Security Forces CDC Vol 1
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- 1.As a result of the reorganization of the War Department in 1943, which office was established?
- A.
Military Aviation Companies
- B.
Air Provost Marshal
- C.
Military Police Guard Companies
- D.
Air Police Companies
- 2.
- A.
Army Air Force
- B.
Procost Marshal
- C.
Air Police
- D.
Air Base
- 3.On 1 September 1950, which organization was established at Tyndall AFB, Florida?
- A.
Air Police School
- B.
Air Leaders School
- C.
Corp training office
- D.
Base Defense academy
- 4.What happened to the air bases located in the forward areas during the Korean War?
- A.
Commanders relocated them to provide logistics support the naval forces
- B.
They were suddenly overrun by the enemy
- C.
Air base personnel merged with and assisted troops on the front lines
- D.
Nothing, because they were too far from the front lines to do so
- 5.When was the ban lifted on women entering the security field?
- A.
Jan 1985
- B.
Jan 1986
- C.
Feb 1987
- D.
Dec 1989
- 6.In Oct 1977, the security specialists, law enforcement specialists, and combat arms training and maintenance career fields merged into one career field that
- A.
Was renamed Security Police units
- B.
Was reorganized under services support
- C.
Received increased funding for deployments
- D.
Was redesignated as Security Forces
- 7.Which operation was launched against the Taliban in Dec 2001?
- A.
Enduring Freedom
- B.
Ensuring Freedom
- C.
Noble Eagle
- D.
Iraqi Freedom
- 8.You may display the Security Forces emblem and shield together when
- A.
You are wearing your mess dress only
- B.
Authorized by the wing commander
- C.
Directed by the Chief, Security Forces
- D.
Doing so enhances the career field image
- 9.Which statement describes our Security Forces symbol?
- A.
Eagle over crossed runways
- B.
Falcon over crossed swords
- C.
Falcon over crossed runways
- D.
Eagle over crossed M-16A2s
- 10.In what year was the first trial issue of the shield approved?
- A.
1943
- B.
1945
- C.
1950
- D.
1957
- 11.Security Forces members wear distinguishing uniforms items because
- A.
Other personnel need to readily identify SF members during crisis situations
- B.
Without these items, they could be misunderstood for the enemy personnel during time of war
- C.
They work in adverse weather conditions and these uniform items keep them warm and dry
- D.
They work with weapons
- 12.As part of a more distinctive uniform, Security Forces personnel wear a beret with a Defensor Fortis flash, which
- A.
Identifies us to foreign forces as Security personnel
- B.
Is a distinguishing uniform item designed to deter aggression
- C.
Identifies SF as an elite group charged with protecting the Air Force worldwide
- D.
Is directly related to the special forces beret and patches used during the Vietnam war
- 13.The beret is properly worn when the headband is straight across the forehead and
- A.
Tilted slightly to the rear
- B.
1 in above the eyebrows
- C.
1 in above the tip of the nose
- D.
1 – ½ in above the eyebrows
- 14.What Air Force specialty code is awarded to Security Forces members upon completion of the military working dog (MWD) handler apprentice course?
- A.
7C031M
- B.
3P031B
- C.
3P031A
- D.
3MWDX1
- 15.What course is mandatory for award of the Air Force specialty code 3P051?
- A.
Security Forces (SF) leaders’ course
- B.
SF Journeyman career development course
- C.
SF apprentice course
- D.
Law Enforcement 101 through Community College of the Air Force
- 16.You must complete Airman Leadership School prior to
- A.
Testing for your career development courses
- B.
Assuming the rank of staff sergeant
- C.
Receiving the award of 5 – skill level
- D.
Becoming eligible for Weighted Airman Promotion System testing
- 17.The Code of Conduct is a guide for actions during
- A.
Contingency operations
- B.
Peacekeeping operations
- C.
War and as a prisoner of war
- D.
Military operations other than war
- 18.Which Article of the Code of Conduct states, “I will never surrender of my own free will.”
- A.
Article II
- B.
Article IV
- C.
Article VI
- D.
Articles of War
- 19.Which Code of Conduct Article are you following if you continuously attempt to escape?
- A.
Article I
- B.
Article III
- C.
General order 10
- D.
Principles of Conduct
- 20.Your conduct when apprehending suspects should be in accordance with
- A.
AFI 31 – 205, The Air Force Corrections Program
- B.
AFI 31 – 206, Security Forces Investigation Program
- C.
