3DX5X - Volume 1 - UREs

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3DX5X Quizzes & Trivia

Unit Review Exercise questions for the 3DX5CX Volume 1.


Questions and Answers
  • 1. 

    (001) Which enlisted training element is assigned by the supervisor IAW AFI 36-2201,Classifying Military Personnel (Officer and Enlisted)?

    • A.

      Core task

    • B.

      Duty competency

    • C.

      Core competency

    • D.

      Duty position task

    Correct Answer
    D. Duty position task
    Explanation
    According to AFI 36-2201, Classifying Military Personnel (Officer and Enlisted), the enlisted training element that is assigned by the supervisor is the duty position task. This means that the supervisor assigns specific tasks and responsibilities to enlisted personnel based on their duty position within the military. This helps ensure that individuals are trained and prepared to fulfill their duties effectively and efficiently.

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  • 2. 

    (001) Which enlisted training element is defined as integrated bundle of expert knowledge and organizational skills inherent to a particular career field?

    • A.

      Core task

    • B.

      Duty competency

    • C.

      Core competency

    • D.

      Duty position task

    Correct Answer
    C. Core competency
    Explanation
    A core competency is defined as an integrated bundle of expert knowledge and organizational skills inherent to a particular career field. It refers to the essential skills and expertise required to excel in a specific job or profession. Core competencies are unique to each career field and are crucial for individuals to perform their duties effectively. They encompass a broad range of skills, including technical expertise, problem-solving abilities, and industry-specific knowledge. By possessing core competencies, individuals can demonstrate their proficiency and contribute to the success of their organization.

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  • 3. 

    (001) Which 3D Air Force Specialty (AFS) focuses its attention on the administration of servers and server farms throughout Air Force installations worldwide?

    • A.

      Cyber Surety

    • B.

      Client Systems

    • C.

      Cyber Transport

    • D.

      Cyber Systems Operations

    Correct Answer
    D. Cyber Systems Operations
    Explanation
    Cyber Systems Operations is the correct answer as this 3D Air Force Specialty (AFS) is responsible for the administration of servers and server farms across Air Force installations globally. They ensure the smooth functioning and security of these systems, managing their configuration, maintenance, and troubleshooting. This specialty plays a crucial role in maintaining the operational effectiveness of the Air Force's server infrastructure.

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  • 4. 

    (001) Which 3D Air Force Speciality (AFS) responsibility includes local base helpdesk/client support and "hands-on" maintenance actions?

    • A.

      Cyber Surety

    • B.

      Client Systems

    • C.

      Cyber Transport

    • D.

      Cyber Systems Operations

    Correct Answer
    B. Client Systems
    Explanation
    Client Systems is the correct answer because this Air Force Speciality (AFS) is responsible for providing local base helpdesk/client support and performing "hands-on" maintenance actions. This AFS focuses on managing and maintaining computer systems, troubleshooting technical issues, and ensuring that clients have the necessary hardware and software to perform their duties effectively. They play a crucial role in providing technical support and ensuring the smooth operation of computer systems at the local base level.

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  • 5. 

    (001) Which 3D Air Force Specialty (AFS) responsibilities include the deployment, sustainment, troubleshooting, and repairing of standard radio frequency (RF) line-of-sight, wideband and ground based satellite devices?

    • A.

      Spectrum Operations

    • B.

      Ground Radar Systems

    • C.

      Cable and Antenna Systems

    • D.

      Radio Frequency Transmission

    Correct Answer
    D. Radio Frequency Transmission
    Explanation
    Radio Frequency Transmission is the correct answer because this 3D Air Force Specialty (AFS) is responsible for the deployment, sustainment, troubleshooting, and repairing of standard radio frequency (RF) line-of-sight, wideband and ground based satellite devices. This means that individuals in this specialty are trained in working with RF technology and equipment, ensuring that communication systems using RF transmission are functioning properly and can troubleshoot and repair any issues that may arise.

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  • 6. 

    (001) Which 3D Air Force Speciality (AFS) responsibilities include the installation, maintains and repairs of fixed and deployable air traffic, weather, ground air control, and warning radar systems?

    • A.

      Spectrum Operations

    • B.

      Ground Radio Systems

    • C.

      Cable and Antenna Systems

    • D.

