Genomics Mc - All - Random

43 Questions | Total Attempts: 129

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Genetics Quizzes & Trivia

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  • 1. 
    Which of the following statements about an organism's genome is FALSE?
    • A. 

      The genome contains the genetic information to construct and maintain a living organism.

    • B. 

      The genomes of cellular organisms are composed of DNA.

    • C. 

      The genome is able to express its own information without the activity of enzymes and proteins

    • D. 

      Eukaryotic genomes are composed of both nuclear and mitochondrial DNA.

  • 2. 
    Somatic cells are those that:
    • A. 

      Contain a haploid set of chromosomes.

    • B. 

      Give rise to the gametes.

    • C. 

      Lack mitochondria.

    • D. 

      Contain a diploid set of chromosomes and make up the majority of human cells.

  • 3. 
    The flow of genetic information in cells is which of the following?
    • A. 

      DNA is transcribed into RNA, which is then translated into protein.

    • B. 

      DNA is translated into protein, which is then transcribed into RNA.

    • C. 

      RNA is transcribed into DNA, which is then translated into protein.

    • D. 

      Proteins are translated into RNA, which is then transcribed into DNA

  • 4. 
    In the early tvventieth century it was thought that proteins might carry genetic information. This reasoning was due to which of the following?
    • A. 

      Chromosomes are composed of approximately equal amounts of protein and DNA.

    • B. 

      Proteins were known to be composed of 20 distinct amino acids whereas DNA is composed of only 4 nucleotides.

    • C. 

      Different proteins were known to have unique sequences, whereas it was thought that all DNA molecules have the same sequence.

    • D. 

      All of the above.

  • 5. 
    Which type of bonds link the individual nucleotides together in DNA?
    • A. 

      Glycosidic.

    • B. 

      Peptide

    • C. 

      Phosphodiester.

    • D. 

      Electrostatic.

  • 6. 
    In solving the structure of DNA, Watson and Crick actively used which of the following techniques?
    • A. 

      Model building of DNA molecules to ensure that the atoms were correctly positioned

    • B. 

      X-ray crystallography of DNA

    • C. 

      Chromatographic studies to determine the relative composition of nucleotides from various sources

    • D. 

      Genetic studies that demonstrated that DNA is the genetic material.

  • 7. 
    Erwin Chargaff studied DNA from various organisms and demonstrated that:
    • A. 

      DNA is the genetic material

    • B. 

      RNA is transcribed from DNA.

    • C. 

      The amount of adenine in a given organism is equal to the amount of thymine (and guanine to cytosine).

    • D. 

      The double helix is held together by hydrogen bonding between the bases

  • 8. 
    The transcriptome of a cell is defined as:
    • A. 

      All of the RNA molecules present in a cell.

    • B. 

      The protein-coding RNA molecules present in a cell.

    • C. 

      The ribosomal RNA molecules present in a cell.

    • D. 

      The transfer RNA molecules present in a cell.

  • 9. 
    • A. 

      They use DNA as a template for the polymerization of ribonucleotides.

    • B. 

      They use proteins as a template for the polymerization of ribonucleotides

    • C. 

      They use RNA as a template for the polymerization of ribonucleotides

    • D. 

      They require no template for the polymerization of ribonucleotides

  • 10. 
    Which type of functional RNA is a primary component of the structures required for protein synthesis?
    • A. 

      Messenger RNA.

    • B. 

      Ribosomal RNA.

    • C. 

      Small nuclear RNA.

    • D. 

      Transfer RNA.

  • 11. 
    The proteome of a cell is defined as:
    • A. 

      All of the proteins that a cell is capable of synthesizing.

    • B. 

      All of the proteins present in a cell over the cell's lifetime

    • C. 

      All of the proteins present in a cell at a given moment.

    • D. 

      All of the proteins that are actively being synthesized in a cell at a given moment.

  • 12. 
    Which level of protein structure describes the folded conformation of a multisubunit protein?
    • A. 

      Primary structure.

    • B. 

      Secondary structure.

    • C. 

      Tertiary structure.

    • D. 

      Quaternary structure.

  • 13. 
    Which type of covalent bond is important for linking cysteine residues located at various places in a polypeptide?
    • A. 

      Disulfide bridge.

    • B. 

      Hydrogen bond.

    • C. 

      Peptide bond.

    • D. 

      Phosphodiester bond.

  • 14. 
    Most of the abundant proteins in a cell are thought to be housekeeping proteins. What is their function?
    • A. 

      They are responsible for the specific functions of individual cell types.

    • B. 

      They are responsible for regulating genome expression in cells

    • C. 

      They are responsible for removing waste materials from cells.

    • D. 

      They are responsible for the general biochemical activities that occur in all cells.

  • 15. 
    The degeneracy of the genetic code refers to which of the following?
    • A. 

      Each codon can specify more than one amino acid.

    • B. 

      Most amino acids have more than one codon.

    • C. 

      There are several initiation codons.

    • D. 

      The stop codons can also code for amino acids.

  • 16. 
    Which of the following is NOT a biological function of proteins?
    • A. 

