Pathopharmacology Quiz 2 - Stress, Neurologic/cognitive, Cerebral Hemodynamics, Motor Function, Neuromuscular Junction

42 Questions

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Pharmacology Quizzes & Trivia

Again, Dr. Nmezi gets full credit for creating the quiz. My only intent is to offer others a user-friendly, high-tech medium with which to utilize the Study Guide he created. This quiz covers chapters 10, 14, 16 & 17 in the McCance Pathophysiology E-text.


Questions and Answers
  • 1. 
    Stress-induced norepinephrine results in:
    • A. 

      Decreased blood flow to the brain and skin

    • B. 

      Peripheral vasoconstriction

    • C. 

      Increased glycogen synthesis in the liver

    • D. 

      Decreased muscle contraction as a result of an energy depletion

  • 2. 
    Stress-induced cortisol released from the adrenal cortex results in:
    • A. 

      Stimulation of gluconeogenesis

    • B. 

      Increased lipolysis

    • C. 

      Stimulation of glycogenolysis

    • D. 

      Increased peripheral uptake and use of glucose

  • 3. 
    What is the effect of increased secretions of epinephrine, glucagon, and growth hormone?
    • A. 

      Hyperglycemia

    • B. 

      HTN

    • C. 

      Bronchodilation

    • D. 

      Pupil dilation

  • 4. 
    Which hormone increases the formation of glucose from amino acids and free fatty acids?
    • A. 

      Epinephrine

    • B. 

      Norepinephrine

    • C. 

      Cortisol

    • D. 

      Growth hormone

  • 5. 
    Which immune cells are suppressed by corticotropin-releasing hormone (CRH)?
    • A. 

      B cells and eosinophils

    • B. 

      Cytokines and neutrophils

    • C. 

      Cytotoxic T cells and NK cells

    • D. 

      Helper T cells and monocyte-macrophage cells

  • 6. 
    The ___ gland regulates the immune response and mediates the apparent effects of circadian rhythms on immunity
    • A. 

      Anterior pituitary

    • B. 

      Adrenal

    • C. 

      Basal ganglia

    • D. 

      Pineal

  • 7. 
    Which cytokines initiate the production of corticotropin-releasing hormone (CRH)?
    • A. 

      IL-1 and IL-6

    • B. 

      IL-2 and TNF-

    • C. 

      IFN and IL-12

    • D. 

      TNF-B and IL-4

  • 8. 
    The release of which cytokines is triggered by bacterial or viral infections, cancer, and tissue injury that in turn initiate a stress response?
    • A. 

      IL-1 and IL-2

    • B. 

      IL-12, TNF-, and colony-stimulating factor

    • C. 

      IFN, TNF-B, and IL-6

    • D. 

      IL-4 and IL-24

  • 9. 
    The ___ is a large network of neurons within the brainstem that is essential in maintaining wakefulness
    • A. 

      Midbrain

    • B. 

      Reticular Activating System

    • C. 

      Medulla oblongata

    • D. 

      Pons

  • 10. 
    Elaboration of thought and goal oriented behavior are functions of the ___ area of the brain
    • A. 

      Thalamic

    • B. 

      Limbic System

    • C. 

      Prefrontal

    • D. 

      Occipital lobe

  • 11. 
    Where is the region responsible for motor aspects of speech?
    • A. 

      Wernicke area in the temporal area

    • B. 

      Broca area in the frontal lobe

    • C. 

      Wronka area in the parietal lobe

    • D. 

      Barlow area in the occipital lobe

  • 12. 
    Parkinson and Huntington diseases are associated with defects in the:
    • A. 

      Thalamus

    • B. 

      Medulla oblongata

    • C. 

      Cerebellum

    • D. 

      Basal ganglia

  • 13. 
    The ___ has 2 main functions: maintenance of constant internal environment and implementation of behavioral patterns.
    • A. 

      Thalamus

    • B. 

      Epithalamus

    • C. 

      Subthalamus

    • D. 

      Hypothalamus

  • 14. 
    The ability of the eyes to track moving objects through a visual field is primarily a function of the ___ colliculi.
    • A. 

      Inferior

    • B. 

      Superior

    • C. 

      Mid

    • D. 

      Posterior

  • 15. 
    What parts of the brain mediate the expression of affect, both emotional and behavioral states?
    • A. 

      Hypothalamus and subthalamus

    • B. 

      Parietal and frontal lobes

    • C. 

      Limbic system and prefrontal cortex

    • D. 

      Basal ganglia

  • 16. 
    The ___ controls reflex activities concerned with heart rate, blood pressure, respirations, sneezing, swallowing, and coughing.
    • A. 

      Pons

    • B. 

      Midbrain

    • C. 

      Cerebellum

    • D. 

      Medulla oblongata

  • 17. 
    From which part of the midbrain do cranial nerves V to VIII emerge?
    • A. 

      Midbrain

    • B. 

      Pons

    • C. 

      Medulla oblongata

    • D. 

      Lateral colliculi

  • 18. 
    From which part of the midbrain do cranial nerves IX through XII emerge?
    • A. 

      Midbrain

    • B. 

      Pons

    • C. 

      Medulla oblongata

    • D. 

      Lateral colliculi

  • 19. 
    The ___ is responsible for conscious and unconscious synergy and maintaining balance and posture.
    • A. 

      Cerebrum

    • B. 

      Cerebellum

    • C. 

      Diencephalon

    • D. 

      Brainstem

  • 20. 
    Which are clinical manifestations caused by damage to the lower pons?
    • A. 

      Abnormal flexion with or without extensor response of the lower extremities

    • B. 

      Abnormal extension response of the upper and lower extremities

    • C. 

      Abnormal extension to the upper extremities and flexion of the lower extremities

    • D. 

