Security Forces Journeyman CDC Volume 4 Full

100 Questions

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Security Forces Journeyman CDC Volume 4 Full


Questions and Answers
  • 1. 
    Which principle of war is the most effective and decisive way to attain a clearly defined objective and is the means by which a military force seizes and holds the initiative while maintaining freedom of action and achieving decisive results?
    • A. 

      Mass

    • B. 

      Offensive

    • C. 

      Manuever

    • D. 

      Economy of force

  • 2. 
    Which of the following results from the measures taken by commanders to protect their forces?
    • A. 

      Simplicity

    • B. 

      Surprise

    • C. 

      Security

    • D. 

      Safety

  • 3. 
    What is achieved by the balanced employment of firepower and patrolling?
    • A. 

      Key terrain

    • B. 

      Defense in depth

    • C. 

      All around defense

    • D. 

      Aggressive defense

  • 4. 
    A force can dominate an area, place direct or indirect fire on critical resources by capturing?
    • A. 

      Key terrain

    • B. 

      High grounds

    • C. 

      Avenues of approach

    • D. 

      Pockets of resistance

  • 5. 
    After the threat has been neutralized which integrated defense effect is implemented to consolidate and reorganize friendly forces and restore operations?
    • A. 

      Warn

    • B. 

      Assess

    • C. 

      Recovery

    • D. 

      Anticipate

  • 6. 
    Which force is the Air Force enterprise leader for integrated defense operations?
    • A. 

      Special force

    • B. 

      Security forces

    • C. 

      Joint forces

    • D. 

      Air and Space forces

  • 7. 
    Which agency will the base defense operations center up-channel covered wagon reportable incidents through?
    • A. 

      Site security control

    • B. 

      Security forces

    • C. 

      Higher headquarters

    • D. 

      Installation command post

  • 8. 
    The jettisoning of a nuclear weapon or nuclear component is an example of a nuclear weapons?
    • A. 

      Accident

    • B. 

      Incident

    • C. 

      Mistake

    • D. 

      Mishap

  • 9. 
    Personnel assigned to the priority III routine category should be evacuated within how many hours?
    • A. 

      2

    • B. 

      4

    • C. 

      12

    • D. 

      24

  • 10. 
    What may be the most dangerous type of improved explosive devise?
    • A. 

      Static

    • B. 

      Roadside

    • C. 

      Vehicle-borne

    • D. 

      Romote detonated

  • 11. 
    Who directs US forces to respond rapidly to certain crises either unilaterlly or as part of an interagency and/or multinational effort?
    • A. 

      President only

    • B. 

      Secretary of defense only

    • C. 

      President or secretary of defense

    • D. 

      President or defense force commander

  • 12. 
    Which operation is principally conducted to evacuate US citizens
    • A. 

      Recovery

    • B. 

      Peace

    • C. 

      Peace enforcement

    • D. 

      Noncompatant evacuation

  • 13. 
    Which operation may be clandestine, covery, or overt depending on whether the operational environment is hostile, uncertain, or permissive?
    • A. 

      Foreign humanitarian assistance

    • B. 

      Consequence management

    • C. 

      Homeland defense

    • D. 

      Recovery

  • 14. 
    Which intelligence collection often may provide the most useful source of information
    • A. 

      OSINT

    • B. 

      COMINT

    • C. 

      HUMINT

    • D. 

      INFOMINT

  • 15. 
    Force protection measures will be planned according with
    • A. 

      Determination of the force

    • B. 

      The risk to the force

    • C. 

      Location of the force

    • D. 

      Size of the force

  • 16. 
    Which type of attack may involve an insider threat?
    • A. 

      Standoff attack

    • B. 

      Penetration attack

    • C. 

      Information operation

    • D. 

      Chemical, biological attack

  • 17. 
    Which agency is the lead for terrorist incidents that occur outside the US?
    • A. 

      Department of state

    • B. 

      Department of justice

    • C. 

      Department of defense

    • D. 

