2A551: Aircraft Maintenance Questions! Trivia Quiz

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1. Can magnetic lines of force be insulated?

Explanation

Magnetic lines of force cannot be insulated because they are not physical objects that can be contained or isolated. They represent the direction and strength of the magnetic field and are continuous loops that extend from the north pole to the south pole of a magnet. They exist in the surrounding space and cannot be separated or insulated from their source.

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2A551: Aircraft Maintenance Questions! Trivia Quiz - Quiz

Explore the fundamentals of aircraft maintenance with the 2A551: Aircraft Maintenance Questions! Trivia Quiz. Dive into the physics of jet engines, energy transformations, and operational mechanics to enhance your understanding and skills in aerospace maintenance.

2. When current flows through a conductor, does a magnetic field exist?

Explanation

When current flows through a conductor, a magnetic field is generated around the conductor. This phenomenon is known as electromagnetism. The magnetic field is created due to the movement of the electric charges (electrons) in the conductor. The strength of the magnetic field depends on the magnitude of the current flowing through the conductor. Therefore, the correct answer is yes, a magnetic field does exist when current flows through a conductor.

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3. What's the unit of measurment for frequency?

Explanation

The unit of measurement for frequency is hertz. Hertz is a derived unit of measurement in the International System of Units (SI) and it represents the number of cycles or oscillations per second. It is commonly used to measure the frequency of electromagnetic waves, such as radio waves, sound waves, and electrical signals.

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4. What's the fundamental unit of the nickel-cadmium battery?

Explanation

The fundamental unit of the nickel-cadmium battery is the cell. A cell is the basic building block of a battery and consists of two electrodes - a positive electrode (cathode) and a negative electrode (anode) - separated by an electrolyte. In the nickel-cadmium battery, the positive electrode is made of nickel hydroxide and the negative electrode is made of cadmium. The electrolyte is usually a potassium hydroxide solution. When the battery is charged, nickel hydroxide is oxidized at the positive electrode and cadmium is reduced at the negative electrode, storing energy. During discharge, the process is reversed, releasing stored energy.

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5. How is the field winding of a shunt motor connected with armature?

Explanation

The field winding of a shunt motor is connected in parallel with the armature. This means that both the field winding and the armature are connected to the same power source, allowing them to operate simultaneously. This configuration allows for independent control of the field current and the armature current, which is essential for the proper functioning of a shunt motor.

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6. What type of transformer-rectifier is used in many aircraft to change a nickel-cadmium battery?

Explanation

The special T-R (Transformer-Rectifier) is used in many aircraft to change a nickel-cadmium battery. This type of T-R is specifically designed for aircraft applications and is capable of converting the alternating current (AC) from the aircraft's electrical system into direct current (DC) to charge the nickel-cadmium battery. It provides the necessary voltage and current regulation to ensure proper charging of the battery, while also providing protection against overcharging or overcurrent conditions. The special T-R is essential for maintaining the battery's performance and ensuring the reliable operation of the aircraft's electrical system.

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7. What type of test can be accomplished when using the green OHMS scale of multimeter?

Explanation

The green OHMS scale on a multimeter is specifically used for measuring resistance. Resistance is a measure of how much a material or component opposes the flow of electric current. By setting the multimeter to the green OHMS scale, you can accurately measure the resistance of a circuit or component. This is useful in troubleshooting electrical problems, testing the quality of electrical connections, and determining the value of resistors in electronic circuits.

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8. What's the main cause for shorted or grounded circuits?

Explanation

Chafing is the main cause for shorted or grounded circuits. Chafing occurs when the insulation of a wire becomes worn or damaged, exposing the bare wire. When this exposed wire comes into contact with another wire or a conductive surface, it can cause a short circuit or grounding. The exposed wire creates a direct path for the flow of electricity, bypassing the intended circuit and causing a disruption in the electrical system. This can lead to malfunctions, damage to equipment, and potentially even electrical fires.

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9. What are the two pushbutton switches that you can select on the Fluke multimeter?

