Pharmocology Unit 1 & 4

106 Questions

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Pharmacology Quizzes & Trivia

Questions and Answers
  • 1. 
    The nurse administers medications by various routes of delivery. The nurse recognizes which route of administration as requiring higher dosages of drugs to achieve a therapeutic effect?
    • A. 

      Intravenous route

    • B. 

      Oral route

    • C. 

      Rectal route

    • D. 

      Sublingual route

  • 2. 
    The patient is experiencing chest pain and need to take sublingual form of nitroglycerin. Where does the nurse instruct the patient to place the tablet?
    • A. 

      Under the tongue

    • B. 

      On top of the tongue

    • C. 

      At the back of the throat

    • D. 

      In the space between the cheek and the gum

  • 3. 
    The nurse administers medications by various routes of delivery. The nurse recognizes which route of administration as requiring higher dosages of drugs to achieve a therapeutic effect?
    • A. 

      Intravenous Route

    • B. 

      Rectal route

    • C. 

      Oral route

    • D. 

      Sublingual route

  • 4. 
    The patient is experiencing chest pain and need to take sublingual form of nitroglycerin. Where does the nurse instruct the patient to place the tablet?
    • A. 

      On top of the tongue

    • B. 

      At the back of the throat

    • C. 

      In the space between the cheek and the gum

    • D. 

      Under the tongue

  • 5. 
    The patient is complaining of a headache and asks the nurse which over-the-counter medication form would work the fastest to help reduce the pain. Which medication form will the nurse suggest ?
    • A. 

      A capsule

    • B. 

      A powder

    • C. 

      A tablet

    • D. 

      A enteric-coated tablet

  • 6. 
    The patient is asking the nurse about current U.S. laws and regulation of herbal products. According to the Dietary Supplement and Health Education Act (DSHEA) of 1994, which statement is true?
    • A. 

      Producers of herbal products must prove therapeutic efficacy.

    • B. 

      Herbal remedies are protected by patent laws.

    • C. 

      Medicinal herbs are viewed as dietary supplements.

    • D. 

      Herbal remedies are held to the same standards as drugs.

  • 7. 
    The client tells the nurse that her symptoms have become worse since she has been using oxymetazoline (Afrin) for nasal congestion. What is the best assessment question for the nurse to ask?
    • A. 

      “How long have you been using the medication?”

    • B. 

      “How old is the bottle you are using?”

    • C. 

      “May I take your temperature?”

    • D. 

      “Are you using any other inhaled medications?”

  • 8. 
    The client receives albuterol (Proventil) via inhaler. He asks the nurse why he can’t just take a pill. What is the best response by the nurse?
    • A. 

      “Because this medication would produce too many side effects; you will have very few side effects with inhaled medications.

    • B. 

      “Because this medication cannot be absorbed from your GI tract; the acid in your stomach would destroy it.”

    • C. 

      “When you inhale the drug the blood supply in your lungs picks it up rapidly, resulting in quicker effects.”

    • D. 

      “Because pills cannot help illness; you must have inhaled medications for relief of symptoms.”

  • 9. 
    When educating a patient recently placed on inhaled corticosteroids, the nurse will discuss which potential adverse effects?
    • A. 

      Anxiety and palpitations

    • B. 

      Oral candidiasis and dry mouth

    • C. 

      Headache and rapid rate

    • D. 

      Fatigue and depression

  • 10. 
     Discharge planning for the client prescribed tetracycline will include which of the following?
    • A. 

      Do not take the medication with milk.

    • B. 

      Take the mediction with iron supplements

    • C. 

      Take the medication with antacids

    • D. 

      Decrease the amount of vitamins

  • 11. 
    The client asks the nurse why there aren’t better drugs for human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) infection when so much money is spent on research. What is the best response by the nurse?
    • A. 

      “Developing new drugs is so difficult because people think acquired immune deficiency syndrome (AIDS) is a gay disease”

    • B. 

      “Developing new drugs is difficult because we still do not understand the virus.”

    • C. 

      “Developing new drugs is difficult because the virus mutates so readily”

    • D. 

      “Developing new drugs is difficult because we still do not have enough money.”

  • 12. 
    The nurse informs the patient that the drug most likely to be ordered for the client with herpes simplex virus is which of the following ?
    • A. 

      Acyclovir (Zovirax)

    • B. 

      Zidovudine (Retrovir)

    • C. 

      Nystatin ( Fungizone)

    • D. 

      Methonidazole (Flagyl)

  • 13. 
    A client has been prescribed oseltamivir (Tamiflu) after complaining of influenza-like symptoms. That information should the nurse provide for this client? 
    • A. 

      Get this prescription filled and begin taking the medication immediately

    • B. 

      This medication is given by inhalation

    • C. 

      The medication will be helpful if you have influenza or a cold

    • D. 

      Option 4

  • 14. 
    A patient who has started drug therapy for tuberculosis wants to know how long he will be on the medications. Which response by the nurse is correct?
    • A. 

      “Drug therapy will last until the symptoms have stopped.”