      Federal bureau of investigation

  • 18. 
    The tactic terrorist groups use most commonly is?
    • A. 

      Arson

    • B. 

      Bombing

    • C. 

      Highjacking

    • D. 

      Kidnapping and hostage taking

  • 19. 
    Active terrorist groups are organized into cells that can be as small as two people or as large as?
    • A. 

      5-10

    • B. 

      10-15

    • C. 

      25-30

    • D. 

      35-40

  • 20. 
    Which individual/groups promote their cause by and means and are ideologically inspired?
    • A. 

      Crimanals or professionals

    • B. 

      Emotionally disturbed

    • C. 

      Passive soldiers

    • D. 

      Crusaders

  • 21. 
    What threat level assessment indicates anti-US terrorists are operationally active and use large casualty-producing attacks as their preferred method of operation?
    • A. 

      Moderate

    • B. 

      Significant

    • C. 

      High

    • D. 

      Low

  • 22. 
    The key distinction between an insurgency and other types of movements is the decision to use?
    • A. 

      Violence to achieve political goals

    • B. 

      Violence to achieve religious goals

    • C. 

      Non-violence to achieve political goals

    • D. 

      Use violence to achieve ideological goals

  • 23. 
    COIN operations require leaders to exhibit?
    • A. 

      Fairness, firmness and fight

    • B. 

      Logic, lotalty, and leadership

    • C. 

      Patience, persistence, and presence

    • D. 

      Cooperation, cohesiveness, and confidence

  • 24. 
    To avoid detection by the government how wil insurgents operate?
    • A. 

      Underground

    • B. 

      In disguise

    • C. 

      In small bands

    • D. 

      During the hours of darkness

  • 25. 
    Which agency was created by a formal agreement between two or more governments?
    • A. 

      Multinational corporation

    • B. 

      Governmental organization

    • C. 

      Host nation security council

    • D. 

      Intergovernmental organization

  • 26. 
    Which agency is the most notable integovernmental organization?
    • A. 

      The united nations

    • B. 

      The world hunger league

    • C. 

      United nations children fund

    • D. 

      The american federation of labor and congress of industrial organizations

  • 27. 
    Aerial ports of debarkation, border crossings and seaports af debarkation are all examples of key
    • A. 

      Terrain issues

    • B. 

      Logistical issues

    • C. 

      Sovereignty issues

    • D. 

      Transportation issues

  • 28. 
    Which base is austerely manned but is capable of expanding into a full scale air base operations?
    • A. 

      Bare base

    • B. 

      Limited base

    • C. 

      Main operating base

    • D. 

      Forward operating base

  • 29. 
    What do peacetime or contingency operations require when planning how and where to use security forces unit UTC?
    • A. 

      Time

    • B. 

      Money

    • C. 

      Manning

    • D. 

      Flexibility

  • 30. 
    During base defense operations what does the DFC use staff control tools for?
    • A. 

      Control the traffic flow plan

    • B. 

      Ensure all equipment is functioning properly

    • C. 

      Make sure the office is maintained and kept neat and orderly

    • D. 

      Disseminate his or hre orders and manage the base defense opertaions plan

  • 31. 
    An effective tool to control integrated defense operation is?
    • A. 

      Charts and forms

    • B. 

      Base sectorization

    • C. 

      Staff control tools

    • D. 

      Military symbology

  • 32. 
    What should a flight sector sketch show?
    • A. 

      Main terrain feature in the sector of fire and the ranges to them

    • B. 

      Flight and squadron identifications

    • C. 

      Squad leader positions

    • D. 

      True south

  • 33. 
    In what year did the Geneva Conventions become effective?
    • A. 

      1955

    • B. 

      1956

    • C. 

      1957

    • D. 

      1958

  • 34. 
    Why is speed essential when processing captives, detainees, and prisoners?
    • A. 

      Keeping the prisoners silent is important

    • B. 

      To ensure the safety of defectors and deserters

    • C. 

      The intelligence a CDP brings is time sensitive

    • D. 