AFI 31 – 117, Arming and Use of Force by Air Force Personnel
- D.
AFI 31 – 301, Air Base Defense
- 21.Which Section acts as the liaison between the unit, base supply, hazardous materials, General Services Administration, and Defense Reutilization Marketing Office?
- A.
Chief, Security Forces
- B.
S1 Admin
- C.
S4S Supply
- D.
S4V Vehicles
- 22.When providing missile field security, how often do you test alarm systems to ensure operational capabilities of the security system?
- A.
Weekly
- B.
Bi-monthly
- C.
Monthly
- D.
As necessary
- 23.When the launch facility (LF) is penetrated or unlocked, or a pay loader with a weapon is present, the LF is designated as
- A.
An exclusion area
- B.
A launch facility flight
- C.
A limited area
- D.
A missile alert facility
- 24.The authority, capacity, power, and right of the military to police their own is known as
- A.
Military presence
- B.
Military jurisdiction
- C.
Legal precedence
- D.
Military law
- 25.Federal statutes are laws passed by congress, and these laws are contained in the
- A.
Bilateral and multilateral agreements
- B.
Statutes of Forces Agreements
- C.
US Constitution
- D.
US Code
- 26.Through discussions, which international law was reached at The Hague and Geneva Convention?
- A.
Law of Armed Conflict (LOAC)
- B.
Manual for Courts-Martial Title 10 statutes
- C.
Statutes of Forces Agreements
- D.
Rules of war
- 27.Military jurisdiction stems from
- A.
International laws
- B.
Legal sources
- C.
Senate proclamation
- D.
Manual for courts-martial
- 28.
- A.
77
- B.
5
- C.
2
- D.
1
- 29.Article 5 of the Uniform Code of Military Justice (UCMJ) states that the UCMJ
- A.
Applies everywhere
- B.
Does no apply on ships
- C.
Is the sole legal military authority
- D.
Applies to civilians who commit crimes on base
- 30.If a person subject to military law commits an offense overseas, that person
- A.
Must be tried overseas
- B.
Is not subject to the UCMJ
- C.
Can be tried in the US and vice versa
- D.
May choose to be court-martialed by a civilian authority
- 31.The punitive articles of the UCMJ are
- A.
1 through 5
- B.
2 and 5
- C.
6 through 76
- D.
77 through 134
- 32.The types of jurisdiction found on US government installations are
- A.
Concurrent, current proprietary
- B.
Partial, exclusive, bilateral, concurrent
- C.
Exclusive, concurrent, partial, and proprietary
- D.
Exclusive, concurrent, proprietary, and multilateral
- 33.The federal government has sole authority to enforce the law on installations
- A.
When the government has exclusive jurisdiction
- B.
When partial jurisdiction exists
- C.
Under proprietary jurisdiction
- D.
Located in overseas area
- 34.Under concurrent jurisdiction,
- A.
State laws are not enforced
- B.
The state has property rights only
- C.
The federal government has no authority
- D.
Both the state and federal government have authority
- 35.As a form of administration, where can an occupying power exercises all executive, legislative, and judicial authority over an occupied territory, it is known as a
- A.
Proprietary government
- B.
Military government
- C.
Nationalist regime
- D.
Military state
- 36.Which branch of the military has the primary responsibility of operations and administration during military government?
- A.
US Navy
- B.
US Air Force
- C.
US Army
- D.
Coast Guard
- 37.During qualified martial law, security forces members have the authority to
- A.
Enforce civilian laws
- B.
Apprehend civilians
- C.
Detain civilians; not apprehend
- D.
Apply military law to civilians
- 38.Which article of the UCMJ gives Security Forces members the authority to issue lawful orders while executing their duties?
- A.
2
- B.
5
- C.
92
- D.
77 - 134
- 39.In order to preserve law and order, Title 18, Section 1382 of the US Code authorizes Security Forces to
- A.
Act in an official law enforcement capacity off-base
- B.
Apprehend civilians for on-base offenses
- C.
Release military offenders to supervisors
- D.
Detain civilians for on-base offenses
- 40.Which right could you invoke when apprehending a person who, in your presence, commits a crime amounting to breach of the peace?
- A.
Right to bear arms
- B.
Title 10, US Code
- C.
Self-defense right
- D.
Citizens right of arrest
- 41.
- A.
A division of the sheriff’s office where the personnel enforced local town laws
- B.
