2A672 Volume 1 Ure Questions

Reviewed by Editorial Team
The ProProfs editorial team is comprised of experienced subject matter experts. They've collectively created over 10,000 quizzes and lessons, serving over 100 million users. Our team includes in-house content moderators and subject matter experts, as well as a global network of rigorously trained contributors. All adhere to our comprehensive editorial guidelines, ensuring the delivery of high-quality content.
Learn about Our Editorial Process
| By Cocoanut
C
Cocoanut
Community Contributor
Quizzes Created: 2 | Total Attempts: 5,060
| Attempts: 2,392 | Questions: 84
Please wait...
Question 1 / 84
0 %
0/100
Score 0/100
1. What is the simplest form of matter?

Explanation

An element is the simplest form of matter because it consists of only one type of atom. Atoms are the basic building blocks of matter, and elements are made up of identical atoms. They cannot be broken down into simpler substances by chemical means. In contrast, mixtures are composed of two or more different substances, compounds are made up of two or more different elements chemically combined, and electrons are subatomic particles that are part of atoms.

Submit
Please wait...
About This Quiz
Atomic Physics Quizzes & Trivia

This quiz, titled '2A672 Volume 1 URE Questions', assesses fundamental concepts in matter, atomic structure, electrical properties, and circuit calculations. It is designed to test knowledge crucial for... see moreunderstanding basic electrical theory, making it relevant for learners in physics and engineering fields. see less

2. In an atom, what electrons contain the most energy?

Explanation

Valence electrons are the electrons located in the outermost energy level of an atom. These electrons have the highest energy because they are farthest away from the positively charged nucleus and experience less attraction. As a result, valence electrons are more easily involved in chemical reactions and can be transferred or shared with other atoms to form chemical bonds.

Submit
3. Voltage induced into a conductor by the expanding and collapsing of a magnetic field is

Explanation

Electromagnetic induction is the correct answer because it refers to the process by which a voltage is induced in a conductor when it is exposed to a changing magnetic field. When the magnetic field expands or collapses, it creates a flux linkage with the conductor, resulting in the generation of an electromotive force (voltage) according to Faraday's law of electromagnetic induction. This phenomenon is the basis for the functioning of devices such as generators and transformers.

Submit
4. If the size of the plates of a capacitor is increased, how is capacitance affected?

Explanation

When the size of the plates of a capacitor is increased, the distance between the plates decreases. This leads to an increase in the electric field between the plates, resulting in an increase in the capacitance. The capacitance of a capacitor is directly proportional to the size of the plates, so when the size is increased, the capacitance also increases.

Submit
5. What gas turbine engine component is specifically designed to break if the engine locks up?

Explanation

The torsion shaft is specifically designed to break if the engine locks up. This component is responsible for transmitting torque from the engine to other parts, such as the compressor shaft. If the engine locks up and the torsion shaft is unable to handle the excessive force, it will break, preventing further damage to the engine.

Submit
6. What component of the -60A lubrication system on a gas turbine engine draws excess oil from the gear case?

Explanation

The scavenge pump is responsible for drawing excess oil from the gear case in the -60A lubrication system on a gas turbine engine. This pump helps to remove any excess oil that may accumulate in the gear case, ensuring that the engine operates efficiently and preventing any potential damage caused by an excessive amount of oil.

Submit
7. What are factors that affect the resistance of a material?

Explanation

The factors that affect the resistance of a material are the area of the material, the temperature at which it is being used, and the type of material itself. The area of the material affects resistance because a larger area allows for more current to flow, resulting in lower resistance. Temperature affects resistance because as temperature increases, the atoms in the material vibrate more, causing more collisions with electrons and increasing resistance. The type of material also affects resistance because different materials have different atomic structures and electron configurations, which can impact the ease of electron flow and therefore resistance.

Submit
8. What is the difference between and open and a short?

Explanation

An open circuit refers to a break or discontinuity in the circuit, which prevents the flow of current. In this case, there is no current flow. On the other hand, a short circuit occurs when there is an unintended connection between two points in the circuit, resulting in excessive current flow. Therefore, the correct answer states that there is no current flow in an open circuit, while there is excessive current flow in a shorted component.

Submit
9. What is the primary use of a silicon-controlled rectifier (SCR)?

Explanation

A silicon-controlled rectifier (SCR) is primarily used as an electronic switch. It is a semiconductor device that can control the flow of electric current. By applying a small voltage to the gate terminal, the SCR can be turned on and allow current to flow through it. Once triggered, it remains conducting even if the gate voltage is removed. This characteristic makes it suitable for applications where a high voltage or high current needs to be controlled, such as in power control circuits, motor control, and lighting dimmers.

Submit
10. What is the major difference between an NPN transistor and a PNP transistor?

