2A551: Aircraft Maintenance Questions! Trivia Quiz
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Which law of physics best explains how a jet engine produces forward thrust?
About This Quiz
Explore the fundamentals of aircraft maintenance with the 2A551: Aircraft Maintenance Questions! Trivia Quiz. Dive into the physics of jet engines, energy transformations, and operational mechanics to enhance your understanding and skills in aerospace maintenance.
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- 2.
What type of energy does a falling object possess?
Explanation
When an object falls, it gains speed due to the force of gravity. This increase in speed means that the object has kinetic energy, which is the energy possessed by a moving object. Kinetic energy is determined by the mass and velocity of the object. Therefore, a falling object possesses kinetic energy.Rate this question:
- 3.
Can energy pass from potential to kinetic and back to potential?
Explanation
Energy can indeed pass from potential to kinetic and back to potential. This is illustrated by the concept of mechanical energy. When an object is at a higher position, it possesses potential energy. As it falls, this potential energy is converted into kinetic energy. Once the object reaches the lowest point, all of its potential energy is transformed into kinetic energy. However, as the object starts moving upwards again, the kinetic energy is gradually converted back into potential energy. This continuous exchange between potential and kinetic energy demonstrates that energy can pass from potential to kinetic and back to potential.Rate this question:
- 4.
Approximately what percent of the energy produced by the fuel is needed to maintain the jet engine operating cycle?
Explanation
The correct answer is 60 because it states that approximately 60% of the energy produced by the fuel is needed to maintain the jet engine operating cycle. This means that a significant portion of the energy generated by the fuel is used to keep the jet engine running efficiently.Rate this question:
- 5.
On a jet engine that does not have an afterburner, where is the point of highest temperature?
Explanation
In a jet engine that does not have an afterburner, the point of highest temperature is in the combustion section. This is because the combustion section is where fuel is mixed with compressed air and ignited, resulting in the release of a large amount of energy. As a result, the temperature in this section is significantly higher compared to other parts of the engine.Rate this question:
- 6.
Where is the point of highest airflow velocity in a jet engine?
Explanation
The point of highest airflow velocity in a jet engine is the ejector nozzle. This is because the ejector nozzle is designed to accelerate the exhaust gases as they leave the engine, creating a high-speed jet of air. This high-speed jet of air is important for generating thrust and propelling the aircraft forward.Rate this question:
- 7.
After the gases leave the turbine section and enter the exhuast section, what type of velocity do they have?
Explanation
After the gases leave the turbine section and enter the exhaust section, they maintain an axial velocity. This means that the gases continue to flow in the same direction as they did in the turbine section, parallel to the axis of the exhaust section. Axial velocity is important for efficient exhaust flow and to maintain the overall performance of the system.Rate this question:
- 8.
Which turbine drives the front compressor on a duel- spool engine?
Explanation
The rear turbine drives the front compressor on a dual-spool engine. In a dual-spool engine, there are two separate spools or shafts, each with its own compressor and turbine. The rear turbine is connected to the front compressor through the rear shaft, and it transfers power to drive the front compressor. This arrangement allows for better efficiency and control in the engine's operation.Rate this question:
- 9.
What unit determines the speed of N2 (high-pressure) rotor in a dual-spool compressor?
Explanation
The speed of the N2 (high-pressure) rotor in a dual-spool compressor is determined by the fuel control unit. The fuel control unit regulates the amount of fuel being supplied to the engine, which in turn affects the speed at which the rotor spins. By adjusting the fuel flow, the fuel control unit can control the speed of the rotor and therefore the overall performance of the compressor.Rate this question:
- 10.
Which type of compressor is more durable, the axial-flow or the centrifugal?
Explanation
The centrifugal compressor is more durable compared to the axial-flow compressor. This is because the centrifugal compressor has a simpler design with fewer moving parts, making it less prone to mechanical failures. It also operates at lower speeds, resulting in reduced wear and tear. Additionally, the centrifugal compressor can handle a wider range of operating conditions and is more resistant to surge and stall, making it a more durable option overall.Rate this question:
- 11.
What is the approximate air-to-fuel ratio that is used for the actual burning process in a combustion chamber?
Explanation
The approximate air-to-fuel ratio of 15:1 is commonly used for the actual burning process in a combustion chamber. This means that for every 15 parts of air, 1 part of fuel is required for efficient combustion. This ratio ensures that there is enough oxygen present in the air to completely burn the fuel, resulting in a clean and efficient combustion process.Rate this question:
- 12.