    • B. 

      “Drug therapy will continue until the tuberculosis develops resistance.”

    • C. 

      “You should expect to take these drugs for as long as 24 months.”

    • D. 

      “You will be on this drug therapy for the rest of your life.”

  • 15. 
    A patient newly diagnosed with tuberculosis (TB) has been taking antituberculor drugs for 1 week calls the clinic and is very upset. He says, “My urine is dark orange! What’s wrong with me?” Which response by the nurse is correct?
    • A. 

      This is an expected side effect of the medicine. Let’s review what to expect.”

    • B. 

      It’s possible that the TB is worse. Please come in to the clinic to be checked”

    • C. 

      This is not what we usually see with these drugs. Please come in to the clinic to be checked

    • D. 

      “You will need to stop the medication, and it will all go away”

  • 16. 
    The nurse is discussing adverse effects of antitubercular drugs with a patient who has active tuberculosis. Which potential adverse effect of antitubercular drug therapy should the patient report to the prescriber?
    • A. 

      Numbness and tingling of extremeties

    • B. 

      Headache and nervousness

    • C. 

      Reddish-orange urine and stool

    • D. 

      Gastrointestinal upset

  • 17. 
    A patient who has been taking isoniazid (INH) has a new prescription for pyridoxine (Vit B6). She is wondering why she needs this medication. The nurse explains that pyridoxine is often given concurrently with the isoniazid to prevent which condition?
    • A. 

      Hair loss

    • B. 

      Renal failure

    • C. 

      Peripheral neuropathy

    • D. 

      Heart failure

  • 18. 
    The nurse will assess the patient for which potential contraindication to antitubercular therapy?
    • A. 

      Glaucoma

    • B. 

      Hepatic impairment

    • C. 

      Heart failure

    • D. 

      Anemia

  • 19. 
    Furosemide (Lasix) is prescribed for a patient who is about to be discharged, and the nurse provides instructions to the patient about the medication. Which statement by the nurse is correct?
    • A. 

      "If you experience weight gain, such as 5 or more pounds a week, contact your prescriber"

    • B. 

      "Take this medication in the morning"

    • C. 

      Be sure to change positions slowly and rise slowly after sitting or lying so as to prevent dizziness and possible fainting because of blood pressure changes.”

    • D. 

      "Avoid high potassium foods such as bananas, oranges, fresh vegetables, and dates.

  • 20. 
    The nurse will monitor a patient for signs and symptoms of hyperkalemia if the patient is taking which of these diuretics?
    • A. 

      Spironolactone (Aldactone)

    • B. 

      Furosemide (Lasix)

    • C. 

      Diamox

    • D. 

      HydroDIURIL

  • 21. 
    When a patient is receiving diuretic therapy, which of these assessment measures would best reflect the patient’s fluid volume status?
    • A. 

      Serum potassium and sodium levels

    • B. 

      Blood pressure and pulse

    • C. 

      Measurement of abdominal girth and calf circumference

    • D. 

      Intake, output, and daily weight.

  • 22. 
    A patient in the neurologic intensive care unit is being treated for cerebral edema. Which class of diuretic is used to reduce intracranial pressure?
    • A. 

      Thiazide diuretics

    • B. 

      Osmotic diuretics

    • C. 

      Loop diuretics

    • D. 

      Vasodilators

  • 23. 
    A 79 year old patient is taking a diuretic for treatment of hypertension. This patient is very independent and ants to continue to live at home. The nurse will know that which teaching point is important for this patient?
    • A. 

      He should take this diuretic with his evening meal

    • B. 

      He should skip the diuretic dose if he plans to leave his home.

    • C. 

      He needs to take extra precautions while standing up because of possible orthostatic hypotension and resulting injury from falls.

    • D. 

      If he feel dizzy while on this medication he needs to stop taking this medication and take potassium supplements instead.

  • 24. 
    When reviewing the mechanisms of action of diuretics, the nurse knows that which statement is true about loop diuretics?
    • A. 

      They are not effective when the creatinine clearance decreases below 25 mL/min

    • B. 

      They have a rapid onset of action and cause rapid diuresis.

    • C. 

      They work by inhibiting aldosterone

    • D. 

      They are very potent, having a diuretic effect that lasts up to 48 hours

  • 25. 
    A patient is being discharged to home on a single daily dose of a diuretic. The nurse instructs the patient to take the dose at which time so it will be least disruptive to the patient’s routine?
    • A. 

      With supper

    • B. 

      In the morning

    • C. 

      At bedtime

    • D. 

      At noon

  • 26. 
    During a blood transfusion, the patient begins to have chills and back pain. What is the nurse’s priority actions?
    • A. 

      Slow the infusion rate

    • B. 

      Observe for other symptoms

    • C. 

      Tell the patient that these symptoms are a normal reaction to the blood product

    • D. 

      Discontinue the infusion immediately, and notify the prescriber

  • 27. 
    The nurse is working with a graduate nurse to prepare an intravenous dose of potassium. Which statement by the graduate nurse reflects a need for further teaching?
    • A. 