Explanation

The major difference between an NPN transistor and a PNP transistor is the direction of current flow. In an NPN transistor, the current flows from the collector to the emitter, while in a PNP transistor, the current flows from the emitter to the collector. This difference in current flow direction is due to the arrangement of the layers of the transistor and the type of doping used.

Submit
11. During the operation of a -60A, you notice the exhaust gas temperature is excessively high.  What is the probable cause of this trouble?

Explanation

The probable cause of the excessively high exhaust gas temperature in a -60A is the pneumatic thermostat. The pneumatic thermostat is responsible for regulating the temperature in the engine by controlling the flow of air and fuel. If the pneumatic thermostat is malfunctioning or not functioning properly, it may result in an imbalance in the air-fuel mixture, leading to higher exhaust gas temperatures.

Submit
12. What type of transformer contains more turns in the primary winding than in the secondary winding?

Explanation

A step-down transformer contains more turns in the primary winding than in the secondary winding. This type of transformer is used to decrease the voltage level from the primary side to the secondary side. By having more turns in the primary winding, the transformer can step down the voltage and increase the current in the secondary winding. This is commonly used in power distribution systems to deliver lower voltage levels to households and businesses.

Submit
13. What action occurs when the B809A generator set AC card senses an AC supply fault?

Explanation

When the B809A generator set AC card senses an AC supply fault, the AC contactor opens and the generator output stops. This means that the connection between the AC card and the AC supply is interrupted, causing the AC contactor to open and prevent the generator from supplying power. This action is taken to protect the generator and prevent any further damage or malfunction due to the AC supply fault.

Submit
14. What is the basic principle of operation for transformers?

Explanation

The basic principle of operation for transformers is mutual induction. Mutual induction refers to the phenomenon where a changing current in one coil induces a voltage in a nearby coil. In the case of transformers, the primary coil is connected to an alternating current source, which creates a changing magnetic field. This changing magnetic field induces a voltage in the secondary coil, allowing for the transfer of electrical energy from one circuit to another. Mutual induction is essential for the functioning of transformers and is the basis for their ability to step up or step down voltage levels.

Submit
15. The area of a semiconductor where P-type material is joined to N-type material is known as

Explanation

The area where P-type material is joined to N-type material in a semiconductor is known as the depletion region. This region is formed due to the diffusion of charge carriers from one region to another, resulting in the formation of a region depleted of majority charge carriers. The depletion region acts as a barrier to the flow of current until a sufficient voltage is applied to overcome this barrier.

Submit
16. If a small potential is applied to the gate of a silicon-controlled rectifier (SCR), the

Explanation

When a small potential is applied to the gate of a silicon-controlled rectifier (SCR), the middle junction of the SCR becomes forward biased. This means that the P-type material in the middle junction becomes more positive with respect to the N-type material. This forward biasing allows current to flow through the SCR and turns it on. As a result, the SCR conducts current from anode to cathode.

Submit
17. The portion of the voltage regulator that supplies exciter field voltage is transformer

Explanation

The correct answer is (T1) and rectifier (CR26). The voltage regulator supplies exciter field voltage through a transformer (T1) and a rectifier (CR26). The transformer steps up or steps down the voltage to the required level, while the rectifier converts the AC voltage into DC voltage. Together, they provide the exciter field voltage necessary for the voltage regulator to regulate the output voltage of the generator. The other options mentioned (T2, B1, T3, B2, B3) are not involved in supplying the exciter field voltage.

Submit
18. Convert 500 milliamps to standard amperage.

Explanation

To convert milliamps to standard amperage, you need to divide the value in milliamps by 1000. In this case, 500 milliamps divided by 1000 equals 0.5 amps. Therefore, the correct answer is 0.5 amps.

Submit
19. In an inductor, what happens to the magnetic lines of force if the diameter of the core is increased in size?

Explanation

When the diameter of the core in an inductor is increased, the magnetic lines of force passing through the coil also increase. This is because a larger core allows for more magnetic flux to flow through it, resulting in a stronger magnetic field. As a result, the induction of the coil increases, meaning that the coil will generate a larger electromotive force (EMF) or voltage.

Submit
20. Refer to foldout 1.  Where is the best point to check voltage to the -86D exciter field?

Explanation

The best point to check voltage to the -86D exciter field is at J8, terminal D-F.

Submit
21. What B809A generator set engine safety circuit incorporates a seven-second time delay before activation?

Explanation

The correct answer is low lube pressure. The low lube pressure safety circuit in the B809A generator set engine incorporates a seven-second time delay before activation. This delay allows the engine to properly build up oil pressure before the safety circuit is activated, providing enough time for the engine to start and operate normally. This safety feature helps prevent damage to the engine due to insufficient lubrication.

