals must complete a minimum of ___ hours of continuing education credtis and maintain a current certification in _____________ and, if living in North America, automated external defibrillation.

Explanation

To renew certification for a new two-year cycle, ACE-certified Professionals must complete a minimum of 20 hours of continuing education credits and maintain a current certification in CPR. This means that ACE-certified Professionals need to stay updated with the latest advancements and knowledge in their field by completing the required number of continuing education credits. Additionally, they must also maintain their CPR certification, which is crucial for handling emergency situations and providing immediate assistance to individuals in need.

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23. After progressing to the load-training phase of the ACE IFT Model, a client has mastered the stablity and mobility exercises from the previous phases and no longer needs to include them in each workout. 

Explanation

In the ACE IFT Model, stability and mobility exercises are foundational and should be included in each workout regardless of the phase. These exercises help improve movement efficiency, prevent injuries, and enhance overall performance. Therefore, it is incorrect to say that a client no longer needs to include them in each workout after progressing to the load-training phase.

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24. Performance training includes speed, agility, quickness, and reactivity drills that would be MOST appropriate for which of the following clients? 

Explanation

The 45-year old male, competitive tennis player would benefit the most from performance training that includes speed, agility, quickness, and reactivity drills. These drills are specifically designed to improve the specific skills required for tennis, such as quick movements, agility on the court, and reactive responses to the opponent's shots. The other clients may have different training needs based on their respective sports or goals.

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25. What is the most influential source of self-efficacy information?

Explanation

Past performance experience is the most influential source of self-efficacy information because it provides individuals with tangible evidence of their abilities and achievements. When individuals have successfully completed a task or overcome a challenge in the past, they are more likely to believe in their capabilities to do so again in the future. This experience helps build confidence and self-belief, leading to higher levels of self-efficacy.

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26. Which of the following is WITHIN the scope of practice for personal trainers?

Explanation

Screening clients for exercise limitations to facilitate exercise program design is within the scope of practice for personal trainers. This involves assessing clients' physical abilities, medical history, and any potential limitations or restrictions they may have in order to design a safe and effective exercise program tailored to their individual needs. Personal trainers are not qualified to provide counseling for life experiences, evaluate client injuries, or recommend supplements.

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27. What type of exercise program would be expected to have the GREATEST drop-out rate? 

Explanation

A vigorous-intensity exercise program would be expected to have the greatest drop-out rate because it involves high-intensity workouts that can be physically demanding and challenging for individuals. This type of program may require a higher level of fitness and stamina, making it more difficult for some people to sustain over time. Additionally, the intensity of the workouts may lead to increased risk of injury or discomfort, which could discourage participants from continuing with the program.

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28.  Most health benefits occur with at least __________minutes a week of moderate-intensity physical activity. 

Explanation

Most health benefits occur with at least 150 minutes a week of moderate-intensity physical activity. This is because engaging in moderate-intensity physical activity for this duration helps to improve cardiovascular health, strengthen muscles, and maintain a healthy weight. It also reduces the risk of chronic diseases such as heart disease, diabetes, and certain types of cancer. Regular physical activity is essential for overall well-being and should be incorporated into one's lifestyle to reap these health benefits.

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29. Which of the following presents the four stages of the cleint-trainer relationship in their proper order? 

Explanation

The correct order of the four stages of the client-trainer relationship is as follows: rapport, investigation, planning, action. Building rapport with the client is the first step in establishing trust and a positive working relationship. Once rapport is established, the trainer can then proceed to investigate the client's needs, goals, and limitations. Based on this investigation, the trainer can then create a customized plan for the client, outlining the specific actions and strategies that will be implemented to help the client achieve their goals. Finally, the action stage involves the actual implementation of the plan and the ongoing support and guidance provided by the trainer.

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30. A client must achieve a 1,000- calorie deficit per day in order to lose 1lbs per week. 

Explanation

To achieve a weight loss of 1lb per week, a client does not need to achieve a 1,000-calorie deficit per day. It is generally recommended to create a calorie deficit of around 500-750 calories per day to lose 1lb of weight per week. A 1,000-calorie deficit per day would result in a more rapid weight loss of around 2lbs per week. Therefore, the statement is false.

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31. A client complains of pain in the wrist during sleep and numbness and loss of grip strength during exercise. What injury is the MOST likely cause of these symptoms? 

Explanation

The symptoms described, including pain in the wrist during sleep and numbness and loss of grip strength during exercise, are consistent with carpal tunnel syndrome. This condition occurs when the median nerve, which runs through the carpal tunnel in the wrist, becomes compressed or irritated. This can cause pain, numbness, and weakness in the hand and wrist. The other options listed do not typically cause symptoms in the wrist or hand.

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32. Which of the following strategies should be AVOIDED when a personal trainer is modeling the healthful lifestyle that he or she is trying to get clients to adopt? 

Explanation

When a personal trainer is modeling a healthful lifestyle, they should avoid providing "negative" reasons for regular exercise such as losing weight. This is because focusing on negative reasons can create a negative mindset and may not be sustainable in the long run. Instead, it is more effective to promote the positive aspects of regular exercise, such as the importance of exercise for overall health, the confidence and sense of accomplishment it can bring, and the positive effects on mental well-being.

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33. After completing one year of personal training, Gina said she had learned a great deal from you and wanted to try to continue her program on her own. During the six months that have followed, you have noticed Gina routinely coming into the gym to exercise for one or two hours on four or five days of the week. When you talk with her about it, she say that she "loves coming into the gym and feels great after her workouts." This statement reflects GIna's strong ___________________.

Explanation

Gina's statement reflects her strong intrinsic motivation because she genuinely enjoys coming to the gym and feels great after her workouts. This indicates that her motivation to exercise is driven by internal factors such as personal satisfaction and enjoyment, rather than external factors like rewards or praise.

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34. Low-intensity exercise is the best way to lose weight because it burns a higher percentage of fat than exercise at a higher intensity.

Explanation

During high-intensity exercise, the total number of calories burned is much higher than during low-intensity exercise, and negates the higher percentage coming from fat. During low-intensity bouts, a higher percentage of calories is coming from fat, but the total number of fat calories is less than during high-intensity workouts. It is important to remember that the total number of calories burned is what determines weight loss, regardless of the source of those calories.

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35. The PRIMARY purpose of professional certifications is to: 

Explanation

Professional certifications serve the primary purpose of protecting the public from harm by ensuring that candidates meet established levels of minimum competence. This means that individuals who hold these certifications have demonstrated their proficiency and knowledge in their respective fields, reducing the risk of potential harm or damage to the public.

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36. Most health benefits occur with at least ______minutes a week of moderate-intensity physcial activity, suck as brisk walking. Additonal benefits occur with more physcial activity. 

Explanation

Most health benefits occur with at least 150 minutes a week of moderate-intensity physical activity, such as brisk walking. This amount of activity is recommended by various health organizations, including the World Health Organization and the American Heart Association, to maintain good cardiovascular health, improve mental well-being, and reduce the risk of chronic diseases such as diabetes and certain types of cancer. Engaging in more physical activity beyond 150 minutes per week can provide additional benefits, such as further reducing the risk of chronic diseases and improving overall physical fitness.

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37. During your initial interview with a new client, you learn that his motivation to sign up for personal-training sesions was based on a recent medical exam during which his physican informed him that he was prehypertensive (BP= 137/88 mmHg) and has dyslipidemia (total serum cholesterol = 227 mg/dL), and a fmaily history of cardiovascular disease. Based on this information, hos motivation to exercise is MOST likely associated with which of the following? 

Explanation

The client's motivation to sign up for personal-training sessions is most likely associated with the Health Belief Model. This model suggests that individuals are motivated to take action to prevent or manage health conditions when they perceive themselves to be at risk and believe that the recommended action will be effective in reducing that risk. In this case, the client's motivation is likely driven by the knowledge of his prehypertension, dyslipidemia, and family history of cardiovascular disease, which indicate a higher risk for cardiovascular problems. The client likely believes that exercise can help reduce these risks and therefore is motivated to engage in personal-training sessions.

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38. Which of the following is a key component of a client's initial fitness assessment?

Explanation

A key component of a client's initial fitness assessment is assessing their flexibility and range of motion. This assessment helps the personal trainer understand the client’s current physical condition, identify any limitations or imbalances, and design a tailored fitness program. The other options, while potentially helpful in building rapport, are not essential elements of the initial fitness assessment.

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39. For which of the following clients would a medical exam and graded exercise test be recommended before training begins? 

Explanation

A medical exam and graded exercise test would be recommended for a high-risk client wanting to perform moderate exercise. This is because high-risk clients have underlying health conditions or other risk factors that could increase their chances of experiencing complications during exercise. By conducting a medical exam and graded exercise test, the trainer can assess the client's overall health, identify any potential risks or limitations, and determine the appropriate level of exercise intensity for the client's safety.

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40. Which pair of shoulder muscles is BEST strengthened by shoulder shrugs performed with resistance?

Explanation

Shoulder shrugs involve elevating and retracting the shoulders, which primarily targets the levator scapulae and trapezius muscles. The levator scapulae muscle is responsible for elevating the scapula, while the trapezius muscle is involved in scapular retraction and elevation. Strengthening these muscles can help improve shoulder stability and posture. The other options, such as the rhomboid muscles, pectoralis minor and serratus anterior, and teres major and latissimus dorsi, are not the primary muscles targeted during shoulder shrugs.

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41. What is the primary purpose of a fitness certification?

Explanation

The primary purpose of a fitness certification is to protect the public from harm. This means that individuals who hold a fitness certification have demonstrated the necessary knowledge and skills to safely and effectively guide others in their fitness journey. By requiring fitness professionals to obtain a certification, it ensures that they have met certain standards and adhere to ethical guidelines, ultimately safeguarding the public from potential injuries or harm that may result from improper training or guidance.

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42. Which of the following exercises BEST addresses the rotational movement patterns during the movement training phase? 

Explanation

The wood-chop exercise is the best choice for addressing rotational movement patterns during the movement training phase. This exercise involves a diagonal movement pattern that mimics the motion of chopping wood. It requires rotation of the torso and engagement of the core muscles, promoting stability and strength in rotational movements. The unilateral row, lunge, and hip hinge exercises primarily focus on other movement patterns and do not specifically target rotational movements.

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43. Which personal attribute is the MOST reliable predictor of an indivdual's participation in an exercise program? 