      ”The intravenous potassium will be diluted before we get it.”

    • B. 

      ”The intravenous potassium dose will be given undiluted.”

    • C. 

      ”The infusion rate should not go over 10 mEq/hour.”

    • D. 

      ”We will need to monitor this infusion closely.”

  • 28. 
    When monitoring a patient for signs of hypokalemia, the nurse looks for what early sign?
    • A. 

      Seizures

    • B. 

      Cardiac dysrhythmias

    • C. 

      Muscle weakness

    • D. 

      Diarrhea

  • 29. 
    A patient is receiving an infusion of fresh frozen plasma. Based on this order, the nurse interprets that this patient has which condition?
    • A. 

      Anemia

    • B. 

      Coagulation disorder

    • C. 

      Previous transfusion reaction

    • D. 

      Hypovolemic shock

  • 30. 
    The nurse is preparing to transfuse a patient with a unit of packed red blood cells. Which intravenous solution is correct for use with the PRBC transfusion?
    • A. 

      0.9% sodium chloride (NS)

    • B. 

      5% dextrose in water (D5W)

    • C. 

      5% dextrose in 0.45% sodium chloride

    • D. 

      5% dextrose inlactated Ringer’s solution

  • 31. 
    The nurse is preparing to transfuse a patient with a unit of packed red blood cells (PRBCs). Which patient would be best treated with this transfusion? 
    • A. 

      A patient with a coagulation disorder

    • B. 

      A patient who has lost a massive amount of blood after an accident

    • C. 

      A patient with severe anemia

    • D. 

      A patient who has a clotting-factor deficiency

  • 32. 
    After a severe auto accident, a patient has been taken to the trauma unit and has an estimated blood loss of more than 30% of his blood volume. The nurse prepares administer which product?
    • A. 

      Packed red blood cells

    • B. 

      Whole blood

    • C. 

      Fresh Frozen Plasma

    • D. 

      Albumin

  • 33. 
    A patient who is severely anemic also has acute heart failure with severe edema due to fluid overload. The prescriber wants to raise the patient’s hemoglobin and hematocrit levels. The nurse anticipates that the patient will receive which blood product?
    • A. 

      Packed red blood cells (PRBCs)

    • B. 

      Fresh frozen plasma

    • C. 

      Albumin

    • D. 

      Whole blood

  • 34. 
    The nurse notes in a patient’s medication history that the patient has been taking desmopressin (DDVAP). Based on this finding, the nurse interprets that the patient has which disorder?
    • A. 

      Carcinoid tumor

    • B. 

      Adrenocortical insuffieciency

    • C. 

      Diabetes insipidus

    • D. 

      Diabetes mellitus

  • 35. 
    A 16 year-old who is taking somatropin comes into the office because he had an asthma attack during a race at school. Because of this new development, the nurse expects which intervention to occur next?
    • A. 

      The somatropin must be discontinued immediately

    • B. 

      He will need to stop participating in school physical education classes

    • C. 

      His growth will be documented monitored for changes.

    • D. 

      The somatropin dosage may be adjusted

  • 36. 
    A pituitary drug is prescribed for a patient with a hormone deficiency, and the nurse provides instructions about the medication. Which statement by the patient indicates a need for further instruction?
    • A. 

      ”I am looking forward to a cure for my condition with this hormone replacement.”

    • B. 

      "I will have to stop drinking my nighty glass of wine.”

    • C. 

      "I will call my doctor if I have a fever or sore throat.”

    • D. 

      "I will not stop the drug unless my doctor tells me to stop it.”

  • 37. 
    An 8 year-old child has been diagnosed with true pituitary dwarfism and is being treated with somatropin. In follow-up visits, the nurse will monitor for which expected outcome?
    • A. 

      Increased muscle strength

    • B. 

      Increased growth

    • C. 

      Increased height when the child reaches puberty

    • D. 

      Decreased urinary output

  • 38. 
    A patient’s medication order indicates that he is to receive dose of cosyntropin (Cortrosyn). The nurse is aware that this drug is used to diagnose which condition?
    • A. 

      Diabetes insipidus

    • B. 

      Pituitary dwarfism

    • C. 

      Adrenocortical suffiency

    • D. 

      Myasthenia gravis

  • 39. 
    Vasopressin is used in the treatment of
    • A. 

      Diabetes insipidus

    • B. 

      Dehydration

    • C. 

      Electrolyte imbalances

    • D. 

      Diabetes mellitus

  • 40. 
    A 19 year-old student was diagnosed with hypothyroidism and has started thyroid replacement therapy with levothyroxine (Synthroid). After 1 week, she called the clinic to report that she does not feel better. Which response from the nurse is correct?
    • A. 

      "The full therapeutic effects may not occur for 3 to 4 weeks.”

    • B. 

      ”It will probably require surgery for a cure to happen.”

  • 41. 
    When monitoring a patient who is taking a thyroid replacement hormone, which adverse effect needs to be reported to the prescriber?
    • A. 

      Constipation

    • B. 

      Constipation

    • C. 

