Management System

91 Questions

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Management Quizzes & Trivia

Questions and Answers
  • 1. 
    In order to provide the parts you need, the AF supply system is connected to a vast supply network known as the
    • A. 

      ASRS

    • B. 

      GCSS

    • C. 

      AF wholesale supply system

    • D. 

      National supply system

  • 2. 
    A major goal of the GCSS-AF program is to
    • A. 

      Migrate base-level combat support systems to a closed propritary architecture

    • B. 

      Consolidate base-level combat support systems into a closed non-propritary architecture

    • C. 

      Isolate base-level combat support systems to provide decision support to the Chief of Supply

    • D. 

      Intergrate the base-level combat support systems to provide enhanced decision support to the Wing Commander

  • 3. 
    The SBSS is an accounting system that consists of standardized computer equipment, programs, procedures, and supply policy to
    • A. 

      Provide base activities with thier supply needs

    • B. 

      Effectively manage and repair all XD and XF3 and XB3 components at the local level

    • C. 

      Track the manufacture, release data and application of AF resources used by off-base mangerial personnel only

    • D. 

      Track the manufacture, release data and application of AF resources used by on-base aircraft maintenance personnel only

  • 4. 
    As it relates to the responsibilities of maintenance managers, the primary goal of the SBSS is to
    • A. 

      Give flightline managers approval authority for all SBSS functions through CAMS terminals

    • B. 

      Provide flightline managers with the historical data required to approve and implement all budget and buy programs

    • C. 

      Give local supply managers full control of the repair cycle process to prevent transfer of any critical assets off-base

    • D. 

      Provide standardized management of data showing the effectiveness of the supply system for all levels of management

  • 5. 
    What modernized system is replacing the SBSS?
    • A. 

      Plans and Scheduling

    • B. 

      Graphic Interface Unit

    • C. 

      Precious Metal Recovery Program

    • D. 

      Intergrated Logistics System-Supply

  • 6. 
    • A. 

      Technical Refresh and Compenentization

    • B. 

      Technical Refresh and GUI

    • C. 

      QLPs and GUI

    • D. 

      QLPs and COTS

  • 7. 
    • A. 

      "XF3" items listed in the -21 technical order but not directed by major command for special progams

    • B. 

      "XD" items used by maintenance to preform functions such as calibrating or aligning equipment

    • C. 

      All "XF3" items and "XD" items

    • D. 

      "XF3" items only

  • 8. 
    SPRAM account of "F" identifies assets or spares that are used
    • A. 

      To detect or isolate a fault or a problem in on-line equipment

    • B. 

      Within approved AETC training courses

    • C. 

      As test station spares

    • D. 

      As shop standards

  • 9. 
    • A. 

      I

    • B. 

      IIA

    • C. 

      IIB

    • D. 

      III

  • 10. 
    The bench stock manager is responsible for
    • A. 

      Accounting for all equipment

    • B. 

      Signing for the account on the CA/CRL

    • C. 

      Transferring funds for the account every fiscal quarter

    • D. 

      Ensuring shelf-life items are used before the experation date

  • 11. 
    Which of the following is the correct policy concerning the storage of AF-managed, shelf-life items?
    • A. 

      Items may be extended beyond the assigned storage period for the full original life unless otherwise prescribed by thecnical order or directive

    • B. 

      Items may never be extended beyond the full original life of the item

    • C. 

      Items may be designated shelf-life to facilitate storage quality and stock control

    • D. 

      Designation of items as shelf-life items will be maximized to increas stocks

  • 12. 
    AF managed Type II shelf life items with a shelf-life greater than 60 months will be coded as a/an
    • A. 

      "1"

    • B. 

      "2"

    • C. 

      "9"

    • D. 

      "10"

  • 13. 
    • A. 

      30 days after entry into the AF supply system and 30 days thereafter

    • B. 

      30 days after entry into the AF supply system and 60 days thereafter

    • C. 

      Prior to their entry in to the AF supply system, upon entry into the system and after item has been established in the system

    • D. 

