3DX5X - Volumes 1 & 2 - Combined Vres

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3DX5X Quizzes & Trivia

Unit Review Exercise questions for the 3DX5CX Volumes 1 & 2.


Questions and Answers
  • 1. 

    (001) Which enlisted training element is assigned by the supervisor IAW AFI 36-2201,Classifying Military Personnel (Officer and Enlisted)?

    • A.

      Core task

    • B.

      Duty competency

    • C.

      Core competency

    • D.

      Duty position task

    Correct Answer
    D. Duty position task
    Explanation
    This question is asking about the enlisted training element that is assigned by the supervisor according to AFI 36-2201. The correct answer is "Duty position task." This means that the supervisor assigns specific tasks or responsibilities to the enlisted personnel based on their duty position. This could include tasks such as operating specific equipment, performing specific job functions, or carrying out specific duties within their assigned role.

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  • 2. 

    (001) Which enlisted training element is defined as integrated bundle of expert knowledge and organizational skills inherent to a particular career field?

    • A.

      Core task

    • B.

      Duty competency

    • C.

      Core competency

    • D.

      Duty position task

    Correct Answer
    C. Core competency
    Explanation
    A core competency is a set of integrated knowledge and skills that are essential to a specific career field. It represents the fundamental abilities and expertise that individuals in that field must possess. Core competencies encompass a wide range of skills and knowledge that are necessary for performing tasks and responsibilities within a particular career field. They are essential for individuals to excel and succeed in their roles and are often used as a basis for training and development programs.

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  • 3. 

    (001) Which 3D Air Force Specialty (AFS) focuses its attention on the administration of servers and server farms throughout Air Force installations worldwide?

    • A.

      Cyber Surety

    • B.

      Client Systems

    • C.

      Cyber Transport

    • D.

      Cyber Systems Operations

    Correct Answer
    D. Cyber Systems Operations
    Explanation
    Cyber Systems Operations focuses on the administration of servers and server farms throughout Air Force installations worldwide. This specialty is responsible for ensuring the smooth functioning and security of the servers and network infrastructure. They handle tasks such as server installation, configuration, maintenance, and troubleshooting. Their expertise is crucial in maintaining the operational readiness of Air Force systems and ensuring efficient communication and data management.

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  • 4. 

    (001) Which 3D Air Force Speciality (AFS) responsibility includes local base helpdesk/client support and "hands-on" maintenance actions?

    • A.

      Cyber Surety

    • B.

      Client Systems

    • C.

      Cyber Transport

    • D.

      Cyber Systems Operations

    Correct Answer
    B. Client Systems
    Explanation
    Client Systems is the correct answer because this 3D Air Force Specialty (AFS) is responsible for providing local base helpdesk/client support and performing "hands-on" maintenance actions. This role involves troubleshooting and resolving technical issues, setting up and configuring computer systems, and ensuring the smooth operation of client systems within the Air Force.

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  • 5. 

    (001) Which 3D Air Force Specialty (AFS) responsibilities include the deployment, sustainment, troubleshooting, and repairing of standard radio frequency (RF) line-of-sight, wideband and ground based satellite devices?

    • A.

      Spectrum Operations

    • B.

      Ground Radar Systems

    • C.

      Cable and Antenna Systems

    • D.

      Radio Frequency Transmission

    Correct Answer
    D. Radio Frequency Transmission
    Explanation
    The responsibilities of the Radio Frequency Transmission 3D Air Force Specialty (AFS) include the deployment, sustainment, troubleshooting, and repairing of standard radio frequency (RF) line-of-sight, wideband and ground based satellite devices. This means that individuals in this specialty are responsible for ensuring that these devices are functioning properly and are able to transmit and receive signals effectively. They may also be involved in setting up and maintaining communication networks using these devices.

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  • 6. 

    (001) Which 3D Air Force Speciality (AFS) responsibilities include the installation, maintains and repairs of fixed and deployable air traffic, weather, ground air control, and warning radar systems?

    • A.

      Spectrum Operations

    • B.

      Ground Radio Systems

    • C.

      Cable and Antenna Systems

    • D.

      Radio Frequency Transmission

    Correct Answer
    B. Ground Radio Systems
    Explanation
    Ground Radio Systems responsibilities include the installation, maintenance, and repair of fixed and deployable air traffic, weather, ground air control, and warning radar systems. This AFS is specifically focused on the operation and maintenance of radio systems used in the Air Force.

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  • 7. 

    (001) Which 3D Air Force Speciality (AFS) responsibilities include the installation and maintenance for large scale network wiring in support of fixed and deployed operations?