      Palpitations

    • D. 

      Drowsiness

  • 42. 
    A patient, newly diagnosed with hypothyroidism, has received a prescription for thyroid replacement therapy. The nurse will instruct the patient to take this medication at which time of day?
    • A. 

      With the evening meal

    • B. 

      With the noon meal

    • C. 

      At bedtime

    • D. 

      In the morning

  • 43. 
    A patient has been taking levothyroxine (Synthroid) for more than a decade for primary hypothyroidism. Today she calls because she has a cousin who can get her the same medication in a generic form from a pharmaceutical supply company. Which is the nurse’s best advice?
    • A. 

      "This would be a great way to save money.”

    • B. 

      “There’s no difference in brands of this medication.”

    • C. 

      "This should never be done; once you start with a certain brand, you must stay with it.”

    • D. 

      ”It’s better not to switch brands unless we check with your doctor.”

  • 44. 
    A 19 year-old woman has been diagnosed with primary hyperthyroidism and has started thyroid replacement therapy with levothyroxine (Synthroid). After 6 months, she calls the nurse to say that she feels better and wants to stop the medication. Which response by the nurse is correct?
    • A. 

      "Medication therapy for hypothyroidism is usually lifelong, and you should not stop taking the medication”

    • B. 

      "You can stop the medication if your symptoms have improved.”

    • C. 

      "You need to stay on the medication for at least 1 year before a decision about stopping it can be made”

    • D. 

      "You need to stay on this medication until you become pregnant.”

  • 45. 
    During a teaching session for a patient on antithyroid drugs, the nurse will discuss which dietary instructions?
    • A. 

      Using iodized salt when cooking

    • B. 

      Restricting fluid intake to 5000ml per day

    • C. 

      Avoiding foods containing iodine

    • D. 

      Increasing intake of sodium – and potassium-containing foods

  • 46. 
    A patient has a diagnosis of primary hypothyroidism. Which statement accurately describes this problem?
    • A. 

      The pituitary gland is dysfunctional and has never secreted TSH

    • B. 

      The hypothalamus is dysfunctional and has never secreted TSH

    • C. 

      The abnormality is in the thyroid itself

    • D. 

      Option 4

  • 47. 
    The nurse is administering lispro (Humalog) insulin and will keep in mind that this insulin will start to have an effect within which time frame?
    • A. 

      1 to 2 hours

    • B. 

      80 minutes

    • C. 

      15 minutes

    • D. 

      3 to 5 hours

  • 48. 
    When teaching about hypoglycemia, the nurse will make sure that the patient is aware of the early signs of hypoglycemia, including
    • A. 

      Nausea and diarrhea

    • B. 

      Hypothermia and seizures

    • C. 

      fruity, acetone odor to the breath

    • D. 

      Confusion and sweating

  • 49. 
    When monitoring a patient’s response to oral antidiabetic drugs, the nurse knows that which laboratory result would indicate a therapeutic response?
    • A. 

      Random blood glucose level above 170mg/dL

    • B. 

      Fasting blood glucose level between 70 and 110mg/dL

    • C. 

      Blood glucose level of less than 50mg/dL after meals

    • D. 

      Evening blood glucose level below 80mg/dL

  • 50. 
    • A. 

      I will take an oral form of glucose

    • B. 

      I will call my doctor right away

    • C. 

      I will give myself regular insulin

  • 51. 
    The nurse is teaching about self-injection of insulin. Which statement is true regarding injection sites?
    • A. 

      Avoid the abdomen because absorption there is irregular

    • B. 

      Choose a different site once a year for each injection

    • C. 

      Rotate sites within the same location for about a week before rotating to a new location

    • D. 

      Give the injection in the same area

  • 52. 
    Which action is most appropriate regarding the nurse’s administration of a rapid-acting insulin to a hospitalized patient?
    • A. 

      Give it after the meal has been completed

    • B. 

      Give it within 15 minutes of a meal

    • C. 

      Administer it once daily at the time of the midday meal

    • D. 

      Administer it with a snack before bedtime

  • 53. 
    After starting treatment for type 2 diabetes mellitus 6 months earlier, a patient is in the office for a follow-up examination. The nurse will monitor which laboratory test to evaluate the patient’s adherence to the anti-diabetic therapy over the past few months?
    • A. 

      Hemoglobin A1C level

    • B. 

      Hemoglobin levels

    • C. 

      Fingerstick fasting blood glucose level

    • D. 

      Serum insulin levels

  • 54. 
    A patient in the emergency department was showing signs of hypoglycemia and had a fingerstick glucose level of 34mg/dL. The patient has just become unconscious. What is the nurse’s next action?
    • A. 

      Have the patient eat glucose tablets

    • B. 

      Have the patient consume fruit juice, a nondiet soft drink, or crackers

    • C. 

      Administer intravenous glucose (50% dextrose)

    • D. 

      Call the lab toorder a fasting blood glucose level

  • 55. 
    When teaching a patient who is starting metformin(Glucophage), which instruction by the nurse is correct?
    • A. 