      Biological catalysis.

    • B. 

      Regulation of cellu lar processes.

    • C. 

      Carrying genetic information.

    • D. 

      Transport of molecules in multicellular organisms.

  • 17. 
    Which of the following enzymes are used to degrade DNA molecules?
    • A. 

      DNA polymerases.

    • B. 

      Nucleases.

    • C. 

      Ligases.

    • D. 

      Kinases.

  • 18. 
    • A. 

      These polymerases require a 5'-phosphate group to add a new nucleotide

    • B. 

      These polymerases require a 3'-hydroxyl group to and add a new nucleotide

    • C. 

      The primer is required for the DNA polymerase to bind to the template DNA.

    • D. 

      The primer is hydrolyzed to provide the energy I join required for DNA synthesis

  • 19. 
    The function of the 3'-->5' exonuclease activity of a DNA polymerase is to:
    • A. 

      Remove the 5' end of the polynucleotide strand that is attached to the template strand that is being copied.

    • B. 

      Remove damaged nucleotides from the template strand during DNA synthesis.

    • C. 

      Remove nucleotides from the ends of DNA molecules to ensure the generation of blunt ends.

    • D. 

      Remove incorrect nucleotides from the newly synthesized strand of DNA.

  • 20. 
    The Klenow polymerase version of E. coli DNA polymerase I is useful for research as it lacks the 5'-3' exonuclease activity. This is useful as the 5'--3' exonuclease activity:
    • A. 

      Is more active than the polymerase activity.

    • B. 

      Will prevent the incorporation of "radioactive or fluorescent labels into the DNA.

    • C. 

      May interfere with some research applications by shortening the 5' ends of the DNA molecules.

    • D. 

      Prevents the polymerase from detecting errors in the incorporation of new nucleotides.

  • 21. 
    A temperature of 75°C will terminate DNA synthesis by E. coli DNA polymerase I. This is because:
    • A. 

      E. coli DNA polymerase I is denatured at this temperature.

    • B. 

      The DNA is denatured at this temperature.

    • C. 

      The primers are denatured at this temperature.

    • D. 

      Tile temperature is too high for enzymatic reactions to occur.

  • 22. 
    Which of the following statements accurately describes reverse transcriptases?
    • A. 

      They are present in all viruses and are RNA dependent DNA polymerases.

    • B. 

      They are present in all RNA viruses and are DNA dependent RNA polymerases.

    • C. 

      They are present in retroviruses and are RNA dependent DNA polymerases.

    • D. 

      They are present in all viruses and are template independent DNA polymerases.

  • 23. 
    All three types of restriction enzyme bind to DNA molecules at specific sequences; however. the type II enzymes are favored for research for which of the following reasons?
    • A. 

      Type II enzymes cut the DNA at a specific site.

    • B. 

      Type II enzymes always cut the DNA to yield blunt ended molecules.

    • C. 

      Type II enzymes always cut the DNA to yield sticky ended molecules.

    • D. 

      Type II enzymes are the only restriction enzymes to cleave double-stranded DNA.

  • 24. 
    Which technique is used to resolve the different sizes of DNA fragments following a restriction enzyme digest?
    • A. 

      DNA sequencing.

    • B. 

      Gel electrophoresis.

    • C. 

      Gene cloning.

    • D. 

      PCR

  • 25. 
    DNA ligase synthesizes which type of bond?
    • A. 

      The hydrogen bonds between bases.

    • B. 

      The phosphodiester bonds between nucleotides.

    • C. 

      The bonds between the bases and deoxyribose sugars.

    • D. 

      The peptide bonds between amino acids.

  • 26. 
    Which of the following polymerases does not require a template?
    • A. 

      DNA polymerase I.

    • B. 

      Sequenase.

    • C. 

      Reverse transcriptase.

    • D. 

      Terminal deoxynucleotidyl transferase.

  • 27. 
    E. coli cells take up plasmid DNA in laboratory experiments by which of the following methods?
    • A. 

      Conjugation.

    • B. 

      Electrophoresis.

    • C. 

      Transduction.

    • D. 

      Transformation.

  • 28. 
    • A. 

      A collection of recombinant molecules with inserts that contain all of the genes of an organism.

    • B. 

      A collection of recombinant molecules with inserts that contain all of an organism's genome.

    • C. 

      A collection of recombinant molecules that express all of the genes of an organism.

    • D. 

      A collection of recombinant molecules that have been sequenced.

  • 29. 
    Which of the following types of vector would be most suitable for introducing DNA into a human cell?
    • A. 

      Plasmid.

    • B. 

      Bacteriophage.

    • C. 

      Cosmid.

    • D. 

      Adenovirus.

  • 30. 
    Which of the following is NOT used to introduce recombinant DNA molecules into plants?
    • A. 

      Biolistics.

    • B. 

      Cosmids.

    • C. 

      Ti plasmid.

    • D. 

      Viruses.

  • 31. 
    PCR is advantageous to gene cloning for all of the following reasons except:
    • A. 

      PCR does not require that the sequence of the gene be known.

    • B. 