Submit
22. Atoms having more than four electrons, but less than eight are known as

Explanation

Atoms having more than four electrons, but less than eight are known as insulators because insulators are materials that do not easily conduct electricity. These atoms have a partially filled valence shell, which makes it difficult for them to gain or lose electrons and form stable bonds with other atoms. As a result, they do not readily conduct electricity and are poor conductors of heat.

Submit
23. The electrostatic fields around a positive ion move

Explanation

The electrostatic fields around a positive ion move outward. This is because positive ions have a deficiency of electrons, resulting in an excess of positive charge. As a result, the electrostatic fields emanating from the positive ion repel other positive charges and attract negative charges. This repulsion causes the fields to extend outward from the ion, creating a region of influence where other charges are affected. Therefore, the correct answer is outward.

Submit
24. What are the three leads in a unijunction transistor (UJT) called?

Explanation

The three leads in a unijunction transistor (UJT) are called emitter, base 1, and base 2.

Submit
25. The emitter in a unijunction transister always points toward the

Explanation

The emitter in a unijunction transistor always points toward the base 1 lead. This is because the base 1 lead is the primary terminal that controls the operation of the transistor. The emitter is responsible for emitting the majority charge carriers (electrons or holes) into the base region, and it needs to be oriented towards the base 1 lead for proper functioning. The collector is the terminal that collects the charge carriers, and the gate is not relevant to a unijunction transistor.

Submit
26. What component controls the strength of the -86D exciter field L2?

Explanation

The voltage regulator VR1 controls the strength of the -86D exciter field L2. This means that VR1 determines the amount of voltage supplied to the exciter field, which in turn affects the strength of the field. By adjusting the voltage, the voltage regulator can control the strength of the exciter field, allowing for precise control over the generator's output.

Submit
27. In a series-parallel circuit, the series current at I1 = 9 amps; in the two parallel branches, I2 = 5 amps; and the value of I3 is not listed.  Use Ohms's law to find the value of I3 and IT.

Explanation

Total current is equal throughout series part of circuit. So since I1 (in series part) = 9 amps, IT = 9 amps. Parallel branches always add up to equal current flow in series part. So, I2 (5 amps) + I3 (?) = 9 amps. I3 has to equal 4 amps.

Submit
28. What component on the B809A generator set fuel system distributes and delivers an accurate amount of fuel to the engine cylinders?

Explanation

The injector pump is the component on the B809A generator set fuel system that distributes and delivers an accurate amount of fuel to the engine cylinders. It is responsible for pressurizing the fuel and delivering it to the injectors at the correct timing and quantity. The injectors then spray the fuel into the combustion chambers for efficient combustion. The injector pump plays a crucial role in ensuring that the engine receives the right amount of fuel for optimal performance.

Submit
29. In a circuit using a bridge rectifier, how many diodes are forward biased during the first cycle of alternating current (AC)?

Explanation

During the first cycle of alternating current (AC) in a circuit using a bridge rectifier, two diodes are forward biased. The bridge rectifier consists of four diodes arranged in a bridge configuration. During the positive half cycle of AC, two diodes (D1 and D3) are forward biased and conduct current, while the other two diodes (D2 and D4) are reverse biased and do not conduct. This allows the current to flow in one direction, converting AC to pulsating DC. Therefore, the correct answer is 2.

Submit
30. A -86D is operating and the alternating current (AC) voltmeter is reading 200 volts alternating current (VAC) on all three phases.  What do you do?

Explanation

Switch S15 to the L-N position. This action will change the voltmeter measurement from 200 volts AC to line-to-neutral voltage, which is the correct measurement for a three-phase system. Adjusting VR1 or R61 would not address the issue of incorrect voltage measurement.

Submit
31. What is the resistance in a circuit if the power rating is 40 watts and total current is 2 amps?

Explanation

40/2^2 = 40/4 = 10 ohms

Submit
32. In a series-parallel circuit, find RT if series resistor R1 = 7 ohms, and parallel resistors R2 and R3 = 8 ohms.

Explanation

Find RT of parallel resistors: RT = 8x8/8+8 = 64/16 = 4
New R2 is RT of parallel resistors. Now use RT = R1 (7) + R2 (4) = 11 ohms

Submit
33. How many electrons does the valance band of an intrinsic semiconductor have?

Explanation

The valence band of an intrinsic semiconductor is the highest energy band that is fully occupied by electrons at absolute zero temperature. In an intrinsic semiconductor, each atom contributes one valence electron, which is shared with neighboring atoms to form covalent bonds. Since each atom has four valence electrons, the valence band of an intrinsic semiconductor has four electrons.

Submit
34. In what position must the line drop switch be placed when adjustments are made to a voltage regulator?

Explanation

The line drop switch must be placed in the "ON" position when adjustments are made to a voltage regulator. This is because the switch is responsible for controlling the flow of electricity in the circuit. By turning it on, the circuit is closed and allows the regulated voltage to be adjusted and controlled.

