NCLEX RN Practice Questions 2 (Exam Mode) By RNpedia

Approved & Edited by ProProfs Editorial Team
The editorial team at ProProfs Quizzes consists of a select group of subject experts, trivia writers, and quiz masters who have authored over 10,000 quizzes taken by more than 100 million users. This team includes our in-house seasoned quiz moderators and subject matter experts. Our editorial experts, spread across the world, are rigorously trained using our comprehensive guidelines to ensure that you receive the highest quality quizzes.
Learn about Our Editorial Process
| By RNpedia.com
R
RNpedia.com
Community Contributor
Quizzes Created: 355 | Total Attempts: 2,490,236
Questions: 25 | Attempts: 23,151

SettingsSettingsSettings
NCLEX RN Practice Questions 2 (Exam Mode) By RNpedia - Quiz

Mark the letter of the letter of choice then click on the next button. Score will be posted as soon as the you are done with the quiz.  You got 30 minutes to finish the exam. Good luck!


Questions and Answers
  • 1. 

    A patient tells you that her urine is starting to look discolored. If you believe this change is due to medication, which of the following patient's medication does not cause urine discoloration?

    • A.

      Sulfasalazine

    • B.

      Levodopa

    • C.

      Phenolphthalein

    • D.

      Aspirin

    Correct Answer
    D. Aspirin
    Explanation
    Aspirin does not cause urine discoloration. Sulfasalazine is known to cause orange-yellow discoloration of urine. Levodopa can cause darkening of urine to a brown or black color. Phenolphthalein can cause pink or red discoloration of urine. Therefore, among the given options, aspirin is the medication that does not cause urine discoloration.

    Rate this question:

  • 2. 

    You are responsible for reviewing the nursing unit's refrigerator. If you found the following drug in the refrigerator it should be removed from the refrigerator's contents?

    • A.

      Corgard

    • B.

      Humulin (injection)

    • C.

      Urokinase

    • D.

      Epogen (injection)

    Correct Answer
    A. Corgard
    Explanation
    Corgard should be removed from the refrigerator's contents because it is not a drug that requires refrigeration. Corgard is a medication used to treat high blood pressure and does not need to be stored in a refrigerator.

    Rate this question:

  • 3. 

    A 34 year old female has recently been diagnosed with an autoimmune disease. She has also recently discovered that she is pregnant. Which of the following is the only immunoglobulin that will provide protection to the fetus in the womb?

    • A.

      IgA

    • B.

      IgD

    • C.

      IgE

    • D.

      IgG

    Correct Answer
    D. IgG
    Explanation
    During pregnancy, the only immunoglobulin that can cross the placenta and provide protection to the fetus is IgG. IgG antibodies are transferred from the mother to the fetus through the placenta, offering passive immunity to the developing baby. This is crucial as it helps protect the fetus against infections that the mother has been exposed to or vaccinated against. IgA is mainly found in mucosal secretions and does not cross the placenta. IgD and IgE have specific roles in the immune system but do not provide protection to the fetus in the womb.

    Rate this question:

  • 4. 

    A second year nursing student has just suffered a needlestick while working with a patient that is positive for AIDS. Which of the following is the most important action that nursing student should take?

    • A.

      Immediately see a social worker

    • B.

      Start prophylactic AZT treatment

    • C.

      Start prophylactic Pentamide treatment

    • D.

      Seek counseling

    Correct Answer
    B. Start prophylactic AZT treatment
    Explanation
    The most important action for the nursing student to take after suffering a needlestick from a patient positive for AIDS is to start prophylactic AZT treatment. AZT, or zidovudine, is an antiretroviral medication that can help prevent the transmission of HIV. Starting this treatment as soon as possible after exposure can significantly reduce the risk of HIV infection. Seeing a social worker, seeking counseling, or starting prophylactic Pentamide treatment may also be important steps, but starting AZT treatment is the most crucial action in this situation.

    Rate this question:

  • 5. 

    A thirty five year old male has been an insulin-dependent diabetic for five years and now is unable to urinate. Which of the following would you most likely suspect?

    • A.

      Atherosclerosis

    • B.