Explanation

Past exercise program participation is the most reliable predictor of an individual's participation in an exercise program because it indicates that the person has already demonstrated a willingness and commitment to engage in regular exercise. This suggests that they are more likely to continue participating in future exercise programs. Weight, age, and perceived time barriers may influence an individual's decision to participate in an exercise program, but they are not as reliable as past exercise program participation in predicting actual participation.

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44. A client with which of the following conditions should receive comprehensive nutrition counseling before beginning an exercise program?

Explanation

Diabetes is a condition that affects the body's ability to regulate blood sugar levels. Comprehensive nutrition counseling is important for individuals with diabetes before starting an exercise program because it helps them understand how different foods can affect their blood sugar levels. They need to learn about the appropriate intake of carbohydrates, proteins, and fats, as well as how to time their meals and snacks to maintain stable blood sugar levels during exercise. This counseling can also address any specific dietary restrictions or considerations that individuals with diabetes may have.

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45. During the bend and lift screen, which observation would indicate that the client has tight planterflexors? 

Explanation

If the client's heels raise off the floor during the bend and lift screen, it would indicate that they have tight plantarflexors. Plantarflexors are the muscles responsible for pointing the foot downwards, and if they are tight, it can cause the heels to lift off the floor during movements such as squatting or bending. This observation suggests that the client may have limited ankle mobility or flexibility in the calf muscles.

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46. Which of the following must be included as part of every client's pre-participation screening? 

Explanation

A health-risk appraisal must be included as part of every client's pre-participation screening. This is because a health-risk appraisal helps to assess the client's overall health status, identify any existing medical conditions or risk factors, and determine if they are fit to participate in the intended physical activity program. It provides important information that can guide the development of an appropriate exercise plan and help prevent any potential health complications or injuries during exercise.

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47. Which of the following body positions may be interpreted by a client as aggressiveness on the part of the trainer?

Explanation

Standing with hands on hips can be interpreted by a client as aggressiveness on the part of the trainer because this body position is often associated with a dominant and confrontational stance. It can convey a sense of authority and control, which may be perceived as aggressive or intimidating by the client.

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48. According the general scope of practice for fitness professionals, personal trainers can rehabilitate clients who are recovering from musculoskeletal injuries.

Explanation

Personal trainers are not qualified or trained to rehabilitate clients who are recovering from musculoskeletal injuries. Rehabilitation requires specialized knowledge and skills that are typically within the scope of practice for physical therapists or other healthcare professionals. While personal trainers can provide guidance and support for clients with injuries, they should refer them to appropriate healthcare professionals for rehabilitation.

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49. A client should be reffered to his or her physician if whcih of the following is found during assessments?

Explanation

If a client experiences pain during the shoulder impingement clearing test, it is important to refer them to their physician. This test is used to assess for shoulder impingement syndrome, which occurs when the tendons of the rotator cuff become irritated and inflamed as they pass through the subacromial space. Pain during this test suggests that there may be an underlying issue with the client's shoulder joint, and it is best to have a physician evaluate and provide appropriate treatment.

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50. Lateral epicondylitis is commonly known as _________.

Explanation

Lateral epicondylitis is commonly known as tennis elbow. This condition is characterized by pain and inflammation on the outer part of the elbow, typically caused by overuse or repetitive movements of the forearm muscles. Despite the name, tennis elbow can affect individuals who participate in various activities, not just tennis players. The term "tennis elbow" is used to describe this condition due to its common occurrence among tennis players.

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51. An umbrella liability policy provides added coverage for all of the other insurance that a person may have in place. 

Explanation

An umbrella liability policy is designed to provide additional coverage beyond the limits of other insurance policies that an individual may have. It acts as a safety net, filling in gaps and providing extra protection in case the limits of other policies are exhausted. Therefore, it is true that an umbrella liability policy provides added coverage for all other insurance in place.

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52. Which of the following is NOT cause to immediately stop a cardiorespiratory exercise test? 

Explanation

Heavy breathing due to intense exercise is a normal response during cardiorespiratory exercise. It indicates that the individual is working at a higher intensity and their body is responding appropriately. Leg cramping, complaints of severe fatigue, and nausea and lightheadedness are all signs of potential issues or risks during exercise and may require immediate cessation of the test.

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53. ACE-certified Personal Trainer looking to advance their knowledge, skills, and abilities beyond their ACE Personal Trainer Certification would be BEST served by earning which of the following additional certifications?

Explanation

An ACE-certified Personal Trainer looking to advance their knowledge, skills, and abilities beyond their ACE Personal Trainer Certification would be best served by earning an advanced fitness certification that is NCCA-accredited. This certification would provide them with a higher level of expertise and specialization in specific areas of fitness, such as ACE-AHFS (Advanced Health and Fitness Specialist) or ACE-LWMC (Lifestyle and Weight Management Consultant). These certifications are recognized by the industry and would enhance their credibility and marketability as a personal trainer.

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54. In the process of operant conditioning, which of the following consequences would be BEST for a personal trainer to use to ensure that a desired client behavior will reoccur in the future? 

Explanation

Positive reinforcement would be the best consequence for a personal trainer to use to ensure that a desired client behavior will reoccur in the future. Positive reinforcement involves providing a reward or positive consequence after the desired behavior is exhibited, which increases the likelihood of that behavior being repeated in the future. This can be done by offering praise, incentives, or other forms of rewards to the client when they demonstrate the desired behavior, such as completing a workout or following a healthy eating plan.

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55. Which of the following is a non-correctible factor related to postural deviations? 

Explanation

Structural deviations refer to permanent or semi-permanent anatomical abnormalities, such as leg length discrepancies or scoliosis, which cannot be corrected through postural interventions alone. While side dominance, lack of joint stability, and lack of joint mobility can be improved through exercises and corrective techniques, structural deviations require specialized medical interventions like surgery or orthotics.

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56. Which of the following minerals has a recommended dietary allowance (RDA) that is more than twice as high for women than it is for men? 

Explanation

Iron is the correct answer because women have higher iron requirements due to menstruation and pregnancy. The recommended dietary allowance (RDA) for iron is 18 mg per day for women aged 19-50, while it is only 8 mg per day for men in the same age group. This difference is due to the fact that women lose iron through menstruation and need to replenish their iron stores during pregnancy. Men, on the other hand, do not have these additional iron requirements.

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57. Active listening allows a personal trainer to do which of the following effectively? 

Explanation

Active listening allows a personal trainer to gain a better understanding of the client to facilitate rapport and program design. By actively listening, the trainer can fully comprehend the client's needs, goals, preferences, and concerns. This understanding helps in building a strong rapport with the client, as the trainer can show empathy and provide personalized guidance. Additionally, active listening allows the trainer to design an exercise program that aligns with the client's specific requirements and helps them achieve their fitness goals effectively.

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58. Which of the following is a SMART goal? 

Explanation

The answer "I will run 4 days per week, gradually progressing my run time from 10 to 40 minutes, to prepare for a 5K in four months" is a SMART goal because it is specific (running 4 days per week, gradually increasing run time), measurable (tracking progress from 10 to 40 minutes), achievable (preparing for a 5K in four months), relevant (improving fitness and endurance), and time-bound (four months). This goal is well-defined and has clear parameters for success.

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59. What is the MOST important factor for an individual who is starting an exercise program?

Explanation

The most important factor for an individual who is starting an exercise program is their readiness to change behavior related to exercise. This means that the individual must be mentally prepared and motivated to make positive changes in their lifestyle and commit to regular exercise. Without this readiness, even strong support from family and friends, convenience of the exercise facility, or connecting with a personal trainer may not be enough to sustain a successful exercise program.

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60. What is the first phase of healing after an injury occurs?

Explanation

Inflammation is the first phase of healing after an injury occurs. When an injury happens, the body responds by sending immune cells to the site of the injury. These immune cells release chemicals that cause blood vessels to dilate, leading to increased blood flow to the area. This increased blood flow brings nutrients and oxygen to the injured tissue, while also removing waste products. Inflammation also helps to control bleeding and prevent infection. Overall, the inflammatory response is a crucial step in the healing process as it initiates the recruitment of cells and substances necessary for tissue repair.

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61. What is the MOST influential source of self-efficacy information related to exercise? 

Explanation

Past exercise performance is the most influential source of self-efficacy information related to exercise because it provides individuals with direct evidence of their ability to successfully engage in physical activity. When individuals have positive experiences and achieve their exercise goals in the past, it boosts their confidence and belief in their own capabilities to continue exercising. This self-efficacy information helps individuals overcome barriers and challenges, leading to increased motivation and adherence to exercise programs.

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62. What form is used to have the client acknowledge that he or she has been specifically informed about the risks associated with the activity in which hor or she is about to engage? 

Explanation

Informed consent is the form used to have the client acknowledge that he or she has been specifically informed about the risks associated with the activity in which he or she is about to engage. This form ensures that the client is fully aware of the potential dangers and voluntarily agrees to participate despite the risks. It is a legal and ethical requirement to obtain informed consent to protect both the client and the organization or individual conducting the activity.

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63. General trends reveal that members of which of the following populations are MOST LIKELY to be performing higher levels of physical activity in unsupervised settings? 

Explanation

Men are most likely to be performing higher levels of physical activity in unsupervised settings. This is supported by research that shows men tend to engage in more physical activity compared to women. Additionally, societal norms and expectations often encourage men to be physically active and engage in sports or exercise. Therefore, it can be inferred that men are more likely to participate in physical activities in unsupervised settings.

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64. Which of these medications causes a does-related decrease in a person's reating, exercise, and maximal heart rate? 

Explanation

Beta blockers are a class of medications that block the effects of adrenaline on the body's beta receptors. This leads to a decrease in heart rate, blood pressure, and the force of heart contractions. As a result, the person's resting, exercise, and maximal heart rate will decrease when taking beta blockers. Antihistamines, antidepressants, and diuretics do not have this effect on heart rate.

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65. Carbohydrates, which are the body's preferred energy source, contain how many kilocalories per gram? 

Explanation

Carbohydrates contain 4 kilocalories per gram. This is because carbohydrates are broken down into glucose, which is used by the body as its primary source of energy. Each gram of carbohydrate provides 4 kilocalories of energy when metabolized.

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66. Overweight or obese clients who are seeking to lose weight should perform a minimum of _____ minutes of moderate-intensity exercise each week. 

Explanation

Overweight or obese clients who are seeking to lose weight should perform a minimum of 150 minutes of moderate-intensity exercise each week. This recommendation is based on guidelines from various health organizations, including the American Heart Association and the World Health Organization. Regular physical activity at this level has been shown to promote weight loss, improve cardiovascular health, and enhance overall well-being. It is important for individuals to consult with a healthcare professional before starting any exercise program to ensure safety and effectiveness.