      Within 30 days of manufacture, within 6 months of entry into th AF supply system, and annually thereafter until disposal

  • 14. 
    The most critical time when local units really need to use a QPL is when they purchase products directly from?
    • A. 

      GSA store

    • B. 

      Supply

    • C. 

      Individual issue

    • D. 

      Commercial sources

  • 15. 
    At a minimum, a review and validation of the QRL must be accomplished
    • A. 

      Weekly

    • B. 

      Monthly

    • C. 

      Semiannually

    • D. 

      Annually

  • 16. 
    You are reviewing a DO4. You notice you have a TIC of DUO. What does DUO mean?
    • A. 

      Due-out for release

    • B. 

      Due to be ordered

    • C. 

      Due to be shipped

    • D. 

      Due out or back ordered

  • 17. 
    • A. 

      Initial issue

    • B. 

      Recurring issue

    • C. 

      Nonrecurring issue

    • D. 

      Contractor support issue

  • 18. 
    The D18, Priorty Monitor Report, only lists parts the have a UND code of
    • A. 

      A

    • B. 

      B

    • C. 

      I

    • D. 

      II

  • 19. 
    Which of the following is the supply status code on the D18, Priority Monitor Report, for an item being processed for release and shipment?
    • A. 

      BA

    • B. 

      BB

    • C. 

      BD

    • D. 

      BQ

  • 20. 
    On the D23, Repair cycle asset management list, which column would contain the term MAINT OFF ATTN REQ?
    • A. 

      CI

    • B. 

      ADV

    • C. 

      PRE

    • D. 

      PHRASE

  • 21. 
    Equipment custodians use the AFEMS to submit and track allowance changes
    • A. 

      Manually

    • B. 

      Electronically

    • C. 

      Within the local base supply network only

    • D. 

      Within the Command's base supply network only

  • 22. 
    At a minimum, when are equipment custodians required to do inventories?
    • A. 

      Monthly

    • B. 

      Quarterly

    • C. 

      Biannually

    • D. 

      Annually

  • 23. 
    During a custodian transfer, how many copies of the CA/CRL will EME personnel return
    • A. 

      One

    • B. 

      Two

    • C. 

      Three

    • D. 

      Four

  • 24. 
    • A. 

      AF Form 601, Equipment Action Request

    • B. 

      DD Form 1576, Test Modification Tag-Material

    • C. 

      DD Form 1348, 1A, Due Out Release Document

    • D. 

      DD Form 1348-6 DOD Line Item Requisition System Document

  • 25. 
    Items that are not in the ASRS but are needed to preform a mission are classified as special allowance requests. At what level of command must these requests be approved?
    • A. 

      Higher headquarters

    • B. 

      Squadron

    • C. 

      Group

    • D. 

      Base

  • 26. 
    Who has the responsibility of the tool managment program to ensure standardization among maintenance units?
    • A. 

      Sortie support flight commander

    • B. 

      MXG/CC or equivalent functional authority maintenance

    • C. 

      Vice Wing commander

    • D. 

      Wing commander

  • 27. 
    Who will approve the MIL for weapons load crew CTKs?
    • A. 

      Sortie support section chief

    • B. 

      Weapons flight/section chief

    • C. 

      WWM

    • D. 

      MXG/CC or equivalent functional authority for maintenace

  • 28. 
    Which statement in not a correct guideline for the proper care of TMDE?
    • A. 

      Must be transported using suitable mechanical devices if too heavy to be carried by personnel.

    • B. 

      All unmated connectors must be kept covered with moisture-proof and vapor proof caps.

    • C. 

      All unmated connectors must be kept covered with tape instead of caps.

    • D. 

      Items completely contained in packing cases may be stored on the floor.

  • 29. 
    • A. 

      Delivery priority

    • B. 

      TRN

    • C. 

      UJC

    • D. 

      FAD

  • 30. 
    High priority issue rquests inflate the overall cost of assets by increasing
    • A. 

      A number of the difm parts on hand.

    • B. 

      Transportation and handling costs.

    • C. 

      Depot repair costs.

    • D. 

      Manpower

  • 31. 
    Why is the SBSS computer system programmed to reject DIFM issues for more than one item?
    • A. 