    • A.

      Spectrum Operations

    • B.

      Ground Radar Systems

    • C.

      Cable and Antenna Systems

    • D.

      Radio Frequency Transmission

    Correct Answer
    C. Cable and Antenna Systems
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Cable and Antenna Systems. Cable and Antenna Systems specialists are responsible for the installation and maintenance of large-scale network wiring in support of both fixed and deployed operations. They ensure that the cable and antenna systems are functioning properly and are able to transmit and receive signals effectively. This includes troubleshooting and repairing any issues that may arise with the wiring or antennas.

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  • 8. 

    (002) Who is the advisor for all matters affecting the career field?

    • A.

      Unit training manager (UTM)

    • B.

      Base functional manager (BFM)

    • C.

      Major command functional manager (MFM)

    • D.

      Air Force career field manager (AFCFM)

    Correct Answer
    D. Air Force career field manager (AFCFM)
    Explanation
    The Air Force career field manager (AFCFM) is the advisor for all matters affecting the career field. They are responsible for providing guidance and support to individuals in the career field, ensuring that they have the necessary resources and opportunities for career development. The AFCFM is knowledgeable about the specific needs and requirements of the career field and can provide expert advice on career progression and opportunities for advancement. They play a critical role in shaping the career paths and success of individuals in the career field.

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  • 9. 

    (002) Who is the final authority to waive career field education training plan (CFETP) requirements to include completion of the Air Force Speciality (AFS) career development course (CDC)?

    • A.

      Unit training manager (UTM)

    • B.

      Base functional manager (BFM)

    • C.

      Major command functional manager (MFM)

    • D.

      Air Force career field manager (AFCFM)

    Correct Answer
    D. Air Force career field manager (AFCFM)
    Explanation
    The Air Force career field manager (AFCFM) is the final authority to waive career field education training plan (CFETP) requirements, including the completion of the Air Force Specialty (AFS) career development course (CDC). This individual has the ultimate decision-making power and authority within the career field to grant exceptions or waivers to training requirements. The unit training manager (UTM), base functional manager (BFM), and major command functional manager (MFM) may have some level of input or influence, but the AFCFM has the final say.

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  • 10. 

    (002) Who assists with the identification of qualified subject matter experts (SME) to help with the development of your specialty knowledge test (SKT) and your career development course (CDC)?

    • A.

      Unit training manager (UTM)

    • B.

      Base functional manager (BFM)

    • C.

      Major command functional manager (MFM)

    • D.

      Air Force career field manager (AFCFM)

    Correct Answer
    C. Major command functional manager (MFM)
    Explanation
    The Major command functional manager (MFM) assists with the identification of qualified subject matter experts (SME) to help with the development of the specialty knowledge test (SKT) and the career development course (CDC). The MFM is responsible for overseeing and coordinating the training and career development within their specific major command. They have the knowledge and expertise to identify individuals who have the necessary qualifications and experience to contribute to the development of these tests and courses.

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  • 11. 

    (002) What title is normally assigned to the on-station ranking 3D Cyberspace non-commissioned officer (NCO)?

    • A.

      Unit training manager (UTM)

    • B.

      Base functional manager (BFM)

    • C.

      Major command functional manager (MFM)

    • D.

      Air Force career field manager (AFCFM)

    Correct Answer
    B. Base functional manager (BFM)
    Explanation
    The on-station ranking 3D Cyberspace non-commissioned officer (NCO) is normally assigned the title of Base functional manager (BFM). This title indicates that the NCO is responsible for managing the functional operations and activities at the base level. They oversee the implementation and execution of policies, procedures, and programs related to the 3D Cyberspace career field. The BFM plays a crucial role in ensuring the smooth functioning of the unit and supporting the mission of the Air Force.

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  • 12. 

    (002) What is the main goal of the utilization and training workshop (U&TW)?

    • A.

      Modify training

    • B.

      Establish a viable Career Field Education and Training Plan (CFETP)

    • C.

      Conduct climate training surveys

    • D.

      Review the occupational analysis report

    Correct Answer
    B. Establish a viable Career Field Education and Training Plan (CFETP)
    Explanation
    The main goal of the utilization and training workshop (U&TW) is to establish a viable Career Field Education and Training Plan (CFETP). This means that the workshop aims to create a comprehensive and effective plan for education and training within a specific career field. The CFETP will outline the necessary training requirements, career progression opportunities, and job qualifications for individuals in that field. By establishing a viable CFETP, the workshop ensures that the career field has a structured and well-defined training program in place to support the development and success of its personnel.