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67. Which of the following statements about flexibility is CORRECT?

Explanation

Collagen is a protein that provides structure and support to tissues in the body. It is known to limit motion and resist stretch, therefore it can be inferred that collagen proteins restrict flexibility.

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68. Which of the following is NOT one of the primary symptoms of altitude sickness?

Explanation

Altitude sickness is a condition that occurs when a person ascends to high altitudes too quickly, and their body is unable to adjust to the changes in air pressure and oxygen levels. The primary symptoms of altitude sickness include shortness of breath, headache, and nausea. Profuse sweating, on the other hand, is not considered a primary symptom of altitude sickness. While sweating can occur as a result of physical exertion at high altitudes, it is not directly linked to altitude sickness itself. Therefore, profuse sweating is the correct answer as it is not one of the primary symptoms of altitude sickness.

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69. What assessments are essential according to the ACE IFT Model and should be completed prior to an client beginning an exercise program? 

Explanation

The ACE IFT Model emphasizes the importance of collecting health-history data to identify any contraindications for exercise and determine if a referral is necessary. This assessment helps to ensure that the exercise program is safe and appropriate for the client's individual needs and medical conditions. By gathering this information, trainers can identify any potential risks or limitations that may affect the client's ability to participate in certain exercises. This assessment is essential in order to create a customized and effective exercise program that takes into account the client's unique health considerations.

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70. What is the legal term used to describe a situation where a trainer fails to act and a client in injured, but the client is determined to have played a role in his or her own injury? 

Explanation

Contributory negligence is the legal term used to describe a situation where a trainer fails to act and a client is injured, but the client is determined to have played a role in his or her own injury. This means that the client's own negligence or failure to exercise reasonable care contributed to their injury, and as a result, their ability to recover damages may be reduced or eliminated.

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71. Which medications has no promary affect on heart rate, but can cause dangerous cardiac arryhthmias due to water and electrolyte imbalances? 

Explanation

Diuretics are medications that help increase urine production and promote the elimination of excess fluid from the body. While they do not have a direct primary effect on heart rate, diuretics can cause dangerous cardiac arrhythmias due to their ability to disrupt the balance of water and electrolytes in the body. This imbalance can lead to abnormal electrical activity in the heart, resulting in arrhythmias. Therefore, diuretics can indirectly impact heart rate by causing these potentially harmful cardiac rhythm disturbances.

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72. Which of the following is NOT a benefit of regular physical activity?

Explanation

Regular physical activity has numerous benefits for overall health and well-being. It can help decrease anxiety and depression by releasing endorphins and improving mood. It also improves lipid profile by increasing HDL (good) cholesterol and decreasing LDL (bad) cholesterol. Additionally, regular physical activity improves glucose control by increasing insulin sensitivity and reducing the risk of developing type 2 diabetes. However, increased diastolic blood pressure is not a benefit of regular physical activity. In fact, regular exercise is known to lower blood pressure and reduce the risk of hypertension.

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73. When comparing the medial epicondyle of the humerus to the lateral epicondyle of the humerus, which of the following statements is correct?

Explanation

The correct answer is c. The medial epicondyle is more toward the midline of the body than the lateral epicondyle. This is because the medial epicondyle is located on the inner side of the humerus bone, closer to the midline of the body, while the lateral epicondyle is located on the outer side of the humerus bone, away from the midline of the body.

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74. Individuals who are short in statue may not be good candidates for which type of testing? 

Explanation

Individuals who are short in stature may not be good candidates for step tests because these tests typically involve stepping onto a platform or step repeatedly. The height of the step may be challenging for individuals with shorter legs, potentially affecting their performance and accuracy of the test results.

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75. A competitive soccer player, whose sport requires an ability to accelerate, decelerate, change direction, and then accelerate again, is interested in completeing an assessment to serve as a baseline against which he can measure future improvements. Which test will BEST measure these sports skills? 

Explanation

The pro agility test is the best choice for measuring the soccer player's sports skills. This test involves the player starting in a three-point stance, then sprinting five yards to one side, touching the line with their hand, and changing direction to sprint ten yards in the opposite direction before touching the line again. This test assesses the player's ability to accelerate, decelerate, change direction, and then accelerate again, which are all crucial skills in soccer. The other options, such as the 300-yard shuttle run and 40-yard dash, may measure speed and endurance but do not specifically assess the player's agility and change of direction abilities. The Margaria-Kalamen stair climb is more focused on assessing leg power rather than the specific skills required in soccer.

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76. Strength training, body building, and training for muscular endurance all fall under which functional movement and resistance training phase of the ACE IFT Model? 

Explanation

Strength training, bodybuilding, and training for muscular endurance are all forms of resistance training that focus on increasing the load or resistance placed on the muscles. This phase of the ACE IFT Model, known as Load training, involves exercises and techniques that aim to improve muscular strength and endurance by progressively increasing the amount of weight or resistance used. It is designed to challenge the muscles and promote adaptations that lead to increased strength and endurance.

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77. Which evaluation form does a client sign to acknowledge that he or she has been educated about and understands, the risks associated with being active? 

Explanation

The client signs an informed consent form to acknowledge that they have been educated about and understand the risks associated with being active. This form ensures that the client is fully aware of the potential dangers and agrees to participate in physical activities at their own risk. It serves as a legal document that protects the trainer or organization from any liability in case of injury or harm during the client's participation in physical activities.

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78. A new personal -training client tells you that she has little experience with exercise, but has signed up for 8 weeks of personal training because she is ready to get fit and lose weight. Based on this information, what would be the MOST effective way to help her to become regularly active and work toward her goal?

Explanation

The most effective way to help the new personal-training client become regularly active and work toward her goal would be to provide her with initial positive exercise experiences and help her focus on consistency. This approach would help her build confidence and motivation by experiencing the benefits of exercise firsthand. By focusing on consistency, she will be more likely to develop a habit of regular physical activity, which is crucial for achieving long-term fitness and weight loss goals.

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79. A client you have been working with for several months tells you that she believes her husabnd may be having an affair? Which response would be MOST appropriate?

Explanation

The most appropriate response is to express empathy and understanding towards the client's situation. By saying "I'm so sorry. I can't imagine how difficult that must be for you," the speaker acknowledges the client's pain and shows support. This response validates the client's feelings and opens up the opportunity for further discussion or assistance if needed.

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80. When should behavior contracts and written agreements be revised or updated? 

Explanation

Behavior contracts and written agreements should be revised or updated when goals are met or programs are modified. This is because as the client progresses and achieves their goals, their needs and requirements may change. The contract or agreement may need to be adjusted to reflect these changes and ensure that the client's current goals and expectations are accurately captured. Similarly, if there are any modifications to the program or interventions being implemented, the contract or agreement should be updated to align with these changes. This helps to ensure that the contract remains relevant and effective in guiding the client's behavior and progress.

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81. Which behavioral theory model is based on a prediction that people engage in a health behavior depending on the perceived threat they feel regarding a health problem? 

Explanation

The Health Belief Model is based on the prediction that people engage in a health behavior depending on the perceived threat they feel regarding a health problem. This model suggests that individuals are more likely to take action if they believe they are susceptible to a health problem, if they perceive the severity of the problem to be high, and if they believe that the benefits of taking action outweigh the barriers. It also takes into account individual beliefs, values, and cues to action in influencing health behavior.

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82. It is essential that personal trainers conduct assessments of muscular strength and endurance before a new client begins a stability and mobility training program. 

Explanation

True. Conducting assessments of muscular strength and endurance before starting a stability and mobility training program is essential for personal trainers. These assessments help trainers understand their client's current fitness levels, identify any muscular imbalances or weaknesses, and tailor the training program to suit the client's needs and goals effectively. This approach ensures safety, effectiveness, and the ability to track progress over time.

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83. Weightbearing and resistance-training activities are MOST important for clients with which of the following diseases or disorders? 

Explanation

Weightbearing and resistance-training activities are most important for clients with osteoporosis because these exercises help to improve bone density and strength. Osteoporosis is a condition characterized by weak and brittle bones, and weightbearing exercises, such as walking or jogging, help to stimulate bone growth and prevent further bone loss. Resistance-training activities, such as lifting weights, also help to increase muscle strength, which can provide support and protection to the bones. By engaging in these types of exercises, individuals with osteoporosis can reduce their risk of fractures and improve their overall bone health.

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84. Which of the following benefits of regular participation in mind-body exercise will have the GREATEST impact on improved program adherence?

Explanation

Increased self-efficacy refers to an individual's belief in their own ability to successfully perform a specific task or achieve a desired outcome. In the context of regular participation in mind-body exercise, having increased self-efficacy can greatly impact improved program adherence. When individuals believe in their own capabilities, they are more likely to persist and adhere to the exercise program, even when faced with challenges or setbacks. This increased self-belief can lead to greater motivation, confidence, and commitment, ultimately resulting in improved adherence to the exercise regimen.

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85. "When do you experience your low-back soreness?" is an example of what type of interviewing technique? 

Explanation

The question "When do you experience your low-back soreness?" is an example of a probing interviewing technique. Probing involves asking open-ended questions to gather more detailed information and encourage the interviewee to provide specific examples or explanations. In this case, the question prompts the interviewee to share specific instances or situations in which they experience low-back soreness, allowing for a deeper understanding of the issue.

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86. Which of the following accounts for the unique position that personal trainers hold in the allied healthcare continuum? 

Explanation

Personal trainers hold a unique position in the allied healthcare continuum because they are able to show clients how to exercise effectively while following physicians' general recommendations. This means that they have the knowledge and expertise to design and implement exercise programs that are safe and effective for individuals with various health conditions. By working closely with clients, personal trainers can help them achieve their fitness goals while also considering any medical limitations or recommendations provided by physicians. This makes personal trainers an important part of the healthcare team, as they bridge the gap between medical advice and practical exercise guidance.

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87. In most caes, athletic performance will improve when the individual is on a low-fat diet where fat intake is below 15% of total calories.

Explanation

Recommended 20-25% of total calories.

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88. Which of the following are actions to take when you suspect a client is having a mild hypoglycemic incident? 

Explanation

When a client is suspected to be having a mild hypoglycemic incident, the appropriate action is to help the client sit down and provide them with a sugary drink if they are able to swallow. This is because hypoglycemia, or low blood sugar, can cause dizziness and weakness, and sitting down can help prevent falls or injuries. Providing a sugary drink, such as fruit juice or a regular soda, can quickly raise their blood sugar levels. Calling EMS rescuers or administering insulin are not appropriate actions for a mild hypoglycemic incident.