      You can't get more than one DIFM item at a time.

    • B. 

      The cost is prohibitive and requiers higher authority.

    • C. 

      You can't turn in more than on e DIFM item on any given document number.

    • D. 

      There is a possibility of having different mainteneance actions taken on these items.

  • 32. 
    • A. 

      When you receive the part

    • B. 

      As soon as you order the part.

    • C. 

      When you turn the part in to the RCSS.

    • D. 

      As soon as you remove the part from an aircraft, engine, or piece of equipment.

  • 33. 
    Under the concepts of the AFREP technician
    • A. 

      Develops and coordinates policy for participating units.

    • B. 

      Reviews and recommends approval/disapproval of item repair process request.

    • C. 

      Evaluates potential AFREP initiatives and determins if repair of item is feasible

    • D. 

      Coordinates with DLA, ALCs, Product Centers and other agencies as requiered

  • 34. 
    Which system or process is used to identify, report and resolve deficiencies on items repaired under the AFREP?
    • A. 

      Gold Disc Program

    • B. 

      LCOM

    • C. 

      GCSS

    • D. 

      Air Force Deficiency Reporting and Investigatigating System.

  • 35. 
    In manpower studies using LCOM, the objective for each Air Force Specialty is to
    • A. 

      Distribute test equipment assets on regional basis to reflect manning.

    • B. 

      Determine the lowest manpower level possible to achieve the desired sortie rate.

    • C. 

      Ensure adequate individuals are assigned to the AFREP.

    • D. 

      Ensure individuals assigned to AFREP obtain a minimum of a five-skill level.

  • 36. 
    Which center is the Air Force's largest ALC?
    • A. 

      Ogden Air Logistics Center.

    • B. 

      Air Force Flight Test Center.

    • C. 

      Oklahoma City Air Logistics Center.

    • D. 

      Warner Robins Air Logistics Center.

  • 37. 
    • A. 

      Air Force Flight Test Center

    • B. 

      Warner Robins Air Logistics Center.

    • C. 

      The Oklahoma City Air Logistics Center.

    • D. 

      The AMARC

  • 38. 
    Who has been designated as the overall material manager for AR systems and equipment?
    • A. 

      Air Force Flight Test Center

    • B. 

      Air Force Material Command

    • C. 

      Warner Robins Air Logistics Center.

    • D. 

      The Oklahoma City Air Logistics Center.

  • 39. 
    • A. 

      SCR

    • B. 

      SCR and UMD

    • C. 

      CFETP and SEI

    • D. 

      CFETP and UMD

  • 40. 
    The UMD provides a summary of the total manpower requirements for
    • A. 

      AF officers allocated to each work center only.

    • B. 

      AF enlisted personnel allocated to each work center only.

    • C. 

      AF officers, enlisted and civilians allocated to each work center.

    • D. 

      AF officers and enlisted personnel allocated to each work center

  • 41. 
    • A. 

      Detailed and specific

    • B. 

      Detailed and combined

    • C. 

      Regular and irregular

    • D. 

      Regular and extended

  • 42. 
    Concerning assigned military personnel, how does the UPMR differ from the UMD?
    • A. 

      The UPMR only shows projected gains while the UMD identifies personnel assigned to each FAC.

    • B. 

      The UPMR only shows projected losses while the UMD identifiespersonnel assigned to each FAC.

    • C. 

      The UPMR identifies personnel assigned to each FAC and pertinent individual information.

    • D. 

      The UPMR identifies personnel assigned to each FAC, but it is without pertinent individual information such as projected assignments that is listed on the UMD.

  • 43. 
    A mismatch that is identified as an asterisk (*) prior to the individual's rank or AFSC on the UPMR indicates
    • A. 

      Someone id filling a position that does not correspond to their date of rank only

    • B. 

      Someone is filling a position that does not correspond to their rank or skill level

    • C. 

      The member is in an undermanned position number

    • D. 

      The member is a projected loss without a projected inbound

  • 44. 
    • A. 

      AFSC billeting

    • B. 

      Skill level billeting

    • C. 