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  • 13. 

    (003) Which Air Force Occupational Safety and Health (AFOSH) standard would you reference safety information on "Material Handling and Storage Equipment"?

    • A.

      91-46

    • B.

      91-50

    • C.

      91-64

    • D.

      91-68

    Correct Answer
    A. 91-46
    Explanation
    The correct answer is 91-46. This Air Force Occupational Safety and Health (AFOSH) standard specifically addresses safety information related to "Material Handling and Storage Equipment." It is the most relevant standard for finding guidelines and regulations regarding the safe use and handling of such equipment in the Air Force.

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  • 14. 

    (003) Which Air Force Occupational Safety and Health (AFOSH) standard document would you reference safety information on "Communications Cable, Antenna and Communications-Electronics Systems"?

    • A.

      91-68

    • B.

      91-64

    • C.

      91-50

    • D.

      91-46

    Correct Answer
    C. 91-50
    Explanation
    AFOSH standard document 91-50 would be the correct reference for safety information on "Communications Cable, Antenna and Communications-Electronics Systems".

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  • 15. 

    (003) The Air Force Occupational Safety and Health (AFOSH) standard that you would reference safety information on data processing facilities is called AFOSH standard

    • A.

      91-46

    • B.

      91-50

    • C.

      91-64

    • D.

      91-68

    Correct Answer
    C. 91-64
    Explanation
    The correct answer is 91-64. The Air Force Occupational Safety and Health (AFOSH) standard that provides safety information for data processing facilities is AFOSH standard 91-64.

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  • 16. 

    (003) From which of the following can a person absorb selectively damaging amounts of radiation that will result in deep tissue harming organs with little or no sensation of skin heating?

    • A.

      Sunlight

    • B.

      Microwaves

    • C.

      Ionizing radiation

    • D.

      Nonionizing radiation

    Correct Answer
    D. Nonionizing radiation
    Explanation
    Nonionizing radiation refers to forms of electromagnetic radiation that do not have enough energy to remove tightly bound electrons from atoms, thus not causing ionization. Unlike ionizing radiation, nonionizing radiation does not have enough energy to directly damage DNA or harm deep tissues. Therefore, a person cannot absorb selectively damaging amounts of radiation from nonionizing sources that would result in deep tissue harming organs without feeling any sensation of skin heating.

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  • 17. 

    (004) Which occupational risk management (ORM) principle states that most logical choices for accomplishing a mission are those that meet all mission requirements while exposing personnel and resources to the lowest acceptable risk?

    • A.

      Accept no unnecessary risk.

    • B.

      Make risk decisions at the appropriate level.

    • C.

      Accept risk when benefits outweigh the costs.

    • D.

      Integrate ORM into operations and planning at all levels.

    Correct Answer
    A. Accept no unnecessary risk.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "Accept no unnecessary risk." This principle emphasizes the importance of minimizing risk to personnel and resources while still accomplishing the mission. It suggests that risks should only be accepted if they are necessary for the success of the mission and if there are no alternative options that pose a lower risk. By adhering to this principle, organizations can ensure that they prioritize the safety and well-being of their personnel while still achieving their objectives.

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  • 18. 

    (004) Which occupational risk management (ORM) principle requests you to weigh the risks against opportunities and benefits to help maximize unit capability?

    • A.

      Integrate ORM into operations and planning at all levels.

    • B.

      Make risk decisions at the appropriate level.

    • C.

      Accept risk when benefits outweigh the costs.

    • D.

      Accept no unnecessary risk.

    Correct Answer
    C. Accept risk when benefits outweigh the costs.
    Explanation
    This principle of accepting risk when benefits outweigh the costs is important in occupational risk management (ORM) as it encourages decision-makers to evaluate the potential risks and benefits associated with a particular action or operation. By weighing the risks against the opportunities and benefits, organizations can make informed decisions that help maximize their unit capability. This principle recognizes that there will always be some level of risk involved in any activity, but it is acceptable as long as the benefits justify it. It promotes a balanced approach to risk management, ensuring that unnecessary risks are avoided while still allowing for the pursuit of opportunities and benefits.

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  • 19. 

    (004) Which occupational risk management (ORM) principle has risk assessments of mission supportive operations done as a normal way of conducting a mission and not an add-on process?

    • A.

      Accept no unnecessary risk.

    • B.

      Make risk decisions at the appropriate level.

    • C.

      Accept risk when benefits outweigh the costs.

    • D.