      "Take this two hours after breakfast.”

    • B. 

      "Take this medication with food to reduce gastrointestinal effects.”

    • C. 

      "Take this medication on an empty stomach 6 hours before meals.”

    • D. 

      "Take metformin if your blood glucose level is above 200mg/dl.”

  • 56. 
    The nurse is preparing to administer insulin intravenously. Which statement about the administration of intravenous insulin is true?
    • A. 

      Any form of insulin can be administered intravenously at the same dose as that is ordered for subcutaneous administration

    • B. 

      Insulin aspart or lispro can be administered intravenously, but there must also be a 50% dose reduction

    • C. 

      Only regular insulin can be administered intravenously

    • D. 

      Insulin is never given intravenously

  • 57. 
    The nurse is teaching a group of patients about management of diabetes. Which statement about basal dosing is correct?
    • A. 

      "Basal dosing delivers a constant dose of insulin.”

    • B. 

      "Glargine insulin is given as a bolus with meals.”

    • C. 

      "With basal dosing, you can eat what you want and then give yourself a dose of insulin at any time.”

  • 58. 
    The nurse is teaching a review class to nurses about diabetes mellitus. Which statement by the nurse is correct?
    • A. 

      "Oral diabetic drugs are extremely safe for use during pregnancy.”

    • B. 

      "Insulin therapy is possible during pregnancy if managed carefully.”

    • C. 

      "Patients with type 2 diabetes will never need insulin.”

    • D. 

      "Pediatric patients cannot take insulin.”

  • 59. 
    The nurse to administer acarbose (Precose), an alpha-glucosidase inhibitor, at which time?
    • A. 

      60 minutes after breakfast

    • B. 

      Once daily at bedtime

    • C. 

      60 minutes before breakfast

    • D. 

      With the first bite of each meal

  • 60. 
    A patient with a history of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease and type 2 diabetes has been treated for pneumonia for the past week. The patient has been receiving intravenous corticosteroids as well as antiiotics as part of his therapy. At this time, the pneumonia has resolved, but when monitoring the blood glucose levels, the nurse notices that the level is still elevated. What is the best explanation of this elevation?
    • A. 

      The antibiotics may cause a major increase in glucose levels

    • B. 

      The corticosteroids may cause an increase in glucose levels

    • C. 

      His type 2 diabetes has converted totype 1

    • D. 

      The hypoxia caused by chronic obstructive pulmonary disease causes an increased need for insulin.

  • 61. 
    The nurse is teaching a group of patients about self-administration of insulin. What content is important to include?
    • A. 

      If two different insulins are ordered, they always need to be given in separate injections

    • B. 

      Patients need to use the injection site that is the most accessible.

    • C. 

      When mixing insulins, the cloudy(such as NPH) insulin is drawn up into the syringe first

    • D. 

      When mixing insulins, the clear (such as regular) insulin is drawn up into the syringe first

  • 62. 
    A patient who has type 2 diabetes is scheduled for an oral endoscopy and has been NPO since midnight. What is the best action by the nurse regarding the administration of her oral antidiabetic drugs?
    • A. 

      Give the medication with a Styrofoam cup of water

    • B. 

      Contact the prescriber for further orders

    • C. 

      Withhold all medications as ordered

    • D. 

      Administer one third of the orginial dose

  • 63. 
    The nurse is administering adrenal drugs to a patient. Which action by the nurse is appropriate for this patient?
    • A. 

      Rinsing the oral cavity after using corticosteroid inhalers

    • B. 

      Administering the corticosteroids before bedtime to minimize adrenal suppression

    • C. 

      Discontinuing the medication immediately if weight gain of 5 pounds or more in 1 week occurs

    • D. 

      Administering oral drugs on an empty stomach to maximize absorption

  • 64. 
    A patient is concerned about the body changes that have resulted from long term prednisone therapy for the treatment of asthma. Which effect of this drug therapy would be present to support the nursing diagnosis of disturbed body image?  
    • A. 

      Weight gain

    • B. 

      Hair loss

    • C. 

      Weight loss

    • D. 

      Pale skin color

  • 65. 
    A glucocorticoid is prescribed for a patient. The nurse checks the patient’s medical history knowing that glucocorticoid therapy is contraindicated in which disorder?
    • A. 

      Diptheria

    • B. 

      Tuberculosis meningitis

    • C. 

      Cerebral edema

    • D. 

      peptic ulcer disease

  • 66. 
    The nurse notes in the patient’s medication history that the patient is taking aminoglutethimide. Based on this finding, the nurse interprets that the patient has which disorder?
    • A. 

      Cushing’s syndrome

    • B. 

      COPD

    • C. 

      Acute asthma

    • D. 

      Influenza

  • 67. 
    The nurse is reviewing the therapeutic effects on nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDS), which will include which effect?
    • A. 

      Antipyretic

    • B. 

      Antimicrobial

    • C. 

      Sedative

    • D. 

      Anxiolytic

  • 68. 
    A patient with gout has been treated with allopurinol (Zyloprim) for 2 months. The nurse will monitor laboratory results for which therapeutic effect?
    • A. 