      CDPs must be tagged before evacuating to the rear

  • 35. 
    The safe operating distance of radio frequency transmitters around refueling locations is?
    • A. 

      20 meters

    • B. 

      30 meters

    • C. 

      40 meters

    • D. 

      50 meters

  • 36. 
    To avoid receiving an electrical shock when disconnecting the battery from the electronic security system(ESS)?
    • A. 

      Remove the negative lead first

    • B. 

      Remove the positive lead first

    • C. 

      It doesn't matter which lead you remove first

    • D. 

      Secure the positive lead first and then the negative

  • 37. 
    Which function provides transmission of data between the TASS sensors and annunciators?
    • A. 

      Power

    • B. 

      Annunciation

    • C. 

      Communications

    • D. 

      Response frequenct

  • 38. 
    What security system consists of a variety of sensors, repeaters, and a hand held display monitor?
    • A. 

      MILES

    • B. 

      TMS

    • C. 

      ESS

    • D. 

      BISS

  • 39. 
    A scanning method known as the self preservation method of search lasts approximately?
    • A. 

      90Sec

    • B. 

      60 Sec

    • C. 

      45 Sec

    • D. 

      30 Sec

  • 40. 
    When marking targets, the more effective means of delivering accurate fire is?
    • A. 

      Spacing

    • B. 

      Aining point

    • C. 

      Reference point

    • D. 

      Range determination

  • 41. 
    • A. 

      Observer proficiency requires constant practice

    • B. 

      SF member must pace the range to see if his estimation is correct

    • C. 

      Underestimating sloping ground gives the illusion of a greater distance

    • D. 

      Accuracy is directly related to amount of terrain visible to the observor

  • 42. 
    • A. 

      Look 5 degrees above, below or to either side rather then directily at it

    • B. 

      Look 10 degrees above, below or to either side rather then directily at it

    • C. 

      Look 15 degrees above, below rather then directily at it

    • D. 

      Look 20 degrees to either side rather then directily at it

  • 43. 
    If you adapted to the dark before donning goggles, you will gain full dark adaption within how many minutes after removing the goggles?
    • A. 

      8

    • B. 

      5

    • C. 

      4

    • D. 

      2

  • 44. 
    When burying the TMS magnetic sensor, how deep perpendicular to the avenue of approach must you bury the magnetic sensor head?
    • A. 

      2 to 4 inches

    • B. 

      4 to 6 inches

    • C. 

      6 to 8 inches

    • D. 

      8 to 10 inches

  • 45. 
    The components that make up the tactical miniature sensor active infrared detection sensor are?
    • A. 

      Ab enutter head with battery case, sensor head, and transmitter

    • B. 

      A seismic head with battery case, sensor head, and transmitter

    • C. 

      A transformer head, infrared sensor head and transmitter

    • D. 

      An emission head with battery case, sensor head, and transmitter

  • 46. 
    The Elec 864M1E long-range passive infrared sensors detection capability can be degraded in?
    • A. 

      In snowy conditions

    • B. 

      Dense fog

    • C. 

      Rainy weather

    • D. 

      Bright sunlight

  • 47. 
    What is the WSTI used for?
    • A. 

      Alarm annunciation and visual inspection

    • B. 

      Sensor identification and recognition

    • C. 

      To assess the alarms of a sensor activation

    • D. 

      Boundary protection

  • 48. 
    How many people are required to set up the wide area surveillance thermal imager tripod?
    • A. 

      1

    • B. 

      2

    • C. 

      3

    • D. 

      4

  • 49. 
    From where are do all operational command and controls performed from?
    • A. 

      DCU

    • B. 

      DCS

    • C. 

      JCU

    • D. 

      BDOC

  • 50. 
    The primary purpose of the LRTI-CCTV is to?
    • A. 

      Provide full color imagery and video

    • B. 

      Provide communication and data to the base defense operation center

    • C. 

      Allow you to view the enemy from long distances

    • D. 

      Assess alarms annunciating from the TASS system

  • 51. 
    Which major component on the AN/PVS-4 is adjusted for variations in the user's eyesight?
    • A. 