      Integrate ORM into operations and planning at all levels.

    Correct Answer
    D. Integrate ORM into operations and planning at all levels.
    Explanation
    The principle of integrating ORM into operations and planning at all levels suggests that risk assessments should be a normal part of conducting a mission, rather than an additional step. This means that risk assessments should be seamlessly integrated into the planning and execution of mission supportive operations, ensuring that potential risks are identified and managed effectively. By incorporating ORM into all levels of operations and planning, organizations can proactively address risks and make informed decisions to minimize potential hazards and maximize mission success.

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  • 20. 

    (005) Offensive operations support United States cyberspace objectives by

    • A.

      Providing adversaries access to useless data files on legacy systems.

    • B.

      Taking offensive measures to track adversaries and correct damage to sensitive data.

    • C.

      Denying, degrading, disrupting, destroying or altering the adversary's ability to use cyberspace.

    • D.

      Allowing the adversaries to use the cyberspace domain so we can document the country they're from.

    Correct Answer
    C. Denying, degrading, disrupting, destroying or altering the adversary's ability to use cyberspace.
    Explanation
    Offensive operations support United States cyberspace objectives by denying, degrading, disrupting, destroying or altering the adversary's ability to use cyberspace. This means that the United States takes proactive measures to hinder the adversary's ability to operate effectively in the cyberspace domain. By doing so, they aim to limit the adversary's capabilities, prevent them from carrying out malicious activities, and protect sensitive data and systems from potential harm.

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  • 21. 

    (006) Which option refers to centralized systems which monitor and control industrial sites, or complexes of systems spread out over large areas?

    • A.

      Joint Operability network

    • B.

      Tactical data links network

    • C.

      Strategic data control network

    • D.

      Supervisory control and data acquisition

    Correct Answer
    D. Supervisory control and data acquisition
    Explanation
    Supervisory control and data acquisition (SCADA) refers to centralized systems that monitor and control industrial sites or complexes of systems spread out over large areas. SCADA systems are used in various industries such as power plants, water treatment facilities, and manufacturing plants to gather and analyze real-time data, control processes, and provide remote access and control. They enable operators to monitor and manage the operations of multiple systems from a central location, improving efficiency, and ensuring the safety and reliability of industrial processes.

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  • 22. 

    (007) Which center has the overall authoritative source for the status, control, and defense of Air Force networks?

    • A.

      Area Processing Center (APC)

    • B.

      Network Control Center (NCC)

    • C.

      Air Force Network Operations Center (AFNOC)

    • D.

      Integrated Network Operations and Security Center (I-NOSC)

    Correct Answer
    C. Air Force Network Operations Center (AFNOC)
    Explanation
    The Air Force Network Operations Center (AFNOC) is the correct answer because it is responsible for the overall authoritative source for the status, control, and defense of Air Force networks. The AFNOC is responsible for monitoring, managing, and defending the Air Force's network infrastructure, ensuring its availability, integrity, and confidentiality. It serves as the central hub for network operations and security, coordinating with other centers and units to ensure the smooth operation of Air Force networks. The other options, such as the Area Processing Center (APC), Network Control Center (NCC), and Integrated Network Operations and Security Center (I-NOSC), may have specific roles and responsibilities, but they do not have the overall authority and responsibility that the AFNOC possesses.

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  • 23. 

    (007) Which center is typically aligned under the base communications squadron, provides Tier 3 (local level) on-site, and implements technical and physical network changes?

    • A.

      Integrated Network Operations and Security Center (I-NOSC)

    • B.

      Network Control Center (NCC)

    • C.

      Air Force Network Operations Center (AFNOC)

    • D.

      Area Processing Center (APC)

    Correct Answer
    B. Network Control Center (NCC)
    Explanation
    The Network Control Center (NCC) is typically aligned under the base communications squadron and is responsible for providing Tier 3 on-site support and implementing technical and physical network changes. It serves as a centralized hub for monitoring and managing the base network infrastructure. The Integrated Network Operations and Security Center (I-NOSC) is responsible for higher-level network operations and security, while the Air Force Network Operations Center (AFNOC) oversees network operations at the Air Force level. The Area Processing Center (APC) is not directly related to network operations and is not aligned under the base communications squadron.

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  • 24. 

    (008) Which function or organization has a mission that varies from providing small flyaway communication packages to rapidly deploying Expeditionary Air Base (EAB) communications packages?

    • A.

      Enterprise Service Unit (ESU)

    • B.

      Enterprise Service Desk (ESD)

    • C.

