3P071 Volume EOC UREs 2017

190 Questions | Total Attempts: 496

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3P071 Volume EOC UREs 2017

UREs directly out of Volume 1 and 2 Security Forces 3P071 CDCs


Questions and Answers
  • 1. 
    What is the most rigorous stage of development? 
    • A. 

      SrA.

    • B. 

      MSgt.

    • C. 

      SSgt and TSgt.

    • D. 

      Amn and A1C.

  • 2. 
    Which of these is not a Senior Airman (SrA) duty? 
    • A. 

      Patrol leader.

    • B. 

      Squad leader.

    • C. 

      Base Defense Operations Center (BDOC) Controller.

    • D. 

      Internal Security Response Team (ISRT)/External Security Response Team (ESRT) Leader.

  • 3. 
    Which Staff Sergeant (SSgt) or Technical Sergeant (TSgt) duty is available in certainlocations? 
    • A. 

      Supervisor.

    • B. 

      Flight Sergeant.

    • C. 

      Response force leader.

    • D. 

      Non-commissioned officer in charge (NCOIC)/Assistant NCOIC.

  • 4. 
    What force development level, encompasses the operational or strategic level ofleadership? 
    • A. 

      MSgt.

    • B. 

      CMSgt.

    • C. 

      SMSgt.

    • D. 

      SSgt and TSgt.

  • 5. 
    What type of control is present over assigned or attached forces or commands?
    • A. 

      Tactical control.

    • B. 

      Strategic control.

    • C. 

      Operational control.

    • D. 

      Administrative control.

  • 6. 
    Which commander exercises operational control? 
    • A. 

      Squadron commander.

    • B. 

      Installation commander.

    • C. 

      Joint Force commander.

    • D. 

      Major command (MAJCOM) commander.

  • 7. 
    Supervisors must ensure their troops 
    • A. 

      Have food and water.

    • B. 

      Possess required qualifications and certifications.

    • C. 

      Are supplied with weapons and required equipment.

    • D. 

      Are issued Special Security Instructions (SSIs) and study material.

  • 8. 
    Who is responsible for determining the unit flight schedule? 
    • A. 

      Wing commander.

    • B. 

      Squadron commander.

    • C. 

      Security Forces manager.

    • D. 

      Unit deployment manager.

  • 9. 
    Post and patrols will be manned in accordance with the 
    • A. 

      Duty roster.

    • B. 

      Post priority listing.

    • C. 

      Unit manning document.

    • D. 

      Unit personnel manning roster.

  • 10. 
    All of the following commanders may authorize personnel to bear firearms in any foreigncountry for other that routine law enforcement and security duties, except the 
    • A. 

      Major command (MAJCOM) commander.

    • B. 

      MAJCOM vice commander.

    • C. 

      Installation commander.

    • D. 

      Combatant commander.

  • 11. 
    Who is responsible for taking immediate action to temporarily withdraw a person’s right to bear a firearm? 
    • A. 

      Supervisor.

    • B. 

      Commander.

    • C. 

      Servicing armory.

    • D. 

      Security Forces manager.

  • 12. 
    How many types of right to bear firearms withdrawal measures are there? 
    • A. 

      1.

    • B. 

      2.

    • C. 

      3.

    • D. 

      4.

  • 13. 
    What drives a post priority chart? 
    • A. 

      Vulnerability assessment.

    • B. 

      Inspector General (IG) assessment.

    • C. 

      Force protection conditions (FPCONs).

    • D. 

      Integrated Defense Risk Management Process (IDRMP) assessment.

  • 14. 
    Post priority charts are used to 
    • A. 

      Allocate vehicles.

    • B. 

      Allocate manpower.

    • C. 

      Determine post rotations.

    • D. 

      Determine weapon configurations.

  • 15. 
    Who has the authority to determine which of your posts can go unmanned? 
    • A. 

      Group commander.

    • B. 

      Security Forces manager.

    • C. 

      Defense force commander.

    • D. 

      Each individual flight chief.

  • 16. 
    The post priority chart ensures the most efficient use of limited Security Forces (SF) in 
    • A. 

      Higher force protection conditions (FPCONs).

    • B. 

      Peacetime and wartime.

    • C. 

      Peacetime.

    • D. 

      Wartime.

  • 17. 
    When possible it is important to rotate personnel through each post they are qualified in order to maintain 
    • A. 

      Proficiency.

    • B. 

      Discipline.

    • C. 

      Fairness.

    • D. 

      Control.

  • 18. 
    What can assist you as a flight sergeant in keeping flight morale high? 
    • A. 

      Post rotations.

    • B. 

      Specialized courses.

    • C. 

      Recognition program.

    • D. 

      Providing time off.

  • 19. 
    As a supervisor, what must you instill in each of your subordinates? 
    • A. 

      Standards.

    • B. 

      Discipline.

    • C. 

      Work ethic.

    • D. 

      Mentorship.

  • 20. 
    What should you do if a subordinate demonstrates substandard duty performance? 
    • A. 

      Issue paperwork.

    • B. 

      Verbally counsel the subordinate.

    • C. 

      Investigate to determine the cause.

    • D. 

      Assign the subordinate a new supervisor.

  • 21. 
    The next command given after the flight falls in for inspection is 
    • A. 

      Report.

    • B. 

      Parade rest.

    • C. 

      Open ranks march.

    • D. 

      Prepare for inspection.

  • 22. 
    After the command “Open rank, MARCH,” which of the following action does the flight take? 
    • A. 

      The first element takes three paces forward and automatically executes dress right dress at a normal interval (arm’s length). Each succeeding element in front of them takes none, one, or two, paces forward, halts, and automatically executes dress right dress.

    • B. 

      The last element stands fast and automatically executes dress right dress at a normal interval (arm’s length). Each succeeding element in front of them takes one, two, or three paces forward, halts, and automatically executes dress right dress.

    • C. 

      The first element stands fast and automatically executes dress right dress at a normal interval (arm’s length). Each succeeding element also stands fast and automatically executes dress right dress.

    • D. 

      The last element stands fast. Each succeeding element in front of them takes one, two, or three paces forward and halts.

  • 23. 
    After aligning the fourth element, how many paces beyond the first element do you advance to and execute a left facing movement? 
    • A. 

      1.

    • B. 

      2.

    • C. 

      3.

    • D. 

      4.

  • 24. 
    When does the second element leader give the command, “Second Element, ATTENTION”? 
    • A. 

      As the inspecting official approaches to within six paces of the right flank of the formation, the second element leader commands “Second Element, ATTENTION.”

    • B. 

      As the inspecting official gets six paces past the last person in the first element, the second element leader commands “Second Element, ATTENTION.”

    • C. 

      As the inspecting official is within two paces of the right flank to the formation, the second element leader commands, “Second Element, ATTENTION.”

    • D. 

      As soon as the inspecting official is facing the second element leader, he/she will give the command, “Second Element, ATTENTION.”

  • 25. 
    When do you give the command, “Close Ranks, MARCH!”? 
    • A. 

      Upon departure of the inspecting official.

    • B. 

      At the completion of the guardmount briefing

    • C. 

      Immediately after the forth rank has been inspected.

    • D. 

      When the remarks of the inspecting official are completed.