      Diabetic nephropathy

    • C.

      Autonomic neuropathy

    • D.

      Somatic neuropathy

    Correct Answer
    C. Autonomic neuropathy
    Explanation
    The most likely explanation for the inability to urinate in a thirty five year old male who has been an insulin-dependent diabetic for five years is autonomic neuropathy. Autonomic neuropathy is a complication of diabetes that affects the nerves controlling involuntary bodily functions, including the bladder. This condition can lead to bladder dysfunction, such as urinary retention or inability to empty the bladder completely. Atherosclerosis and diabetic nephropathy are not typically associated with urinary issues, while somatic neuropathy primarily affects the sensory nerves rather than the autonomic nerves responsible for bladder function.

    Rate this question:

  • 6. 

    You are taking the history of a 14 year old girl who has a (BMI) of 18. The girl reports inability to eat, induced vomiting and severe constipation. Which of the following would you most likely suspect?

    • A.

      Multiple sclerosis

    • B.

      Anorexia nervosa

    • C.

      Bulimia

    • D.

      Systemic sclerosis

    Correct Answer
    B. Anorexia nervosa
    Explanation
    Given the girl's symptoms of inability to eat, induced vomiting, and severe constipation, the most likely suspect would be Anorexia nervosa. Anorexia nervosa is an eating disorder characterized by an intense fear of gaining weight, distorted body image, and self-imposed starvation. The girl's low BMI of 18 also supports this suspicion, as it falls within the range considered underweight. Multiple sclerosis, bulimia, and systemic sclerosis do not typically present with the same symptoms and would be less likely suspects in this case.

    Rate this question:

  • 7. 

    A 24 year old female is admitted to the ER for confusion. This patient has a history of a myeloma diagnosis, constipation, intense abdominal pain, and polyuria. Which of the following would you most likely suspect?

    • A.

      Diverticulosis

    • B.

      Hypercalcaemia

    • C.

      Hypocalcaemia

    • D.

      Irritable bowel syndrome

    Correct Answer
    B. Hypercalcaemia
    Explanation
    Based on the patient's symptoms and medical history, the most likely suspect would be hypercalcaemia. The patient's confusion could be a result of elevated calcium levels affecting brain function. The myeloma diagnosis may also contribute to hypercalcaemia, as myeloma can cause bone destruction, releasing calcium into the bloodstream. The patient's constipation, intense abdominal pain, and polyuria are also consistent with hypercalcaemia, as high levels of calcium can lead to gastrointestinal symptoms and increased urine production. Diverticulosis, hypocalcaemia, and irritable bowel syndrome are less likely based on the given information.

    Rate this question:

  • 8. 

    Rho gam is most often used to treat____ mothers that have a ____ infant.

    • A.

      RH positive, RH positive

    • B.

      RH positive, RH negative

    • C.

      RH negative, RH positive

    • D.

      RH negative, RH negative

    Correct Answer
    C. RH negative, RH positive
    Explanation
    Rho gam is a medication used to prevent the mother's immune system from producing antibodies that could harm the fetus. When a mother is RH negative and the infant is RH positive, there is a risk of the mother's immune system developing antibodies against the baby's blood, which can lead to complications in future pregnancies. Therefore, Rho gam is most often used to treat RH negative mothers that have an RH positive infant to prevent the development of these antibodies.

    Rate this question:

  • 9. 

    A new mother has some questions about (PKU). Which of the following statements made by a nurse is not correct regarding PKU?

    • A.

      A Guthrie test can check the necessary lab values.

    • B.

      The urine has a high concentration of phenylpyruvic acid

    • C.

      Mental deficits are often present with PKU.

    • D.

      The effects of PKU are reversible.

    Correct Answer
    D. The effects of PKU are reversible.
    Explanation
    PKU (Phenylketonuria) is a genetic disorder that affects the body's ability to process an amino acid called phenylalanine. If left untreated, PKU can lead to intellectual disability and other neurological problems. The effects of PKU are not reversible, as the damage caused by the buildup of phenylalanine in the body cannot be undone. Therefore, the statement "The effects of PKU are reversible" is not correct.