Explanation

The two pushbutton switches that can be selected on the Fluke multimeter are "range" and "hold". The "range" button allows the user to select the appropriate measurement range for the desired accuracy. This is important because different ranges have different levels of sensitivity. The "hold" button is used to freeze the displayed reading, allowing the user to record or analyze the measurement without the need to keep the probes connected. These two buttons provide flexibility and convenience in using the multimeter for various measurement tasks.

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10. Which law of physics best explains how a jet engine produces forward thrust?

Explanation

Newton's third law of motion states that for every action, there is an equal and opposite reaction. In the case of a jet engine, the forward thrust is produced by the action of expelling high-speed exhaust gases in one direction. According to Newton's third law, the engine experiences an equal and opposite reaction force, propelling the aircraft forward. This law explains how the engine creates the necessary force to overcome air resistance and generate forward motion.

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11. What type of energy does a falling object possess?

Explanation

When an object falls, it gains speed due to the force of gravity. This increase in speed means that the object has kinetic energy, which is the energy possessed by a moving object. Kinetic energy is determined by the mass and velocity of the object. Therefore, a falling object possesses kinetic energy.

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12. Can energy pass from potential to kinetic and back to potential?

Explanation

Energy can indeed pass from potential to kinetic and back to potential. This is illustrated by the concept of mechanical energy. When an object is at a higher position, it possesses potential energy. As it falls, this potential energy is converted into kinetic energy. Once the object reaches the lowest point, all of its potential energy is transformed into kinetic energy. However, as the object starts moving upwards again, the kinetic energy is gradually converted back into potential energy. This continuous exchange between potential and kinetic energy demonstrates that energy can pass from potential to kinetic and back to potential.

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13. Approximately what percent of the energy produced by the fuel is needed to maintain the jet engine operating cycle?

Explanation

The correct answer is 60 because it states that approximately 60% of the energy produced by the fuel is needed to maintain the jet engine operating cycle. This means that a significant portion of the energy generated by the fuel is used to keep the jet engine running efficiently.

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14. On a jet engine that does not have an afterburner, where is the point of highest temperature? 

Explanation

In a jet engine that does not have an afterburner, the point of highest temperature is in the combustion section. This is because the combustion section is where fuel is mixed with compressed air and ignited, resulting in the release of a large amount of energy. As a result, the temperature in this section is significantly higher compared to other parts of the engine.

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15. Where is the point of highest airflow velocity in a jet engine?

Explanation

The point of highest airflow velocity in a jet engine is the ejector nozzle. This is because the ejector nozzle is designed to accelerate the exhaust gases as they leave the engine, creating a high-speed jet of air. This high-speed jet of air is important for generating thrust and propelling the aircraft forward.

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16. After the gases leave the turbine section and enter the exhuast section, what type of velocity do they have?

Explanation

After the gases leave the turbine section and enter the exhaust section, they maintain an axial velocity. This means that the gases continue to flow in the same direction as they did in the turbine section, parallel to the axis of the exhaust section. Axial velocity is important for efficient exhaust flow and to maintain the overall performance of the system.

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17. Which turbine drives the front compressor on a duel- spool engine?

Explanation

The rear turbine drives the front compressor on a dual-spool engine. In a dual-spool engine, there are two separate spools or shafts, each with its own compressor and turbine. The rear turbine is connected to the front compressor through the rear shaft, and it transfers power to drive the front compressor. This arrangement allows for better efficiency and control in the engine's operation.

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18. What unit determines the speed of N2 (high-pressure) rotor in a dual-spool compressor?

Explanation

The speed of the N2 (high-pressure) rotor in a dual-spool compressor is determined by the fuel control unit. The fuel control unit regulates the amount of fuel being supplied to the engine, which in turn affects the speed at which the rotor spins. By adjusting the fuel flow, the fuel control unit can control the speed of the rotor and therefore the overall performance of the compressor.

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19. Which type of compressor is more durable, the axial-flow or the centrifugal?