      Radio Frequency Transmission

    Correct Answer
    B. Ground Radio Systems
    Explanation
    Ground Radio Systems is the correct answer because this specialty is responsible for the installation, maintenance, and repair of fixed and deployable air traffic, weather, ground air control, and warning radar systems. Spectrum Operations deals with managing and monitoring the electromagnetic spectrum, Cable and Antenna Systems focuses on the installation and maintenance of communication cables and antennas, and Radio Frequency Transmission deals with the transmission of radio signals. None of these specialties specifically involve the responsibilities mentioned in the question.

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  • 7. 

    (001) Which 3D Air Force Speciality (AFS) responsibilities include the installation and maintenance for large scale network wiring in support of fixed and deployed operations?

    • A.

      Spectrum Operations

    • B.

      Ground Radar Systems

    • C.

      Cable and Antenna Systems

    • D.

      Radio Frequency Transmission

    Correct Answer
    C. Cable and Antenna Systems
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Cable and Antenna Systems. This 3D Air Force Specialty (AFS) is responsible for the installation and maintenance of large scale network wiring, specifically focusing on cable and antenna systems. They ensure that the network wiring is properly installed and maintained to support both fixed and deployed operations.

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  • 8. 

    (002) Who is the advisor for all matters affecting the career field?

    • A.

      Unit training manager (UTM)

    • B.

      Base functional manager (BFM)

    • C.

      Major command functional manager (MFM)

    • D.

      Air Force career field manager (AFCFM)

    Correct Answer
    D. Air Force career field manager (AFCFM)
    Explanation
    The Air Force career field manager (AFCFM) is the advisor for all matters affecting the career field. They are responsible for overseeing and managing the career field, providing guidance and support to personnel within the field. They have a comprehensive understanding of the career field and are knowledgeable about its policies, procedures, and requirements. As the advisor, they play a crucial role in ensuring the success and development of individuals within the career field.

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  • 9. 

    (002) Who is the final authority to waive career field education training plan (CFETP) requirements to include completion of the Air Force Speciality (AFS) career development course (CDC)?

    • A.

      Unit training manager (UTM)

    • B.

      Base functional manager (BFM)

    • C.

      Major command functional manager (MFM)

    • D.

      Air Force career field manager (AFCFM)

    Correct Answer
    D. Air Force career field manager (AFCFM)
    Explanation
    The Air Force career field manager (AFCFM) is the final authority to waive career field education training plan (CFETP) requirements, including the completion of the Air Force Speciality (AFS) career development course (CDC). This means that the AFCFM has the power to exempt individuals from certain training requirements based on their specific circumstances or qualifications. The AFCFM is responsible for overseeing and managing the career field and has the authority to make decisions regarding training and development within that field.

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  • 10. 

    (002) Who assists with the identification of qualified subject matter experts (SME) to help with the development of your specialty knowledge test (SKT) and your career development course (CDC)?

    • A.

      Unit training manager (UTM)

    • B.

      Base functional manager (BFM)

    • C.

      Major command functional manager (MFM)

    • D.

      Air Force career field manager (AFCFM)

    Correct Answer
    C. Major command functional manager (MFM)
    Explanation
    The Major command functional manager (MFM) assists with the identification of qualified subject matter experts (SME) to help with the development of your specialty knowledge test (SKT) and your career development course (CDC). The MFM is responsible for overseeing the career field at the major command level and plays a crucial role in ensuring that the appropriate SMEs are involved in the development of training materials and assessments. They have the knowledge and expertise to identify individuals who possess the necessary qualifications and can contribute to the development of these resources.

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  • 11. 

    (002) What title is normally assigned to the on-station ranking 3D Cyberspace non-commissioned officer (NCO)?

    • A.

      Unit training manager (UTM)

    • B.

      Base functional manager (BFM)

    • C.

      Major command functional manager (MFM)

    • D.

      Air Force career field manager (AFCFM)

    Correct Answer
    B. Base functional manager (BFM)
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Base functional manager (BFM). This title is normally assigned to the on-station ranking 3D Cyberspace non-commissioned officer (NCO). The BFM is responsible for managing the day-to-day operations and functions of a specific base or installation. They oversee the planning, organizing, and execution of the unit's mission and ensure that all personnel are properly trained and equipped to carry out their duties. The BFM also serves as a liaison between the unit and higher headquarters, providing updates and reports on the unit's activities and performance.

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  • 12. 

    (002) What is the main goal of the utilization and training workshop (U&TW)?

    • A.

      Modify training

    • B.

      Establish a viable Career Field Education and Training Plan (CFETP)

    • C.

      Conduct climate training surveys

    • D.