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89. Which contemporary form of mind-body exercise involves floor work and as well as work done on a machine called a reformer?

Explanation

Pilates is a contemporary form of mind-body exercise that involves both floor work and work done on a machine called a reformer. The reformer is a specialized equipment that uses springs and pulleys to provide resistance and support during exercises. Pilates focuses on strengthening the core muscles, improving flexibility, and enhancing overall body awareness and control. It is a popular exercise method that helps improve posture, increase strength and stability, and promote mind-body connection.

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90. Which of the following documents represents a client's voluntary abandonment of the right to file a lawsuit against the personal trainer? 

Explanation

A release of liability waiver is a document that a client signs to voluntarily give up their right to sue a personal trainer in case of any injuries or accidents that may occur during training. This document protects the personal trainer from legal action and holds the client responsible for any potential risks associated with the training. It is a legal agreement that ensures both parties understand and accept the potential risks involved, and the client agrees not to hold the personal trainer liable for any injuries or damages that may occur.

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91. What is arguable the most important and influential personal attribute variable when predicting adherence to physical activity? 

Explanation

Activity history is arguably the most important and influential personal attribute variable when predicting adherence to physical activity. This is because a person's past experiences and engagement in physical activity can greatly impact their future behavior. Individuals with a positive activity history are more likely to continue being physically active, while those with a negative or inactive history may struggle to maintain adherence. Therefore, understanding an individual's activity history can provide valuable insights into their likelihood of adhering to physical activity recommendations.

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92. Which of the following terms is defined as the belief in one's own capabilities to successfully engage in a behavior?

Explanation

Self-efficacy is the belief in one's own capabilities to successfully engage in a behavior. It refers to an individual's confidence in their ability to accomplish a specific task or goal. Self-efficacy plays a crucial role in determining the level of motivation and effort put into achieving desired outcomes. It influences an individual's choice of activities, persistence in the face of challenges, and overall performance.

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93. Which of the following is considered a classical form of mind-body exercise (>200-year heritage)?

Explanation

Hatha yoga is considered a classical form of mind-body exercise with a heritage of over 200 years. Hatha yoga is a branch of yoga that focuses on physical postures (asanas), breathing techniques (pranayama), and meditation. It aims to balance the body and mind through various poses and breathing exercises. Hatha yoga is widely practiced and has a long history, making it a classical form of mind-body exercise.

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94. /Which of the following CORRECTLY describes the Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act of 1996

Explanation

The correct answer is "It ensures individual privacy by requiring confidentiality of health documents." The Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act of 1996 (HIPAA) is a federal law that protects the privacy and security of individuals' health information. It establishes standards for the electronic exchange, privacy, and security of health information. HIPAA requires healthcare providers, health plans, and other covered entities to maintain the confidentiality of individuals' health documents and only disclose them for specific purposes, such as treatment, payment, and healthcare operations. This ensures that individuals' privacy is protected and their health information is kept confidential.

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95. A strong social support network can provide an individual with all of the following EXCEPT:

Explanation

A strong social support network can provide an individual with improved program adherence, extrinsic motivation, and relapse-prevention support. However, it cannot provide intrinsic motivation. Intrinsic motivation comes from within oneself and is driven by personal values, interests, and enjoyment of the activity. While a social support network can offer encouragement and support, ultimately, intrinsic motivation is something that individuals must cultivate within themselves.

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96. As a general rule, ACE recommends that candidates allow _______ of study time to adequately prepare for the ACE Personal Trainer Certification exam. 

Explanation

ACE recommends that candidates allow 3-6 months of study time to adequately prepare for the ACE Personal Trainer Certification exam. This duration allows candidates to thoroughly cover and understand the necessary material, practice and apply their knowledge, and build confidence in their abilities. It strikes a balance between giving candidates enough time to prepare without dragging the process out for too long.

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97. Which assessment would be MOST appropriate for a 54-year old male client who has no contraindications for exercise but has not been regularly active in more than 10 years? 

Explanation

The Rockport fitness walking test would be the most appropriate assessment for a 54-year old male client who has not been regularly active in more than 10 years. This test is specifically designed for individuals who are not accustomed to regular exercise and provides a safe and effective way to assess their cardiovascular fitness. It involves measuring the client's heart rate before and after a one-mile walk, along with their body weight and age, to calculate their estimated VO2 max. This test is suitable for individuals of various fitness levels and does not require any specialized equipment.

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98. Which of the following types of physiological assessment is contraindicated for a client with asthma? 

Explanation

A ventilatory threshold test is contraindicated for a client with asthma because it involves exercising at high intensity levels, which can trigger asthma symptoms such as shortness of breath and wheezing. This test measures the point at which ventilation increases disproportionately to oxygen consumption, which can put excessive strain on the respiratory system of individuals with asthma. It is important to choose appropriate physiological assessments for clients with asthma to prevent exacerbation of their symptoms and ensure their safety during exercise testing.

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99. The end-point of the VT2 threshold test is determined by the client's ability to recite the Pledge of Allegiance, or another memorized group of phrases. 

Explanation

The end-point of the VT2 threshold test is not determined by the client's ability to recite the Pledge of Allegiance or another memorized group of phrases. The VT2 threshold test is a measure of ventilatory threshold, which is the point during exercise where there is a significant increase in breathing and the body switches from primarily using aerobic energy to anaerobic energy. The end-point of this test is typically determined by physiological markers such as heart rate or lactate levels.

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100. Which of the following is NOT among the 10 insights gleaned from the experiences of the National Weight Control Registry?

Explanation

The National Weight Control Registry provides insights on successful weight control strategies. One of these insights is to avoid relying too much on the scale for tracking progress. While it is important to monitor weight, solely focusing on the scale can be discouraging and may not accurately reflect overall health and body composition changes. Instead, the registry suggests focusing on other indicators of progress, such as energy levels, clothing fit, and overall well-being.

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101. Which of the following would violate intellectual porperty laws? 

Explanation

Using the ACE logo to promote nutritional products, DVDs or equipment sold by an ACE professional would violate intellectual property laws because it involves unauthorized use of a trademarked logo for commercial purposes. Intellectual property laws protect the rights of individuals or organizations to control and profit from their creations, such as logos, music, and other original works.

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102. Which of the following is NOT one of the potential benefits of a sole proprietorship? 

Explanation

A sole proprietorship is a type of business entity where the owner has unlimited personal liability for the debts and obligations of the business. This means that the owner is personally responsible for any losses incurred by the business. Unlike other business entities such as corporations, there is no legal separation between the owner and the business in a sole proprietorship. Therefore, there is no corporate veil to shield the owner from losses. The other options listed, such as minimal ongoing paperwork, all profits belonging to the owner, and the owner making all final decisions, are potential benefits of a sole proprietorship.

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103. A client's resistance-training regimen involves performing four sets of each exercise, with each set containing four repetitions. This training volume BEST addresses which training goal? 

Explanation

The client's resistance-training regimen, which involves performing four sets of each exercise with four repetitions, is focused on muscular strength. This type of training volume, with a lower number of repetitions and higher intensity, is ideal for increasing muscle strength rather than endurance or hypertrophy. It allows the client to lift heavier weights and build overall muscle strength.

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104. Which of the following structures has been used when a plaintiff is prevented from receiving remuneration folowing an injury due to the fact that he was found to have played a minor role in his own injury?  

Explanation

Contributory negligence is the correct answer because it refers to a legal doctrine where a plaintiff is barred from receiving compensation for their injury if they are found to have contributed to it in any way. This means that even if the defendant was also negligent, the plaintiff's own negligence can prevent them from recovering any damages. It is a strict rule that does not consider the degree of fault, and any amount of negligence on the part of the plaintiff can completely bar their recovery.

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105. A person who is confident that he or she can successfully participate reguarly in an exercise program __________. 

Explanation

A person who is confident that he or she can successfully participate regularly in an exercise program has good self-efficacy related to exercise. Self-efficacy refers to an individual's belief in their own abilities to successfully perform a specific behavior or task. In this case, the person believes in their ability to consistently engage in exercise, indicating a high level of self-efficacy. This belief in their own capabilities is likely to contribute to their motivation and commitment to participating in the exercise program.

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106. Which of Newton's laws of motion is described as follows" A body at rest will stay at rest and a body in motion will stay in motion (with the same direction and velocity) unless acted upon by an external force. 

Explanation

The correct answer is the Law of Inertia. This law states that an object at rest will remain at rest, and an object in motion will continue moving at a constant velocity in a straight line, unless acted upon by an external force. In other words, objects tend to resist changes in their state of motion. This concept is commonly referred to as the principle of inertia.

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107. Diagnosing the cause of a client's lordosis posture and prescribing an exercise to treat it is within a personal trainer's scope of practice

Explanation

False. Diagnosing the cause of a client's lordosis posture and prescribing an exercise to treat it is not within a personal trainer's scope of practice. Personal trainers are not qualified to diagnose medical conditions or prescribe specific treatments. They should refer clients to a healthcare professional, such as a physical therapist or doctor, for a proper diagnosis and treatment plan.

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108. Which of the following terms is defined as the product of muscular strength and movement speed? 

Explanation

Muscular power is the correct answer because it is defined as the product of muscular strength and movement speed. Muscular power is the ability of a muscle or group of muscles to exert force quickly, which involves both strength and speed. It is important in activities that require explosive movements, such as jumping or throwing. Muscular endurance refers to the ability of a muscle or group of muscles to sustain repeated contractions over a period of time. Absolute strength refers to the maximum amount of force a muscle or group of muscles can generate. Relative strength refers to the amount of force a muscle or group of muscles can generate in relation to body weight.

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109. What is the PRIMARY reason people give for not attempting CPR in a cardiac emergency? 

Explanation

Many people may hesitate to attempt CPR in a cardiac emergency because they are uncertain about their ability to perform it correctly. CPR requires specific knowledge and skills, and individuals may worry about making a mistake or causing harm to the person in need. This uncertainty can lead to a lack of confidence and hesitation in taking action.

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110. You are designing an exercise program for a new client who has type 2 diabetes and a physician's release for exercise as tolerated to lose weight and improve blood glucose regulation. During the initial session, you learn that she has been sedentary for the past few years. What initial cardiorespiratory program would be most appropriate for her? 