      Decreased prothrombin time

    • B. 

      Decreased uric acid levels

    • C. 

      Decreased white blood cell count

  • 69. 
    A 6 year-old child who has chickenpox also has a fever of 102.9 degrees F. The child’s mother asks the nurse if she should use aspirin to reduce the fever. What is the best response by the nurse?
    • A. 

      "Aceteminophen (Tylenol) should be used to reduce his fever, not aspirin.”

    • B. 

      ”You can use aspirin, but be sure to follow the instructions on the bottle.”

    • C. 

      ”You can use the aspirn, but watch for worsening symptoms.”

    • D. 

      ”It’s best to wait to see if the fever gets worse.”

  • 70. 
    A patient who has a history of coronary artery disease has been instructed to take one 81-mg aspirin tablet a day. The nurse is aware that the purpose of this dose of aspirin is to
    • A. 

      Reduce anxiety

    • B. 

      Reduce inflammation

    • C. 

      Relieve pain

    • D. 

      Prevent thrombus formation

  • 71. 
    During assessment of a patient with osteoarthritis pain, the nurse knows that which condition is a contraindication to the use of NSAIDs?
    • A. 

      Headaches

    • B. 

      Renal disease

    • C. 

      Diabetes mellitus

    • D. 

      Option 4

  • 72. 
    The nurse notes in a patient’s medication history that the patient is taking allopurinol (Zyloprim). Based on this finding, the nurse interprets that the patient has which disorder?
    • A. 

      Osteoarthritis

    • B. 

      Systemic lupus erythematosus

    • C. 

      Gout

    • D. 

      Rheumatoid arthritis

  • 73. 
    The nurse is teaching a patient who is taking colchinine for the treatment of gout. Which instruction will the nurse include during the teaching session?
    • A. 

      "take colchinine with heavy meals.”

    • B. 

      "You must remain NPO while on colchinine therapy.”

    • C. 

      "the drug will be discontinued immediately when symptoms are reduced.”

    • D. 

      "call your doctor if you have increased pain or blood in the urine.”

  • 74. 
    • A. 

      Chronic pain

    • B. 

      Acute pain

    • C. 

      Somatic pain

    • D. 

      Neuropathic pain

  • 75. 
    A patient is recovering from abdominal surgery, which he had this morning. He is groggy but complaining of severe pain around his incision. What is the most important assessment data to consider before the nurse administers a dose of morphine sulfate to the patient?
    • A. 

      His pulse rate

    • B. 

      The appearance of the incision

    • C. 

      His respiratory rate

    • D. 

      The date of his last bowel movement

  • 76. 
    A 78 year-old patient is in the recovery room after having a lengthy surgery on his hip. As he is gradually awakening, he requests pain medication. Within 10 minutes after receiving a dose of morphine sulfate, he is very lethargic and his respirations shallow, with a rate of 7 per minute. The nurse prepares for which priority action at this time?
    • A. 

      Administration of naloxone (Narcan)

    • B. 

      Immediate intubation and artificial ventilation

    • C. 

      Assessment of the patient’s pain level

    • D. 

      Close observation of signs of opioid tolerance

  • 77. 
    A patient will be discharged with a 1-week supply of an opioid analgesic for pain management after abdominal surgery. The nurse will include which information in the teaching plan?
    • A. 

      How to prevent dehydration due to diarrhea

    • B. 

      Importance of taking the drug on an empty stomach

    • C. 

      How to prevent constipation

    • D. 

      Importance of taking the drug only when the pain becomes severe

  • 78. 
    A patient has been treated for lung cancer for 3 years. Over the past few months, the patient has noticed that the opioid analgesic is not helping as much as it had previously and more medication is needed for the same pain relief. The nurse is aware that this patient is experiencing opioid
    • A. 

      Toxicity

    • B. 

      Addiction

    • C. 

      Tolerance

  • 79. 
    A 38 year-old man has come into the urgent care center with severe hip pain after failing from a ladder at work. He says he has taken several pain pills over the past few hours but cannot remember how many he has taken. He hands the nurse empty bottle of acetaminophen (Tylenol). The nurse is aware that the most serious toxic effect of acute acetaminophen overdose is which condition?
    • A. 

      Tachycardia

    • B. 

      Hepatic necrosis

    • C. 

      Nephropathy

    • D. 

      Central nervous system depression

  • 80. 
    A 57 year-old woman being treated for end-stage breast cancer has been using a transdermal opioid analgesic as part of the management of pain. Lately, she has been experiencing breakthrough pain. The nurse expects this type of pain to be managed by
    • A. 

      Changing the opioid route to the rectal route

    • B. 

      Not changing the current therapy

    • C. 

      Administering an immediate-release opioid

    • D. 

      Administering NSAIDs

  • 81. 
    The nurse is reviewing herbal therapies. Which is a common use of the herb feverfew?
    • A. 

      Leg cramps

    • B. 

      Not changing the current therapy

    • C. 