What is inserted between the rotating blades on multiple- stage turbines?
Explanation
Stationary turbine nozzle vanes are inserted between the rotating blades on multiple-stage turbines. These vanes serve the purpose of directing the flow of the working fluid (such as steam or gas) onto the rotating blades, optimizing the efficiency of the turbine. By controlling the angle and velocity of the fluid, the vanes help to extract maximum energy from the fluid as it passes through the turbine, resulting in improved power generation.Rate this question:
- 13.
What is the most frequently used method of attaching the turbine blades to the rotor disc?
Explanation
The most frequently used method of attaching turbine blades to the rotor disc is the fir tree method. This method involves the use of fir tree-shaped protrusions on the root of the turbine blades that fit into corresponding slots on the rotor disc. This design provides a secure and reliable attachment, allowing the blades to withstand the high rotational forces and vibrations experienced during operation. The fir tree method is widely used in various types of turbines, including gas turbines and steam turbines.Rate this question:
- 14.
What three types of fasteners are used to secure the turbine blades to the rotor disc?
Explanation
Steel pins, lock strips, and rivets are the three types of fasteners used to secure the turbine blades to the rotor disc. Steel pins are commonly used to provide a strong and secure connection between the blades and the disc. Lock strips are used to prevent the pins from loosening or coming out due to vibrations or other forces. Rivets are used to join different components together, providing a permanent and reliable connection. These three types of fasteners ensure that the turbine blades are securely attached to the rotor disc, allowing for efficient and safe operation of the turbine.Rate this question:
- 15.
What are the two priniciple configurations of turbine blades?
Explanation
Turbine blades can be categorized into two principle configurations: shrouded and unshrouded. Shrouded blades are enclosed within a casing or shroud, which provides additional support and protection. This configuration is commonly used in high-pressure turbines to enhance the structural integrity and prevent blade vibrations. On the other hand, unshrouded blades are not enclosed and are more exposed. They are typically used in low-pressure turbines where the risk of vibrations is lower. Both configurations have their advantages and are chosen based on the specific requirements of the turbine design and operating conditions.Rate this question:
- 16.
An augmenter is classified as what type of engine?
Explanation
An augmenter is classified as a ramjet engine.Rate this question:
- 17.
What effect should augmenter operation have on engine operation?
Explanation
The augmenter operation should have no effect on the engine operation. This means that the augmenter, which is a device used to increase the thrust of a jet engine, should not cause any changes or disruptions in the normal functioning of the engine. It should not affect the engine's performance, efficiency, or any other aspects of its operation.Rate this question:
- 18.
What is meant by a rich blowout?
Explanation
A rich blowout refers to a situation where the air-fuel mixture in an engine becomes too rich, meaning there is an excess of fuel compared to the amount of air. This can cause the flame in the combustion chamber to extinguish, resulting in a flameout. An overrich mixture flameout occurs when the air-fuel ratio is so imbalanced that the flame cannot be sustained, leading to a loss of engine power.Rate this question:
- 19.
What are the two types of oil nozzles?
Explanation
The two types of oil nozzles are restrictive tube and internal passage. The restrictive tube type of oil nozzle has a small opening that restricts the flow of oil, resulting in a finer spray pattern. On the other hand, the internal passage type of oil nozzle has a larger opening, allowing for a higher flow rate of oil and a wider spray pattern. These two types of oil nozzles offer different options for controlling the flow and spray of oil in various applications.Rate this question:
- 20.
What component provides high-temperature spark for engine starting?
Explanation
The igniter plug is a component that provides a high-temperature spark for engine starting. It is designed to generate a spark that ignites the fuel-air mixture in the combustion chamber, initiating the combustion process. This spark is crucial for starting the engine, as it ignites the fuel and allows the engine to run. Without the igniter plug, the engine would not be able to start and operate efficiently.Rate this question:
- 21.
In addition to being light in weight and small in size, what other requirement must be met for aircraft instruments?
Explanation
Aircraft instruments must be easy to read in addition to being light in weight and small in size. This is crucial for pilots to quickly and accurately interpret the information displayed on the instruments during flight. The readability of the instruments is essential for maintaining situational awareness and making informed decisions. If the instruments are not easy to read, it could lead to errors or delays in responding to critical flight situations, posing a risk to the safety of the aircraft and its occupants.Rate this question:
- 22.