      Objective lens assembly

    • B. 

      Eyepiece assemply

    • C. 

      Eye guard

    • D. 

      Optical lens

  • 52. 
    What are the components of the AN/PVS 7 night vision goggle?
    • A. 

      Facemask and goggle

    • B. 

      Head assembly, de-mist shields, and goggle

    • C. 

      Head-mount assembly, sacrificial window and goggle

    • D. 

      Head mount assembly, sacrificial window,and de mist shields

  • 53. 
    What part of the AN/PVS 7 night vision goggle does the sacrificial window protect
    • A. 

      Battery compartment

    • B. 

      Rubber eye cups

    • C. 

      Glass lens

    • D. 

      Sight lens

  • 54. 
    The level of performance for the AN/PVS-14 depends upon the level of?
    • A. 

      Atmosphere pressure

    • B. 

      Terrain

    • C. 

      Light

    • D. 

      Air

  • 55. 
    On the AN/PVS-14 night vision device what enables the operator to see azimuth readings in the monocular?
    • A. 

      Compass

    • B. 

      De-mist shield

    • C. 

      Tethering cord

    • D. 

      Sacrigicial window

  • 56. 
    On the AN/PVS-14 night vision device what adjusts the distance between your eye and the monocular?
    • A. 

      Eye relief adjustment

    • B. 

      Diopter adjustment

    • C. 

      Gain control

    • D. 

      Optic knob

  • 57. 
    The hand held thermal imager powers on in what mode?
    • A. 

      Manuel override

    • B. 

      Manual

    • C. 

      Auto

    • D. 

      Sleep

  • 58. 
    During offensive and defensive operations, what determines when you should change your camouflage?
    • A. 

      The amount of artificial camouflage available

    • B. 

      The amount of natural camouflage available

    • C. 

      The weather and type of material used

    • D. 

      If the enemy has spotted your position

  • 59. 
    Where is the best position for a defensive fighting position to avoid enemy detection?
    • A. 

      A lone building

    • B. 

      The side of a hill

    • C. 

      In an open valley

    • D. 

      At a road junction

  • 60. 
    What are the three ways of concealing yourself from enemy detection?
    • A. 

      Covering, hiding and deceiving

    • B. 

      Hiding, blending and deceiving

    • C. 

      Hiding covering and deceiving

    • D. 

      Hiding blending and covering

  • 61. 
    When camouflaging your skin around the eyes nose and chin use
    • A. 

      Light paint colors

    • B. 

      Dark paint colors

    • C. 

      Natural paint colors

    • D. 

      Woodland paint colors

  • 62. 
    Why does comoufage discipline become more important at night?
    • A. 

      Noises seem amplified and revealing at night

    • B. 

      Darkness is a disadvantage to the enemy

    • C. 

      Map reading during the darkness is easier

    • D. 

      Its not easy to detect troop movement

  • 63. 
    One of the simplest ways to distort the outline of a weapon is
    • A. 

      Put mud on it

    • B. 

      Pattern painting

    • C. 

      Place foliage on and in the barrel

    • D. 

      Wrap it with burlap garnishing or strips of dyed cloth

  • 64. 
    What determines if you will build overheard cover up or down on a defensive firing
    • A. 

      The type of weapon that will be utilized at the position

    • B. 

      The amount of time that will be spent t that location

    • C. 

      The type of terrain the position will be utilized in

    • D. 

      The potential for enemy observation of position

  • 65. 
    What is the proper method of firing from a window?
    • A. 

      Kneeling and close to the window

    • B. 

      Kneeling and far back from the window

    • C. 

      Standing and close to the window

    • D. 

      Standing and away from the window

  • 66. 
    • A. 

      Horizontal angles to the axis of the trigger

    • B. 

      Vertical angles to the axis of the trigger

    • C. 

      Right angles to the axis of the trigger

    • D. 

      Left angles to the axis of the trigger

  • 67. 
    when recovering the m49a1 trip flare, what is the first step using the pull pin method?
    • A. 