Submit
35. While operating a -86D at governed speed, you place S13 in the build up position and the undervoltage light comes on.  What is the probable cause of this trouble?

Explanation

The probable cause of the undervoltage light coming on when placing S13 in the build up position while operating a -86D at governed speed is the memory time delay relay.

Submit
36. What statement best describes a capacitive circuit?

Explanation

A capacitive circuit is one in which the current leads the applied voltage by 90 degrees. This means that the current reaches its peak value before the voltage does. Capacitors store and release electrical energy, and in a capacitive circuit, the flow of current is determined by the rate at which the voltage changes. As the voltage increases, the capacitor charges and allows current to flow, causing the current to lead the voltage. Therefore, the statement "current leads applied voltage by 90 degrees" best describes a capacitive circuit.

Submit
37. How is a zener diode connected in a circuit to regulate voltage?

Explanation

A zener diode is connected in parallel to the load in order to regulate voltage. By connecting it in parallel, the zener diode acts as a voltage regulator by maintaining a constant voltage across the load. When the voltage exceeds the zener voltage, the diode starts conducting and effectively regulates the voltage by diverting excess current. This ensures that the voltage across the load remains constant, even if the input voltage fluctuates.

Submit
38. If a schematic diagram doesn't list a reference for the zener diode, the diode is probably being used as a

Explanation

If a schematic diagram doesn't list a reference for the zener diode, it is likely being used as a spike protector. A zener diode is a type of diode that is designed to operate in the reverse breakdown region, allowing it to regulate voltage and protect against voltage spikes. In this case, since there is no reference given for the zener diode, it is most likely being used to protect against voltage spikes rather than as a voltage regulator or a normal diode.

Submit
39. While performing an ops check of the -60A, you notice the unit is only operating at 97 percent.  What is the probable cause of this trouble?

Explanation

The probable cause of the trouble is the governor trim control. The governor trim control is responsible for adjusting the fuel flow to the engine in order to maintain a specific speed. If the trim control is not functioning properly, it can result in the unit operating at a lower speed, such as 97 percent, instead of the desired speed.

Submit
40. Use the power factor meter on a -8 load bank

Explanation

The power factor meter is used during performing resistive and reactive load tests simultaneously. This is because resistive loads only consume true power, while reactive loads consume both true power and reactive power. By using the power factor meter, we can measure the power factor, which is the ratio of true power to apparent power. This allows us to determine the efficiency of the load and make adjustments if necessary.

Submit
41. If the arrow in a bipolar transistor is pointing away from the base, what type of transister is it?

Explanation

If the arrow in a bipolar transistor is pointing away from the base, it indicates that the transistor is an NPN type. In an NPN transistor, the majority charge carriers are negative electrons, and the arrow points in the direction of the conventional current flow.

Submit
42. How many junctions are in a unijunction transister (UJT)?

Explanation

A unijunction transistor (UJT) typically has one junction. This junction is formed between the emitter and the base regions of the transistor. The UJT operates by controlling the current flow between the emitter and the base, making it a useful device for applications such as oscillators and timing circuits.

Submit
43. Refer to foldout 1.  You are operating -86D at governed speed, but voltage doesn't build up.  What is the probable cause of this trouble?

Explanation

The probable cause of the trouble is that the K23 contacts are open. This means that there is no electrical connection being made, which is preventing the voltage from building up.

Submit
44. Apparent power is measured in

Explanation

Apparent power is a measure of the total power in an AC circuit, taking into account both the active power (measured in kilowatts, KW) and the reactive power. It is represented in kilo-volt-amperes (KVA) because it is the product of the voltage (measured in volts) and the current (measured in amperes). This unit is used to quantify the total power that a circuit or device can handle, considering both the real and reactive components of power.

Submit
45. What are the minority carriers in P-type material?

Explanation

In P-type material, the majority carriers are holes, which are positively charged. Minority carriers, on the other hand, are the minority of charge carriers present in the material. In P-type material, the minority carriers are electrons, which are negatively charged. These electrons are introduced into the material through the process of doping, where impurities are added to the material to create an excess of electrons.

Submit
46. How is the zener diode connected in a circuit to protect the load?

Explanation

The zener diode is connected in parallel to the load in order to protect it. When the voltage across the load exceeds the zener diode's breakdown voltage, the diode starts conducting and limits the voltage to its breakdown voltage. This prevents any excessive voltage from reaching the load and protects it from damage. Connecting the zener diode in parallel to the load ensures that it only conducts when necessary, providing effective protection.

Submit
47. What contacts on the annunciator card of the B809A generator set control the alternating current (AC) power input to the voltage regulator?