Explanation

The most appropriate initial cardiorespiratory program for a new client with type 2 diabetes and a sedentary lifestyle would be walking 5-6 days per week for 10-20 minutes at an RPE of 11-13, working up to 40-60 minutes. This program takes into consideration the client's medical condition and previous activity level, starting with a shorter duration and gradually increasing it to avoid overexertion. Walking is a low-impact exercise that can help improve blood glucose regulation and aid in weight loss. The target RPE range ensures that the client is exercising at an intensity that is challenging but sustainable for her fitness level.

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111. Which of the following program modifications would be MOST important when teaching yoga to a client who is deconditioned or has chronic disease?

Explanation

Minimizing poses with the head below the heart would be the most important program modification when teaching yoga to a client who is deconditioned or has chronic disease. This is because poses with the head below the heart, such as inversions, can increase blood pressure and put additional strain on the cardiovascular system. By minimizing these poses, the client's blood pressure can be better regulated and the risk of complications can be reduced.

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112. Assuming a client is lifting the same amount of weight, he or she can create more resistance by moving the weight closer to the working joint.

Explanation

Moving the weight closer to the working joint does not create more resistance. The resistance is determined by the amount of weight being lifted, not the position of the weight. Therefore, the statement is false.

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113. You are working with a client who weighs 180 lbs with a body-fat percentage of 20%. What will his approximate weight be when he reaches his goal of 15% body fat, assuming that his lean body mass remains constant?

Explanation

Assuming the client's lean body mass remains constant, the weight loss will come from reducing body fat. Since the client's goal is to reach 15% body fat, they will need to lose 5% of their current body fat percentage. Therefore, the weight loss will be approximately proportional to the percentage of body fat lost. Since 5% of 180 lbs is 9 lbs, the client will lose approximately 9 lbs of body fat. Subtracting this weight loss from the initial weight of 180 lbs gives us the approximate weight of 171 lbs. However, since the answer choices are in increments of 5 lbs, the closest option is 169 lbs.

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114. During the talk test, a client is able to speak, but not very comfortable. At approximately what intensity is this client working?

Explanation

The client is working at an intensity just above VT1. The talk test is a method used to determine exercise intensity based on a person's ability to speak comfortably during physical activity. If the client is able to speak but not very comfortably, it suggests that their exercise intensity is slightly higher than VT1, which is the first ventilatory threshold.

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115. Apley's scratch test is usually performed in conjuction with which of the following paris of tests? 

Explanation

Apley's scratch test is a physical examination maneuver used to assess the range of motion and flexibility of the shoulder joint. It involves the patient reaching across their chest and behind their head to touch specific points on their opposite shoulder blade. This test is often performed in conjunction with the shoulder flexion-extension test and internal rotation test of the humerus. These additional tests help to evaluate the overall mobility and function of the shoulder joint, providing a more comprehensive assessment of the patient's shoulder health.

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116. The three components of properly phrased feedback are BEST presented in what order?

Explanation

The correct order of the three components of properly phrased feedback is to first provide reinforcement for what was done well, then correct errors, and finally motivate clients to continue practicing and improving. This order ensures that the individual receives positive reinforcement for their strengths before addressing any areas that need improvement. By providing reinforcement first, it helps to build confidence and maintain motivation, which can then be used to address and correct errors in a constructive and supportive manner. Finally, motivating clients to continue practicing and improving helps to encourage ongoing growth and development.

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117. During what phase of the general adaptation syndrome will a clinet see progressive increases in muscle size and strength?

Explanation

During the adaptation phase of the general adaptation syndrome, a client will see progressive increases in muscle size and strength. This phase occurs after the initial shock phase and alarm phase, where the body responds to stressors. In the adaptation phase, the body begins to adjust and adapt to the stressors, leading to improvements in muscle size and strength as a result of the body's efforts to cope with the stress. The exhaustion phase, on the other hand, occurs when the body's resources are depleted and can no longer cope with the stressors, leading to a decline in muscle size and strength.

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118. Which stretching technique involves holding each stretch to the point of tension for 15-60 seconds? 

Explanation

Static stretching involves holding each stretch to the point of tension for 15-60 seconds. This technique helps to improve flexibility and increase the range of motion in the muscles and joints. It is commonly used in warm-up and cool-down routines to prevent muscle soreness and injury. Unlike dynamic stretching, which involves moving parts of the body through a full range of motion, static stretching is done while stationary. Active isolated stretching and ballistic stretching involve different movements and durations of holding stretches, making them incorrect choices for this question.

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119. Which of the following is the BEST tool for assessing lower-body muscular strength? 

Explanation

The 1-RM squat test is the best tool for assessing lower-body muscular strength because it measures the maximum amount of weight that a person can lift in a squat exercise. This test provides a more accurate and objective measure of strength compared to other options. The bodyweight squat test only assesses relative strength and may not be challenging enough for individuals with higher levels of strength. The 10-RM leg press test measures strength endurance rather than maximum strength. The standing long jump test primarily assesses power and explosiveness rather than pure strength.

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120. A client leaves a gym bag on the front seat of his car each morning as a reminder to work out on his way home from work. What behavior-change strategy is he using? 

Explanation

The client is using stimulus control as a behavior-change strategy. By leaving the gym bag on the front seat of his car each morning, he is creating a visual reminder that prompts him to work out on his way home from work. This strategy aims to associate the presence of the gym bag with the desired behavior of exercising, increasing the likelihood that the behavior will occur.

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121. Stop and go game type activities are an appropriate choice for both youth and older adult exercisers. 

Explanation

Stop and go game type activities may not be an appropriate choice for older adult exercisers due to the potential risk of injury. Older adults may have decreased balance, coordination, and reaction time, which can increase the likelihood of accidents during stop and go activities. It is important to choose exercises that are safe and suitable for the individual's age and physical abilities.

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122. Standing on a single leg and taking a step mandates stability in each of the following regions EXCEPT the ____________

Explanation

When standing on a single leg and taking a step, stability is required in the stance leg, hip, and torso in order to maintain balance and control. However, stability in the raised leg is not necessary as it is not in contact with the ground and does not contribute to the overall stability of the body. Therefore, the correct answer is the raised leg.

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123. _________________ involves the number of pros and cons perceived about adopting and/or maintaining an activity program. 

Explanation

Decisional balance involves the number of pros and cons perceived about adopting and/or maintaining an activity program. This concept refers to the evaluation of the advantages and disadvantages of engaging in a particular behavior. It involves weighing the positive outcomes or benefits (pros) against the negative consequences or drawbacks (cons) of the behavior. The decisional balance helps individuals assess the costs and benefits associated with making a change or continuing with a particular behavior, which can ultimately influence their motivation and decision-making process.

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124. What is frequently cited as the primary centering activity of mind-body exercise programs?

Explanation

Breathwork is frequently cited as the primary centering activity in mind-body exercise programs because it involves focusing on the breath and using specific breathing techniques to enhance relaxation, mindfulness, and overall well-being. By consciously controlling the breath, individuals can regulate their heart rate, reduce stress, and improve mental clarity. Breathwork is considered essential in mind-body exercises such as yoga, Pilates, and tai chi, as it helps to connect the mind and body, promoting a sense of calm and balance.

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125. Once a client can demonstration good static balance while standing on two feet, what exercise could the trainer introduce that would provide the MOST appropriate progression? 

Explanation

By narrowing the base of support, the trainer can introduce a more challenging exercise that requires the client to maintain balance with a smaller area of contact with the ground. This progression helps to further develop the client's static balance by increasing the difficulty level. It requires the client to engage their core muscles and make subtle adjustments to maintain stability. This exercise also simulates real-life situations where balance is required on a narrow surface or while performing activities that require a smaller base of support.

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126. What business structure puts a personal trainer at the GREATEST risk for losing personal assests in the event of a lawsuit filed by a client for an incident related to personal training services provided? 

Explanation

A sole proprietorship puts a personal trainer at the greatest risk for losing personal assets in the event of a lawsuit filed by a client for an incident related to personal training services provided. In a sole proprietorship, the owner and the business are considered the same entity, which means that the personal assets of the owner can be used to satisfy any debts or liabilities of the business. This means that if the personal trainer is sued and loses the lawsuit, their personal assets such as their savings, home, or car could be at risk of being taken to satisfy the judgment.

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127. More than _____% of people who start a new program will drop out within the first 6 months. 

Explanation

The correct answer is 50 because research and studies have shown that approximately half of the people who start a new program, whether it is a fitness program, a diet plan, or a self-improvement program, tend to drop out within the first 6 months. This could be due to various reasons such as lack of motivation, unrealistic expectations, difficulty in maintaining consistency, or simply losing interest over time.

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128. A client reports feeling terrible pain in the heel during his first steps each morning, which then dissipates as he walks around the house. What is the MOST likely cause of this pain? 

Explanation

The most likely cause of the client's pain is plantar fasciitis. Plantar fasciitis is a condition characterized by inflammation of the plantar fascia, a thick band of tissue that runs along the bottom of the foot. The pain is typically felt in the heel, especially during the first steps in the morning when the fascia is tight and has not yet stretched out. As the client walks and the fascia loosens up, the pain tends to dissipate. Achilles tendinitis, ankle sprains, and infrapatellar tendinitis are not typically associated with pain in the heel.

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129. When programming exercise fora  client who is recovering from a lateral ankle sprain, it is important to begin with side-to-side motions before progressing to staright plan and then mutlidirectional motions. 

Explanation

It is important to progress from side-to-side motions to straight plane and then multidirectional motions when programming exercise for a client recovering from a lateral ankle sprain.

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130. Which of the following is an example of an effective cognitive behavioral technique that a personal trainer can implement to improve client exercise adherence? 

Explanation

Helping the clients to move from primarily external feedback to primarily internal feedback is an effective cognitive behavioral technique that a personal trainer can implement to improve client exercise adherence. This technique encourages clients to rely on their own internal cues and feedback, such as how their body feels during exercise, rather than solely relying on external feedback, such as the trainer's instructions or feedback. By developing their internal feedback system, clients become more self-aware and self-regulated, leading to improved adherence to their exercise program.

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131. Which of the following is NOT one of three sites used when performing the skinfold measurements on a male client? 

Explanation

The triceps is not one of the three sites used when performing skinfold measurements on a male client. Skinfold measurements are commonly used to estimate body fat percentage, and the three sites typically used for males are the chest, abdomen, and thigh. The triceps is not included in this measurement protocol.

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132. What is the purpose of stability and mobility training? 