      Remove the pull pin and replace the safety clip

    • B. 

      Loosen lower wing nut and remove bracket

    • C. 

      Clean and dry flare and bracket

    • D. 

      Tighten the wing nut

  • 68. 
    What movement technique do you use when speed is required and you cant use the rush technique?
    • A. 

      Spider crawl

    • B. 

      High crawl

    • C. 

      Low crawl

    • D. 

      Roll

  • 69. 
    You use the rolling movement technique to 
    • A. 

      Roll over obstacles

    • B. 

      Avoid observation

    • C. 

      More around mines

    • D. 

      Confuse your adversary

  • 70. 
    The most common mistakes when moving past windows are exposing the head and
    • A. 

      Not moving 12 inches away from the wall

    • B. 

      Not being aware of basement windows

    • C. 

      Not crouching while moving

    • D. 

      Moving to slowly

  • 71. 
    Allowing your weapon to extend past the edge of a corner is called
    • A. 

      Marking

    • B. 

      Stabbing

    • C. 

      Flagging

    • D. 

      Posting

  • 72. 
    Selection of team movement techniques is based on
    • A. 

      The ability of the team leader to control the team

    • B. 

      Likelihood of enemy contact and need for speed

    • C. 

      Patrol objectives

    • D. 

      The enemy threat

  • 73. 
    Which movement technique do you use when speed is essential and enemy contact is not likely?
    • A. 

      Traveling

    • B. 

      Wedge formation

    • C. 

      Traveling overwatch

    • D. 

      Bounding overwatch

  • 74. 
    You use the bounding overwatch formation when
    • A. 

      The heavy left formation cannot be used

    • B. 

      The wedge formation is not practical

    • C. 

      Enemy contact is not likely

    • D. 

      Enemy contact is expected

  • 75. 
    In the traveling overwatch formation, the trailing fire team is located
    • A. 

      10 meters from the front

    • B. 

      In front of the team leader

    • C. 

      50 meters behind the lead fire team

    • D. 

      100 meters behind the lead fire team

  • 76. 
    The smallest unit to conduct an area ambush is
    • A. 

      A squad

    • B. 

      A flight

    • C. 

      An element

    • D. 

      A fire team

  • 77. 
    What are the two types of ambushes?
    • A. 

      Point and distant

    • B. 

      Distant and near

    • C. 

      Area and far

    • D. 

      Near and far

  • 78. 
    When using the clock technique to defend against counterattacks, where does  the squad leader position key weapons?
    • A. 

      On high ground to avoid weapons fire

    • B. 

      Along likely avenues of approach

    • C. 

      Along resupply lines

    • D. 

      Along rally points

  • 79. 
    What is an easily located and defendable location on a patrols route?
    • A. 

      Rally point

    • B. 

      Reentry rally point

    • C. 

      En route rally point

    • D. 

      Objective rally point

  • 80. 
    Based on the terrain, vegetation and visibility leaders establish en route rally points every 100 to
    • A. 

      200 meters

    • B. 

      200 meters

    • C. 

      300 meters

    • D. 

      400 meters

  • 81. 
    What are the principles of NIDD?
    • A. 

      Notify, implement, destroy, defeat

    • B. 

      Negate, impede, dispose and destroy

    • C. 

      Notify, impede, disable, and destroy

    • D. 

      Notify, impress, dissuade, and destroy

  • 82. 
    Where can you find the sheet name of a map?
    • A. 

      In the corner of the upper left margin and on the right lower margin

    • B. 

      In the cent of the center margin and on the right side lower margin

    • C. 

      In the corner of the top margin and on the lower left area margin

    • D. 

      In the center of the top margin and on the lower left area margin

  • 83. 
    What terrain feature is a stretched out groove in the land, usually formed by streams and rivers?
    • A. 

      Hill

    • B. 

      Saddle

    • C. 

      Valley

    • D. 

      Depression

  • 84. 
    What do contour lines show you when you look at a map?
    • A. 