Explanation

The centrifugal compressor is more durable compared to the axial-flow compressor. This is because the centrifugal compressor has a simpler design with fewer moving parts, making it less prone to mechanical failures. It also operates at lower speeds, resulting in reduced wear and tear. Additionally, the centrifugal compressor can handle a wider range of operating conditions and is more resistant to surge and stall, making it a more durable option overall.

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20. What is the approximate air-to-fuel ratio that is used for the actual burning process in a combustion chamber?

Explanation

The approximate air-to-fuel ratio of 15:1 is commonly used for the actual burning process in a combustion chamber. This means that for every 15 parts of air, 1 part of fuel is required for efficient combustion. This ratio ensures that there is enough oxygen present in the air to completely burn the fuel, resulting in a clean and efficient combustion process.

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21. What is inserted between the rotating blades on multiple- stage turbines?

Explanation

Stationary turbine nozzle vanes are inserted between the rotating blades on multiple-stage turbines. These vanes serve the purpose of directing the flow of the working fluid (such as steam or gas) onto the rotating blades, optimizing the efficiency of the turbine. By controlling the angle and velocity of the fluid, the vanes help to extract maximum energy from the fluid as it passes through the turbine, resulting in improved power generation.

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22. What is the most frequently used method of attaching the turbine blades to the rotor disc?

Explanation

The most frequently used method of attaching turbine blades to the rotor disc is the fir tree method. This method involves the use of fir tree-shaped protrusions on the root of the turbine blades that fit into corresponding slots on the rotor disc. This design provides a secure and reliable attachment, allowing the blades to withstand the high rotational forces and vibrations experienced during operation. The fir tree method is widely used in various types of turbines, including gas turbines and steam turbines.

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23. What three types of fasteners are used to secure the turbine blades to the rotor disc?

Explanation

Steel pins, lock strips, and rivets are the three types of fasteners used to secure the turbine blades to the rotor disc. Steel pins are commonly used to provide a strong and secure connection between the blades and the disc. Lock strips are used to prevent the pins from loosening or coming out due to vibrations or other forces. Rivets are used to join different components together, providing a permanent and reliable connection. These three types of fasteners ensure that the turbine blades are securely attached to the rotor disc, allowing for efficient and safe operation of the turbine.

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24. What are the two priniciple configurations of turbine blades?

Explanation

Turbine blades can be categorized into two principle configurations: shrouded and unshrouded. Shrouded blades are enclosed within a casing or shroud, which provides additional support and protection. This configuration is commonly used in high-pressure turbines to enhance the structural integrity and prevent blade vibrations. On the other hand, unshrouded blades are not enclosed and are more exposed. They are typically used in low-pressure turbines where the risk of vibrations is lower. Both configurations have their advantages and are chosen based on the specific requirements of the turbine design and operating conditions.

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25. An augmenter is classified as what type of engine?

Explanation

An augmenter is classified as a ramjet engine.

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26. What effect should augmenter operation have on engine operation?

Explanation

The augmenter operation should have no effect on the engine operation. This means that the augmenter, which is a device used to increase the thrust of a jet engine, should not cause any changes or disruptions in the normal functioning of the engine. It should not affect the engine's performance, efficiency, or any other aspects of its operation.

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27. What is meant by a rich blowout?

Explanation

A rich blowout refers to a situation where the air-fuel mixture in an engine becomes too rich, meaning there is an excess of fuel compared to the amount of air. This can cause the flame in the combustion chamber to extinguish, resulting in a flameout. An overrich mixture flameout occurs when the air-fuel ratio is so imbalanced that the flame cannot be sustained, leading to a loss of engine power.

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28. What are the two types of oil nozzles?

Explanation

The two types of oil nozzles are restrictive tube and internal passage. The restrictive tube type of oil nozzle has a small opening that restricts the flow of oil, resulting in a finer spray pattern. On the other hand, the internal passage type of oil nozzle has a larger opening, allowing for a higher flow rate of oil and a wider spray pattern. These two types of oil nozzles offer different options for controlling the flow and spray of oil in various applications.