Explanation

Stability and mobility training is aimed at restoring and improving posture and movement compensations. This type of exercise focuses on correcting imbalances and weaknesses in the body, which can lead to poor posture and inefficient movement patterns. By targeting specific muscles and movements, stability and mobility training helps to restore proper alignment and function, reducing the risk of injury and improving overall movement quality. This type of training is particularly beneficial for individuals with postural issues, movement restrictions, or those recovering from injury or surgery.

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133. A personal trainer could design an exercise program without requiring a physician's release prior to participation for which of the following? 

Explanation

A personal trainer could design an exercise program without requiring a physician's release prior to participation for a 42-year old female client who has lumbar lordosis. Lumbar lordosis is an excessive inward curvature of the lower spine, which can cause lower back pain and discomfort. While it is important for individuals with lumbar lordosis to exercise caution and use proper form during workouts, it does not necessarily require a physician's release before starting an exercise program. However, it is always advisable for individuals with any medical condition to consult with a healthcare professional before beginning a new exercise routine.

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134. What is the primary reason for having all clients perform an adequate cool-down? 

Explanation

The primary reason for having all clients perform an adequate cool-down is to enhance venous return and prevent blood pooling in the extremities. During exercise, blood flow increases to the working muscles, and the cool-down helps gradually decrease the intensity of exercise, allowing the blood vessels to constrict back to their normal size. This helps to prevent blood from pooling in the extremities and promotes the return of blood to the heart. By enhancing venous return, a cool-down can help reduce the risk of dizziness, fainting, and other potential cardiovascular complications.

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135. Which of the following training scenarios would MOST likely result in overtraining syndrome for an endurance athlete? 

Explanation

Decreasing the number of recovery days per week to accommodate additional interval work would most likely result in overtraining syndrome for an endurance athlete. Recovery days are crucial for the body to repair and adapt to the stress of training. By reducing the number of recovery days, the athlete does not give their body enough time to recover, increasing the risk of overtraining. Overtraining syndrome can lead to decreased performance, fatigue, mood disturbances, and increased risk of injury.

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136. At what point does a candidate for the ACE Personal Trainer Certification (or any other ACE certification) agree to uphold the ACE Code of Ethics?

Explanation

The candidate for the ACE Personal Trainer Certification agrees to uphold the ACE Code of Ethics while registering for an ACE certification exam. This implies that the candidate acknowledges and accepts the ethical guidelines set forth by ACE before they even begin the certification process. It is important for candidates to understand and commit to these ethical standards from the very beginning of their journey towards becoming a certified ACE trainer.

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137. What is the only macronutrient whose stored energy generates adenosine triphosphate (ATP) anaerobically?

Explanation

Carbohydrates are the only macronutrient that can generate adenosine triphosphate (ATP) anaerobically. ATP is the main source of energy for cellular processes, and it is produced through a process called glycolysis. During glycolysis, glucose, which is a type of carbohydrate, is broken down into pyruvate, and ATP is generated in the absence of oxygen. Protein, fat, and cholesterol do not undergo glycolysis and therefore cannot generate ATP anaerobically.

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138. Which of the following observations would be notes as a postural deviation?

Explanation

This observation would be noted as a postural deviation because the normal anatomical position is for the cheek bone to be aligned with the collar bone. When the cheek bone is forward of the collar bone, it indicates a deviation from the normal posture.

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139. After several month of working with a client, a personal trainer notes that the client's self-efficacy and ability levels have improved. How should this affect the amount of external feedback the trainer provides to the cleint?  

Explanation

As the client's self-efficacy and ability levels have improved, it indicates that the client has become more confident and capable in their fitness journey. Therefore, the trainer should taper the amount of external feedback provided. This is because the client is now more self-reliant and may not require as much guidance and feedback from the trainer. Gradually reducing the amount of external feedback allows the client to continue building their independence and self-efficacy.

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140. During what phase of the functional movement and resistance training component of the ACE IFT Model is the application of external resistance to functional movement patterns a primary focus? 

Explanation

Load training is the phase of the functional movement and resistance training component of the ACE IFT Model where the primary focus is on applying external resistance to functional movement patterns. This phase involves using weights, resistance bands, or other forms of resistance to challenge the muscles and increase strength. The goal of load training is to progressively increase the amount of resistance over time to continue challenging the muscles and promoting muscle growth and development.

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141. What is the most important goal when working with special-population clientele?

Explanation

When working with special-population clientele, it is important to provide them with initial positive experiences that promote adherence through easily achieved initial successes. This approach helps to build their confidence and motivation, making them more likely to continue with their exercise program. By starting with achievable goals and creating a positive environment, individuals are more likely to stick to their exercise routine and experience long-term success in improving their fitness and overall well-being.

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142. Which of these assessments meausres a client's anaerobic capacity? 

Explanation

The 300-yard shuttle run is an assessment that measures a client's anaerobic capacity. Anaerobic capacity refers to the body's ability to produce energy without the use of oxygen. The shuttle run involves running back and forth between two points within a specified time, which requires quick bursts of energy and relies heavily on anaerobic metabolism. The Rockport mile test measures aerobic capacity, the vertical jump test measures explosive power, and the kneeling overhead toss assesses upper body strength and power.

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143. Tightness in which of the following structures can be a cause of patellofemoral pain syndrome due to its lateral fascial connections to the patella? 

Explanation

The IT band complex can cause patellofemoral pain syndrome due to its lateral fascial connections to the patella. The IT band is a thick band of connective tissue that runs along the outside of the thigh, connecting the hip to the knee. When the IT band becomes tight, it can pull on the patella, causing pain and discomfort in the front of the knee. This can be a common cause of patellofemoral pain syndrome.

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144. What is the primary advantage of the increase in blood volume that results from chronic cardiorespiratory exercise?

Explanation

The primary advantage of the increase in blood volume that results from chronic cardiorespiratory exercise is enhanced oxygen delivery to working muscles. With an increase in blood volume, there is a greater amount of oxygen-carrying red blood cells available to transport oxygen to the muscles. This allows for improved endurance and performance during exercise, as the muscles receive a steady supply of oxygen to support their energy needs. Additionally, enhanced oxygen delivery helps to reduce fatigue and improve recovery post-exercise.

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145. Scapular winging during the shoulder push stabilization screen would MOST likely be due to ________________.

Explanation

Scapular winging refers to the protrusion of the scapula (shoulder blade) away from the ribcage, causing an abnormal appearance during movement. Scapulothoracic joint instability is the most likely cause of scapular winging during the shoulder push stabilization screen. This is because scapulothoracic joint instability refers to a lack of stability and control in the joint between the scapula and the thorax. When this joint is unstable, the scapula may move abnormally during movements such as pushing, leading to winging. Weak core and low back, curved thoracic spine, and strong serratus anterior are not the most likely causes of scapular winging in this context.

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146. A heart attack is characterized by which of the following signs and symptoms? 

Explanation

A heart attack is characterized by sustained stabbing pain in and around the chest. This pain is typically intense and may radiate to other areas like the arm, neck, or jaw. It is often described as crushing, squeezing, or tightness in the chest area. This symptom distinguishes a heart attack from other conditions like stroke (which may present with sudden headache and weakness on one side of the body) or cardiac arrest (which involves sudden loss of consciousness, no breathing, and no pulse).

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147. Which of the following is a skill-related parameter that might be addressed in a client's exercise program? 

Explanation

Balance is a skill-related parameter that might be addressed in a client's exercise program. It refers to the ability to maintain equilibrium while performing various movements. By incorporating exercises that challenge stability and coordination, such as standing on one leg or using a balance board, the client can improve their balance. This is important for overall functional movement and can help prevent falls and injuries.

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148. Which mechanism of thermoregulation is the major contributor during exercise?

Explanation

During exercise, the major mechanism of thermoregulation is evaporation. As the body heats up during physical activity, sweat glands are activated to produce sweat. As the sweat evaporates from the skin's surface, it absorbs heat from the body, cooling it down. This process helps regulate body temperature and prevent overheating. Convection and radiation also play a role in heat transfer, but they are not as significant as evaporation in dissipating the heat generated during exercise. Excretion, on the other hand, refers to the elimination of waste products and does not directly contribute to thermoregulation during exercise.

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149. According to the principle of reversibility, a client who stops performing resistance will lose strength at about _______ that it was gained. 

Explanation

According to the principle of reversibility, when a client stops performing resistance exercises, they will lose strength at about one-half the rate that it was gained. This means that if a client gained a certain amount of strength through resistance training, they will lose approximately half of that strength if they stop exercising. This principle highlights the importance of maintaining a consistent exercise routine to prevent strength loss.

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150. A plyometric exercise program BEST addresses which aspect of muscular fitness?

Explanation

A plyometric exercise program is designed to improve muscular power. Plyometric exercises involve quick, explosive movements that require the muscles to exert maximum force in a short amount of time. This type of training helps to improve the ability to generate power and speed, which is important for activities that require quick bursts of strength, such as jumping, sprinting, and throwing. Muscular power is different from muscular strength, which refers to the maximum amount of force a muscle can generate, and muscular endurance, which refers to the ability of a muscle to sustain repeated contractions over time.

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151. Which of the four components of blood carries hormones, food materials, ions, and gases throughout the body?

Explanation

Plasma is the correct answer because it is the liquid component of blood that carries hormones, food materials, ions, and gases throughout the body. It makes up about 55% of the total blood volume and serves as a transport medium for various substances, including nutrients, waste products, hormones, and gases like oxygen and carbon dioxide. Plasma also plays a crucial role in maintaining the pH balance and regulating body temperature.

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152. Which is the BEST strategy for personal trainers to implement to enhance the liklihood that a client will continue working with them?

Explanation

Encouraging client ownership of the program helps to foster intrinsic motivation, which is the internal drive and enjoyment that comes from engaging in an activity. When clients feel a sense of ownership and control over their fitness program, they are more likely to stay committed and continue working with their personal trainer. This approach empowers clients to take responsibility for their own progress and goals, leading to a stronger sense of motivation and dedication to the program.

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153. You are working with a new client who wants to begin resistance training in prep for a one-month backpacking trip he will be taking thorough the Rocky Mountains. Which of the following training sets and reps ranges would be BEST for helping prepare for the rigors of this multi-day trip? 

Explanation

2-3 sets of 12-16 reps would be the best training set and rep range for preparing for a one-month backpacking trip in the Rocky Mountains. This range focuses on muscular endurance, which is essential for prolonged physical activity. It allows the client to build strength and stamina without excessive muscle fatigue. The higher number of reps and sets helps to improve muscular endurance and prepares the client for the demands of carrying a backpack and hiking for long periods of time.