    Rate this question:

  • 10. 

    A patient has taken an overdose of aspirin. Which of the following should a nurse most closely monitor for during acute management of this patient?

    • A.

      Onset of pulmonary edema

    • B.

      Metabolic alkalosis

    • C.

      Respiratory alkalosis

    • D.

      Parkinson's disease type symptoms

    Correct Answer
    D. Parkinson's disease type symptoms
    Explanation
    Parkinson's disease type symptoms may occur as a result of aspirin overdose due to its toxic effects on the central nervous system. Aspirin can cause neurotoxicity, leading to symptoms such as tremors, rigidity, and bradykinesia, which are characteristic of Parkinson's disease. Therefore, it is important for the nurse to closely monitor the patient for the development of these symptoms during the acute management of an aspirin overdose.

    Rate this question:

  • 11. 

    A fifty-year-old blind and deaf patient has been admitted to your floor. As the charge nurse your primary responsibility for this patient is?

    • A.

      Let others know about the patient's deficits

    • B.

      Communicate with your supervisor your concerns about the patient's deficits.

    • C.

      Continuously update the patient on the social environment.

    • D.

      Provide a secure environment for the patient.

    Correct Answer
    D. Provide a secure environment for the patient.
    Explanation
    The primary responsibility for the charge nurse in this situation is to provide a secure environment for the blind and deaf patient. This is important because the patient is unable to see or hear, which puts them at a higher risk for accidents or injuries. By ensuring a secure environment, the charge nurse can minimize potential hazards and promote the safety and well-being of the patient.

    Rate this question:

  • 12. 

    A patient is getting discharged from a SNF facility. The patient has a history of severe COPD and PVD. The patient is primarily concerned about their ability to breath easily. Which of the following would be the best instruction for this patient?

    • A.

      Deep breathing techniques to increase O2 levels.

    • B.

      Cough regularly and deeply to clear airway passages.

    • C.

      Cough following bronchodilator utilization

    • D.

      Decrease CO2 levels by increase oxygen take output during meals.

    Correct Answer
    C. Cough following bronchodilator utilization
  • 13. 

    A nurse is caring for an infant that has recently been diagnosed with a congenital heart defect. Which of the following clinical signs would most likely be present?

    • A.

      Slow pulse rate

    • B.

      Weight gain

    • C.

      Decreased systolic pressure

    • D.

      Irregular WBC lab values

    Correct Answer
    B. Weight gain
    Explanation
    Infants with congenital heart defects often exhibit weight gain as a clinical sign. This is because the heart defect causes inefficient pumping of blood, leading to fluid accumulation in the body, especially in the abdomen and extremities. This fluid retention can result in weight gain. Slow pulse rate may be present in some cases, but it is not the most likely clinical sign. Decreased systolic pressure and irregular WBC lab values are not typically associated with congenital heart defects.

    Rate this question:

  • 14. 

    A mother has recently been informed that her child has Down's syndrome. You will be assigned to care for the child at shift change. Which of the following characteristics is not associated with Down's syndrome?

    • A.

      Simian crease

    • B.

      Brachycephaly

    • C.

      Oily skin

    • D.

      Hypotonicity

    Correct Answer
    C. Oily skin
    Explanation
    Oily skin is not a characteristic associated with Down's syndrome. Down's syndrome is a genetic disorder caused by the presence of an extra chromosome 21. It is commonly associated with certain physical features such as a simian crease (a single crease across the palm), brachycephaly (a round and flat skull shape), and hypotonicity (decreased muscle tone). However, oily skin is not typically seen as a characteristic of this condition.

    Rate this question:

  • 15. 

    A patient has recently experienced a (MI) within the last 4 hours. Which of the following medications would most like be administered?

    • A.

      Streptokinase

    • B.

      Atropine

    • C.

      Acetaminophen

    • D.

      Coumadin

    Correct Answer
    A. Streptokinase
    Explanation
    Streptokinase is the most likely medication to be administered to a patient who has recently experienced a myocardial infarction (MI) within the last 4 hours. Streptokinase is a thrombolytic medication that helps dissolve blood clots and restore blood flow to the heart. It is commonly used in the early treatment of MI to prevent further damage to the heart muscle. Atropine is a medication used to treat certain heart rhythm disorders, but it is not typically administered immediately after an MI. Acetaminophen is a pain reliever and Coumadin is an anticoagulant, neither of which are the primary medications used in the acute treatment of MI.