A summons for all able-bodied males of the country to aid the sheriff in keeping the peace or to pursue criminals
- C.
An additional duty for Army troops
- D.
A band of US Marshals who gathered together to find criminals
- 42.The military working dog’s greatest advantage to Security Forces is their
- A.
Keen sight and ability to track individuals
- B.
Presence deters airborne insertion of enemy troops
- C.
Ability to deter aggressive acts against entry controllers
- D.
Superior ability to detect individual, particularly during periods of reduced visibility
- 43.Military working dogs should be kept on leash except when they must
- A.
Search occupied buildings only
- B.
Bite and hold multiple suspects only
- C.
Search unoccupied buildings and disperse crowds
- D.
Bite and hold a suspect or search an unoccupied building
- 44.Before releasing a military working dog to search a building, the dog handler must
- A.
Give a verbal warning stating they are about to release the dog
- B.
Loudly announce their intentions to order the dog to bite
- C.
Place the military working dog on a leash
- D.
Have the dog bark three times
- 45.What commands must the military working dog obey prior to being assigned to operational duties?
- A.
SIT and STAY
- B.
OUT and SIT
- C.
OUT and HEEL
- D.
BITE and OFF
- 46.Military working dog teams can be effectively employed in almost every aspect of a unit’s
- A.
Security and air base defense
- B.
Air base defense VIP security
- C.
Law enforcement and air base defense
- D.
Law enforcement, security, and contingency operations
- 47.Military working dog teams used in law enforcement activities provide an effective
- A.
Psychological deterrent
- B.
Mobile flightline force multiplier
- C.
Base defense detection capability
- D.
Replacement for base sensor systems
- 48.The military working dog’s greatest advantage during security operations is
- A.
Its ability to see through thick fog and rainy conditions
- B.
Detection capabilities during periods of limited visibility
- C.
The team’s ability to work alone
- D.
Its quick response capability
- 49.Under ideal conditions, at what distance can the military working dog detect intruders?
- A.
50 yards
- B.
75 yards
- C.
100 yards
- D.
250 yards
- 50.What is the military working dog team’s role when the riot control team is apprehending demonstrators?
- A.
Protect member of the apprehension team
- B.
Disperse the remaining crowd off-leash
- C.
Bite and hold demonstrators
- D.
Apprehend rioters
- 51.During peacetime operations within the US territory, do not confuse Rules of Engagement with
- A.
Law of Armed Conflict (LOAC)
- B.
Rules for Use of Force
- C.
Operational Orders
- D.
Operations Plans
- 52.Proportionality of force to counter hostile acts must be
- A.
Of reasonable intensity, duration, and magnitude
- B.
Of the maximum durations under rules of war
- C.
Of the appropriate nonlethal means
- D.
Used only in defense of foreign nationals
- 53.A written order issued by a competent military command authority to an authorized person to conduct a search is called a
- A.
Consent search
- B.
Search warrant
- C.
Command authorization
- D.
Search authorization
- 54.Search authorizations are based upon
- A.
Free search rules
- B.
Probable cause
- C.
Evidentiary value
- D.
Trial admissibility
- 55.Who cannot be given power to authorize search and seizure?
- A.
Group commander
- B.
Wing commander
- C.
Squadron commander
- D.
Chief, Security Forces (CSF), and Staff Judge Advocate
- 56.Who can issue off-base search procedures in foreign countries?
- A.
Air Force installation commanders
- B.
Joint rear area commanders
- C.
Staff Judge Advocate
- D.
US magistrate
- 57.What form is used to document a search authorization?
- A.
AF Form 52
- B.
AF Form 1364
- C.
AF Form 1176
- D.
Search Affidavit
- 58.The taking of items by authorities for evidence at courts-martial is called
- A.
Seizure
- B.
Searching
- C.
Search affidavit
- D.
Obtaining evidence
- 59.A search affidavit of “probable cause” supports your request for
- A.
Authorization to search and seize
- B.
Consent to search
- C.
Plain view seizure
- D.
Authority to courts-martial
- 60.Government property requires search authorization when the
- A.
Property was seized illegally
- B.
Property was originally seized as abandoned
- C.
Person to whom the property was issued gives right to consent
- D.
Person issued the property has the reasonable expectation of privacy
- 61.If you ask a person to grant consent for a search and they state, “Okay if I have to,” what are your actions?
- A.
Restate the request and ask for a yes or no answer
- B.
Accept the answer and begin searching
- C.
