NCLEX RN Practice Questions 2 (Practice Mode) By RNpedia.Com

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Questions and Answers
  • 1. 

    A patient tells you that her urine is starting to look discolored. If you believe this change is due to medication, which of the following patient's medication does not cause urine discoloration?

    • A.

      Sulfasalazine

    • B.

      Levodopa

    • C.

      Phenolphthalein

    • D.

      Aspirin

    Correct Answer
    D. Aspirin
    Explanation
    Aspirin does not cause urine discoloration. While Sulfasalazine, Levodopa, and Phenolphthalein are known to cause urine discoloration as a side effect, Aspirin does not have this effect.

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  • 2. 

    You are responsible for reviewing the nursing unit's refrigerator. If you found the following drug in the refrigerator it should be removed from the refrigerator's contents?

    • A.

      Corgard

    • B.

      Humulin (injection)

    • C.

      Urokinase

    • D.

      Epogen (injection)

    Correct Answer
    A. Corgard
    Explanation
    Corgard should be removed from the refrigerator's contents because it is not a drug that requires refrigeration. Corgard is a medication used to treat high blood pressure and does not need to be stored in a refrigerator.

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  • 3. 

    A 34 year old female has recently been diagnosed with an autoimmune disease. She has also recently discovered that she is pregnant. Which of the following is the only immunoglobulin that will provide protection to the fetus in the womb?

    • A.

      IgA

    • B.

      IgD

    • C.

      IgE

    • D.

      IgG

    Correct Answer
    D. IgG
    Explanation
    During pregnancy, IgG is the only immunoglobulin that can provide protection to the fetus in the womb. IgG antibodies can cross the placenta and provide passive immunity to the developing fetus, helping to protect it against infections. This transfer of IgG from the mother to the fetus is crucial for the newborn's immune system, as it provides temporary protection until the baby's own immune system develops. IgA is mainly found in bodily secretions, while IgD is involved in the activation of B cells. IgE is associated with allergic reactions and parasitic infections.

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  • 4. 

    A second year nursing student has just suffered a needlestick while working with a patient that is positive for AIDS. Which of the following is the most important action that nursing student should take?

    • A.

      Immediately see a social worker

    • B.

      Start prophylactic AZT treatment

    • C.

      Start prophylactic Pentamide treatment

    • D.

      Seek counseling

    Correct Answer
    B. Start prophylactic AZT treatment
    Explanation
    The most important action for the nursing student to take after suffering a needlestick from a patient positive for AIDS is to start prophylactic AZT treatment. AZT, or zidovudine, is an antiretroviral medication that can help prevent HIV infection if taken soon after exposure. Starting this treatment immediately can significantly reduce the risk of transmission and potential development of AIDS. Seeking counseling and seeing a social worker may be important steps as well, but the immediate priority is to start the appropriate medical treatment. Prophylactic Pentamide treatment is not indicated for HIV exposure.

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  • 5. 

    A thirty five year old male has been an insulin-dependent diabetic for five years and now is unable to urinate. Which of the following would you most likely suspect?

    • A.

      Atherosclerosis

    • B.

      Diabetic nephropathy

    • C.

      Autonomic neuropathy

    • D.

      Somatic neuropathy

    Correct Answer
    C. Autonomic neuropathy
    Explanation
    Autonomic neuropathy is the most likely suspect in this case because it is a common complication of diabetes, especially in those who have been insulin-dependent for a long time. Autonomic neuropathy can affect the nerves that control the bladder, leading to urinary retention or inability to urinate. Atherosclerosis and diabetic nephropathy are not typically associated with urinary retention, and somatic neuropathy primarily affects the peripheral nerves, not the autonomic nerves that control bladder function.

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  • 6. 

    You are taking the history of a 14 year old girl who has a (BMI) of 18. The girl reports inability to eat, induced vomiting and severe constipation. Which of the following would you most likely suspect?

    • A.

      Multiple sclerosis

    • B.

      Anorexia nervosa

    • C.

      Bulimia

    • D.

      Systemic sclerosis

    Correct Answer
    B. Anorexia nervosa
    Explanation
    Given the girl's history of inability to eat, induced vomiting, and severe constipation, the most likely suspect would be anorexia nervosa. Anorexia nervosa is an eating disorder characterized by an intense fear of gaining weight, distorted body image, and self-imposed starvation. The symptoms described align with the typical manifestations of anorexia nervosa, such as restriction of food intake, purging behaviors, and gastrointestinal issues. Multiple sclerosis, bulimia, and systemic sclerosis do not typically present with these specific symptoms.

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  • 7. 

    A 24 year old female is admitted to the ER for confusion. This patient has a history of a myeloma diagnosis, constipation, intense abdominal pain, and polyuria. Which of the following would you most likely suspect?