      Review the occupational analysis report

    Correct Answer
    B. Establish a viable Career Field Education and Training Plan (CFETP)
    Explanation
    The main goal of the utilization and training workshop (U&TW) is to establish a viable Career Field Education and Training Plan (CFETP). This means that the workshop aims to develop a comprehensive plan for the education and training of individuals in a specific career field. The CFETP outlines the necessary knowledge, skills, and abilities required for success in the field, as well as the training programs and resources available to develop these competencies. By establishing a viable CFETP, the U&TW ensures that individuals receive the necessary training and support to excel in their chosen career field.

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  • 13. 

    (003) Which Air Force Occupational Safety and Health (AFOSH) standard would you reference safety information on "Material Handling and Storage Equipment"?

    • A.

      91-46

    • B.

      91-50

    • C.

      91-64

    • D.

      91-68

    Correct Answer
    A. 91-46
    Explanation
    The correct answer is 91-46. This Air Force Occupational Safety and Health (AFOSH) standard would be referenced for safety information on "Material Handling and Storage Equipment".

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  • 14. 

    (003) Which Air Force Occupational Safety and Health (AFOSH) standard document would you reference safety information on "Communications Cable, Antenna and Communications-Electronics Systems"?

    • A.

      91-46

    • B.

      91-50

    • C.

      91-64

    • D.

      91-68

    Correct Answer
    B. 91-50
    Explanation
    AFOSH standard document 91-50 would be the appropriate reference for safety information on "Communications Cable, Antenna and Communications-Electronics Systems."

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  • 15. 

    (003) The Air Force Occupational Safety and Health (AFOSH) standard that you would reference safety information on data processing facilities is called AFOSH standard

    • A.

      91-46

    • B.

      91-50

    • C.

      91-64

    • D.

      91-68

    Correct Answer
    C. 91-64
    Explanation
    The correct answer is 91-64. This AFOSH standard specifically pertains to safety information regarding data processing facilities in the Air Force. It provides guidelines and regulations to ensure the safety and health of personnel working in these facilities. By referencing AFOSH standard 91-64, individuals can access the necessary information to maintain a safe working environment in data processing facilities.

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  • 16. 

    (003) From which of the following can a person absorb selectively damaging amounts of radiation that will result in deep tissue harming organs with little or no sensation of skin heating?

    • A.

      Sunlight

    • B.

      Microwaves

    • C.

      Ionizing radiation

    • D.

      Nonionizing radiation

    Correct Answer
    D. Nonionizing radiation
    Explanation
    Nonionizing radiation can selectively damage deep tissue harming organs without causing any sensation of skin heating. This type of radiation has lower energy levels compared to ionizing radiation and does not have enough energy to remove tightly bound electrons from atoms or molecules. Examples of nonionizing radiation include radio waves, microwaves, and infrared radiation. These types of radiation can penetrate the body and cause harm to internal organs without causing immediate skin burns or heating.

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  • 17. 

    (004) Which occupational risk management (ORM) principle states that most logical choices for accomplishing a mission are those that meet all mission requirements while exposing personnel and resources to the lowest acceptable risk?

    • A.

      Accept no unnecessary risk.

    • B.

      Make risk decisions at the appropriate level.

    • C.

      Accept risk when benefits outweigh the costs.

    • D.

      Integrate ORM into operations and planning at all levels.

    Correct Answer
    A. Accept no unnecessary risk.
    Explanation
    The principle that states that the most logical choices for accomplishing a mission are those that meet all mission requirements while exposing personnel and resources to the lowest acceptable risk is "Accept no unnecessary risk." This principle emphasizes the importance of evaluating and minimizing risks to ensure the safety and success of the mission. It encourages decision-makers to prioritize risk reduction and only accept risks that are deemed necessary for achieving the mission objectives.

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  • 18. 

    (004) Which occupational risk management (ORM) principle requests you to weigh the risks against opportunities and benefits to help maximize unit capability?

    • A.

      Accept no unnecessary risk.

    • B.

      Make risk decisions at the appropriate level.

    • C.

      Accept risk when benefits outweigh the costs.

    • D.

      Integrate ORM into operations and planning at all levels.

    Correct Answer
    C. Accept risk when benefits outweigh the costs.
    Explanation
    This principle of occupational risk management (ORM) suggests that it is acceptable to take on a certain level of risk if the benefits or advantages outweigh the potential costs or drawbacks. It highlights the importance of evaluating the potential gains or advantages that may be achieved by taking on a certain risk and comparing them to the potential negative consequences or costs that may result. By considering this balance between risks and benefits, organizations can make informed decisions that help maximize their overall capability or effectiveness.