Have the person sign the AF Form 1176
- D.
Search only for property on the person
- 62.Probable cause is not required when searching as a result of
- A.
Speeding violations
- B.
Lawful apprehensions
- C.
Dress and appearance violations
- D.
The execution of a search authorization
- 63.Which is not the purpose of an interview?
- A.
Gain information
- B.
Establish the facts of a crime
- C.
Develop background information
- D.
Interrogate witness to gain information
- 64.What are the common reasons for an interviewee’s reluctance to talk?
- A.
Bias toward police, resentment, and fear of involvement
- B.
Inconvenience, resentment, and fear of involvement
- C.
Fear of involvement and bias toward police
- D.
Resentment and inconvenience
- 65.If a same-sex Security Forces member cannot be present during an interview,
- A.
Have a second investigator present
- B.
Reschedule when a same-sex SF member is available
- C.
The investigator should continue the interview alone
- D.
Stop the interview and release the witness as unreliable
- 66.What are the interviewee classifications?
- A.
Victim, witness and caller
- B.
Suspect, victim, witness, and caller
- C.
Complainant, victim, suspect, and caller
- D.
Witness, victim, complainant, and suspect
- 67.Which interviewee is interviewed to develop facts in an investigation?
- A.
Suspects
- B.
Victim
- C.
Witnesses
- D.
Prosecutors
- 68.The four-step interview process includes preparing, planning, closing, and
- A.
Conducting
- B.
Witnessing
- C.
Investigating
- D.
Interrogating
- 69.Determining a time and place to interview it the first step in
- A.
Closing
- B.
Planning
- C.
Preparation
- D.
Conducting
- 70.What approach is primarily used to interrogate?
- A.
Bad cop, good cop
- B.
Indirect
- C.
Alternating
- D.
Direct
- 71.Investigative notes should contain the case number, date, person interviewed, and
- A.
Location of incident
- B.
Other investigators
- C.
Time of interview
- D.
Room number
- 72.Investigators will conduct pretrial preparation with
- A.
The Chief, Security Forces
- B.
The staff judge advocate
- C.
Witnesses to the case
- D.
The victim and suspect
- 73.Which of the following is a simple courtroom rule Security Forces members follow?
- A.
Do not talk to court members
- B.
Chew gum to calm yourself
- C.
Smoke when you feel the need
- D.
Discuss the case with witnesses during breaks
- 74.When should you give your opinion during court proceedings?
- A.
During pretrial preparation
- B.
When answering prosecution questions
- C.
Only if asked to do so by the prosecution or defense
- D.
Always resent your professional opinion as fact
- 75.The budget program operates on fiscal year basis beginning the first day of
- A.
July and ending on 30 June
- B.
August and ending 30 July
- C.
September and ending on 30 August
- D.
October and ending on 30 September
- 76.What two Air Force documents help you manage manpower resources?
- A.
Career Field Education and Training Plan (CFETP) and Unit Manpower Document (UMD)
- B.
Specialty Training Standard (STS) and Unit Personnel Management Roster (UPMR)
- C.
Unit Manpower Document (UMD) and Unit Personnel Management Roster (UPMR)
- D.
Career Field Education and Training Plan (CFETP) and Specialty Training Standard (STS)
- 77.The UMD is the primary document that reflects the
- A.
Air Force Specialty Code (AFSC)
- B.
Member’s personnel readiness program (PRP) status
- C.
Individual position number
- D.
Positions authorized to accomplish the mission
- 78.Supply discipline is mandatory in order to
- A.
Store, maintain, operate, and dispense materials on an as-needed basis
- B.
Operate, dispense, and protect government bench stock items for future resale
- C.
Maintain adequate stock levels, deplete old supplies, and free up necessary storage areas
- D.
Conserve, protect and maintain available government supplies, equipment, and real property
- 79.Which of the following is not a general classification of supply items?
- A.
Equipment authorized inventory data (EAID)
- B.
Custodian authorization/custody receipt listing (CA/CRL)
- C.
Unit Personnel Management Roster (UPMR)
- D.
Non-EAID
- 80.Collective actions executed quickly without applying a deliberate decision-making process describes
- A.
Individual skills training
- B.
Collective skills training
- C.
Augmentation drills
- D.
Battle drills
- 81.Under the Stan/Eval program. Unit functional areas are inspected once
- A.
A month
- B.
Every 12 months
- C.
Every 6 months
- D.