    • A.

      Diverticulosis

    • B.

      Hypercalcaemia

    • C.

      Hypocalcaemia

    • D.

      Irritable bowel syndrome

    Correct Answer
    B. Hypercalcaemia
    Explanation
    Given the patient's symptoms of confusion, history of myeloma diagnosis, constipation, intense abdominal pain, and polyuria, the most likely suspect would be hypercalcaemia. Hypercalcaemia is a condition characterized by high levels of calcium in the blood, which can cause confusion, constipation, abdominal pain, and increased urine production. These symptoms are commonly seen in patients with myeloma, a type of cancer that can lead to increased calcium levels. Diverticulosis, hypocalcaemia, and irritable bowel syndrome are less likely to cause all of these symptoms in this specific clinical scenario.

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  • 8. 

    Rho gam is most often used to treat____ mothers that have a ____ infant.

    • A.

      RH positive, RH positive

    • B.

      RH positive, RH negative

    • C.

      RH negative, RH positive

    • D.

      RH negative, RH negative

    Correct Answer
    C. RH negative, RH positive
    Explanation
    Rho gam is most often used to treat RH negative mothers that have a RH positive infant. This is because when a RH negative mother carries a RH positive baby, there is a risk of the mother's immune system producing antibodies against the baby's blood. Rho gam is given to the mother to prevent the development of these antibodies and protect the baby's health.

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  • 9. 

    A new mother has some questions about (PKU). Which of the following statements made by a nurse is not correct regarding PKU?

    • A.

      A Guthrie test can check the necessary lab values.

    • B.

      The urine has a high concentration of phenylpyruvic acid

    • C.

      Mental deficits are often present with PKU.

    • D.

      The effects of PKU are reversible.

    Correct Answer
    D. The effects of PKU are reversible.
    Explanation
    PKU (Phenylketonuria) is a genetic disorder that affects the body's ability to process an amino acid called phenylalanine. If left untreated, PKU can lead to severe intellectual disability and other health problems. The effects of PKU are not reversible, meaning that once the damage is done, it cannot be undone. Treatment for PKU involves a strict low-phenylalanine diet, which can help prevent further complications, but it cannot reverse the existing effects of the disorder.

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  • 10. 

    A patient has taken an overdose of aspirin. Which of the following should a nurse most closely monitor for during acute management of this patient?

    • A.

      Onset of pulmonary edema

    • B.

      Metabolic alkalosis

    • C.

      Respiratory alkalosis

    • D.

      Parkinson's disease type symptoms

    Correct Answer
    D. Parkinson's disease type symptoms
    Explanation
    Aspirin overdose can lead to a condition known as salicylate toxicity, which can cause various neurological symptoms resembling Parkinson's disease. These symptoms include tremors, muscle rigidity, and changes in movement. Therefore, it is important for the nurse to closely monitor the patient for the onset of these Parkinson's disease type symptoms during the acute management of aspirin overdose.

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  • 11. 

    A fifty-year-old blind and deaf patient has been admitted to your floor. As the charge nurse your primary responsibility for this patient is?

    • A.

      Let others know about the patient's deficits

    • B.

      Communicate with your supervisor your concerns about the patient's deficits.

    • C.

      Continuously update the patient on the social environment.

    • D.

      Provide a secure environment for the patient.

    Correct Answer
    D. Provide a secure environment for the patient.
    Explanation
    The primary responsibility of the charge nurse for a blind and deaf patient is to provide a secure environment. This is important because the patient is unable to see or hear, making them vulnerable to accidents or harm. By ensuring a secure environment, the charge nurse can prevent potential hazards and ensure the patient's safety.

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  • 12. 

    A patient is getting discharged from a SNF facility. The patient has a history of severe COPD and PVD. The patient is primarily concerned about their ability to breath easily. Which of the following would be the best instruction for this patient?

    • A.

      Deep breathing techniques to increase O2 levels.

    • B.

      Cough regularly and deeply to clear airway passages.

    • C.

      Cough following bronchodilator utilization

    • D.

      Decrease CO2 levels by increase oxygen take output during meals.

    Correct Answer
    C. Cough following bronchodilator utilization
    Explanation
    Coughing following bronchodilator utilization would be the best instruction for this patient. Bronchodilators help to relax the airway muscles and improve airflow, making it easier for the patient to breathe. Coughing after using a bronchodilator can help to clear the airway passages and remove any mucus or phlegm that may be blocking them, further improving the patient's ability to breathe easily.

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  • 13. 

    A nurse is caring for an infant that has recently been diagnosed with a congenital heart defect. Which of the following clinical signs would most likely be present?

    • A.

      Slow pulse rate

    • B.