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  • 19. 

    (004) Which occupational risk management (ORM) principle has risk assessments of mission supportive operations done as a normal way of conducting a mission and not an add-on process?

    • A.

      Accept no unnecessary risk.

    • B.

      Make risk decisions at the appropriate level.

    • C.

      Accept risk when benefits outweigh the costs.

    • D.

      Integrate ORM into operations and planning at all levels.

    Correct Answer
    D. Integrate ORM into operations and planning at all levels.
    Explanation
    The principle of integrating ORM into operations and planning at all levels suggests that risk assessments should be a normal part of conducting a mission, rather than an additional process. This means that risk assessments should be integrated into the overall planning and execution of operations, ensuring that they are considered at every level of decision-making. By doing so, organizations can effectively manage occupational risks and make informed decisions to mitigate those risks.

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  • 20. 

    (005) Offensive operations support United States cyberspace objectives by

    • A.

      Providing adversaries access to useless data files on legacy systems.

    • B.

      Taking offensive measures to track adversaries and correct damage to sensitive data.

    • C.

      Denying, degrading, disrupting, destroying or altering the adversary's ability to use cyberspace.

    • D.

      Allowing the adversaries to use the cyberspace domain so we can document the country they're from.

    Correct Answer
    C. Denying, degrading, disrupting, destroying or altering the adversary's ability to use cyberspace.
    Explanation
    Offensive operations support United States cyberspace objectives by denying, degrading, disrupting, destroying or altering the adversary's ability to use cyberspace. This means that offensive measures are taken to hinder the adversary's capability to operate effectively in the cyberspace domain. By doing so, the United States aims to weaken the adversary's ability to carry out cyber attacks or other malicious activities, ultimately enhancing the security and defense of its own cyberspace infrastructure.

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  • 21. 

    (006) Which option refers to centralized systems which monitor and control industrial sites, or complexes of systems spread out over large areas?

    • A.

      Joint Operability network

    • B.

      Tactical data links network

    • C.

      Strategic data control network

    • D.

      Supervisory control and data acquisition

    Correct Answer
    D. Supervisory control and data acquisition
    Explanation
    Supervisory control and data acquisition (SCADA) refers to centralized systems that monitor and control industrial sites or complexes of systems spread out over large areas. SCADA systems are used in various industries such as oil and gas, water and wastewater, and power generation. They allow operators to remotely monitor and control processes, collect and analyze data, and make informed decisions. SCADA systems typically consist of sensors, remote terminal units, a master station, and communication networks to facilitate data exchange between the different components.

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  • 22. 

    (007) Which center has the overall authoritative source for the status, control, and defense of Air Force networks?

    • A.

      Area Processing Center (APC)

    • B.

      Network Control Center (NCC)

    • C.

      Air Force Network Operations Center (AFNOC)

    • D.

      Integrated Network Operations and Security Center (I-NOSC)

    Correct Answer
    C. Air Force Network Operations Center (AFNOC)
    Explanation
    The Air Force Network Operations Center (AFNOC) is the correct answer because it is the center that has the overall authoritative source for the status, control, and defense of Air Force networks. AFNOC is responsible for monitoring and managing the Air Force's network infrastructure, ensuring its security and availability. It coordinates with other centers and units to detect and respond to network threats and vulnerabilities, making it the central hub for network operations and security in the Air Force.

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  • 23. 

    (007) Which center is typically aligned under the base communications squadron, provides Tier 3 (local level) on-site, and implements technical and physical network changes?

    • A.

      Area Processing Center (APC)

    • B.

      Network Control Center (NCC)

    • C.

      Air Force Network Operations Center (AFNOC)

    • D.

      Integrated Network Operations and Security Center (I-NOSC)

    Correct Answer
    B. Network Control Center (NCC)
    Explanation
    The Network Control Center (NCC) is typically aligned under the base communications squadron and is responsible for providing Tier 3 on-site support and implementing technical and physical network changes. The NCC is the central hub for monitoring and controlling the network infrastructure, ensuring its availability and reliability. It handles network troubleshooting, configuration management, and network security. The other options, such as the Area Processing Center (APC), Air Force Network Operations Center (AFNOC), and Integrated Network Operations and Security Center (I-NOSC), may have different roles and responsibilities but are not specifically aligned under the base communications squadron for Tier 3 support and network changes.