      No-name allocations

    • D. 

      Returnee placement allocations

  • 45. 
    A key functional process or program used in managing the organization's budget is the
    • A. 

      Air Force Portal.

    • B. 

      LOGDET.

    • C. 

      Air Force Government-Wide Purchase Card Program.

    • D. 

      MEFPAK system.

  • 46. 
    Prior to making a purchase for repair services, Air Force Government-Wide Purchase cardholders must receive approval from
    • A. 

      Wing Safety.

    • B. 

      The Contracting Squadron.

    • C. 

      The Accounting and Finance Office.

    • D. 

      Bioenviromental Engineering Services.

  • 47. 
    A ROS must be submitted for government property that is lost or damaged if the amount of the loss is
    • A. 

      Less than $100.

    • B. 

      More than $100 but less than $500.

    • C. 

      More than $200 but less than $500.

    • D. 

      More than $500.

  • 48. 
    • A. 

      Property is lost in combat operations.

    • B. 

      Provide documentation, which can be used to support the adjustment of accountable records.

    • C. 

      To investigate reasons for the loss, or damage of the property to determine if negligence is at fault.

    • D. 

      To investigate reasons for the loss, damage, or destroyed property to determine if negligence or abuse is at fault.

  • 49. 
    UTC consists of a/an
    • A. 

      Seven-character numeric code that identifies CIRF locations.

    • B. 

      Eleven-character numeric code that identifies required timetables for deployment.

    • C. 

      Five-character alphanumeric code that identifies each type unit of the Armed Forces.

    • D. 

      Seven-character alphanumeric code that identifies CIRF offering the logistical support.

  • 50. 
    CAMS for Mobility (G081) Maintenance Management Information System is used exclusively by AMC to
    • A. 

      Manage aircraft maintenance only.

    • B. 

      Manage and document maintenance activities and processes.

    • C. 

      Facilitate training activities only and automatically update occupational survey reports.

    • D. 

      Facilitate training activities and limit informational access to key flightline managers only.

  • 51. 
    Who is primary responsible for entering accurate information into CAMS for Mobility (G081)?
    • A. 

      Maintenance analysis.

    • B. 

      Technicians who perform the tasks.

    • C. 

      Base and flightline maintenance managers.

    • D. 

      Base and MAJCOM maintenance managers.

  • 52. 
    Air Force Electronic Publishing Library CDs are distributed
    • A. 

      Weekly.

    • B. 

      Monthly.

    • C. 

      Quarterly.

    • D. 

      Annually.

  • 53. 
    The AFP allows users to draw information from
    • A. 

      AF legacy systems only.

    • B. 

      Publicly available fields and AF legacy systems only.

    • C. 

      Publicly available fields and web-enabled systems only.

    • D. 

      Publicly available fields, AF legacy systems, and web-enabled systems.

  • 54. 
    SORTS data may be released to
    • A. 

      Commanders only.

    • B. 

      All military personnel.

    • C. 

      Members with valid need to know.

    • D. 

      Members with valid need to know and the appropriate clearance.

  • 55. 
    Responsibility for assigning functional area office responsibility for each measured unit type in SORTS reests with
    • A. 

      MAJCOM commanders.

    • B. 

      MAJCOM personnel.

    • C. 

      Headquarters USAF Personnel.

    • D. 

      Personnel in fuctional area offices.

  • 56. 
    Whose responsibility is it to package material in sealed containers when it pertains to in-transit classified material?
    • A. 

      Courier.

    • B. 

      Quality Assurance.

    • C. 

      Information manager.

    • D. 

      TMDE Flight.

  • 57. 
    If the aircraft owner or user doesn't stay with the aircraft, the owner or user must arrange for security Police to conduct periodic checks how often apart?
    • A. 

      No less than every 3 hours apart.

    • B. 

      No less than every 2 hours apart.

    • C. 

      No less than every 1 hours apart.

    • D. 

      No less than every 0.5 hours apart.

  • 58. 
    • A. 

      Anyone.

    • B. 

      Any flightline personnel.

    • C. 

      Engine borescope qualified personnel.

    • D. 