      Weight gain

    • C.

      Decreased systolic pressure

    • D.

      Irregular WBC lab values

    Correct Answer
    B. Weight gain
    Explanation
    Infants with congenital heart defects often experience difficulty in feeding due to inadequate blood flow to the body. This can lead to poor weight gain or failure to thrive. Therefore, weight gain is the most likely clinical sign to be present in an infant with a congenital heart defect.

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  • 14. 

    A mother has recently been informed that her child has Down's syndrome. You will be assigned to care for the child at shift change. Which of the following characteristics is not associated with Down's syndrome?

    • A.

      Simian crease

    • B.

      Brachycephaly

    • C.

      Oily skin

    • D.

      Hypotonicity

    Correct Answer
    C. Oily skin
    Explanation
    Oily skin is not associated with Down's syndrome. Down's syndrome is a genetic disorder caused by the presence of an extra copy of chromosome 21. It is characterized by certain physical and intellectual disabilities. Common physical characteristics of Down's syndrome include a simian crease (a single crease across the palm), brachycephaly (a short and wide head shape), and hypotonicity (low muscle tone). However, oily skin is not typically associated with Down's syndrome.

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  • 15. 

    A patient has recently experienced a (MI) within the last 4 hours. Which of the following medications would most like be administered?

    • A.

      Streptokinase

    • B.

      Atropine

    • C.

      Acetaminophen

    • D.

      Coumadin

    Correct Answer
    A. Streptokinase
    Explanation
    A patient who has recently experienced a myocardial infarction (MI) within the last 4 hours would most likely be administered streptokinase. Streptokinase is a clot-busting medication that helps dissolve blood clots in the arteries of the heart. It is commonly used in the treatment of acute MI to restore blood flow to the affected area of the heart and prevent further damage. Atropine is a medication used to increase heart rate, acetaminophen is a pain reliever, and coumadin is an anticoagulant medication used for long-term prevention of blood clots.

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  • 16. 

    A patient asks a nurse, “My doctor recommended I increase my intake of folic acid. What type of foods contain folic acids?”

    • A.

      Green vegetables and liver

    • B.

      Yellow vegetables and red meat

    • C.

      Carrots

    • D.

      Milk

    Correct Answer
    A. Green vegetables and liver
    Explanation
    Green vegetables and liver are good sources of folic acid. Folic acid is a B-vitamin that is important for the production and maintenance of new cells in the body. It is especially important for pregnant women as it helps prevent certain birth defects of the baby's brain and spine. Green vegetables such as spinach, broccoli, and asparagus are rich in folic acid. Liver, particularly chicken liver, is also a good source of this vitamin. Including these foods in the diet can help increase folic acid intake.

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  • 17. 

    A nurse is putting together a presentation on meningitis. Which of the following microorganisms has noted been linked to meningitis in humans?

    • A.

      S. pneumonia

    • B.

      H. influenza

    • C.

      N. meningitis

    • D.

      Cl. difficile

    Correct Answer
    D. Cl. difficile
    Explanation
    Cl. difficile, also known as Clostridium difficile, is a bacterium that is not typically associated with causing meningitis in humans. It is primarily known for causing antibiotic-associated diarrhea and colitis. Meningitis is more commonly caused by other microorganisms such as Streptococcus pneumoniae, Haemophilus influenzae, and Neisseria meningitidis. Therefore, Cl. difficile is the correct answer as it is not linked to meningitis in humans.

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  • 18. 

    A nurse is administering blood to a patient who has a low hemoglobin count. The patient asks how long to RBC's last in my body? The correct response is.

    • A.

      The life span of RBC is 45 days.

    • B.

      The life span of RBC is 60 days.

    • C.

      The life span of RBC is 90 days.

    • D.

      The life span of RBC is 120 days.

    Correct Answer
    D. The life span of RBC is 120 days.
    Explanation
    Red blood cells (RBCs) have a lifespan of approximately 120 days. They are continuously produced in the bone marrow and are responsible for carrying oxygen to the body's tissues. After their lifespan, old RBCs are removed by the spleen and liver, and new ones are produced to replace them. Knowing the lifespan of RBCs is important for understanding the body's ability to maintain adequate oxygen supply and for diagnosing and treating conditions related to low hemoglobin count.

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  • 19. 

    A 65 year old man has been admitted to the hospital for spinal stenosis surgery. When does the discharge training and planning begin for this patient?

    • A.

      Following surgery

    • B.

      Upon admit

    • C.

      Within 48 hours of discharge

    • D.

      Preoperative discussion

    Correct Answer
    B. Upon admit
    Explanation
    Discharge training and planning for a patient undergoing spinal stenosis surgery begins upon admission to the hospital. This means that the healthcare team starts preparing the patient for their eventual discharge and provides them with the necessary information and resources to ensure a smooth transition from the hospital to home or another care setting. Starting the discharge planning early allows for a comprehensive assessment of the patient's needs and facilitates coordination of post-operative care.

