Security Forces CDC Volume 4 Quiz #2

58 Questions

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Security Forces Quizzes & Trivia

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Questions and Answers
  • 1. 
    Which principle of war is the most effective and decisive way to attain a clearly defined objective and is the means by which a military force seizes and holds the initiative while maintaining freedom of action and achieving decisive results?
    • A. 

      Mass

    • B. 

      Offensive

    • C. 

      Manuever

    • D. 

      Economy of force

  • 2. 
    Which of the following results from the measures taken by commanders to protect their forces?
    • A. 

      Simplicity

    • B. 

      Surprise

    • C. 

      Security

    • D. 

      Safety

  • 3. 
    What is achieved by the balanced employment of firepower and patrolling?
    • A. 

      Key terrain

    • B. 

      Defense in depth

    • C. 

      All around defense

    • D. 

      Aggressive defense

  • 4. 
    A force can dominate an area, place direct or indirect fire on critical resources by capturing?
    • A. 

      Key terrain

    • B. 

      High grounds

    • C. 

      Avenues of approach

    • D. 

      Pockets of resistance

  • 5. 
    After the threat has been neutralized which integrated defense effect is implemented to consolidate and reorganize friendly forces and restore operations?
    • A. 

      Warn

    • B. 

      Assess

    • C. 

      Recovery

    • D. 

      Anticipate

  • 6. 
    Which force is the Air Force enterprise leader for integrated defense operations?
    • A. 

      Special force

    • B. 

      Security forces

    • C. 

      Joint forces

    • D. 

      Air and Space forces

  • 7. 
    Which agency will the base defense operations center up-channel covered wagon reportable incidents through?
    • A. 

      Site security control

    • B. 

      Security forces

    • C. 

      Higher headquarters

    • D. 

      Installation command post

  • 8. 
    The jettisoning of a nuclear weapon or nuclear component is an example of a nuclear weapons?
    • A. 

      Accident

    • B. 

      Incident

    • C. 

      Mistake

    • D. 

      Mishap

  • 9. 
    Personnel assigned to the priority III routine category should be evacuated within how many hours?
    • A. 

      2

    • B. 

      4

    • C. 

      12

    • D. 

      24

  • 10. 
    What may be the most dangerous type of improved explosive devise?
    • A. 

      Static

    • B. 

      Roadside

    • C. 

      Vehicle-borne

    • D. 

      Romote detonated

  • 11. 
    Who directs US forces to respond rapidly to certain crises either unilaterlly or as part of an interagency and/or multinational effort?
    • A. 

      President only

    • B. 

      Secretary of defense only

    • C. 

      President or secretary of defense

    • D. 

      President or defense force commander

  • 12. 
    Which operation is principally conducted to evacuate US citizens
    • A. 

      Recovery

    • B. 

      Peace

    • C. 

      Peace enforcement

    • D. 

      Noncompatant evacuation

  • 13. 
    Which operation may be clandestine, covery, or overt depending on whether the operational environment is hostile, uncertain, or permissive?
    • A. 

      Foreign humanitarian assistance

    • B. 

      Consequence management

    • C. 

      Homeland defense

    • D. 

      Recovery

  • 14. 
    Which intelligence collection often may provide the most useful source of information
    • A. 

      OSINT

    • B. 

      COMINT

    • C. 

      HUMINT

    • D. 

      INFOMINT

  • 15. 
    Force protection measures will be planned according with
    • A. 

      Determination of the force

    • B. 

      The risk to the force

    • C. 

      Location of the force

    • D. 

      Size of the force

  • 16. 
    Which type of attack may involve an insider threat?
    • A. 

      Standoff attack

    • B. 

      Penetration attack

    • C. 

      Information operation

    • D. 

      Chemical, biological attack

  • 17. 
    Which agency is the lead for terrorist incidents that occur outside the US?
    • A. 

      Department of state

    • B. 

      Department of justice

    • C. 

      Department of defense

    • D. 

      Federal bureau of investigation

  • 18. 
    The tactic terrorist groups use most commonly is?
    • A. 

      Arson

    • B. 

      Bombing

    • C. 

      Highjacking

    • D. 

      Kidnapping and hostage taking

  • 19. 
    Active terrorist groups are organized into cells that can be as small as two people or as large as?
    • A. 

      5-10

    • B. 

      10-15

    • C. 

      25-30

    • D. 

      35-40

  • 20. 
    Which individual/groups promote their cause by and means and are ideologically inspired?
    • A. 

      Crimanals or professionals

    • B. 

      Emotionally disturbed

    • C. 

      Passive soldiers

    • D. 