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154. The affective and neurendocrine response to mind-body exercise is mediated through the hypothalamic-pituitary-adrenal axis (HPA) and results in a decreased prodiction of which hormones that are associated with stress?

Explanation

The correct answer is catecholamines and cortisol. When engaging in mind-body exercise, the hypothalamic-pituitary-adrenal (HPA) axis is activated. This leads to a decrease in the production of catecholamines (such as adrenaline and noradrenaline) and cortisol, which are hormones associated with the stress response. Therefore, mind-body exercise helps to reduce stress by regulating these hormones.

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155. Which type of movement has the GREATEST need for thoracic mobility? 

Explanation

Rotational movements require the greatest need for thoracic mobility. The thoracic spine is responsible for rotation and twisting movements of the upper body. In order to perform rotational movements effectively, the thoracic spine needs to be mobile and flexible. This allows for a greater range of motion and enables efficient rotation of the torso. Therefore, individuals involved in activities that require frequent rotational movements, such as golfing or tennis, would benefit from having good thoracic mobility.

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156. Which of the following is NOT a reason to stop a client while he or she is performing the sharpened Romberg test? 

Explanation

The sharpened Romberg test is used to assess a client's ability to maintain balance with their eyes closed. The test is considered positive if the client is unable to maintain balance for 30 seconds. However, if the client exceeds 30 seconds with good postural control, it indicates that the client has good balance and there is no need to stop the test. Therefore, the client exceeding 30 seconds with good postural control is not a reason to stop the test.

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157. A amle client performs the stork-stand balance test and is able to hold the position for 46 seconds. How would you rate this client's performance? 

Explanation

Based on the information provided, the client was able to hold the stork-stand balance position for 46 seconds. This indicates a reasonable level of balance and stability, suggesting that the client's performance can be rated as "Good".

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158. A male client who weighs 190 pounds has a one-rep max of 225 pounds on the bench press exercise. His relative strength for this exercise in ___________. 

Explanation

Relative strength = (absolute strength/body weight) pg 221

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159. Training frequency is inversely related to both training _____________ and training_____________.

Explanation

Training frequency refers to how often a person engages in training sessions. The given answer states that training frequency is inversely related to both training volume and training intensity. This means that as the frequency of training sessions increases, the volume (amount of work) and intensity (level of effort) of each session will decrease. In other words, if someone trains more frequently, they may need to reduce the volume or intensity of each session to allow for proper recovery and prevent overtraining.

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160. Which of the following is WITHIN the ACE- certified Personal Trainer scope of practice? 

Explanation

The correct answer is helping clients gain a better understanding of portion sizes and healthful foods so they can make better choices. This falls within the ACE-certified Personal Trainer scope of practice because it involves providing education and guidance on nutrition and healthy eating habits, which is an important aspect of overall fitness and wellness. Personal trainers often work with clients to develop a comprehensive approach to health and fitness, which includes nutrition education and support. By helping clients understand portion sizes and make better food choices, personal trainers can contribute to their clients' overall health and fitness goals.

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161. Which of the following progressions is LEAST recommended for clients who have osteoarthritis? 

Explanation

Increasing the weight lifted instead of increasing the number of repetitions is the least recommended progression for clients with osteoarthritis. Osteoarthritis is a condition that affects the joints, causing pain and stiffness. It is important for clients with osteoarthritis to focus on low-impact activities and avoid overstressing the joints. Increasing the weight lifted can put additional strain on the joints, potentially worsening the symptoms of osteoarthritis. It is generally recommended to prioritize increasing the number of repetitions or exercise duration instead, as this allows for a gradual and controlled progression without placing excessive stress on the joints.

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162. When training in a client's home, a personal trainer must use recording produced specifically for sue in fitness facilities or risk being in violation of copyright law.

Explanation

A personal trainer does not need to use recordings produced specifically for use in fitness facilities when training in a client's home. There is no violation of copyright law if the trainer uses their own training materials or resources that are legally obtained. Therefore, the statement is false.

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163. Which of the following would be contraindicated for a client who has an acute hamstring strain? 

Explanation

Stretching the hamstring for up to 60 seconds per stretch would be contraindicated for a client with an acute hamstring strain because it can further aggravate the injury and delay the healing process. Stretching a muscle that is already strained can cause additional damage and increase pain and inflammation. It is important to allow the muscle time to rest and heal before starting any stretching exercises.

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164. Which of the following statements is CORRECT regarding exercise for people who have low-back pain? 

Explanation

Consistency is key when it comes to exercise for people with low-back pain. Performing low-back exercises on a daily basis helps to strengthen the muscles in the area, improve flexibility, and reduce pain over time. Regular exercise also helps to maintain proper posture and prevent future episodes of low-back pain. Therefore, low-back exercises have the most beneficial effect when performed on a daily basis.

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165. When programming exercise to help a client reduce low-back pain, it is most important to focus on muscular strength, as opposed to muscular endurance. 

Explanation

When programming exercise to help a client reduce low-back pain, it is most important to focus on muscular endurance, not just muscular strength. Muscular endurance refers to the ability of muscles to sustain repeated contractions over a period of time, which is crucial for maintaining proper posture and preventing fatigue. In the case of low-back pain, it is important to improve the endurance of the muscles supporting the spine to prevent strain and injury. While muscular strength is also important, it is not the most important factor in reducing low-back pain.

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166. The stretching of weakened muscles should begin with the performance of 2 to 4 repetitions of isometric muscle contractions, each held for 5 to 10 seconds at less thatn 50% of maximal voluntary contraction in a supported, isolated environment. 

Explanation

The statement is true because when muscles are weakened, it is important to start with gentle exercises to gradually strengthen them. Isometric muscle contractions involve contracting the muscles without any movement, which helps to activate and strengthen the muscles without putting too much strain on them. Performing 2 to 4 repetitions of these contractions, held for 5 to 10 seconds each, allows for a controlled and supported environment to prevent further injury. Starting at less than 50% of maximal voluntary contraction ensures that the muscles are not overworked and allows for gradual progression in strength.

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167. Which hormone promotes triglyceride breakdown to aid in maintaining blood glucose?

Explanation

Cortisol is the correct answer because it is a hormone that promotes the breakdown of triglycerides, which are stored fats, in order to release fatty acids into the bloodstream. These fatty acids can then be used as a source of energy to maintain blood glucose levels. Cortisol is released by the adrenal glands in response to stress and helps regulate metabolism, including the breakdown of fats.

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168. When helping a client build scapulothoracic stability, which exercise should a trainer have him or her perform FIRST to teach the client how to "pack" the scapula? 

Explanation

The supine-lying shoulder depression and shoulder retraction exercise should be performed first to teach the client how to "pack" the scapula. This exercise helps to stabilize the scapula and teaches the client how to retract and depress the shoulder blades properly. By starting with this exercise, the trainer can establish a strong foundation of scapulothoracic stability before progressing to other exercises.

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169. What is the PRIMARY focus of aerobic-base training in the ACE IFT Model? 

Explanation

The primary focus of aerobic-base training in the ACE IFT Model is to create positive experiences and early success through achievable zone 1 exercise of increasing duration. This approach allows individuals to gradually build their endurance and fitness levels while ensuring that they have a positive and enjoyable training experience. By starting with achievable exercises in zone 1 and gradually increasing the duration, individuals are more likely to stay motivated and continue with their training program. This approach also sets a solid foundation for further training and performance improvements in the future.

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170. You are working with a client who is begining to perform basic bodyweight squats with fairly decent form. She is now ready for more specific feedback to help her refine her squatting technique. In which stage of moto learning would she be classififed for this exercise skill?

Explanation

The client is in the associative stage of motor learning for this exercise skill. In this stage, the client has already learned the basic movement pattern and is now focusing on refining their technique. They are able to perform the exercise with fairly decent form, but still require more specific feedback to improve further. The associative stage is characterized by increased attention to detail and a focus on making adjustments to enhance performance.

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171. In what phase of the functional movement and resistance training component of the ACE IFT Model would a person be categorized if he has lumbar lordosis, limited range of motion in the hips and shoulders, and performs resistance-training workouts four days per week? 

Explanation

Based on the given information, the person has lumbar lordosis, limited range of motion in the hips and shoulders, and performs resistance-training workouts four days per week. These characteristics indicate that the person needs to focus on improving stability and mobility. Phase 1 of the ACE IFT Model, which is stability and mobility training, is designed to address these issues. This phase aims to improve core stability, joint mobility, and overall movement quality, which would be beneficial for someone with lumbar lordosis and limited range of motion. Therefore, the person would be categorized in Phase 1: Stability and mobility training.

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172. What do the credentials for registered dietitians (R.D.), occupational therapists (OTR), athletic trainers (ATC), registered nurses (RN), and massage therapists (LMT) all have in common with certifications from the American Council on Exercise? 

Explanation

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173. During a workout, you notice that a client displays a sudden lack of coordination and balance and, when asked, reports trouble seeing. What is the MOST likely cause of these symptoms? 

Explanation

A stroke is the most likely cause of these symptoms. Sudden lack of coordination, balance issues, and trouble seeing are common signs of a stroke. A stroke occurs when there is a disruption of blood flow to the brain, leading to brain cell damage. These symptoms can occur due to a blockage or rupture of a blood vessel in the brain, causing a lack of oxygen and nutrients to reach certain areas of the brain. It is important to seek immediate medical attention if someone displays these symptoms during a workout.

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174. What is the most important tool when dealing with a client who is at risk for relapse?

Explanation

Planning ahead and being prepared is the most important tool when dealing with a client who is at risk for relapse. By anticipating potential triggers and challenges, the counselor can help the client develop coping strategies and create a plan to avoid relapse. This includes identifying high-risk situations, developing alternative behaviors, and having a support system in place. It is crucial to have a proactive approach to relapse prevention rather than solely relying on reactive measures.

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175. Which of the primary energy systems supplies enough energy for no more than 10 seconds of all-out exertion?

Explanation

The phosphagen system is the primary energy system that supplies enough energy for no more than 10 seconds of all-out exertion. This system utilizes stored ATP and creatine phosphate to quickly produce energy for short bursts of intense activity. It is the first energy system to be used during high-intensity exercises such as sprinting or weightlifting. After about 10 seconds, the phosphagen system becomes depleted and other energy systems, such as anaerobic glycolysis and aerobic glycolysis, take over to provide energy for longer durations of exercise. Beta oxidation is not a primary energy system and is involved in the breakdown of fatty acids for energy during aerobic exercise.

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176. A client who just found out she is pregnant asks what foods to eat to increase her intake of folic acid. What would be the BEST response?