      Abnormal flaccid response of the upper and lower extremities

  • 21. 
    What is the best prognostic indicator of recovery of consciousness or functional outcome?
    • A. 

      GCS

    • B. 

      Glasgow Outcome Score

    • C. 

      Etiology of injury and time since onset of coma

    • D. 

      Pupillary reaction and reflective eye movements

  • 22. 
    A sudden, explosive, disorderly discharge of cerebral neurons is termed:
    • A. 

      Reflex

    • B. 

      Seizure

    • C. 

      Epilepsy

    • D. 

      Convulsion

  • 23. 
    Which description is consistent with a complex partial seizure?
    • A. 

      Alternative tonic and clonic movements

    • B. 

      Consciousness is impaired as well as the ability to respond to exogenous stimuli

    • C. 

      Focal motor movement without loss of consciousness

    • D. 

      One seizure followed by another in less than 1 minute

  • 24. 
    Status epilepticus is considered a medical emergency because of the:
    • A. 

      Loss of consciousness

    • B. 

      Development of cerebral hypoxia

    • C. 

      Possibility of a head injury during the seizures

    • D. 

      Decrease in brain metabolism

  • 25. 
    The most critical aspect in diagnosing a seizure disorder and establishing cause is:
    • A. 

      CT scan

    • B. 

      CSF fluid analysis

    • C. 

      Skull x-ray films

    • D. 

      Health Hx

  • 26. 
    • A. 

      Simple partial

    • B. 

      Focal

    • C. 

      Psychomotor

    • D. 

      Aversive

  • 27. 
    What area of the brain mediates several cognitive functions, including vigilance, reasoning, and executive functions?
    • A. 

      Limbic

    • B. 

      Prefrontal

    • C. 

      Parietal

    • D. 

      Occipital

  • 28. 
    ___ is the loss of speech or the loss of comprehension of spoken or written language.
    • A. 

      Agnosia

    • B. 

      Aphasia

    • C. 

      Akinesia

    • D. 

      Dysphasia

  • 29. 
    With receptive dysphasia (fluent), the individual is able to:
    • A. 

      Respond in writing but not in speech

    • B. 

      Speak back, but not comprehend speech

    • C. 

      Comprehend speech, but not respond verbally

    • D. 

      Respond verbally, but not comprehend speech

  • 30. 
    Normal intracranial pressure is ___mmHg.
    • A. 

      5 to 15

    • B. 

      7 to 20

    • C. 

      12 to 14

    • D. 

      80 to 120

  • 31. 
    Cerebral edema is an increase in the fluid content of the:
    • A. 

      Ventricles

    • B. 

      Brain tissue

    • C. 

      Neurons

    • D. 

      Meninges

  • 32. 
    A herniation of which disk would likely result in motor and sensory changes of the lateral lower legs and soles of the feet?
    • A. 

      L2-L3

    • B. 

      L3-L5

    • C. 

      L5-S1

    • D. 

      S2-S3

  • 33. 
    Of the following people, who is at highest risk for a CVA?
    • A. 

      White females >65

    • B. 

      Black females >70

    • C. 

      Black males >65

    • D. 

      White males >70

  • 34. 
    A right hemisphere embolic CVA has resulted in left-sided paralysis and reduced sensation of the left foot and leg. The vessel most likely affected by the emboli is the right ___ artery.
    • A. 

      Middle cerebral

    • B. 

      Vertebral

    • C. 

      Posterior cerebral

    • D. 

      Anterior cerebral

  • 35. 
    Atrial fibrillation, rheumatic heart disease, and valvular prosthetics are risk factors for which type of stroke?
    • A. 

      Hemorrhagic

    • B. 

      Thrombotic

    • C. 

      Embolic

    • D. 

      Lacunar

  • 36. 
    Microinfarcts resulting in pure motor or pure sensory deficits are the result of which type of stroke?
    • A. 

      Embolic

    • B. 

      Hemorrhagic

    • C. 

      Lacunar

    • D. 

      Thrombotic

  • 37. 
    Which vascular malformation is characterized by arteries that feed directly into veins through vascular tangles of abnormal vessels?
    • A. 

      Cavernous angioma

    • B. 

      Capillary telangiectasia

    • C. 

      Arteriovenous angioma

    • D. 

      Arteriovenous malformation

  • 38. 
    Which clinical finding is considered a diagnostic indicator for an AVM?
    • A. 

      Systolic bruit over the carotid artery

    • B. 

      Decreased LOC

    • C. 

      HTN with bradycardia

    • D. 

      Diastolic bruit over the temporal artery

  • 39. 
    Which cerebral vascular disorder causes meningeal irritation, photophobia, and positive Kernig and Brudzinski signs?
    • A. 

      Intracranial hemorrhage

    • B. 

      Subarachnoid hemorrhage

    • C. 

      Epidural hemorrhage

    • D. 

      Subdural hemorrhage

  • 40. 
    Which clinical manifestation is characteristic of cluster headache?
    • A. 

      Aura before the HA with photophobia and N/V

    • B. 

      Severe unilateral tearing, burning, or temporal pain

    • C. 

      Gradual onset of bilateral pain with sensation of a tight band around the head

    • D. 

      Throbbing HA with intermittent burning sensation

  • 41. 
    In adults most intracranial tumors are located:
    • A. 

      Above the tentorium cerebelli (supratentorially)

    • B. 

      Below the tentorium cerebelli (infratentorially)

    • C. 

      Laterally

    • D. 

      Posterolaterally

  • 42. 
    In children most intracranial tumors are located:
    • A. 

      Above the tentorium cerebelli (supratentorially)

    • B. 

      Below the tentorium cerebelli (infratentorially)

    • C. 

      Laterally

    • D. 

      Posterolaterally