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  • 20. 

    A child is 5 years old and has been recently admitted into the hospital. According to Erickson which of the following stages is the child in?

    • A.

      Trust vs. mistrust

    • B.

      Initiative vs. guilt

    • C.

      Autonomy vs. shame

    • D.

      Intimacy vs. isolation

    Correct Answer
    B. Initiative vs. guilt
    Explanation
    According to Erickson's psychosocial theory, the stage of Initiative vs. guilt occurs during the preschool years, typically between the ages of 3 and 6. During this stage, children begin to assert their independence and take initiative in their actions and decision-making. They may develop a sense of guilt if they feel they have done something wrong or if their actions have negative consequences. Given that the child in the question is 5 years old, it aligns with the Initiative vs. guilt stage.

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  • 21. 

    A toddler is 16 months old and has been recently admitted into the hospital. According to Erickson which of the following stages is the toddler in?

    • A.

      Trust vs. mistrust

    • B.

      Initiative vs. guilt

    • C.

      Autonomy vs. shame

    • D.

      Intimacy vs. isolation

    Correct Answer
    A. Trust vs. mistrust
    Explanation
    According to Erickson's psychosocial development theory, the stage that a toddler is in at 16 months old is Trust vs. mistrust. This stage occurs from birth to around 18 months old and focuses on the development of trust in the caregiver or environment. During this stage, the toddler learns to trust or mistrust their caregiver based on the consistency and responsiveness of their care. The toddler develops a sense of trust if their needs are consistently met, leading to a sense of security. On the other hand, if their needs are not consistently met, they may develop a sense of mistrust and insecurity.

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  • 22. 

    A young adult is 20 years old and has been recently admitted into the hospital. According to Erickson which of the following stages is the adult in?

    • A.

      Trust vs. mistrust

    • B.

      Initiative vs. guilt

    • C.

      Autonomy vs. shame

    • D.

      Intimacy vs. isolation

    Correct Answer
    D. Intimacy vs. isolation
    Explanation
    According to Erickson's psychosocial development theory, the stage of Intimacy vs. isolation occurs during young adulthood, typically between the ages of 20 and 40. This stage is characterized by the individual's desire to form close and meaningful relationships with others, both romantically and socially. They may seek to establish long-term commitments and develop intimate connections with others, while also facing the fear of rejection and isolation if they are unable to form these relationships.

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  • 23. 

    A nurse is making rounds taking vital signs. Which of the following vital signs is abnormal?

    • A.

      11 year old male – 90 b.p.m, 22 resp/min., 100/70 mm Hg

    • B.

      13 year old female – 105 b.p.m., 22 resp/min., 105/60 mm Hg

    • C.

      5 year old male- 102 b.p.m, 24 resp/min., 90/65 mm Hg

    • D.

      6 year old female- 100 b.p.m., 26 resp/min., 90/70mm Hg

    Correct Answer
    B. 13 year old female – 105 b.p.m., 22 resp/min., 105/60 mm Hg
    Explanation
    The given vital signs for the 13-year-old female are abnormal because her heart rate (105 b.p.m) is higher than the normal range for her age (60-100 b.p.m). The respiratory rate (22 resp/min) and blood pressure (105/60 mm Hg) are within the normal range.

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  • 24. 

    When you are taking a patient's history, she tells you she has been depressed and is dealing with an anxiety disorder. Which of the following medications would the patient most likely be taking?

    • A.

      Elavil

    • B.

      Calcitonin

    • C.

      Pergolide

    • D.

      Verapamil

    Correct Answer
    A. Elavil
    Explanation
    Elavil, also known as Amitriptyline, is a tricyclic antidepressant commonly prescribed for depression and anxiety disorders. It works by increasing the levels of certain chemicals in the brain that help improve mood and reduce anxiety. Therefore, it is the most likely medication that the patient would be taking based on her history of depression and anxiety disorder.

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  • 25. 

    Which of the following conditions would a nurse not administer erythromycin?

    • A.

      Campylobacterial infection

    • B.

      Legionnaire's disease

    • C.

      Pneumonia

    • D.

      Multiple Sclerosis

    Correct Answer
    D. Multiple Sclerosis
    Explanation
    Erythromycin is an antibiotic commonly used to treat bacterial infections. Multiple Sclerosis is not caused by a bacterial infection, but rather it is an autoimmune disease that affects the central nervous system. Therefore, administering erythromycin would not be effective in treating Multiple Sclerosis.

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    Quiz Edited by
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  • May 21, 2012
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