      Relief and elevation on a standard topographic map

    • B. 

      Location in relation to the water

    • C. 

      Location anyplace on a map

    • D. 

      Location on a ridge

  • 85. 
    What are the three types of contour lines used on a topographic map?
    • A. 

      Formed, layered, and supplementary

    • B. 

      Layered, index and supplementary

    • C. 

      Index supplementary and shaded relief

    • D. 

      Index intermediate and supplementary

  • 86. 
    What types of slope are evenly spaced, but closed together?
    • A. 

      Steep

    • B. 

      Gentle

    • C. 

      Convex

    • D. 

      Concave

  • 87. 
    When reading a topographical map to plot a grid coordinate, you read from
    • A. 

      Right to left; bottom to top

    • B. 

      Right to left; top to bottom

    • C. 

      Left to right; bottom to top

    • D. 

      Left to right; top to bottom

  • 88. 
    What is the center of the protractor circle from which all directions are measured?
    • A. 

      Mils

    • B. 

      Square

    • C. 

      Degrees

    • D. 

      Index mark

  • 89. 
    The easiest method for measuring distance in a straight line is to use
    • A. 

      A ruler

    • B. 

      A compass

    • C. 

      A protractor

    • D. 

      The tick marks

  • 90. 
    To ensure proper functioning of a compass, the safe separation distance from telephone wire
    • A. 

      10 meters

    • B. 

      20 meters

    • C. 

      30 meters

    • D. 

      40 meters

  • 91. 
    Which method is used almost exclusively for sighting and is the best technique for this purpose?
    • A. 

      One hand

    • B. 

      Two hand

    • C. 

      Center hold

    • D. 

      Compass to check

  • 92. 
    If you use the watch method to find directions on daylight savings time, the north-south line is between the hour hand and
    • A. 

      1100 hours

    • B. 

      1200 hours

    • C. 

      1300 hours

    • D. 

      1400 hours

  • 93. 
    Which method lets you locate a position using two well-defined locations pinpointed on a map?
    • A. 

      Resection

    • B. 

      Intersection

    • C. 

      Modified resection

    • D. 

      Straightedge method

  • 94. 
    Which field expedient method is more forgiving of mistakes and less time consuming?
    • A. 

      Examining the same piece of the terrain during the different seasons of the year

    • B. 

      Matching the terrain to the map by examining terrain features

    • C. 

      Comparing the vegetation depicted on the map

    • D. 

      Navigating by terrain association

  • 95. 
    What does the term METT-TC mean?
    • A. 

      Movement, enemy terrain and weather, troops, and time available

    • B. 

      Mission, enemy, territory and weather, troops, and time available

    • C. 

      Movement, enemy, terrain and weather travel,and time available

    • D. 

      Mission, enemy, terrain and weather, troops, and time available

  • 96. 
    Why is navigating by terrain association preferred over dead reckoning?
    • A. 

      Dead reckoning does not allow for errors

    • B. 

      Terrain association uses the compass only

    • C. 

      Errors in navigation are easily correctable

    • D. 

      Navigating by terrain features is more accurate

  • 97. 
    The DAGR provides to the user position
    • A. 

      Communication, time reporting, and navigation capabilities

    • B. 

      Range finder, time reporting, and navigation capabilities

    • C. 

      Velocity, time reporting, and navigation capabilities

    • D. 

      Air speed, time reporting, and navigation capabilities

  • 98. 
    Which DAGR mode uses the most power and tracks satllites to produce continuous PVT solution?
    • A. 

      Continuous

    • B. 

      Standby

    • C. 

      Average

    • D. 

      Fix

  • 99. 
    what consists of a collection of position and movement data for a geographical location?
    • A. 

      Security tools

    • B. 

      Situational awareness

    • C. 

      Command and control

    • D. 

      Navigation and route planning

  • 100. 
    How many way points can be entered and stored in the AN/PSN-11?
    • A. 

      99

    • B. 

      500

    • C. 

      999

    • D. 

      1000