    Rate this question:

  • 16. 

    A patient asks a nurse, “My doctor recommended I increase my intake of folic acid. What type of foods contain folic acids?”

    • A.

      Green vegetables and liver

    • B.

      Yellow vegetables and red meat

    • C.

      Carrots

    • D.

      Milk

    Correct Answer
    A. Green vegetables and liver
    Explanation
    Green vegetables and liver are rich sources of folic acid. Folic acid is a B vitamin that is essential for the production of red blood cells and DNA synthesis. Green vegetables such as spinach, broccoli, and asparagus are particularly high in folic acid. Liver, especially beef liver, is also a good source of folic acid. Including these foods in the diet can help increase folic acid intake and support overall health. Yellow vegetables, red meat, carrots, and milk do not contain significant amounts of folic acid.

    Rate this question:

  • 17. 

    A nurse is putting together a presentation on meningitis. Which of the following microorganisms has noted been linked to meningitis in humans?

    • A.

      S. pneumonia

    • B.

      H. influenza

    • C.

      N. meningitis

    • D.

      Cl. difficile

    Correct Answer
    D. Cl. difficile
    Explanation
    Cl. difficile is the correct answer because it is not a microorganism that has been linked to meningitis in humans. Meningitis is commonly caused by bacteria such as S. pneumoniae, H. influenzae, and N. meningitidis. Cl. difficile, on the other hand, is a bacterium that is primarily associated with causing gastrointestinal infections and antibiotic-associated diarrhea. It does not typically cause meningitis in humans.

    Rate this question:

  • 18. 

    A nurse is administering blood to a patient who has a low hemoglobin count. The patient asks how long to RBC's last in my body? The correct response is.

    • A.

      The life span of RBC is 45 days.

    • B.

      The life span of RBC is 60 days.

    • C.

      The life span of RBC is 90 days.

    • D.

      The life span of RBC is 120 days.

    Correct Answer
    D. The life span of RBC is 120 days.
    Explanation
    Red blood cells (RBCs) have a lifespan of approximately 120 days. This means that after they are produced in the bone marrow, they circulate in the bloodstream for about four months before being broken down and recycled by the body. The longer lifespan of RBCs allows them to efficiently transport oxygen to tissues and remove carbon dioxide.

    Rate this question:

  • 19. 

    A 65 year old man has been admitted to the hospital for spinal stenosis surgery. When does the discharge training and planning begin for this patient?

    • A.

      Following surgery

    • B.

      Upon admit

    • C.

      Within 48 hours of discharge

    • D.

      Preoperative discussion

    Correct Answer
    B. Upon admit
    Explanation
    The discharge training and planning for a patient undergoing spinal stenosis surgery begins upon admission to the hospital. This means that the healthcare team starts preparing the patient for the post-surgery period and discussing the necessary steps for a successful discharge right from the beginning of their hospital stay. This early initiation of discharge planning helps ensure a smooth transition from the hospital to home or another care facility after the surgery.

    Rate this question:

  • 20. 

    A child is 5 years old and has been recently admitted into the hospital. According to Erickson which of the following stages is the child in?

    • A.

      Trust vs. mistrust

    • B.

      Initiative vs. guilt

    • C.

      Autonomy vs. shame

    • D.

      Intimacy vs. isolation

    Correct Answer
    B. Initiative vs. guilt
    Explanation
    According to Erickson's theory of psychosocial development, the stage of Initiative vs. guilt occurs during early childhood, typically between the ages of 3 and 6. During this stage, children begin to assert their independence and take initiative in their actions and decision-making. They may develop a sense of guilt if they are made to feel overly restricted or if their actions are constantly criticized. Given that the child in the question is 5 years old, it aligns with the stage of Initiative vs. guilt.

    Rate this question:

  • 21. 

    A toddler is 16 months old and has been recently admitted into the hospital. According to Erickson which of the following stages is the toddler in?