      Combat Communications Squadron (CCS)

    • D.

      Expeditionary Communications Squadron (ECS)

    Correct Answer
    C. Combat Communications Squadron (CCS)
    Explanation
    The Combat Communications Squadron (CCS) has a mission that varies from providing small flyaway communication packages to rapidly deploying Expeditionary Air Base (EAB) communications packages. This means that the CCS is responsible for both small-scale communication setups that can be easily transported, as well as larger communication systems that are needed for establishing air bases in expeditionary environments. The other options, such as the Enterprise Service Unit (ESU), Enterprise Service Desk (ESD), and Expeditionary Communications Squadron (ECS), do not mention this specific range of capabilities and missions.

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  • 25. 

    (008) Which function or organization was established to operate with an air expeditionary task force (AETF)?

    • A.

      Enterprise Service Unit (ESU)

    • B.

      Enterprise Service Desk (ESD)

    • C.

      Combat Communications Squadron (CCS)

    • D.

      Expeditionary Communications Squadron (ECS)

    Correct Answer
    D. Expeditionary Communications Squadron (ECS)
    Explanation
    The Expeditionary Communications Squadron (ECS) was established to operate with an air expeditionary task force (AETF). This suggests that the ECS is responsible for providing communication services and support to the AETF during their operations. The other options, such as the Enterprise Service Unit (ESU), Enterprise Service Desk (ESD), and Combat Communications Squadron (CCS), do not specifically mention their role in supporting an AETF, making them less likely to be the correct answer.

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  • 26. 

    (008) Which function or organization has the goal to manage AF core services, within the AFNetOps community to; reduce training, maintenance costs; increase operational flexibility and capacity to the warfighter?

    • A.

      Enterprise Service Unit (ESU)

    • B.

      Enterprise Service Desk (ESD)

    • C.

      Combat Communications Squadron (CCS)

    • D.

      Expeditionary Communications Squadron (ECS)

    Correct Answer
    A. Enterprise Service Unit (ESU)
    Explanation
    The Enterprise Service Unit (ESU) is the correct answer because it is responsible for managing AF core services within the AFNetOps community. The ESU's goal is to reduce training and maintenance costs, increase operational flexibility, and enhance capacity for the warfighter. This means that the ESU focuses on optimizing and streamlining essential services to support military operations effectively and efficiently.

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  • 27. 

    (009) Which document is used as the basis for drafting and enforcing all federal laws governing the United States?

    • A.

      Constitution

    • B.

      Bill of Rights

    • C.

      United States Title Code 10

    • D.

      Uniform Code of Military Justice

    Correct Answer
    A. Constitution
    Explanation
    The Constitution is the document used as the basis for drafting and enforcing all federal laws governing the United States. It outlines the structure of the government, the powers and limitations of each branch, and the rights and freedoms of the citizens. It serves as the supreme law of the land and provides the framework for the legal system in the United States. The Bill of Rights is a part of the Constitution that guarantees individual rights and liberties. The United States Title Code 10 and the Uniform Code of Military Justice are specific laws and regulations that pertain to the military.

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  • 28. 

    (009) Which document authorizes the creation of the Department of Defense (DOD) as the executive component of government and established all subordinate agencies including the Army, Navy, Air Force, and Marine Corps?

    • A.

      Constitution

    • B.

      Bill of Rights

    • C.

      United States Title Code 10

    • D.

      Uniform Code of Military Justice

    Correct Answer
    C. United States Title Code 10
    Explanation
    The correct answer is United States Title Code 10. United States Title Code 10, also known as the Armed Forces, is a federal law that authorizes the creation of the Department of Defense (DOD) as the executive component of government. It establishes all subordinate agencies, including the Army, Navy, Air Force, and Marine Corps. This code outlines the organization, structure, and responsibilities of the military and serves as the legal basis for the DOD's existence and operations.

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  • 29. 

    (009) Which document serves as the basis for holding military members accountable for breeches in binding instruction and law?

    • A.

      Constitution

    • B.

      Bill of Rights

    • C.

      United States Title Code 10

    • D.

      Uniform Code of Military Justice

    Correct Answer
    D. Uniform Code of Military Justice
    Explanation
    The Uniform Code of Military Justice serves as the basis for holding military members accountable for breeches in binding instruction and law. It is a federal law that applies to all members of the United States military and outlines the legal framework within which military personnel must operate. It covers a wide range of offenses, including those related to discipline, conduct, and justice. The UCMJ ensures that military members are held to a high standard of behavior and provides a system for addressing and adjudicating violations.