      Crusaders

  • 21. 
    What threat level assessment indicates anti-US terrorists are operationally active and use large casualty-producing attacks as their preferred method of operation?
    • A. 

      Moderate

    • B. 

      Significant

    • C. 

      High

    • D. 

      Low

  • 22. 
    The key distinction between an insurgency and other types of movements is the decision to use?
    • A. 

      Violence to achieve political goals

    • B. 

      Violence to achieve religious goals

    • C. 

      Non-violence to achieve political goals

    • D. 

      Use violence to achieve ideological goals

  • 23. 
    COIN operations require leaders to exhibit?
    • A. 

      Fairness, firmness and fight

    • B. 

      Logic, lotalty, and leadership

    • C. 

      Patience, persistence, and presence

    • D. 

      Cooperation, cohesiveness, and confidence

  • 24. 
    To avoid detection by the government how wil insurgents operate?
    • A. 

      Underground

    • B. 

      In disguise

    • C. 

      In small bands

    • D. 

      During the hours of darkness

  • 25. 
    Which agency was created by a formal agreement between two or more governments?
    • A. 

      Multinational corporation

    • B. 

      Governmental organization

    • C. 

      Host nation security council

    • D. 

      Intergovernmental organization

  • 26. 
    Which agency is the most notable integovernmental organization?
    • A. 

      The united nations

    • B. 

      The world hunger league

    • C. 

      United nations children fund

    • D. 

      The american federation of labor and congress of industrial organizations

  • 27. 
    Aerial ports of debarkation, border crossings and seaports af debarkation are all examples of key
    • A. 

      Terrain issues

    • B. 

      Logistical issues

    • C. 

      Sovereignty issues

    • D. 

      Transportation issues

  • 28. 
    Which base is austerely manned but is capable of expanding into a full scale air base operations?
    • A. 

      Bare base

    • B. 

      Limited base

    • C. 

      Main operating base

    • D. 

      Forward operating base

  • 29. 
    What do peacetime or contingency operations require when planning how and where to use security forces unit UTC?
    • A. 

      Time

    • B. 

      Money

    • C. 

      Manning

    • D. 

      Flexibility

  • 30. 
    During base defense operations what does the DFC use staff control tools for?
    • A. 

      Control the traffic flow plan

    • B. 

      Ensure all equipment is functioning properly

    • C. 

      Make sure the office is maintained and kept neat and orderly

    • D. 

      Disseminate his or hre orders and manage the base defense opertaions plan

  • 31. 
    An effective tool to control integrated defense operation is?
    • A. 

      Charts and forms

    • B. 

      Base sectorization

    • C. 

      Staff control tools

    • D. 

      Military symbology

  • 32. 
    What should a flight sector sketch show?
    • A. 

      Main terrain feature in the sector of fire and the ranges to them

    • B. 

      Flight and squadron identifications

    • C. 

      Squad leader positions

    • D. 

      True south

  • 33. 
    In what year did the Geneva Conventions become effective?
    • A. 

      1955

    • B. 

      1956

    • C. 

      1957

    • D. 

      1958

  • 34. 
    Why is speed essential when processing captives, detainees, and prisoners?
    • A. 

      Keeping the prisoners silent is important

    • B. 

      To ensure the safety of defectors and deserters

    • C. 

      The intelligence a CDP brings is time sensitive

    • D. 

      CDPs must be tagged before evacuating to the rear

  • 35. 
    The safe operating distance of radio frequency transmitters around refueling locations is?
    • A. 

      20 meters

    • B. 

      30 meters

    • C. 

      40 meters

    • D. 

      50 meters

  • 36. 
    To avoid receiving an electrical shock when disconnecting the battery from the electronic security system(ESS)?
    • A. 

      Remove the negative lead first

    • B. 

      Remove the positive lead first

    • C. 

      It doesn't matter which lead you remove first

    • D. 

      Secure the positive lead first and then the negative

  • 37. 
    Which function provides transmission of data between the TASS sensors and annunciators?
    • A. 

      Power

    • B. 

      Annunciation

    • C. 

      Communications

    • D. 

      Response frequenct

  • 38. 
    What security system consists of a variety of sensors, repeaters, and a hand held display monitor?
    • A. 

      MILES

    • B. 

      TMS

    • C. 

      ESS

    • D. 

      BISS

  • 39. 
    A scanning method known as the self preservation method of search lasts approximately?
    • A. 

      90Sec

    • B. 

      60 Sec

    • C. 

      45 Sec

    • D. 

      30 Sec

  • 40. 
    When marking targets, the more effective means of delivering accurate fire is?
    • A. 

      Spacing

    • B. 

      Aining point

    • C. 

      Reference point

    • D. 

