2w1 7 Level Pretest 1 Of 2

60 Questions | Total Attempts: 183

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Pretest Quizzes & Trivia

Questions taken directly from Unit Review Exercises


Questions and Answers
  • 1. 
    (001) Which document(s) is locally developed to represent authorized munitions configurations?
    • A. 

      Operations plan

    • B. 

      Standard conventional Load (SCL)

    • C. 

      Unit committed munitions list

    • D. 

      Standard air munitions packages

  • 2. 
    (001) Who establishes maintenance priorities that the weapons expediter must respond to?
    • A. 

      Weapons NCOIC

    • B. 

      Squadron commander

    • C. 

      Production superintendent

    • D. 

      Wing weapons manager

  • 3. 
    (002) Which document provides guidance on which aircraft systems are required for specific  missions?
    • A. 

      Approved mission subset listing.

    • B. 

      Critical mission systems list.

    • C. 

      Mission critical systems list

    • D. 

      Mission essential subsystem list.

  • 4. 
    (002) What is the benchmark time for standard aircraft repairs?
    • A. 

      2 hours

    • B. 

      8 hours

    • C. 

      12 hours

    • D. 

      24 hours

  • 5. 
    (003) Which Air Force Instruction (AFI) describes the responsibilities for Total Force Integration?
    • A. 

      21–101

    • B. 

      91–201

    • C. 

      90–1001

    • D. 

      20–2001

  • 6. 
    (003) Which term gives one component commander the authority to designate objectives, assign  tasks, and provide the direction to another component subordinate necessary to accomplish the  mission?
    • A. 

      Tactical direction

    • B. 

      Tactical command

    • C. 

      Operational direction

    • D. 

      Operational command

  • 7. 
    (003) When an entire Air National Guard (ANG) unit is performing in a Title 10 status, it must be  assigned to what type of organizational structure.
    • A. 

      Title 6, Domestic Security

    • B. 

      Title 10, Armed Forces

    • C. 

      Title 32, National Guard

    • D. 

      Title 540, War and national Defense

  • 8. 
    (004) Which type of commander appoints impoundment officials?
    • A. 

      Base

    • B. 

      Wing

    • C. 

      Group

    • D. 

      Squadron

  • 9. 
    (004) What level of command has the authority to develop procedures for identifying impounded  aircraft or equipment and specify impoundment release authority?
    • A. 

      Squadron

    • B. 

      Group

    • C. 

      Wing

    • D. 

      MAJCOM

  • 10. 
    (004) Who is responsible for ensuring only authorized personnel have access to impounded  aircraft or equipment?
    • A. 

      Production superintendent

    • B. 

      Aircraft crew chief

    • C. 

      Impoundment official

    • D. 

      Quality assurance (QA) personnel

  • 11. 
    (004) Who has the authority to grant a “one time” flight of an impounded aircraft according to  technical order (TO) 00–20–01?
    • A. 

      Group commander.

    • B. 

      Impoundment official

    • C. 

      Quality assurance (QA)

    • D. 

      Squadron commander.

  • 12. 
    What process generates aircraft in a minimum amount of time, through concurrent  operations that may include refueling, munitions loading/unloading, aircraft reconfiguration, and  –6 inspections?
    • A. 

      Sortie generation operation (SGO)

    • B. 

      Sortie surge procedures (SSP)

    • C. 

      Integrated combat turnaround (ICT)

    • D. 

      Hot pit turn

  • 13. 
    (005) Which aircraft maintenance action requires a concurrent servicing supervisor (CSS)?
    • A. 

      Oxygen servicing.

    • B. 

      Aircraft towing.

    • C. 

      Munitions loading/downloading

    • D. 

      Aircraft fueling.

  • 14. 
    (005) Which guidance is the primary method for rapid munitions loading or unloading on bomber  aircraft?
    • A. 

      Dual loading operation (DLO).

    • B. 

      Concurrent servicing operation (CSO).

    • C. 

      Sortie generation operation (SGO).

    • D. 

      Sortie surge procedures (SSP).

  • 15. 
    (005) Which functional area can authorize a fighter unit to conduct dual loading operations  (DLO)?
    • A. 

      Quality assurance (QA).

    • B. 

      Wing weapons safety flight.

    • C. 

      Maintenance group (MXG).

    • D. 

      Major command (MAJCOM).

  • 16. 
    (006) What is the primary form that’s used to list every job to be completed and the technicians  assigned to perform the work?
    • A. 

      AF IMT 2434, Munitions Configuration and Expenditure Document

    • B. 

      AF IMT 2430, Specialist Dispatch Control Log.

    • C. 

      AF IMT 2407, Weekly/Daily Flying Schedule Coordination

    • D. 

      AF IMT 2403, Weekly Aircraft Utilization/Maintenance Schedule.

  • 17. 
    (006) Who is the approval authority for locally produced versions of the AF IMT 2434,  Munitions Configuration and Expenditure Document?
    • A. 

      Squadron commander

    • B. 

      Wing weapons manager

    • C. 

      Weapons section non-commissioned officer in charge (NCOIC)

    • D. 

      Maintenance group commander

  • 18. 
    (006) After munitions reconciliation is completed all expenditure documents are distributed to  what agency(s)?
    • A. 

      Weapons standardization section

    • B. 

      Weapons system database section

    • C. 

      Munitions flight and plans & scheduling section

    • D. 

      Munitions flight’s munitions management & distribution section

  • 19. 
    (006) Which records keeping function is performed after an aircraft is removed from  cannibalization status (CANN)?
    • A. 

      Expediter forms review.

    • B. 

      Aircraft document review (ADR).

    • C. 

      Data integrity team (DIT) forms review.

    • D. 

      Quality assurance records review (QARR).

  • 20. 
    (006) Which expediter specific inspections are normally documented as separate inspections?
    • A. 

      Aircraft forms review.

    • B. 

      30-day forms reviews

    • C. 

      Supervisory post loads

    • D. 

      Aircraft document review (ADR).

  • 21. 
    (007) Which form is published as a continuation form for Part 5 of the Air Force technical order  (AFTO) Form 244, Industrial/Support Equipment Record?
    • A. 

      AFTO Form 245.

    • B. 

      AFTO Form 244a.

    • C. 

      AFTO Form 244 continuation sheet.

    • D. 

      AFTO Form 244 part V continuation sheet

  • 22. 
    (007) Which items require an Air Force technical order (AFTO) Form 244?
    • A. 

      Items coded XB3.

    • B. 

      Serially controlled items.

    • C. 

      Items appearing on the custody account.

    • D. 

      Items that require periodic serviceability testing.

  • 23. 
    (008) What information is located in section III of the AF Form 623, On-the Job Training Record?
    • A. 

      Trainee identification data.

    • B. 

      Documented items related to trainee’s training.

    • C. 

      The career field education and training plan (CFETP).

    • D. 

      A list of all completed formal training courses and completion dates.

  • 24. 
    (008) Who must sign and date all entries in the AF IMT 623a, On-the Job Training Record,
    • A. 

      Supervisor or trainer only

    • B. 

      Supervisor and/or trainer and trainee.

    • C. 

      Weapons section non-commissioned officer in charge (NCOIC) and supervisor only.

    • D. 

      Commander or supervisor and/or trainer only

  • 25. 
    (008) What publication describes an Air Force specialty in terms of tasks and knowledge that an Airman may be expected to perform or to know on the job?
    • A. 

      Airman Specialty Knowledge Skills (ASKS) system.

    • B. 

      Career field education and training plan (CFETP).

    • C. 

      Specialty training standard (STS).

    • D. 

      Course syllabus.

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