Oil pressure indicators measure pressure in what unit of measurment?
Explanation
Oil pressure indicators measure pressure in pounds per square inch (PSI). PSI is a commonly used unit of measurement for pressure, particularly in the United States. It represents the force applied per unit area, in this case, the force exerted by the oil in the system per square inch of area. By measuring the pressure in PSI, oil pressure indicators provide a standardized and easily understandable measurement of the oil pressure in a system.Rate this question:
- 23.
How is engine fuel-flow measured?
Explanation
Engine fuel-flow is measured in pounds per hour (pph). This unit of measurement indicates the rate at which fuel is consumed by the engine. By measuring the weight of fuel consumed over a specific time period, the fuel-flow can be determined. This measurement is important for monitoring fuel efficiency, calculating fuel consumption rates, and ensuring optimal engine performance. The abbreviation "pph" simply represents "pounds per hour", which is the standard unit used to quantify engine fuel-flow.Rate this question:
- 24.
What is used to analyze oil samples and determine the identity of metal particles worn from oil-wetted parts?
Explanation
Spectrometric oil analysis is used to analyze oil samples and determine the identity of metal particles worn from oil-wetted parts. This technique involves using a spectrometer to measure the wavelengths of light emitted or absorbed by the metal particles in the oil sample. By comparing these measurements to known reference spectra, the type and concentration of the metal particles can be identified, providing valuable information about the condition of the oil-wetted parts and potential issues such as wear, contamination, or degradation.Rate this question:
- 25.
What problem most frequently affects sample integrity?
Explanation
Contamination is the most frequently occurring problem that affects sample integrity. When a sample gets contaminated, it means that unwanted substances or particles have been introduced into the sample, which can alter its composition and potentially lead to inaccurate results. Contamination can occur through various means, such as improper handling, environmental factors, or cross-contamination from other samples or equipment. It is crucial to maintain a sterile and controlled environment to minimize the risk of contamination and ensure the integrity of the sample.Rate this question:
- 26.
What are the two categories of oil samples that you may be required to take?
Explanation
Oil samples can be categorized into two types: routine and special. Routine oil samples are taken regularly as part of a maintenance program to monitor the condition and performance of machinery. These samples are typically collected at predetermined intervals and provide valuable information about the overall health of the equipment. On the other hand, special oil samples are taken in specific situations where there may be suspected issues or abnormalities. These samples are usually collected outside of the regular schedule and are used to investigate specific problems or concerns with the machinery.Rate this question:
- 27.
If a pump fails to operate, what component prevents the reverse flow of fuel through the pump?
Explanation
A check valve is a mechanical device that allows the flow of fluid in only one direction, preventing reverse flow. In the context of a pump failure, a check valve would ensure that fuel does not flow back through the pump, maintaining the desired direction of flow. This is important for the proper functioning of the pump and to prevent any potential damage or malfunction.Rate this question:
- 28.
What component controls fuel level in the recieving tank during fuel transfer?
Explanation
The fuel level control valve is the component that controls the fuel level in the receiving tank during fuel transfer. It regulates the flow of fuel into the tank, ensuring that the fuel level does not exceed the desired level. This valve opens and closes based on the fuel level in the tank, allowing fuel to enter when the level is low and shutting off the flow when the desired level is reached. By controlling the fuel level, the valve helps prevent overfilling and ensures efficient and safe fuel transfer.Rate this question:
- 29.
What components are required during gravity transfer of fuel?
Explanation
During gravity transfer of fuel, two components are required: a shutoff valve and a float valve. The shutoff valve is responsible for controlling the flow of fuel, allowing it to be turned on or off as needed. The float valve, on the other hand, helps maintain a consistent fuel level by regulating the flow of fuel into the tank. Together, these components ensure a smooth and controlled transfer of fuel during gravity feed systems.Rate this question:
- 30.
Where are vent ports located?
Explanation
Vent ports are located at the top of the fuel tank. These ports serve as outlets for air to escape from the tank as fuel is being pumped in or consumed. They are essential for maintaining proper pressure within the tank and preventing the buildup of excessive pressure or vacuum. By being positioned at the top, the vent ports ensure that air can easily exit the tank without any obstruction, allowing for efficient and safe operation of the fuel system.Rate this question:
- 31.