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  • 30. 

    (010) In what year did the Joint Staff and Armed Services consolidated their ideas as the first drafts of joint and Armed Services doctrine circulated around the DOD?

    • A.

      1994

    • B.

      1995

    • C.

      1997

    • D.

      1998

    Correct Answer
    B. 1995
    Explanation
    In 1995, the Joint Staff and Armed Services consolidated their ideas as the first drafts of joint and Armed Services doctrine circulated around the DOD. This suggests that it was in this year that the two entities came together to finalize and share their initial drafts of doctrine within the Department of Defense.

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  • 31. 

    (010) In what year did the Air Force finalized and published its information operations (IO) doctrine in August 1998, while the Joint Staff published its doctrine?

    • A.

      1994

    • B.

      1995

    • C.

      1997

    • D.

      1998

    Correct Answer
    D. 1998
    Explanation
    In August 1998, the Air Force finalized and published its information operations (IO) doctrine, while the Joint Staff also published its doctrine. Therefore, the correct answer is 1998.

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  • 32. 

    (010) Which publication type are directive policy statements of Office of the Secretary of the Air Force and HQ USAF to initiate, govern, or regulate actions of conduct, within their specified areas of responsibility?

    • A.

      Air Force Doctrine

    • B.

      Air Force Pamphlets

    • C.

      Air Force Instructions

    • D.

      Air Force Policy Directives

    Correct Answer
    D. Air Force Policy Directives
    Explanation
    Air Force Policy Directives are directive policy statements issued by the Office of the Secretary of the Air Force and HQ USAF. These directives are used to initiate, govern, or regulate actions of conduct within their specified areas of responsibility. They provide clear guidance and instructions for Air Force personnel on how to carry out their duties and responsibilities. Air Force Policy Directives are a formal and authoritative source of policy within the Air Force and are essential for maintaining consistency and standardization across the organization.

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  • 33. 

    (010) Which publication type are informational publications which are "how to" documents?

    • A.

      Air Force Pamphlets

    • B.

      Air Force Instructions

    • C.

      Air Force Publications

    • D.

      Air Force Policy Directives

    Correct Answer
    A. Air Force Pamphlets
    Explanation
    Air Force Pamphlets are informational publications that provide "how to" documents. These pamphlets contain detailed instructions and guidelines on various topics, procedures, and processes within the Air Force. They are designed to provide step-by-step guidance and practical information on specific subjects, making them ideal for individuals seeking information on how to perform certain tasks or accomplish specific objectives. Air Force Instructions, Air Force Publications, and Air Force Policy Directives may contain other types of information but do not specifically focus on providing "how to" documents.

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  • 34. 

    (011) What provides us with the transmission of analog or digital bits information to convey data over significant geographical distances to communicate?

    • A.

      Broadcasts

    • B.

      Transmissions

    • C.

      Telecommunications

    • D.

      Voice over Internet Protocol

    Correct Answer
    C. Telecommunications
    Explanation
    Telecommunications refers to the transmission of information over significant geographical distances. It involves the use of various technologies and systems to convey data, whether in analog or digital form. This can include the use of telephone lines, satellites, fiber optics, or wireless networks. Telecommunications enables communication between individuals or organizations, allowing them to exchange information, voice, or video over long distances. It plays a crucial role in connecting people and facilitating the exchange of data worldwide.

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  • 35. 

    (011) What tool provides essential online resources for the Air Force and its users at a single location?

    • A.

      MyPay

    • B.

      E-publishing

    • C.

      Air Force Portal

    • D.

      Virtual Military Personnel Flight

    Correct Answer
    C. Air Force Portal
    Explanation
    The Air Force Portal is the correct answer because it is a tool that provides essential online resources for the Air Force and its users at a single location. It serves as a central hub for accessing information, documents, and services related to the Air Force. Users can find various resources such as news, training materials, career information, and communication tools on the Air Force Portal. It is designed to streamline access to important information and enhance communication within the Air Force community.

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  • 36. 

    (011) What tool is considered a​ key enabler for the information technology task force and a foundation program for other transformation task forces?

    • A.

      MyPay

    • B.

      E-publishing

    • C.

      Air Force Portal

    • D.

      Virtual Military Personnel Flight

    Correct Answer
    C. Air Force Portal
    Explanation
    The Air Force Portal is considered a key enabler for the information technology task force and a foundation program for other transformation task forces. It provides a centralized platform for accessing information, resources, and tools that are essential for the Air Force's IT operations. It allows personnel to securely access and share information, collaborate on projects, and perform various administrative tasks. The Air Force Portal plays a crucial role in streamlining communication, improving efficiency, and enhancing the overall effectiveness of the Air Force's IT operations.