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  • 24. 

    (008) Which function or organization has a mission that varies from providing small flyaway communication packages to rapidly deploying Expeditionary Air Base (EAB) communications packages?

    • A.

      Enterprise Service Unit (ESU)

    • B.

      Enterprise Service Desk (ESD)

    • C.

      Combat Communications Squadron (CCS)

    • D.

      Expeditionary Communications Squadron (ECS)

    Correct Answer
    C. Combat Communications Squadron (CCS)
    Explanation
    The Combat Communications Squadron (CCS) is the correct answer because its mission varies from providing small flyaway communication packages to rapidly deploying Expeditionary Air Base (EAB) communications packages. This implies that the CCS is responsible for both portable communication solutions for smaller operations as well as larger, more complex communication setups for expeditionary bases. The other options, Enterprise Service Unit (ESU), Enterprise Service Desk (ESD), and Expeditionary Communications Squadron (ECS), do not mention this specific range of capabilities in their mission.

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  • 25. 

    (008) Which function or organization was established to operate with an air expeditionary task force (AETF)?

    • A.

      Enterprise Service Unit (ESU)

    • B.

      Enterprise Service Desk (ESD)

    • C.

      Combat Communications Squadron (CCS)

    • D.

      Expeditionary Communications Squadron (ECS)

    Correct Answer
    D. Expeditionary Communications Squadron (ECS)
    Explanation
    The Expeditionary Communications Squadron (ECS) was established to operate with an air expeditionary task force (AETF). This suggests that the ECS is responsible for providing communication support and services to the AETF during their operations. The other options, Enterprise Service Unit (ESU), Enterprise Service Desk (ESD), and Combat Communications Squadron (CCS), do not specifically mention their role in supporting an AETF.

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  • 26. 

    (008) Which function or organization has the goal to manage AF core services, within the AFNetOps community to; reduce training, maintenance costs; increase operational flexibility and capacity to the warfighter?

    • A.

      Enterprise Service Unit (ESU)

    • B.

      Enterprise Service Desk (ESD)

    • C.

      Combat Communications Squadron (CCS)

    • D.

      Expeditionary Communications Squadron (ECS)

    Correct Answer
    A. Enterprise Service Unit (ESU)
    Explanation
    The Enterprise Service Unit (ESU) is the correct answer because its goal is to manage AF core services within the AFNetOps community. By doing so, it aims to reduce training and maintenance costs, increase operational flexibility, and enhance capacity for the warfighter. The ESU is responsible for overseeing and coordinating the delivery of essential services, ensuring efficient and effective operations.

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  • 27. 

    (009) Which document is used as the basis for drafting and enforcing all federal laws governing the United States?

    • A.

      Constitution

    • B.

      Bill of Rights

    • C.

      United States Title Code 10

    • D.

      Uniform Code of Military Justice

    Correct Answer
    A. Constitution
    Explanation
    The Constitution is the document that serves as the foundation for drafting and enforcing all federal laws governing the United States. It outlines the structure of the government, defines the powers and limitations of each branch, and establishes the rights and freedoms of the American people. It is the supreme law of the land and provides the framework for the entire legal system in the United States.

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  • 28. 

    (009) Which document authorizes the creation of the Department of Defense (DOD) as the executive component of government and established all subordinate agencies including the Army, Navy, Air Force, and Marine Corps?

    • A.

      Constitution

    • B.

      Bill of Rights

    • C.

      United States Title Code 10

    • D.

      Uniform Code of Military Justice

    Correct Answer
    C. United States Title Code 10
    Explanation
    The correct answer is United States Title Code 10. United States Title Code 10 is a federal law that authorizes the establishment and organization of the Department of Defense (DOD) as the executive component of the government. It also establishes all the subordinate agencies of the DOD, including the Army, Navy, Air Force, and Marine Corps. This law outlines the structure and responsibilities of the DOD and its component agencies, ensuring their proper functioning and coordination in national defense efforts.

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  • 29. 

    (009) Which document serves as the basis for holding military members accountable for breeches in binding instruction and law?

    • A.

      Constitution

    • B.

      Bill of Rights

    • C.

      United States Title Code 10

    • D.