      Only US citizens with clearance equal to the equipment.

  • 59. 
    Which of the following describes the method and media to be used to train personnel to empploy, operate, and maintain a specific system?
    • A. 

      STP

    • B. 

      After Phase dock briefing.

    • C. 

      Phase Predock briefing

    • D. 

      Aircraft flight training plan.

  • 60. 
    Which of the following is based on a building block approach using calssroom academics and CBITS?
    • A. 

      Trend report.

    • B. 

      Formal training.

    • C. 

      Deficiency report.

    • D. 

      Career Development Courses.

  • 61. 
    • A. 

      AFMC.

    • B. 

      PACAF.

    • C. 

      Quality Assurance Working Group.

    • D. 

      Instructional System Design Working Group.

  • 62. 
    • A. 

      Less efficiently.

    • B. 

      More efficiently.

    • C. 

      More span of control

    • D. 

      Less span of control

  • 63. 
    What allows wholesale users to create and manage technical order configuration, content, stock and distribution and Reference Library information?
    • A. 

      TO program managers.

    • B. 

      TO distribution managers.

    • C. 

      Technical Order Distribution warehouse.

    • D. 

      JCALS system.

  • 64. 
    Which individual will establish a TODO to administer organization TO requirements at the group level?
    • A. 

      MAJCOM commander

    • B. 

      Group commander

    • C. 

      Flight chief

    • D. 

      Air Force Corrosion prevention nad Control Office

  • 65. 
    Which of the following are grouped as immediate action, urgent action and routine action according to the urgency of the instructions?
    • A. 

      Work unit codes.

    • B. 

      Distribution activities.

    • C. 

      Time Compliance Technical Orders.

    • D. 

      Consolidated Response Tool Kits.

  • 66. 
    • A. 

      Urgent.

    • B. 

      Routine.

    • C. 

      Emergency.

    • D. 

      As soon as flightline operations permit

  • 67. 
    The TO Manager must provide written corrective action for approved Urgent PCRs or downgrade the PCR within a maximum of how many days?
    • A. 

      5 calendar days.

    • B. 

      10 calendar days.

    • C. 

      15 calendar days.

    • D. 

      20 calendar days.

  • 68. 
    What is the technical order category represented by "00"?
    • A. 

      Aircraft TOs.

    • B. 

      Test Equipment TOs.

    • C. 

      General/Methods and Procedures TOs.

    • D. 

      Fuels, Gases, Lubricants, Chemicals, and Materials TOs.

  • 69. 
    • A. 

      Debrief.

    • B. 

      Quality Assurance.

    • C. 

      Higher headquarters.

    • D. 

      Supply commander.

  • 70. 
    Who in the screening point, product improvement office has overall management responsibility and serves as the focal point for submitting deficiency reports?
    • A. 

      Flight chief

    • B. 

      To manager

    • C. 

      Quality Assurance

    • D. 

      MAJCOM representative

  • 71. 
    What number of days is a supply discrepancy report defined as unresolved if a reply has not been received?
    • A. 

      50 days

    • B. 

      100 days

    • C. 

      146 days

    • D. 

      150 days

  • 72. 
    What provides the capability of a full text retrieval data base management system for tracking the progress of deficiency investigations within the data base?
    • A. 

      TO manager

    • B. 

      Technical Order Distribution Office

    • C. 

      DREAMS

    • D. 

      JCALS system

  • 73. 
    • A. 

      DD Form 2026

    • B. 

      Trend report

    • C. 

      Deficiency report

    • D. 

      Working Group Program report

  • 74. 
    Who ensures proper training of AF Oil Analysis Program laboratory technicians?
    • A. 

      MAJCOM

    • B. 

      Propulsion Flight

    • C. 

      Acccessory Flight

    • D. 

      TMDE Flight

  • 75. 
    Which of the following is the problem that most frequently affects oil sample integrity?
    • A. 

      Clean oil

    • B. 

      Contamination

    • C. 

      Following technical data for sampling

    • D. 

      Sharp decreases in the concentration of wear-metals

  • 76. 
    • A. 