Explanation

Green leafy vegetables, organ meats, dried peas, beans, and lentils are all excellent sources of folic acid. These foods are rich in folate, which is the natural form of folic acid. Consuming these foods can help increase the intake of folic acid, which is important for the healthy development of the baby's neural tube and can prevent certain birth defects.

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177. Static balance exercises often involve____________.

Explanation

Static balance exercises often involve narrowing the base of support. This means reducing the area of contact between the body and the ground or support surface. By narrowing the base of support, the individual is required to engage their muscles more to maintain balance and stability. This type of exercise helps to improve proprioception, core strength, and overall balance skills. It is commonly used in rehabilitation settings and in sports training to enhance performance and reduce the risk of injury.

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178. Which of the following principles is MOST important when designing a strength training program for a beginner?

Explanation

When designing a strength training program for a beginner, it is most important to prioritize proper form and technique over heavy lifting. Ensuring that the client learns correct movements helps prevent injuries and builds a solid foundation for future progress. Introducing high-intensity, advanced exercises, or encouraging maximum weight lifting too early can lead to poor form and increase the risk of injury, making these approaches less appropriate for beginners.

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179. What is the BEST method for ensuring that all aspects of a client-personal trainer relationship are properly established? 

Explanation

A signed contract is the best method for ensuring that all aspects of a client-personal trainer relationship are properly established. It provides a legally binding agreement between both parties, outlining the terms and conditions of the relationship, including the scope of services, fees, cancellation policies, and liability waivers. A signed contract ensures that both the client and personal trainer are aware of their rights and responsibilities, helping to prevent any misunderstandings or disputes in the future. It also protects both parties in case of any legal issues that may arise during the course of the relationship.

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180. Which of the following is considered a positive risk factor for atherosclerotic cardiovascular disease?  

Explanation

A systolic blood pressure of 143 mmHg is considered a positive risk factor for atherosclerotic cardiovascular disease because it is above the normal range. High blood pressure puts strain on the blood vessels and can lead to the development of atherosclerosis, which is the build-up of plaque in the arteries. This plaque can eventually lead to blockages and increase the risk of heart disease and stroke. Therefore, having a systolic blood pressure of 143 mmHg indicates an increased risk for atherosclerotic cardiovascular disease.

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181. Personal trainers can use the talk test as an upper limit for exercise intensity to determine if a client is exercising below which of the following cardiorespiratory markers? 

Explanation

The talk test is a simple and practical method used by personal trainers to gauge exercise intensity. It involves assessing whether a client can comfortably carry on a conversation while exercising. The first ventilatory threshold (VT1) is the point at which ventilation starts to increase exponentially due to an increase in carbon dioxide production. This indicates that the body is transitioning from aerobic to anaerobic metabolism. Therefore, if a client can easily talk during exercise, it suggests that they are exercising below VT1 and within their aerobic capacity.

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182. Cardiorespiratory exercise in zone 2 is performed at what intensity? 

Explanation

Cardiorespiratory exercise in zone 2 is performed at an intensity level that ranges from VT1 (Ventilatory Threshold 1) to just below VT2 (Ventilatory Threshold 2). This means that the exercise is done at a level where the body is working moderately hard, but not at its maximum capacity. This intensity range allows for an effective cardiovascular workout while still maintaining a sustainable effort level.

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183. During which phase of the functional and resistance training component of the ACE IFT Model should assessments of muscular strength and endurance be introduced? 

Explanation

Assessments of muscular strength and endurance should be introduced during Phase 3 of the functional and resistance training component of the ACE IFT Model. This phase focuses on improving muscular strength and endurance through progressive overload and periodization. By introducing assessments at this stage, trainers can evaluate the client's current level of strength and endurance, set realistic goals, and track progress over time. This information is crucial for designing an effective training program that meets the client's specific needs and helps them achieve their desired outcomes.

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184. Very little of the __________ a person consumes is used for energy production.

Explanation

Protein is the correct answer because only a small amount of the protein consumed is used for energy production. The primary role of protein is to build and repair tissues, produce enzymes and hormones, and support various bodily functions. Carbohydrates and fats, on the other hand, are the main sources of energy for the body. Fiber, although important for digestion and overall health, is not directly used for energy production.

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185. How can a personal trainer MOST effectively incorporate mind-body exercise into personal-training sessions for clients?

Explanation

By incorporating some Iyengar poses and yogic breathing during the cool-down phase of personal-training sessions, a personal trainer can effectively integrate mind-body exercise into the sessions. Iyengar poses focus on correct alignment and precision, promoting mindfulness and body awareness. Yogic breathing techniques help clients relax, reduce stress, and connect with their breath, enhancing the mind-body connection. The cool-down phase is an ideal time to introduce these practices as it allows clients to transition from intense physical activity to a state of relaxation and mental focus.

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186. During which cardiorespiratory training phase of the ACE IFT Model should a client be wokring at an RPE of 3-4? 

Explanation

During Phase 1 of the ACE IFT Model, a client should be working at an RPE (Rate of Perceived Exertion) of 3-4. This phase focuses on building an aerobic base and improving cardiorespiratory endurance. The intensity of the exercise is relatively low, allowing the client to gradually adapt to the training stimulus. This phase is typically recommended for beginners or individuals who have been sedentary for a long time. By working at an RPE of 3-4, the client is able to exercise at a moderate intensity that is challenging but still manageable.

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187. A client who is also a high school soccer player is interested in using the glycemic index to guide hims as he "refuels" after practices and matches. Which of the following would be the BEST snack choice?

Explanation

Dried fruit would be the best snack choice for the client. Dried fruit has a high glycemic index, which means it is quickly digested and provides a rapid release of energy. This is beneficial for a high school soccer player who needs to refuel after practices and matches. Rye bread and oatmeal also have a moderate glycemic index, but dried fruit would provide a quicker source of energy. Strawberries have a low glycemic index, so they would not be the best choice for refueling purposes.

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188. After performing skinfold measurements with a male-client, his body-fat percentage is calculated to be 26%. How would you rank this client in terms of body-fat percentage? 

Explanation

In males - 25% or higher is considered obese.

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189. Which of the following statements about the ratings of perceived scale is CORRECT? 

Explanation

Men and women tend to have different perceptions of exertion when using ratings of perceived exertion. Men tend to underestimate exertion, meaning they perceive the level of effort to be lower than it actually is. On the other hand, women tend to overestimate exertion, perceiving the level of effort to be higher than it actually is. This difference in perception can impact how individuals gauge their exertion levels during physical activity.

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190. Performing which combo of sets, reps, and load would result in the GREATEST total training volume? 

Explanation

Performing 2 sets x 12 reps with 90 pounds would result in the greatest total training volume because it has the highest combination of sets and reps compared to the other options. Although the load is lower compared to the other options, the higher number of sets and reps compensates for it, resulting in a greater total volume.

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191. Measuring VO2max in a laboratory involves the collection and analysis of ___________ during maximal exercise. 

Explanation

Measuring VO2max in a laboratory involves the collection and analysis of exhaled air during maximal exercise. This is because VO2max is the maximum amount of oxygen that an individual can utilize during intense exercise. By analyzing the composition of exhaled air, specifically the levels of oxygen and carbon dioxide, researchers can determine the individual's VO2max. This measurement is important in assessing an individual's cardiovascular fitness and overall health.

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192. Which category of hip muscles is primarily responsible for hip adduction?

Explanation

The medial muscles of the hip, including the adductor muscles, are primarily responsible for hip adduction. These muscles are located on the inner side of the thigh and work together to bring the leg closer to the midline of the body. They play a crucial role in movements such as crossing the legs, bringing the knees together, and stabilizing the hip joint during activities like walking and running.

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193. The resistance training program you have design for a client has her performing 8-12 reps during each set, using a double prgressive training protocol for advancing workload. She was able to perform 2 sets of 12 reps on the leg press with 200 lbs. Based on this info, what would be the MOST appropriate progression for her on the leg press exercise? 

Explanation

Based on the information provided, the client was able to perform 2 sets of 12 reps on the leg press with 200 lbs. To progress her training, the most appropriate option would be to increase the weight to 210 lbs and work towards 12 reps. This ensures a gradual increase in workload while maintaining the desired rep range of 8-12 reps. Increasing the weight too much (such as raising it to 240 lbs and performing 8 reps) may be too challenging for the client, while continuing with the current weight until reaching 15 reps could lead to a lack of progression.

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194. Which type of yoga is also known as "power yoga"?

Explanation

Ashtanga yoga is also known as "power yoga" because it is a dynamic and physically demanding form of yoga. It involves a series of flowing and synchronized movements combined with controlled breathing techniques. This type of yoga focuses on building strength, flexibility, and stamina, making it an intense and challenging practice.

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195. What type of injury can be classified as longitudial, oblique, transverse, or compression?

Explanation

Stress fractures can be classified as longitudinal, oblique, transverse, or compression injuries. Longitudinal stress fractures occur along the length of the bone, oblique stress fractures have a diagonal break, transverse stress fractures have a horizontal break, and compression stress fractures occur when the bone is crushed. These classifications help to describe the specific type and location of the fracture, aiding in diagnosis and treatment.

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196. Which of the following is MOST likely to create a barrier to fitness-related behavior change for some clients? 

Explanation

Conducting initial comprehensive assessments of fitness and body composition is most likely to create a barrier to fitness-related behavior change for some clients. This is because some clients may feel overwhelmed or discouraged by the results of these assessments, especially if they reveal poor fitness levels or unfavorable body composition. This can demotivate them and make it harder for them to commit to making necessary behavior changes.

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197. Which of the following is NOT one of the primary purposes of a pre-participation screening? 

Explanation

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198. You are working with a client who wants to train for a specific athletic competition. Before progressing this client to performance training (phase 4), what criteria should he meet to allow for a safe and effective transition to this type of training? 

Explanation

The client should meet the criteria of having good postural stability, proper movement patterns, and relatively high levels of strength before progressing to performance training. This ensures that the client has a solid foundation of stability, mobility, and strength, which are necessary for safe and effective performance training.

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199. Which of the following observations during the passive straight-leg raise represents normal length of the hamstring? 

Explanation

The normal length of the hamstring is represented by the raised leg stopping just short of 90 degrees of movement. This indicates that the hamstring muscles are able to stretch and lengthen to a normal range without any restrictions or tightness.

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200. The average person's breathing rate through the nose is equal to 20 to 30 liters per minute while at rest.

Explanation

The average person's breathing rate through the nose is not equal to 20 to 30 liters per minute while at rest. This statement is false.

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