      Uniform Code of Military Justice

    Correct Answer
    D. Uniform Code of Military Justice
    Explanation
    The Uniform Code of Military Justice (UCMJ) serves as the basis for holding military members accountable for breaches in binding instruction and law. The UCMJ is a federal law that applies to all members of the United States military and outlines the legal system for the military. It establishes the rules and regulations that govern military conduct and provides a framework for disciplinary actions and legal proceedings within the military justice system. The UCMJ ensures that military members are held accountable for their actions and maintains discipline and order within the armed forces.

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  • 30. 

    (010) In what year did the Joint Staff and Armed Services consolidated their ideas as the first drafts of joint and Armed Services doctrine circulated around the DOD?

    • A.

      1994

    • B.

      1995

    • C.

      1997

    • D.

      1998

    Correct Answer
    B. 1995
    Explanation
    In 1995, the Joint Staff and Armed Services consolidated their ideas as the first drafts of joint and Armed Services doctrine circulated around the DOD. This suggests that it was in this year that they finalized and formalized their combined ideas and began the process of disseminating them throughout the Department of Defense.

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  • 31. 

    (010) In what year did the Air Force finalized and published its information operations (IO) doctrine in August 1998, while the Joint Staff published its doctrine?

    • A.

      1994

    • B.

      1995

    • C.

      1997

    • D.

      1998

    Correct Answer
    D. 1998
    Explanation
    The Air Force finalized and published its information operations (IO) doctrine in August 1998, while the Joint Staff published its doctrine. Therefore, the correct answer is 1998.

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  • 32. 

    (010) Which publication type are directive policy statements of Office of the Secretary of the Air Force and HQ USAF to initiate, govern, or regulate actions of conduct, within their specified areas of responsibility?

    • A.

      Air Force Doctrine

    • B.

      Air Force Pamphlets

    • C.

      Air Force Instructions

    • D.

      Air Force Policy Directives

    Correct Answer
    D. Air Force Policy Directives
    Explanation
    Air Force Policy Directives are the correct answer because they are directive policy statements issued by the Office of the Secretary of the Air Force and HQ USAF. These directives are used to initiate, govern, or regulate actions of conduct within their specified areas of responsibility. Air Force Doctrine, Air Force Pamphlets, and Air Force Instructions may contain policy guidance, but they are not specifically referred to as directive policy statements in the question.

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  • 33. 

    (010) Which publication type are informational publications which are "how to" documents?

    • A.

      Air Force Pamphlets

    • B.

      Air Force Instructions

    • C.

      Air Force Publications

    • D.

      Air Force Policy Directives

    Correct Answer
    A. Air Force Pamphlets
    Explanation
    Air Force Pamphlets are informational publications that provide "how to" documents. These publications are designed to provide step-by-step instructions and guidance on various topics within the Air Force. They are typically concise and easy to understand, making them useful resources for individuals seeking specific information or instructions on a particular subject.

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  • 34. 

    (011) What provides us with the transmission of analog or digital bits information to convey data over significant geographical distances to communicate?

    • A.

      Broadcasts

    • B.

      Transmissions

    • C.

      Telecommunications

    • D.

      Voice over Internet Protocol

    Correct Answer
    C. Telecommunications
    Explanation
    Telecommunications refers to the transmission of information over long distances to communicate. It can involve the use of analog or digital signals to convey data. This can include various forms of communication such as telephone calls, internet connections, and television broadcasts. Therefore, telecommunications is the correct answer as it encompasses the transmission of both analog and digital bits of information over significant geographical distances.

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  • 35. 

    (011) What tool provides essential online resources for the Air Force and its users at a single location?

    • A.

      MyPay

    • B.

      E-publishing

    • C.

      Air Force Portal

    • D.

      Virtual Military Personnel Flight

    Correct Answer
    C. Air Force Portal
    Explanation
    The Air Force Portal is the correct answer because it is a tool that provides essential online resources for the Air Force and its users at a single location. It serves as a central hub for accessing information, documents, and services that are important for Air Force personnel. It allows users to access various resources such as news, training materials, personnel records, and communication tools, making it an essential tool for the Air Force community.

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  • 36. 

    (011) What tool is considered a​ key enabler for the information technology task force and a foundation program for other transformation task forces?

    • A.

      MyPay

    • B.

      E-publishing

    • C.

      Air Force Portal

    • D.

      Virtual Military Personnel Flight

    Correct Answer
    C. Air Force Portal
    Explanation
    The Air Force Portal is considered a key enabler for the information technology task force and a foundation program for other transformation task forces. It provides a centralized platform for a wide range of information and services, allowing for efficient communication, collaboration, and access to resources within the Air Force. It serves as a hub for various applications, databases, and tools that support the Air Force's mission and enable effective decision-making and operations.