What system is used to remove residual fuel from a manifold?
Explanation
The system used to remove residual fuel from a manifold is called scavenge. Scavenge is a process in which any remaining fuel or exhaust gases are removed from the combustion chamber or manifold to ensure efficient operation of the engine. This helps to prevent any buildup of fuel or exhaust gases that could negatively impact the engine's performance.Rate this question:
- 32.
During refueling, when all tanks are filled, what happens to the fuel pressure?
Explanation
When all tanks are filled during refueling, the fuel pressure increases. This is because the tanks are now full, and as a result, there is a greater volume of fuel present in the system. With more fuel, the pressure inside the tanks and the fuel lines increases.Rate this question:
- 33.
What principle applies to the operation of an ejector pump?
Explanation
The principle that applies to the operation of an ejector pump is the venturi principle. The venturi principle states that as the fluid flows through a constricted section of a pipe, the velocity of the fluid increases while the pressure decreases. In the case of an ejector pump, the fluid is forced through a narrow section, creating a pressure difference that allows the pump to draw in and eject fluids or gases. This principle is commonly used in various applications, such as in jet engines, carburetors, and vacuum systems.Rate this question:
- 34.
Piston-type fuel level control valves operate on what principle?
Explanation
Piston-type fuel level control valves operate on the principle of hydromechanical. This means that they use a combination of hydraulic and mechanical mechanisms to control the fuel level. The piston inside the valve moves up and down based on the pressure and flow of the fuel, regulating the fuel level accordingly. This allows for precise control and adjustment of the fuel level in various applications.Rate this question:
- 35.
What controls the operation of the fuel control valve in a combination fuel control valve and pilot valve?
Explanation
The operation of the fuel control valve in a combination fuel control valve and pilot valve is controlled by the pilot valve. This means that the pilot valve is responsible for regulating the flow of fuel to the main fuel control valve, which in turn controls the amount of fuel being delivered to the system. The pilot valve acts as a control mechanism, ensuring that the fuel control valve operates efficiently and accurately.Rate this question:
- 36.
The capacitance-type fuel indicating system shows how much fuel is in a tank, using what form of measurment?
Explanation
The capacitance-type fuel indicating system measures the amount of fuel in a tank using the form of measurement in pounds of fuel. This means that the system calculates the weight of the fuel in the tank to provide an accurate indication of the fuel level. By measuring the capacitance, or the ability of the fuel to store an electric charge, the system can determine the weight of the fuel and display it in pounds.Rate this question:
- 37.
What component controls the amount of pressure entering a fuel tank?
Explanation
The air pressure regulator is the component that controls the amount of pressure entering a fuel tank. It regulates the flow of air into the tank, ensuring that the pressure remains within the desired range. By controlling the pressure, the air pressure regulator helps to maintain the proper functioning of the fuel system and prevents any potential damage or safety hazards that may arise from excessive pressure.Rate this question:
- 38.
What equipment is used to provide bleed air when aircraft is on the ground with the engine shutdown?
Explanation
A ground air cart is used to provide bleed air when an aircraft is on the ground with the engine shutdown. This equipment supplies compressed air to the aircraft's systems, such as the air conditioning and pressurization systems, to maintain a comfortable environment for passengers and crew. The ground air cart connects to the aircraft through an air hose, allowing the transfer of air from the cart to the aircraft. This ensures that essential systems can still function even when the aircraft's engines are not running.Rate this question:
- 39.
Besides stainless steel, what other materials can be used in the construction of medium-pressure/medium-temperature ducting?
Explanation
Titanium and aluminum alloy are both suitable materials for constructing medium-pressure/medium-temperature ducting besides stainless steel. These materials are chosen for their strength, durability, and resistance to corrosion. Titanium is known for its high strength-to-weight ratio and excellent corrosion resistance, making it ideal for applications where weight and durability are crucial. Aluminum alloy, on the other hand, is lightweight, easily formable, and has good thermal conductivity, making it suitable for ducting systems that require efficient heat transfer. Therefore, both titanium and aluminum alloy are viable alternatives to stainless steel in the construction of medium-pressure/medium-temperature ducting.Rate this question:
- 40.
Where in the aircraft can one find molded fiberglass ducting for distribution of conditioned air?