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  • 37. 

    (012) Which Air Force Portal feature enables authorized users to enter passwords once to gain access to all applications with no further log-in requirement?

    • A.

      My base

    • B.

      Single-sign-on

    • C.

      Community of practice

    • D.

      Virtual Military Personnel Flight

    Correct Answer
    B. Single-sign-on
    Explanation
    Single-sign-on is the correct answer because it is a feature that allows authorized users to enter their password once and gain access to all applications without needing to log in again. This feature simplifies the login process and saves time for users by eliminating the need to remember multiple passwords for different applications. It enhances security by reducing the risk of password breaches and makes it more convenient for users to access various applications within the Air Force Portal.

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  • 38. 

    (012) Which Air Force Portal feature is considered a major benefit of the Air Force Portal?

    • A.

      My base

    • B.

      Single-sign-on

    • C.

      Community of practice

    • D.

      Virtual Military Personnel Flight

    Correct Answer
    D. Virtual Military Personnel Flight
    Explanation
    The virtual Military Personnel Flight is considered a major benefit of the Air Force Portal because it allows Air Force personnel to access and manage their personnel records and information online. This feature eliminates the need for individuals to physically visit a Military Personnel Flight office, saving time and resources. It provides convenience and efficiency by allowing personnel to complete tasks such as updating personal information, requesting leave, and accessing important documents from anywhere with internet access.

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  • 39. 

    (012) Which Air Force Portal feature provides a secure, Web-based collaborative environment specific to a given task or topic where members of a group share information and tools to conduct business, manage a project, and/or solve group problems?  

    • A.

      My base

    • B.

      Single-sign-on

    • C.

      Community of practice

    • D.

      Virtual Military Personnel Flight

    Correct Answer
    C. Community of practice
    Explanation
    A community of practice is a feature on the Air Force Portal that provides a secure, web-based collaborative environment where members of a group can share information and tools to conduct business, manage a project, and solve group problems. It allows individuals with a common interest or task to come together and collaborate in a specific area, fostering knowledge sharing and expertise development. This feature enables members to work together effectively and efficiently on a given task or topic within the Air Force Portal.

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  • 40. 

    (013) Which document would you reference for guidance on "Web management and Internet use"?

    • A.

      AFI 33-118

    • B.

      AFI 33-119

    • C.

      AFI 33-127

    • D.

      AFI 33-129

    Correct Answer
    D. AFI 33-129
    Explanation
    AFI 33-129 is the correct document to reference for guidance on "Web management and Internet use".

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  • 41. 

    (013) Prior to posting web content on an Air Force web page, which document would you reference regarding compliance of local clearance and approval Public Affairs procedures for posting information to the Internet/public Web sites?

    • A.

      AFI 33-127

    • B.

      AFI 33-129

    • C.

      AFI 35-101

    • D.

      AFI 35-108

    Correct Answer
    C. AFI 35-101
    Explanation
    AFI 35-101 is the correct answer because it provides the guidelines and procedures for posting information to the Internet and public websites in compliance with local clearance and approval Public Affairs procedures. This document would be referenced to ensure that the web content meets the necessary requirements and follows the proper procedures before being posted on an Air Force web page. AFI 33-127, AFI 33-129, and AFI 35-108 are not specifically related to compliance of local clearance and approval Public Affairs procedures for posting information to the Internet/public Web sites.

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  • 42. 

    (013) When corresponding to an e-mail, which would you not use to follow proper e-mail etiquette?

    • A.

      Keep emails brief and to the point.

    • B.

      Read your email out loud to yourself.

    • C.

      Consistently use the "Reply-to-All" feature.

    • D.

      Ensure attachments are appropriate to supplement your message.

    Correct Answer
    C. Consistently use the "Reply-to-All" feature.
    Explanation
    Using the "Reply-to-All" feature consistently would not follow proper email etiquette. This feature should only be used when it is necessary for everyone included in the original email thread to receive the response. In most cases, it is more appropriate to reply only to the sender or to select specific recipients who need to be included in the response. Using "Reply-to-All" unnecessarily can clutter inboxes and lead to unnecessary emails for recipients who do not need to be involved in the conversation.

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  • 43. 

    (014) Which document is not considered an official government record?

    • A.

      Published doctrines.

    • B.

      Geographical base maps.

    • C.

      Photographs of a retreat ceremony.