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  • 37. 

    (012) Which Air Force Portal feature enables authorized users to enter passwords once to gain access to all applications with no further log-in requirement?

    • A.

      My base

    • B.

      Single-sign-on

    • C.

      Community of practice

    • D.

      Virtual Military Personnel Flight

    Correct Answer
    B. Single-sign-on
    Explanation
    Single-sign-on is a feature in the Air Force Portal that allows authorized users to enter their passwords once and gain access to all applications without having to log in again. This feature simplifies the login process and saves time for users by eliminating the need to enter passwords multiple times for different applications. It enhances user experience and improves efficiency by providing seamless access to various resources within the portal.

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  • 38. 

    (012) Which Air Force Portal feature is considered a major benefit of the Air Force Portal?

    • A.

      My base

    • B.

      Single-sign-on

    • C.

      Community of practice

    • D.

      Virtual Military Personnel Flight

    Correct Answer
    D. Virtual Military Personnel Flight
    Explanation
    The virtual Military Personnel Flight is considered a major benefit of the Air Force Portal because it allows Air Force personnel to access and manage their personnel information and services online without having to physically visit a Military Personnel Flight office. This feature provides convenience and efficiency by enabling individuals to update their personal and professional information, submit requests, and access important documents and resources from anywhere and at any time.

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  • 39. 

    (012) Which Air Force Portal feature provides a secure, Web-based collaborative environment specific to a given task or topic where members of a group share information and tools to conduct business, manage a project, and/or solve group problems?  

    • A.

      My base

    • B.

      Single-sign-on

    • C.

      Community of practice

    • D.

      Virtual Military Personnel Flight

    Correct Answer
    C. Community of practice
    Explanation
    A community of practice is a feature in the Air Force Portal that provides a secure, web-based collaborative environment for members of a group to share information and tools. It is specific to a given task or topic and allows members to conduct business, manage a project, and solve group problems together. This feature promotes knowledge sharing, learning, and teamwork within the Air Force community.

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  • 40. 

    (013) Which document would you reference for guidance on "Web management and Internet use"?

    • A.

      AFI 33-118

    • B.

      AFI 33-119

    • C.

      AFI 33-127

    • D.

      AFI 33-129

    Correct Answer
    D. AFI 33-129
    Explanation
    AFI 33-129 would be the document to reference for guidance on "Web management and Internet use." This document likely contains policies and procedures related to the management and use of the internet within the organization. It may provide guidance on acceptable use, security measures, and responsibilities for managing web resources.

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  • 41. 

    (013) Prior to posting web content on an Air Force web page, which document would you reference regarding compliance of local clearance and approval Public Affairs procedures for posting information to the Internet/public Web sites?

    • A.

      AFI 33-127

    • B.

      AFI 33-129

    • C.

      AFI 35-101

    • D.

      AFI 35-108

    Correct Answer
    C. AFI 35-101
    Explanation
    AFI 35-101 is the correct answer because it is the Air Force Instruction that specifically addresses Public Affairs procedures for posting information to the Internet and public websites. This document would provide the necessary guidance and requirements for obtaining local clearance and approval before posting web content on an Air Force web page. AFI 33-127 is related to web management and AFI 33-129 is about web publishing and AF Portal. AFI 35-108 is about Air Force Privacy and Civil Liberties.

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  • 42. 

    (013) When corresponding to an e-mail, which would you not use to follow proper e-mail etiquette?

    • A.

      Keep emails brief and to the point.

    • B.

      Read your email out loud to yourself.

    • C.

      Consistently use the "Reply-to-All" feature.

    • D.

      Ensure attachments are appropriate to supplement your message.

    Correct Answer
    C. Consistently use the "Reply-to-All" feature.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "Consistently use the 'Reply-to-All' feature." This is because using the "Reply-to-All" feature unnecessarily can lead to cluttering everyone's inbox with unnecessary emails. It is important to only use "Reply-to-All" when it is necessary for everyone in the email thread to be included in the response.

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  • 43. 

    (014) Which document is not considered an official government record?

    • A.

      Published doctrines.

    • B.

      Geographical base maps.

    • C.

      Photographs of a retreat ceremony.

    • D.

      Library reference or museum exhibitions.