Explanation
Molded fiberglass ducting for distribution of conditioned air can be found in the cabin area of the aircraft. This type of ducting is commonly used to direct and distribute the conditioned air throughout the passenger cabin, ensuring a comfortable environment for the passengers. It is a lightweight and durable material that is suitable for use in aircraft, providing efficient airflow and insulation properties.Rate this question:
- 41.
What induces cooling airflow during ground operation and in flight at low speeds?
Explanation
An ejector induces cooling airflow during ground operation and in flight at low speeds. It works by utilizing the high-pressure air from the aircraft's engine exhaust to create a low-pressure area, which in turn draws in cooler air from the surroundings. This process helps to cool various components of the aircraft, such as the engine, avionics, and other systems, preventing overheating and ensuring optimal performance.Rate this question:
- 42.
How many thermistor elements does the anticipator sensor in each duct consist of?
Explanation
The anticipator sensor in each duct consists of two thermistor elements. Thermistor elements are temperature-sensitive resistors that change their resistance with temperature. Having two thermistor elements allows the sensor to accurately measure the temperature in the duct and make adjustments accordingly.Rate this question:
- 43.
What percentage of the earth's atmoshere is nitrogen?
Explanation
Approximately 78 percent of the Earth's atmosphere is composed of nitrogen. Nitrogen is the most abundant gas in the atmosphere, followed by oxygen. This high percentage of nitrogen is crucial for supporting life on Earth as it plays a vital role in various biological processes and is an essential component of proteins and DNA. It also helps to maintain the balance of gases in the atmosphere and contributes to the overall stability of the Earth's climate.Rate this question:
- 44.
What component opens and closes to control the amount of air leaving the aircraft's pressurized area?
Explanation
The outflow valve is a component that controls the amount of air leaving the aircraft's pressurized area. It opens and closes to regulate the cabin pressure and ensure a comfortable and safe environment for passengers and crew. By adjusting the outflow valve, the aircraft can maintain the desired cabin pressure during different phases of flight, such as ascent, descent, and cruising. This component plays a crucial role in maintaining the overall pressurization system of the aircraft.Rate this question:
- 45.
What component operates as a safety valve if the regulator fails?
Explanation
The outflow valve operates as a safety valve if the regulator fails. This valve is responsible for controlling the flow of air out of the system. In the event that the regulator fails and cannot properly regulate the air pressure, the outflow valve will automatically open to release excess pressure and prevent any damage or malfunction in the system. It acts as a safety mechanism to ensure that the pressure inside the system remains within safe limits, even if the regulator is not functioning correctly.Rate this question:
- 46.
What shape are aircraft fire extinguisher containers?
Explanation
Aircraft fire extinguisher containers are shaped in a spherical form. This shape is chosen because it allows for equal distribution of pressure and provides maximum strength to withstand the high-pressure environment inside the container. The spherical shape also minimizes the risk of stress concentration points, making it more resistant to impact and vibration. Additionally, the spherical shape allows for easy installation and placement in aircraft compartments, ensuring efficient use and accessibility in case of emergencies.Rate this question:
- 47.
What is incorporated in some two-shot systems to delay electrical current to the bonnet assemblies?
Explanation
In some two-shot systems, a time delay relay is incorporated to delay the electrical current to the bonnet assemblies. This relay is designed to introduce a delay in the activation of the bonnet assemblies, allowing for a controlled and timed release of the electrical current. This delay is important in order to ensure that the bonnet assemblies are activated at the appropriate time, preventing any premature or accidental activation. By incorporating a time delay relay, the system can effectively control the timing of the electrical current to the bonnet assemblies, enhancing safety and functionality.Rate this question:
- 48.
What color are low-pressure gaseous oxygen cylinders painted?
Explanation
Low-pressure gaseous oxygen cylinders are painted yellow. This is done to easily distinguish them from other types of cylinders and to indicate that they contain oxygen. The yellow color is a safety measure to prevent confusion and ensure that the cylinders are handled and stored properly.Rate this question:
- 49.
What's a disadvantage of the continuous-flow regulator as compared to other types?
Explanation
The continuous-flow regulator has a disadvantage of wasting oxygen compared to other types. This means that it uses more oxygen than necessary, resulting in inefficient use of the oxygen supply. This can be a drawback in situations where conserving oxygen is crucial, such as in medical settings or emergency situations.Rate this question:
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