      PCR is a very rapid technique for the isolation of a gene.

    • C. 

      PCR requires very small amounts of starting DNA compared to gene cloning.

    • D. 

      PCR is very useful for mapping DNA markers.

  • 32. 
    A major problem with the computational assembly of DNA sequences of complex eukaryotic genomes is the presence of:
    • A. 

      Multiple chromosomes.

    • B. 

      Mitochondrial DNA.

    • C. 

      Introns within the genome.

    • D. 

      Repetitive sequences.

  • 33. 
    The first genetic maps used genes as markers because:
    • A. 

      The locations of genes on chromosomes could be observed by staining the DNA with dyes.

    • B. 

      Phenotypes specified by genes could be identified visually and their inheritance patterns studied.

    • C. 

      Individual genes specifying easily identifiable phenotypic traits were easily cloned

    • D. 

      Single nucleotide polymorph isms were used to identify point mutations that resulted in clearly observable phenotypic differences

  • 34. 
    Which of the following is NOT a reason why biochemical phenotypes were commonly used to create human genetic maps?
    • A. 

      Humans have no visual characteristics that are useful for genetic mapping.

    • B. 

      There are biochemical phenotypes that are easily screened by blood typing.

    • C. 

      Some easily characterized biochemical phenotypes are specified by genes with very large numbers of alleles.

    • D. 

      It is unethical to perform controlled breeding experiments with humans.

  • 35. 
    Eukaryotlc genomes are mapped using DNA markers in addition to genes because:
    • A. 

      DNA markers do not require the presence of two or more alleles for mapping.

    • B. 

      Gene maps may not cover large regions of the genome.

    • C. 

      Most genes contain multiple alleles that can be easily mapped.

    • D. 

      DNA markers are less variable than genetic markers.

  • 36. 
    Microsatellites are used more commonly than minisatellites as DNA markers because:
    • A. 

      Minisatellites are present in too many locations within the genome.

    • B. 

      Restriction enzymes can be used to type microsatellites but not minisatellites.

    • C. 

      There are very few microsatellites in eukaryotic genomes so they are easily identified and analyzed.

    • D. 

      Microsatellites are present throughout eukaryotic genomes and are easily amplified using PCR.

  • 37. 
    Which of the following genetic markers are present in the highest numbers within the human genome?
    • A. 

      RFLPs.

    • B. 

      Minisatellites.

    • C. 

      Microsatellites.

    • D. 

      Single nucleotide polymorphisms.

  • 38. 
    The principle of genetic linkage is:
    • A. 

      The fact that the different alleles for a given gene will be located at the same position in a chromosome.

    • B. 

      The discovery that multiple genes are responsible for some traits (such as eye color in flies).

    • C. 

      The observation that some genes will be inherited together if they are located on the same chromosome.

    • D. 

      The observation that darkly staining regions of chromosomes do not contain genes.

  • 39. 
    The difference between mitosis and meiosis is that mitosis is characterized by:
    • A. 

      The production of two diploid cells that are genetically identical to the parental cell.

    • B. 

      The exchange of DNA (crossing-over) between homologous chromosomes.

    • C. 

      The production of two diploid cells that are genetically distinct from the parental cell.

    • D. 

      The production of four haploid celts that are genetically distinct from the parental cell.

  • 40. 
    Which of the following statements correctly describes the recombination frequency between two genes?
    • A. 

      The closer two genes are to each other on a chromosome, the higher the frequency of recombination will be between them.

    • B. 

      The more distant two genes are to each other on a chromosome, the higher the frequency of recombination will be between them.

    • C. 

      If two genes are located on the same chromosome then no recombination events can occur between them.

    • D. 

      If two genes are located on different chromosomes then there will be a high frequency of recombination between them.

  • 41. 
    In analyzing a human pedigree to determine how closely two genes are linked, it is best to:
    • A. 

      Conclude that the most common genotypes in the offspring are the parental genotypes

    • B. 

      Conclude that the most common genotypes in the offspring are the recombinants.

    • C. 

      Perform a test cross to determine the linkage between the genes.

    • D. 

      Determine the genotypes of the grandparents.

  • 42. 
    Which of the following is NOT a factor that limits the accuracy of genetic maps for humans and other complex eukaryotic organisms?
    • A. 

      It is not possible to obtain enough progeny for many eukaryotic organisms.

    • B. 

      Recombination hotspots may interfere with genetic mapping.

    • C. 

      Genetic mapping only uses genes and there are not enough genes to map entire genomes.

    • D. 

      Genes or markers that are tens of thousands of base pairs apart may appear at the same position on a genetic map.

  • 43. 
    Metaphase chromosomes were initially used for fluorescent in situ hybridization, but the results were somewhat limiting because:
    • A. 

      Many regions of a chromosome are condensed and cannot hybridize to probes.

    • B. 

      The probes will hybridize preferentially to repeated sequences present on multiple chromosomes.

    • C. 

      The chromosomes are not stable in the condensed state, and the signal diffuses when the chromosomes are relaxed.

    • D. 

      Only low-resolution mapping is possible, as the chromosomes are condensed.