A quarter
- 82.Duty positions in direct support of nuclear resources are designated as
- A.
Congressionally mandated
- B.
Contingency
- C.
Controlled
- D.
Critical
- 83.Within how many duty days after an individual completes qualification training with the Stan/Evals be conducted?
- A.
120
- B.
90
- C.
60
- D.
30
- 84.Under the National Law Enforcement Telecommunications System (NLETS) program, where is the communications terminal located?
- A.
On a stand-alone computer
- B.
At authorized SF control centers
- C.
At the SF law enforcement desk
- D.
On all SF members’ individual desks
- 85.Who enters information about lost or stolen firearms into the National Crime Information Center (NCIC)?
- A.
Air Force Office of Special Investigations (AFOSI) personnel
- B.
Federal Bureau of Investigations (FBI) personnel
- C.
Security Forces Manager (SFM)
- D.
Chief of Security Forces (CSF)
- 86.Within how many months after qualification training must Security Forces and battlefield Airmen complete unit live-fire sustainment training on their primary weapon?
- A.
One to three
- B.
Two to four
- C.
Three to six
- D.
Five to seven
- 87.Which AF Form is used for personnel who use firearms on a temporary basis?
- A.
522 Ground Weapon Training Data
- B.
629, Small Arms Hand Receipt
- C.
1297, Temporary Issue Receipt
- D.
797, Job Qualification Standard
- 88.The use of pro-words in radio communication help
- A.
Aid in transmitting and reception
- B.
Clarify understanding of the message being sent
- C.
Distract and confuse unauthorized listeners
- D.
Shorten transmissions and facilitate message reception
- 89.Persons will not be tasked to supervise inmates if they
- A.
Are of the same sex as inmate
- B.
Are of the opposite sex of the inmate
- C.
Have an unfavorable information file
- D.
Are personally involved with the inmate
- 90.A level II facility can house inmates serving a confinement sentence up to how many years?
- A.
5
- B.
7
- C.
10
- D.
15
- 91.Inmates are ordered into confinement utilizing which DD form?
- A.
2707, Confinement Order
- B.
2708, Inmate fitness Certification
- C.
2711, Initial Custody Classification
- D.
2703, Inmate Classification Document
- 92.All inmates are assigned a custody status and classified as either
- A.
Pretrial detainee, post-trial detainee, or casual
- B.
Pretrial detainee or post-trial detainee
- C.
Post-trial inmate or trial inmate
- D.
Pretrial casual or casual
- 93.The two types of searches used in confinement facilities are
- A.
Complete and frisk
- B.
Simple and complete
- C.
Initial and simple searches
- D.
Compete and simple frisks
- 94.The automatic physical reaction to new, unpleasant, and threatening situations is known as
- A.
Stress
- B.
Flinch reflex
- C.
Defensive personality
- D.
Unconditional reaction
- 95.The main source of stress can be found in your
- A.
Personal life and job
- B.
Personal life and nightclubs
- C.
Job and recreational activities
- D.
Job and off-duty employment
- 96.What is the first step in finding ways to reduce stress?
- A.
Finding the right stress medication
- B.
Recognizing stressors
- C.
Running daily
- D.
Relaxing
- 97.A conscious intent to die by means believed to cause death is the definition of a/an
- A.
Suicidal gesture
- B.
Suicidal threat
- C.
Completed suicide
- D.
Attempted suicide
- 98.Microorganisms that are present in blood and cause disease are called
- A.
“A” cells
- B.
White blood cells
- C.
Cancer causing cells
- D.
Bloodborne pathogens
- 99.How far from bunkers, fighting positions, or contamination control areas should collection points be located?
- A.
20 feet and downwind
- B.
10 feet and downwind
- C.
20 feet and upwind
- D.
10 feet and upwind
- 100.What are the elements of self-defense according to the Rules of Engagement (ROE) with
- A.
Necessity and authority
- B.
Immediacy and controlled
- C.
Proportionality and necessity
- D.
Proportionality and immediacy
- 101.Which one do you like?
- A.
Option 1
- B.
Option 2
- C.
Option 3
- D.
Option 4
- 102.Which one do you like?
- A.
Option 1
- B.
Option 2
- C.
Option 3
- D.
Option 4
- 103.Which one do you like?
- A.
Option 1
- B.
Option 2
- C.
Option 3
- D.
Option 4
- 104.Select the ones you like
- A.
Option1
- B.
Option2
- C.
Option3
- D.
Option4
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