      Migraine headaches

    • D. 

      Muscle aches

  • 82. 
    • A. 

      Preparing to give this medication via a nebulizer

    • B. 

      Disguising the flavor with soda or flavored water

    • C. 

      Avoiding the use of a straw when giving this medication

    • D. 

      Giving the medication undiluted for full effect

  • 83. 
    A patient receiving gabapentin (Neurotin), an anticonvulsant, but has no history of seizures. The nurse expects that the patient is receiving this drug for which condition?
    • A. 

      Inflammation pain

    • B. 

      Pain associated with peripheral neuropathy

    • C. 

      Prevention of seizures

    • D. 

      Depression associated with chronic pain

  • 84. 
    The nurse is assessing a patient who has been admitted to the emergency department for a possible opioid overdose. Which assessment finding is characteristic of an opioid drug overdose?
    • A. 

      Respiration rate of 6 breaths/minute

    • B. 

      Heart rate of 55 beats/minute

    • C. 

      Restlessness

    • D. 

      Dilated pupils

  • 85. 
    The drug nalbuphine (Nubian) is an agonist-antagonist (partial agonist). The nurse understands that which is a characteristic of partial agonists?
    • A. 

      They have inflammatory effects

    • B. 

      They are given to reverse the effects of opiates

    • C. 

      They have a higher potency than agonists

    • D. 

      They have a lower dependency potential than agonists

  • 86. 
    The nurse is assessing a patient for contraindications to drug therapy with acetaminophen (Tylenol). Which patient should not receive acetaminophen?
    • A. 

      A patient with a history of peptic ulcer disease

    • B. 

      A patient who is complaining of a mild headache

    • C. 

      A patient with a history of liver disease

    • D. 

      A patient with a fever of 101 degrees F

  • 87. 
    A patient arrives at the urgent care center complaining of leg pain after a fall when rock climbing. The x-rays show no broken bones, but he has a large bruise on his thigh. The patient says he drives a truck and does not want to take anything strong because he needs to stay awake. Which statement by the nurse is most appropriate?
    • A. 

      "It would be best for you not to take anything since you did not break any bones and if you are planning to drive your truck; I'm sure the pain will subside soon."

    • B. 

      “You can take acetaminophen, also known as Tylenol,for pain, but no more than 3000 mg per day.”

    • C. 

      "We will discuss with your doctor about taking an opiod because that would work best for your pain."

    • D. 

      "You can take acetaminophen, also known as Tylenol, for pain, but no more than 5000 mg per day."

  • 88. 
    A patient is taking flurazepam (Dalmane) 3 to 4 nights a week for sleeplessness. She is concerned that she cannot get to sleep without taking the medication. What nonpharmalogic measuresshould the nurse suggest to promote sleep for this patient?  
    • A. 

      Drinking hot tea or coffee just before bedtime

    • B. 

      Consuming heavy meals in the evening to promote sleepiness

    • C. 

      Providing a quiet environment

    • D. 

      Exercising before bedtime to become tired

  • 89. 
    A patient who has received some traumatic news is panicking and asks for some medication to help settle down. The nurse anticipates which drug that is most appropriate for this situation?
    • A. 

      Zolpidem (Ambien)

    • B. 

      Cyclobenzaprine (Flexeril)

    • C. 

      Phenobarbital

    • D. 

      Diazepam (Valium)

  • 90. 
    • A. 

      Starting an IV infusion of PRBCs

    • B. 

      Administering naloxone (Narcan) as an antagonist

    • C. 

      Implementing measures to maintain the airway and support respirations

    • D. 

      Prep the operating room

  • 91. 
    The nurse notes in the patient’s medication history that the patient is taking cyclobenzaprine (Flexeril). Based on this finding, the nurse interprets that the patient has which disorder?
    • A. 

      Insomnia

    • B. 

      Musculoskeletal injury

    • C. 

      Epilepsy

  • 92. 
    A patient has experienced insomnia for months, and the physician has prescribed a medication to help with this problem. The nurse expects which drug to be used for long-term treatment of insomnia?
    • A. 

      Midazolam (Versed), a benzodiazepine

    • B. 

      Diazepam (Valium), a benzodiazepine

    • C. 

      Secobarbital (Seconal), a barbiturate

    • D. 

      Eszopiclone (Lunesta), a nonbenzodiazepine sleep aid

  • 93. 
    A 6 year-old boy has been started on an extended-release form of methylphenidate hydrochloride (Ritalin) for the treatment of attention deficit hyperactivity disorder (ADHD). During a follow-up visit, his mother tells the nurse that she has been giving the medication at bedtime so that it will be “in his system” when he goes to school the next morning. What is the nurse’s appropriate evaluation of the mother’s action.
    • A. 

      The medication should not be taken until he is at school

    • B. 

      The medication should be taken with meals for optimal absorption

    • C. 

      The medication should be given 4-6 hours before bedtime to diminish insomnia

    • D. 