Explanation

The contacts on the annunciator card of the B809A generator set control the AC power input to the voltage regulator when there is a fault in the generator. This means that if there is a fault detected in the generator, the contacts on the annunciator card will be responsible for controlling the AC power input to the voltage regulator.

Submit
48. What condition is sensed by the DC card on the B809A generator set?

Explanation

The DC card on the B809A generator set senses the condition of overtemperature. This means that the card is designed to detect and monitor the temperature of the generator set, and if it exceeds a certain threshold, it will trigger a response or alarm to prevent any damage or malfunction caused by excessive heat.

Submit
49. Refer to foldout 2.  While operating a B809A generator, what switch is closed to provide potential to the exciter field?

Explanation

The correct answer is S5, run/idle toggle switch. When operating a B809A generator, closing the run/idle toggle switch (S5) provides potential to the exciter field. This switch controls the generator's operating mode, allowing it to switch between running and idle modes. By closing this switch, the necessary power is supplied to the exciter field, ensuring proper functioning of the generator.

Submit
50. In the lubrication system of the -60A gas turbine engine, how does the oil pressure relief valve control the output of the main oil pump?

Explanation

The oil pressure relief valve controls the output of the main oil pump by bypassing excess oil back to the main pump inlet. This means that when the oil pressure exceeds a certain threshold, the relief valve opens and allows the excess oil to flow back into the main pump. By doing so, it prevents the oil pressure from becoming too high and ensures that the system operates within the desired pressure range.

Submit
51. You are driving on the flight line and notice a -86D power unit with all the fault lights on.  You try to reset S23, but the lights stay on.  What is a probable cause of this trouble?

Explanation

A probable cause of the trouble could be that S30 is shorted. This means that there is a faulty connection or a direct path between the terminals of S30, causing it to malfunction and preventing the fault lights from turning off even after attempting to reset S23.

Submit
52. Refer to foldout 5.  You're out on the flight line checking the fuel levels on power units and, as you pull up to a -60A, you notice a puddle of liquid.  As you investigate further, you see that fuel is coming out of the main tank fuel cap.  What is the probable cause of this trouble?

Explanation

The probable cause of the fuel coming out of the main tank fuel cap is that S20B failed to close.

Submit
53. Refer to foldout 5.  The DC voltmeter on a -60A fails to indicate during operation.  What is the probable cause of this trouble?

Explanation

The probable cause of the DC voltmeter failing to indicate during operation is that TR1 is defective.

Submit
54. If a zener diode is installed in the forward bias mode in a circuit, it acts as a

Explanation

When a zener diode is installed in the forward bias mode, it behaves like a regular diode. In this mode, the diode allows current to flow in the forward direction, just like a normal diode. The zener diode will not exhibit its characteristic voltage regulation or voltage reference behavior in this configuration. Therefore, it acts as a regular diode in the forward bias mode.

Submit
55. Refer to foldout 1.  During operation of the -86D, the low coolant light (DS50) illuminates, but the unit does not shut down.  What is a probable cause of this trouble?

Explanation

The probable cause of the low coolant light (DS50) illuminating but the unit not shutting down is that S55 is closed.

Submit
56. A junction diode has how many PN junction(s)?

Explanation

A junction diode has only one PN junction. This junction is formed by the combination of a P-type semiconductor and an N-type semiconductor. The PN junction is responsible for the diode's unique electrical properties, such as allowing current to flow in only one direction and exhibiting forward and reverse bias characteristics.

Submit
57. What happens if the emitter-base (E-B) current is increased in a transistor amplifier?

Explanation

When the emitter-base (E-B) current is increased in a transistor amplifier, it causes an increase in the current through the emitter-collector (E-C) circuit. This is because the E-B current controls the amplification of the transistor, and increasing it allows more current to flow through the E-C circuit. Therefore, the correct answer is that the current increases through the E-C circuit.

Submit
58. What controls the firing time of the unijunction transistor (UJT)?

Explanation

The firing time of the unijunction transistor (UJT) is controlled by the resistance and capacitance in the circuit. The resistance determines the charging and discharging time of the capacitor, while the capacitance determines the rate at which the capacitor charges and discharges. By adjusting the values of resistance and capacitance, the firing time of the UJT can be controlled.

Submit
59. What component of the voltage regulator compensates for losses in the power cable by sensing changes in current flow?

Explanation

The load rheostat is the component of the voltage regulator that compensates for losses in the power cable by sensing changes in current flow. It adjusts the resistance in the circuit to regulate the voltage and ensure that the desired voltage is maintained, compensating for any losses in the power cable.

Submit
60. Refer to foldout 1.  During an ops check of the -86D, the shutdown solenoid energizes immediately after the engine run indicator illluminates.  What is a probable cause of this trouble?

Explanation

The probable cause of the shutdown solenoid energizing immediately after the engine run indicator illuminates is that S49 is shorted.