    • D.

      Library reference or museum exhibitions.

    Correct Answer
    D. Library reference or museum exhibitions.
    Explanation
    Library reference or museum exhibitions are not considered official government records because they are not created or maintained by government agencies for official purposes. Official government records typically include documents that are created, received, or maintained by government agencies in the course of their official duties. Published doctrines, geographical base maps, and photographs of a retreat ceremony can all be considered official government records depending on the context and the agency responsible for creating or maintaining them.

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  • 44. 

    (014) Records that are considered to be in draft format

    • A.

      Can be altered and are not officially released.

    • B.

      Can't be altered, but are officially released.

    • C.

      Can't be altered and are officially signed.

    • D.

      Are officially signed and officially released.

    Correct Answer
    A. Can be altered and are not officially released.
    Explanation
    Records that are considered to be in draft format can be altered and are not officially released.

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  • 45. 

    (014) Records that are considered to be in final format have which characteristic?

    • A.

      Officially signed and not released.

    • B.

      Officially signed and officially released.

    • C.

      Can be altered and are not officially released.

    • D.

      Can't be altered, but are not officially released.

    Correct Answer
    B. Officially signed and officially released.
    Explanation
    Records that are considered to be in final format have the characteristic of being officially signed and officially released. This means that they have undergone the necessary approvals and are ready to be shared or distributed.

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  • 46. 

    (015) Who is charged with the duties of establishing training programs for newly appointed base records managers?

    • A.

      Base records manager

    • B.

      Chief of Office of Records

    • C.

      Command records manager

    • D.

      Functional area records manager

    Correct Answer
    C. Command records manager
    Explanation
    The command records manager is responsible for establishing training programs for newly appointed base records managers. This role is tasked with ensuring that these managers have the necessary skills and knowledge to effectively manage records within their respective bases. By providing training programs, the command records manager helps to ensure that records are properly organized, maintained, and accessible, thus promoting efficient record-keeping practices throughout the organization.

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  • 47. 

    (015) Whose duties include providing assistance, managing staging areas, and records training?

    • A.

      Base records manager

    • B.

      Chief of Office of Records

    • C.

      Command records manager

    • D.

      Functional area records manager

    Correct Answer
    A. Base records manager
    Explanation
    The duties of a base records manager include providing assistance, managing staging areas, and records training. This role is responsible for overseeing the organization and maintenance of records within a military base or establishment. They ensure that records are properly stored, easily accessible, and comply with relevant regulations and policies. The base records manager plays a crucial role in maintaining the integrity and security of important documents and information within the organization.

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  • 48. 

    (015) Who is appointed at each base-level unit, principal staff office within an Air Force organization or contractor to perform records management?

    • A.

      Base records manager

    • B.

      Chief of Office of Records

    • C.

      Command records manager

    • D.

      Functional area records manager

    Correct Answer
    D. Functional area records manager
    Explanation
    A functional area records manager is appointed at each base-level unit, principal staff office within an Air Force organization or contractor to perform records management. This individual is responsible for managing and maintaining records within their specific functional area, ensuring compliance with record-keeping policies and procedures. They play a crucial role in organizing and preserving important documents, facilitating efficient retrieval of information, and ensuring the security and confidentiality of records.

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  • 49. 

    (015) Who has the authority to appoint record custodians within an office of record?

    • A.

      Base records manager

    • B.

      Chief of Office of Records

    • C.

      Command records manager

    • D.

      Functional area records manager

    Correct Answer
    B. Chief of Office of Records
    Explanation
    The Chief of Office of Records has the authority to appoint record custodians within an office of record. This individual is responsible for overseeing the management and maintenance of records within the office, including appointing individuals who will be responsible for the custody and control of specific records.

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  • 50. 

    (016) A logical group of organized data fields containing some type of useful information is know as a/an

    • A.

      File.

    • B.

      Record.

    • C.

      Database.

    • D.

      Enterprise.

    Correct Answer
    B. Record.
    Explanation
    A logical group of organized data fields containing some type of useful information is known as a record. A record is a collection of related data elements that are treated as a unit and can be accessed and manipulated together. It represents a single entity or object in a database and typically contains information about attributes or characteristics of that entity. Records are used to store and retrieve specific information within a database system.

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Quiz Review Timeline +

Our quizzes are rigorously reviewed, monitored and continuously updated by our expert board to maintain accuracy, relevance, and timeliness.

  • Current Version
  • Mar 17, 2023
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • Dec 28, 2012
    Quiz Created by
    Becky11
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