      She is giving him the medication dosage appropriately

  • 94. 
    An ergot alkaloid is prescribed for a patient who is having frequent migraine headaches. The nurse provides information to the patient about the medication and tells the patient to contact the prescriber if which problem occurs?
    • A. 

      Nausea and vomiting

    • B. 

      Dizziness

    • C. 

      Nervousness

    • D. 

      Chest pain

  • 95. 
    When evaluating a patient who is taking an anorexiant, which is an intended therapeutic effect?
    • A. 

      Decreased hyperactivity

    • B. 

      Increased appetite

    • C. 

      Decreased weight

    • D. 

      Increased wakefulness

  • 96. 
    The nurse is teaching a patient how to self-administer triptan injections for migraine headaches. Which statement by the patient indicates that he needs further teaching?
    • A. 

      ”I will take this medication when I feel a migraine headache starting.”

    • B. 

      ”this medication does not reduce the number of migraines I will have.”

    • C. 

      ”I will keep a journal to record the headaches I have and how the injections are working.”

    • D. 

      ”I will take this medication regularly to prevent a migraine headache from occurring.”

  • 97. 
    The nurse has given medication instructions to a patient receiving phenytoin (Dilantin). Which statement by the patient has an adequate understanding?
    • A. 

      "I will need to take extra care of my teeth and gums while on this medications.”

    • B. 

      "I will need to check my BP before taking this medication"

    • C. 

      "I will not take this medication if I feel better."

  • 98. 
    When teaching a patient about taking a newly prescribed antiepileptic drug (AED) at home, the nurse will include which instruction?
    • A. 

      ”if seizures recur, take a double dose of the medication.”

    • B. 

      ”regular, consistent dosing is important for successful treatment.”

    • C. 

      ”driving is allowed after two weeks of therapy.”

    • D. 

      “antacids can be taken with the AED to reduce gastrointestinal adverse effects.”

  • 99. 
    A patient has a 9 year-old history of a seizure disorder that has been managed well with oral phenytoin (Dilantin) therapy. He is to be NPO for surgery in the morning. What will the nurse do about his morning dose of phenytoin?
    • A. 

      Give the same dose intravenously

    • B. 

      Contact the prescriber for another dosage form of the medication

    • C. 

      Give the morning dose with a small dip of water

    • D. 

      Notify the operating room that the medication has been withheld.

  • 100. 
    A patient has been taking an AED for several years as part of his treatment for partial seizures. His wife has called because he ran out of medication this morning and wonders if he can go without it for a week until she has a chance to go to the drugstore. What is the nurse’s best response?
    • A. 

      ”stopping this medication abruptly may cause withdrawal seizures. A refill is needed right away.”

    • B. 

      ”he is taking another antiepileptic drug, so he can go without the medication for a week.”

  • 101. 
    When a patient is taking an anticholinergic such as benztropine (Congentin) as part of the treatment from Parkinson’s disease, the nurse should include which information in the teaching plan?
    • A. 

      Take the medication on an empty stomach to enhance absorption

    • B. 

      Use artificial saliva, sugarless gum, or hard candy to counteract dry mouth

    • C. 

      Minimize the amount of fluid taken while on this drug

    • D. 

      Discontinue the medication if adverse effects occur

  • 102. 
    • A. 

      Carbidopa is the biologic precursor of dopamine and can penetrate into the CNS

    • B. 

      Carbidopa allows for larger doses of levodopa to be given.

    • C. 

      There are concerns about drug- food interactions with levodopa therapy that do not exist with the combination therapy

    • D. 

      Carbidopa prevents the breakdown of levodopa in the periphery

  • 103. 
    A patient has been treated with antiparkinson medication for three months. What therapeutic responses should the nurse look for when assessing this patient?
    • A. 

      Newly developed dyskinesias

    • B. 

      Gradual development of cogwheel rigidity

    • C. 

      Improved ability to perform activities of daily living

    • D. 

      Decreased appetite

  • 104. 
    A patient has a new order for a ortho0methyltransferase (COMT) inhibitor as part of treatment for Parkinson’s disease. The nurses recognizes that an advantages of this drug class is that it
    • A. 

      Causes less gastrointestional distress

    • B. 

      Has a slower onset than traditional Parkinson’s disease drugs

    • C. 

      Is associated with fewer wearing off effects

    • D. 

      Has a shorter duration of action

  • 105. 
    A patient taking entacapone (Comtan) for the first time calls the clinic to report a dark discoloration of his urine. After listening to the patient, the nurse realizes that what is happening in this situation?
    • A. 

      This is a harmless effect of the drug

    • B. 

      The patient is having an allergic reaction to the drug

    • C. 

      This patient has taken this drug along with red wine or cheese

    • D. 

      The ordered dose is too high for this patient

  • 106. 
    When treating patients with medications for Parkinson’s disease, the nurse knows that the wearing-off phenomenom occurs for which reason?
    • A. 

      The patient’s liver is no longer able to metabolize the drug.

    • B. 

      There are rapid swings in the patient’s response

    • C. 

      The patient cannot tolerate the medications at times

    • D. 

      The medications begin to lose effectiveness against Parkinson’s disease