Submit
61. Refer to foldout 1.  Which statement best reflects what happens if S46 shorts during operation of a -86D generator?

Explanation

If S46 shorts during operation of a -86D generator, 12 VDC would be present at terminal A of S55.

Submit
62. What is the operating voltage of the blower motor and control relays on a -8 load bank?

Explanation

The operating voltage of the blower motor and control relays on a -8 load bank is 28 VDC.

Submit
63. The circuit in the bipolar transistor that carries 5 percent of the current flow is the

Explanation

The control circuit in a bipolar transistor is responsible for regulating the flow of current through the transistor. It determines the amount of current that flows from the base to the emitter and controls the amplification of the signal. In this case, the control circuit carries 5 percent of the total current flow, indicating that it plays a significant role in controlling the transistor's operation.

Submit
64. Refer to foldout 5.  During operation of the -60A, you close S3, but the AC contactor light does not come on.  What is the probable cause of this trouble?

Explanation

The probable cause of the AC contactor light not coming on when S3 is closed is that the K11 contacts C and D are opened. This means that there is no electrical connection between the AC contactor and the power source, preventing the AC contactor light from turning on.

Submit
65. The silicon-controlled rectifier (SCR) has how many layers?

Explanation

The silicon-controlled rectifier (SCR) has four layers. The SCR is a four-layer semiconductor device that acts as a switch, allowing current to flow in one direction. It consists of three P-N junctions and four layers of alternating P-type and N-type materials. The four layers are the anode layer, the cathode layer, and two layers known as the P1 and N1 layers. The four-layer structure of the SCR allows it to control high power levels and handle large currents.

Submit
66. Refer to foldout 5.  Your -60A has been on a Red X twice for "dead batteries".  What is the probable cause of this trouble?

Explanation

The probable cause of the trouble is that D1 is open. This means that the diode D1 is not allowing voltage to reach R6, which is causing the dead batteries.

Submit
67. The -86D is applying 115 VAC to the aircraft and all of a sudden the AC contactor opens and there is no voltage indication on M2.  What is the probable cause of this trouble?

Explanation

The probable cause of this trouble is that the memory time-delay relay is energized. When the memory time-delay relay is energized, it can cause the AC contactor to open and prevent voltage indication on M2.

Submit
68. What signal powers the regulator card output pulse sent to the exciter field of the B809A generator?

Explanation

The regulator card output pulse sent to the exciter field of the B809A generator is powered by 110 VDC.

Submit
69. Refer to foldout 6.  After you connect a -60A to the -8 load bank, you notice one of the blower motors isn't working on the load bank.  What is the probable cause of this trouble?

Explanation

The probable cause of the blower motor not working on the load bank after connecting a -60A to the -8 load bank is CR2.

Submit
70. Refer to foldouts 6 and 7.  If CB2 opens on the -8 load bank, what effect does it have on load bank operation?

Explanation

If CB2 opens on the -8 load bank, it will cause the AC load selection switches (S15 through S20) to not work.

Submit
71. Refer to foldout 6.  On a -8 load bank, CR2 supplies 28 VDC to operate the panel lights, the wind switch assembly, and the

Explanation

CR2 supplies 28 VDC to operate the panel lights, the wind switch assembly, and the blower motor B2. The other options, transformer PT3 and blower motor B1, are not mentioned in the given information. Therefore, the correct answer is blower motor B2.

Submit
72. The rate adjustment screw in the -60A is used to adjust the rate at which chamber

Explanation

The rate adjustment screw in the -60A is used to adjust the rate at which chamber 4 depressurizes.

Submit
73. Refer to foldout 1.  During operation of the -86D, you get no response when you place S13 in the GENERATE position.  A check of voltage at J8, terminal N, shows 12 volts direct current (VDC).  What is the probable cause of this trouble?

Explanation

The probable cause of the trouble is that S53 is open. This can be inferred from the given information that there is no response when S13 is placed in the GENERATE position, and a check of voltage at J8, terminal N, shows 12 volts DC. Since S53 is open, it means that there is a break in the circuit and the current cannot flow through it, resulting in no response during operation.

Submit
74. Refer to foldout 1.  A -86D is sent to the the shop on a Red X for "will not apply power to the aircraft."  During the ops check, you place S5 in the closed position and the contactor light illuminates.  When you release the switch, the contactor opens.  What is the probable cause of this trouble?

Explanation

The probable cause of this trouble is that R46 is open. This can be inferred from the given information that when S5 is placed in the closed position, the contactor light illuminates, indicating that the circuit is closed. However, when the switch is released, the contactor opens, suggesting that there is an issue with the circuit. Since R46 is the only component mentioned in the options that could cause this problem, it is the most likely cause.