    Correct Answer
    D. Library reference or museum exhibitions.
    Explanation
    Library reference or museum exhibitions are not considered official government records because they are not primary sources of information. Official government records typically refer to documents that are created or received by government agencies in the course of their official duties, such as laws, regulations, reports, and official correspondence. While library references and museum exhibitions may contain information about government records, they are secondary sources that interpret or present information from official records rather than being the records themselves.

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  • 44. 

    (014) Records that are considered to be in draft format

    • A.

      Can be altered and are not officially released.

    • B.

      Can't be altered, but are officially released.

    • C.

      Can't be altered and are officially signed.

    • D.

      Are officially signed and officially released.

    Correct Answer
    A. Can be altered and are not officially released.
    Explanation
    Records that are considered to be in draft format can be altered and are not officially released. This means that they are still in the process of being finalized and may undergo changes before they are officially released. As they are not yet released, they can be modified as needed.

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  • 45. 

    (014) Records that are considered to be in final format have which characteristic?

    • A.

      Officially signed and not released.

    • B.

      Officially signed and officially released.

    • C.

      Can be altered and are not officially released.

    • D.

      Can't be altered, but are not officially released.

    Correct Answer
    B. Officially signed and officially released.
    Explanation
    Records that are considered to be in final format have the characteristic of being officially signed and officially released. This means that they have undergone all necessary approvals and are ready for distribution or dissemination to the intended audience. The fact that they are both officially signed and officially released indicates that they have met all requirements and are considered complete and ready for use.

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  • 46. 

    (015) Who is charged with the duties of establishing training programs for newly appointed base records managers?

    • A.

      Base records manager

    • B.

      Chief of Office of Records

    • C.

      Command records manager

    • D.

      Functional area records manager

    Correct Answer
    C. Command records manager
    Explanation
    The command records manager is responsible for establishing training programs for newly appointed base records managers. They are in charge of ensuring that these managers are properly trained and equipped with the necessary skills and knowledge to effectively manage records at the base level. This includes providing guidance on recordkeeping policies and procedures, as well as training on the use of recordkeeping systems and technologies. The command records manager plays a crucial role in ensuring that records are managed in a consistent and efficient manner across the organization.

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  • 47. 

    (015) Whose duties include providing assistance, managing staging areas, and records training?

    • A.

      Base records manager

    • B.

      Chief of Office of Records

    • C.

      Command records manager

    • D.

      Functional area records manager

    Correct Answer
    A. Base records manager
    Explanation
    The duties of a base records manager include providing assistance, managing staging areas, and records training. They are responsible for maintaining and organizing records within a military base or organization. This role involves ensuring that records are easily accessible and properly stored, as well as providing support and training to personnel regarding record-keeping procedures.

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  • 48. 

    (015) Who is appointed at each base-level unit, principal staff office within an Air Force organization or contractor to perform records management?

    • A.

      Base records manager

    • B.

      Chief of Office of Records

    • C.

      Command records manager

    • D.

      Functional area records manager

    Correct Answer
    D. Functional area records manager
    Explanation
    A functional area records manager is appointed at each base-level unit, principal staff office within an Air Force organization or contractor to perform records management. This individual is responsible for managing and maintaining records within their specific functional area, ensuring compliance with regulations and policies related to records management. They play a crucial role in organizing and safeguarding records, as well as facilitating their retrieval and disposal when necessary.

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  • 49. 

    (015) Who has the authority to appoint record custodians within an office of record?

    • A.

      Base records manager

    • B.

      Chief of Office of Records

    • C.

      Command records manager

    • D.

      Functional area records manager

    Correct Answer
    B. Chief of Office of Records
    Explanation
    The Chief of Office of Records has the authority to appoint record custodians within an office of record. As the highest-ranking official in the office, they have the responsibility of managing and overseeing all record-related activities. This includes appointing individuals who will be responsible for the custody, maintenance, and accessibility of records within the office. The Chief of Office of Records ensures that proper record management practices are followed and that records are properly maintained and protected.

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  • 50. 

    (016) A logical group of organized data fields containing some type of useful information is know as a/an

    • A.

      File.

    • B.

      Record.

    • C.

      Database.

    • D.

      Enterprise.

    Correct Answer
    B. Record.
    Explanation
    A logical group of organized data fields containing some type of useful information is known as a record. In a database, records are the individual units that store and represent specific information. They are composed of different data fields that hold related data elements. Records are used to organize and manage data efficiently, allowing for easy retrieval and manipulation of information.

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