      Before Phase dock briefing

    • B. 

      After Phase dock Briefing

    • C. 

      As soon as possible before engine operation

    • D. 

      As soon as possible engine/equipments shutdown

  • 77. 
    What codes indicate the existence or non-existence of precious metal(s) contained in or on items of supply?
    • A. 

      Failure Codes

    • B. 

      Supply Codes

    • C. 

      Deficiency Reporting Codes

    • D. 

      PMIC

  • 78. 
    Which of the following AFIs defines the objectives and AF element responsibilities aimed at minimizing corrision threats throughout all of an aerospace system life cycle?
    • A. 

      21-105, Air and Space Equipment Structural Maintenance

    • B. 

      21-110, Engineering And Technical Services Management And Control

    • C. 

      21-112, Aircrew Egress Systems Maintenance

    • D. 

      21-115, Product Quality Deficiency Report Program

  • 79. 
    Who conducts many types of inspections to include radiographic inspections?
    • A. 

      Jet Engine section

    • B. 

      Fuel System Repair section

    • C. 

      Plans and Scheduling section

    • D. 

      Nondestructive Inspection section

  • 80. 
    • A. 

      AF Form 55

    • B. 

      DD Form 2026

    • C. 

      AF Form 2631

    • D. 

      DD Form 2287

  • 81. 
    Which Tag is designed to prelude the inadvertent activation of a system?
    • A. 

      AF Form 979, Danger Tag

    • B. 

      AF Form 14299, Warning Tag

    • C. 

      AF Form 30, Drug and Alcohol Tag

    • D. 

      AF Form 1462, Water Pollution

  • 82. 
    Which tag is only used when an immediate hazard exists and specific precautions are required to protect personnel or property?
    • A. 

      AF Form 979, Danger Tag

    • B. 

      AF Form 1492, Warning Tag

    • C. 

      AF Form 30, Drug and Alcohol Tag

    • D. 

      AF Form 1462, Water pollution Tag

  • 83. 
    Which list covers tasks that are complex and that affect safety of flight?
    • A. 

      Key task list

    • B. 

      Routine inspection list

    • C. 

      Equipment issue list

    • D. 

      Workcenter Tools list

  • 84. 
    Each time a maintenance action/function listed on the KTL is completed, it requires a mandatory call-in to
    • A. 

      Pro super

    • B. 

      Quality Assurance

    • C. 

      Maintenance superintendent

    • D. 

      Squardon maintenance officer

  • 85. 
    Which evaluation/report is and over-the-shoulder evaluation of amintenance technicians or supervisors while they actually perform a job?
    • A. 

      Team evaluation

    • B. 

      Individual evaluation

    • C. 

      Acceptable quality report

    • D. 

      Working group program report

  • 86. 
    Once a controlled area is established around and aircraft, the deplaning aircrew members are monitored and docontaminated, under whose supervision?
    • A. 

      Production and supervisor

    • B. 

      Dedicated crew chief

    • C. 

      Propulsion branch chief

    • D. 

      Bipenviromental engineer

  • 87. 
    • A. 

      Unit

    • B. 

      Flight

    • C. 

      Squadron

    • D. 

      Group

  • 88. 
    Under Which hanger queen category are aircraft that have not flown for 30 to 59 consecutive days?
    • A. 

      1

    • B. 

      2

    • C. 

      3

    • D. 

      4

  • 89. 
    Who maintains and ensures the accuracy of the ISO count number and the ISO inspection number for all assigned aircraft?
    • A. 

      Unit commander

    • B. 

      Quality assurance officer

    • C. 

      Production superintendent

    • D. 

      Plans, scheduling, and documentation personnel

  • 90. 
    Who serves as the DOP prevention program manager?
    • A. 

      Vice wing commander

    • B. 

      Section chief

    • C. 

      Dedicated crew chief

    • D. 

      Maintenance debriefer

  • 91. 
    Who may approve ABDR repair techniques during peacetime, but only on a case-by-case basis?
    • A. 

      Vice wing commander

    • B. 

      Section chief

    • C. 

      Dedicated crew chief

    • D. 

      Systems program amnager