Submit
75. Refer to foldout 1.  After performing an ops check of the -86 generator set, you proceed to shut the unit down.  After the generator stops, you notice the engine on light continues to glow.  What is the probable cause of this trouble?

Explanation

The probable cause of the engine on light continuing to glow after shutting down the generator is that S48 is closed.

Submit
76. The amount of voltage it takes for a unijunction transistor (UJT) to fire is determined by the position

Explanation

The correct answer is the emitter is placed on the N-type material. In a unijunction transistor (UJT), the voltage required for it to fire is determined by the position of the emitter on the N-type material. The emitter is responsible for controlling the conductivity of the UJT. Placing the emitter on the N-type material allows for better control of the firing voltage.

Submit
77. Refer to foldout 5.  While operating a -60A, you reset the AC contactor switch, but the voltage did not build up.  What should have happened within the K11 relay?

Explanation

When operating a -60A, the AC contactor switch needs to be reset in order for the voltage to build up. According to the given answer, within the K11 relay, K11B should have energized, closing N and P contacts. This means that the K11B relay should have been activated to establish a connection between the N and P contacts, allowing the voltage to build up.

Submit
78. Refer to foldout 6.  The AC cable is plugged into the -8 load bank input panel and both blower motors are turning, but nothing happens when you turn the shock load switches on.  What is the probable cause of this trouble?

Explanation

The probable cause of the trouble is that CR1 is malfunctioning. This is because CR1 is responsible for controlling the flow of current to the shock load switches. If CR1 is malfunctioning, it may not be allowing the current to flow properly, resulting in nothing happening when the shock load switches are turned on.

Submit
79. Refer to foldout 7.  You are testing an AC generator and find B phase on the -8 load bank isn't working.  What is the probable cause of this trouble?

Explanation

The probable cause of the B phase on the -8 load bank not working could be S56. However, without further information about what S56 refers to, it is difficult to provide a specific explanation. It is possible that S56 is a switch or a component that is responsible for controlling the B phase of the load bank. If S56 is faulty or not properly connected, it could result in the B phase not functioning correctly.

Submit
80. Refer to foldout 5.  During operation of the -60A, the engine rotates, but there is no combustion.  What is the probable cause of this trouble?

Explanation

The probable cause of the trouble is a malfunction in the fuel system. This could be due to a clogged fuel filter, a faulty fuel pump, or a problem with the fuel injectors. Without proper fuel delivery, there would be no combustion in the engine, resulting in the observed symptom of the engine rotating but no combustion occurring.

Submit
81. Refer to foldout 5.  You place the start switch S7 on a -60A to the ON position to start the turbine engine.  The engine starts, but shuts down immediately after you release the switch.  What is the probable cause of this trouble?

Explanation

The probable cause of the engine shutting down immediately after releasing the start switch is the turbine control relay K18. The turbine control relay is responsible for controlling the operation of the turbine engine, and if it is faulty or malfunctioning, it can cause the engine to shut down prematurely.

Submit
82. Refer to foldout 5.  A -60A comes into the shop on a Red X for "unit won't start".  You do a quick check of the unit, and find the panel lights, boost pump, and ready to load press-to-test light are working.  What is the probable cause of this trouble?

Explanation

The probable cause of the trouble is that S18 is closed. This means that the switch S18, which is responsible for starting the unit, is in the closed position. This would prevent the unit from starting. The fact that the panel lights, boost pump, and ready to load press-to-test light are working indicates that there is power and the necessary components are functioning properly. Therefore, the issue is most likely with the switch S18 being closed.

Submit
83. Refer to foldout 7.  What component supplies 28 VDC to the variable load selector switches on a -8 load bank?

Explanation

CB2 supplies 28 VDC to the variable load selector switches on a -8 load bank.

Submit
84. Refer to foldout 6.  You are testing a DC generator and notice the panel lights and blower motor (B2) on the -8 load bank are not working.  Where should you start troubleshooting?

Explanation

The correct answer is K2. The reason for this is that K2 is the most likely starting point for troubleshooting because it is responsible for controlling the power to the panel lights and blower motor. By checking K2, you can determine if there is an issue with the switch or if there is a problem with the wiring or connections leading to the lights and motor. Starting with K2 allows you to systematically eliminate potential causes and narrow down the source of the problem.

Submit
View My Results

Quiz Review Timeline (Updated): Mar 20, 2023 +

Our quizzes are rigorously reviewed, monitored and continuously updated by our expert board to maintain accuracy, relevance, and timeliness.