    • A.

      Trust vs. mistrust

    • B.

      Initiative vs. guilt

    • C.

      Autonomy vs. shame

    • D.

      Intimacy vs. isolation

    Correct Answer
    A. Trust vs. mistrust
    Explanation
    According to Erickson's psychosocial development theory, the stage that a toddler is in at 16 months old is Trust vs. mistrust. This stage occurs from birth to around 18 months old and focuses on the development of trust in the child's primary caregiver. During this stage, the toddler learns to trust or mistrust their environment based on the consistency and reliability of their caregiver's care and responsiveness to their needs.

    Rate this question:

  • 22. 

    A young adult is 20 years old and has been recently admitted into the hospital. According to Erickson which of the following stages is the adult in?

    • A.

      Trust vs. mistrust

    • B.

      Initiative vs. guilt

    • C.

      Autonomy vs. shame

    • D.

      Intimacy vs. isolation

    Correct Answer
    D. Intimacy vs. isolation
    Explanation
    According to Erickson's stages of psychosocial development, the young adult at 20 years old is in the stage of Intimacy vs. isolation. This stage occurs during early adulthood and is characterized by the individual's exploration and development of intimate relationships with others. During this stage, the young adult seeks to form deep and meaningful connections with others, while also navigating the potential feelings of isolation and loneliness that can arise if they are unable to establish these relationships.

    Rate this question:

  • 23. 

    A nurse is making rounds taking vital signs. Which of the following vital signs is abnormal?

    • A.

      11 year old male – 90 b.p.m, 22 resp/min., 100/70 mm Hg

    • B.

      13 year old female – 105 b.p.m., 22 resp/min., 105/60 mm Hg

    • C.

      5 year old male- 102 b.p.m, 24 resp/min., 90/65 mm Hg

    • D.

      6 year old female- 100 b.p.m., 26 resp/min., 90/70mm Hg

    Correct Answer
    B. 13 year old female – 105 b.p.m., 22 resp/min., 105/60 mm Hg
    Explanation
    The heart rate of the 13-year-old female is abnormal because it is higher than the normal range for her age. The normal heart rate for a 13-year-old is typically between 60-100 beats per minute. A heart rate of 105 bpm is above this range, indicating tachycardia. The respiratory rate and blood pressure for this individual are within the normal range.

    Rate this question:

  • 24. 

    When you are taking a patient's history, she tells you she has been depressed and is dealing with an anxiety disorder. Which of the following medications would the patient most likely be taking?

    • A.

      Elavil

    • B.

      Calcitonin

    • C.

      Pergolide

    • D.

      Verapamil

    Correct Answer
    A. Elavil
    Explanation
    Elavil is the most likely medication that the patient would be taking because it is commonly prescribed for depression and anxiety disorders. Calcitonin is a hormone medication used for osteoporosis and hypercalcemia, Pergolide is used for Parkinson's disease, and Verapamil is a calcium channel blocker used for high blood pressure and angina. Therefore, Elavil is the most appropriate choice for a patient with depression and anxiety.

    Rate this question:

  • 25. 

    Which of the following conditions would a nurse not administer erythromycin?

    • A.

      Campylobacterial infection

    • B.

      Legionnaire's disease

    • C.

      Pneumonia

    • D.

      Multiple Sclerosis

    Correct Answer
    D. Multiple Sclerosis
    Explanation
    Erythromycin is an antibiotic commonly used to treat bacterial infections. Multiple Sclerosis (MS) is not caused by bacteria, but rather is an autoimmune disease affecting the central nervous system. Therefore, a nurse would not administer erythromycin to a patient with MS as it would not be effective in treating the condition.

    Rate this question:

Quiz Review Timeline +

Our quizzes are rigorously reviewed, monitored and continuously updated by our expert board to maintain accuracy, relevance, and timeliness.

  • Current Version
  • Mar 21, 2023
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • Feb 12, 2011
    Quiz Created by
    RNpedia.com
Back to Top Back to top
Advertisement
×

Wait!
Here's an interesting quiz for you.

We have other quizzes matching your interest.