      Range determination

  • 41. 
    What is the greatest limitation in using the 100 meters method of range determination?
    • A. 

      Observer proficiency requires constant practice

    • B. 

      SF member must pace the range to see if his estimation is correct

    • C. 

      Underestimating sloping ground gives the illusion of a greater distance

    • D. 

      Accuracy is directly related to amount of terrain visible to the observor

  • 42. 
    How does the observore use off center vision when viewing an object during limited visibility?
    • A. 

      Look 5 degrees above, below or to either side rather then directily at it

    • B. 

      Look 10 degrees above, below or to either side rather then directily at it

    • C. 

      Look 15 degrees above, below rather then directily at it

    • D. 

      Look 20 degrees to either side rather then directily at it

  • 43. 
    If you adapted to the dark before donning goggles, you will gain full dark adaption within how many minutes after removing the goggles?
    • A. 

      8

    • B. 

      5

    • C. 

      4

    • D. 

      2

  • 44. 
    When burying the TMS magnetic sensor, how deep perpendicular to the avenue of approach must you bury the magnetic sensor head?
    • A. 

      2 to 4 inches

    • B. 

      4 to 6 inches

    • C. 

      6 to 8 inches

    • D. 

      8 to 10 inches

  • 45. 
    The components that make up the tactical miniature sensor active infrared detection sensor are?
    • A. 

      Ab enutter head with battery case, sensor head, and transmitter

    • B. 

      A seismic head with battery case, sensor head, and transmitter

    • C. 

      A transformer head, infrared sensor head and transmitter

    • D. 

      An emission head with battery case, sensor head, and transmitter

  • 46. 
    The Elec 864M1E long-range passive infrared sensors detection capability can be degraded in?
    • A. 

      In snowy conditions

    • B. 

      Dense fog

    • C. 

      Rainy weather

    • D. 

      Bright sunlight

  • 47. 
    What is the WSTI used for?
    • A. 

      Alarm annunciation and visual inspection

    • B. 

      Sensor identification and recognition

    • C. 

      To assess the alarms of a sensor activation

    • D. 

      Boundary protection

  • 48. 
    How many people are required to set up the wide area surveillance thermal imager tripod?
    • A. 

      1

    • B. 

      2

    • C. 

      3

    • D. 

      4

  • 49. 
    From where are do all operational command and controls performed from?
    • A. 

      DCU

    • B. 

      DCS

    • C. 

      JCU

    • D. 

      BDOC

  • 50. 
    The primary purpose of the LRTI-CCTV is to?
    • A. 

      Provide full color imagery and video

    • B. 

      Provide communication and data to the base defense operation center

    • C. 

      Allow you to view the enemy from long distances

    • D. 

      Assess alarms annunciating from the TASS system

  • 51. 
    Which major component on the AN/PVS-4 is adjusted for variations in the user's eyesight?
    • A. 

      Objective lens assembly

    • B. 

      Eyepiece assemply

    • C. 

      Eye guard

    • D. 

      Optical lens

  • 52. 
    What are the components of the AN/PVS 7 night vision goggle?
    • A. 

      Facemask and goggle

    • B. 

      Head assembly, de-mist shields, and goggle

    • C. 

      Head-mount assembly, sacrificial window and goggle

    • D. 

      Head mount assembly, sacrificial window,and de mist shields

  • 53. 
    What part of the AN/PVS 7 night vision goggle does the sacrificial window protect
    • A. 

      Battery compartment

    • B. 

      Rubber eye cups

    • C. 

      Glass lens

    • D. 

      Sight lens

  • 54. 
    The level of performance for the AN/PVS-14 depends upon the level of?
    • A. 

      Atmosphere pressure

    • B. 

      Terrain

    • C. 

      Light

    • D. 

      Air

  • 55. 
    On the AN/PVS-14 night vision device what enables the operator to see azimuth readings in the monocular?
    • A. 

      Compass

    • B. 

      De-mist shield

    • C. 

      Tethering cord

    • D. 

      Sacrigicial window

  • 56. 
    On the AN/PVS-14 night vision device what adjusts the distance between your eye and the monocular?
    • A. 

      Eye relief adjustment

    • B. 

      Diopter adjustment

    • C. 

      Gain control

    • D. 

      Optic knob

  • 57. 
    The hand held thermal imager powers on in what mode?
    • A. 

      Manuel override

    • B. 

      Manual

    • C. 

      Auto

    • D. 

      Sleep

  • 58. 
    During offensive and defensive operations, what determines when you should change your camouflage?
    • A. 

      The amount of artificial camouflage available

    • B. 

      The amount of natural camouflage available

    • C. 

      The weather and type of material used

    • D. 

      If the enemy has spotted your position