  • Current Version
  • Mar 20, 2023
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • Feb 10, 2010
    Quiz Created by
    Cocoanut
Cancel
  • All
    All (84)
  • Unanswered
    Unanswered ()
  • Answered
    Answered ()
What is the simplest form of matter?
In an atom, what electrons contain the most energy?
Voltage induced into a conductor by the expanding and collapsing of a...
If the size of the plates of a capacitor is increased, how is...
What gas turbine engine component is specifically designed to break if...
What component of the -60A lubrication system on a gas turbine engine...
What are factors that affect the resistance of a material?
What is the difference between and open and a short?
What is the primary use of a silicon-controlled rectifier (SCR)?
What is the major difference between an NPN transistor and a PNP...
During the operation of a -60A, you notice the exhaust gas temperature...
What type of transformer contains more turns in the primary winding...
What action occurs when the B809A generator set AC card senses an AC...
What is the basic principle of operation for transformers?
The area of a semiconductor where P-type material is joined to N-type...
If a small potential is applied to the gate of a silicon-controlled...
The portion of the voltage regulator that supplies exciter field...
Convert 500 milliamps to standard amperage.
In an inductor, what happens to the magnetic lines of force if the...
Refer to foldout 1.  Where is the best point to check voltage to...
What B809A generator set engine safety circuit incorporates a...
Atoms having more than four electrons, but less than eight are known...
The electrostatic fields around a positive ion move
What are the three leads in a unijunction transistor (UJT) called?
The emitter in a unijunction transister always points toward the
What component controls the strength of the -86D exciter field L2?
In a series-parallel circuit, the series current at I1 = 9 amps; in...
What component on the B809A generator set fuel system distributes and...
In a circuit using a bridge rectifier, how many diodes are forward...
A -86D is operating and the alternating current (AC) voltmeter is...
What is the resistance in a circuit if the power rating is 40 watts...
In a series-parallel circuit, find RT if series resistor R1 = 7 ohms,...
How many electrons does the valance band of an intrinsic semiconductor...
In what position must the line drop switch be placed when adjustments...
While operating a -86D at governed speed, you place S13 in the build...
What statement best describes a capacitive circuit?
How is a zener diode connected in a circuit to regulate voltage?
If a schematic diagram doesn't list a reference for the zener diode,...
While performing an ops check of the -60A, you notice the unit is only...
Use the power factor meter on a -8 load bank
If the arrow in a bipolar transistor is pointing away from the base,...
How many junctions are in a unijunction transister (UJT)?
Refer to foldout 1.  You are operating -86D at governed speed,...
Apparent power is measured in
What are the minority carriers in P-type material?
How is the zener diode connected in a circuit to protect the load?
What contacts on the annunciator card of the B809A generator set...
What condition is sensed by the DC card on the B809A generator set?
Refer to foldout 2.  While operating a B809A generator, what...
In the lubrication system of the -60A gas turbine engine, how does the...
You are driving on the flight line and notice a -86D power unit with...
Refer to foldout 5.  You're out on the flight line checking the...
Refer to foldout 5.  The DC voltmeter on a -60A fails to indicate...
If a zener diode is installed in the forward bias mode in a circuit,...
Refer to foldout 1.  During operation of the -86D, the low...
A junction diode has how many PN junction(s)?
What happens if the emitter-base (E-B) current is increased in a...
What controls the firing time of the unijunction transistor (UJT)?
What component of the voltage regulator compensates for losses in the...
Refer to foldout 1.  During an ops check of the -86D, the...
Refer to foldout 1.  Which statement best reflects what happens...
What is the operating voltage of the blower motor and control relays...
The circuit in the bipolar transistor that carries 5 percent of the...
Refer to foldout 5.  During operation of the -60A, you close S3,...
The silicon-controlled rectifier (SCR) has how many layers?
Refer to foldout 5.  Your -60A has been on a Red X twice for...
The -86D is applying 115 VAC to the aircraft and all of a sudden the...
What signal powers the regulator card output pulse sent to the exciter...
Refer to foldout 6.  After you connect a -60A to the -8 load...
Refer to foldouts 6 and 7.  If CB2 opens on the -8 load bank,...
Refer to foldout 6.  On a -8 load bank, CR2 supplies 28 VDC to...
The rate adjustment screw in the -60A is used to adjust the rate at...
Refer to foldout 1.  During operation of the -86D, you get no...
Refer to foldout 1.  A -86D is sent to the the shop on a Red X...
Refer to foldout 1.  After performing an ops check of the -86...
The amount of voltage it takes for a unijunction transistor (UJT) to...
Refer to foldout 5.  While operating a -60A, you reset the AC...
Refer to foldout 6.  The AC cable is plugged into the -8 load...
Refer to foldout 7.  You are testing an AC generator and find B...
Refer to foldout 5.  During operation of the -60A, the engine...
Refer to foldout 5.  You place the start switch S7 on a -60A to...
Refer to foldout 5.  A -60A comes into the shop on a Red X for...
Refer to foldout 7.  What component supplies 28 VDC to the...
Refer to foldout 6.  You are testing a DC generator and notice...
Alert!

Advertisement