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29. What component provides high-temperature spark for engine starting?

Explanation

The igniter plug is a component that provides a high-temperature spark for engine starting. It is designed to generate a spark that ignites the fuel-air mixture in the combustion chamber, initiating the combustion process. This spark is crucial for starting the engine, as it ignites the fuel and allows the engine to run. Without the igniter plug, the engine would not be able to start and operate efficiently.

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30. In addition to being light in weight and small in size, what other requirement must be met for aircraft instruments?

Explanation

Aircraft instruments must be easy to read in addition to being light in weight and small in size. This is crucial for pilots to quickly and accurately interpret the information displayed on the instruments during flight. The readability of the instruments is essential for maintaining situational awareness and making informed decisions. If the instruments are not easy to read, it could lead to errors or delays in responding to critical flight situations, posing a risk to the safety of the aircraft and its occupants.

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31. Oil pressure indicators measure pressure in what unit of measurment?

Explanation

Oil pressure indicators measure pressure in pounds per square inch (PSI). PSI is a commonly used unit of measurement for pressure, particularly in the United States. It represents the force applied per unit area, in this case, the force exerted by the oil in the system per square inch of area. By measuring the pressure in PSI, oil pressure indicators provide a standardized and easily understandable measurement of the oil pressure in a system.

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32. How is engine fuel-flow measured?

Explanation

Engine fuel-flow is measured in pounds per hour (pph). This unit of measurement indicates the rate at which fuel is consumed by the engine. By measuring the weight of fuel consumed over a specific time period, the fuel-flow can be determined. This measurement is important for monitoring fuel efficiency, calculating fuel consumption rates, and ensuring optimal engine performance. The abbreviation "pph" simply represents "pounds per hour", which is the standard unit used to quantify engine fuel-flow.

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33. What is used to analyze oil samples and determine the identity of metal particles worn from oil-wetted parts?

Explanation

Spectrometric oil analysis is used to analyze oil samples and determine the identity of metal particles worn from oil-wetted parts. This technique involves using a spectrometer to measure the wavelengths of light emitted or absorbed by the metal particles in the oil sample. By comparing these measurements to known reference spectra, the type and concentration of the metal particles can be identified, providing valuable information about the condition of the oil-wetted parts and potential issues such as wear, contamination, or degradation.

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34. What problem most frequently  affects sample integrity?

Explanation

Contamination is the most frequently occurring problem that affects sample integrity. When a sample gets contaminated, it means that unwanted substances or particles have been introduced into the sample, which can alter its composition and potentially lead to inaccurate results. Contamination can occur through various means, such as improper handling, environmental factors, or cross-contamination from other samples or equipment. It is crucial to maintain a sterile and controlled environment to minimize the risk of contamination and ensure the integrity of the sample.

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35. What are the two categories of oil samples that you may be required to take?

Explanation

Oil samples can be categorized into two types: routine and special. Routine oil samples are taken regularly as part of a maintenance program to monitor the condition and performance of machinery. These samples are typically collected at predetermined intervals and provide valuable information about the overall health of the equipment. On the other hand, special oil samples are taken in specific situations where there may be suspected issues or abnormalities. These samples are usually collected outside of the regular schedule and are used to investigate specific problems or concerns with the machinery.

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36. If a pump fails to operate, what component prevents the reverse flow of fuel through the pump?

Explanation

A check valve is a mechanical device that allows the flow of fluid in only one direction, preventing reverse flow. In the context of a pump failure, a check valve would ensure that fuel does not flow back through the pump, maintaining the desired direction of flow. This is important for the proper functioning of the pump and to prevent any potential damage or malfunction.

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37. What component controls fuel level in the recieving tank during fuel transfer?

Explanation

The fuel level control valve is the component that controls the fuel level in the receiving tank during fuel transfer. It regulates the flow of fuel into the tank, ensuring that the fuel level does not exceed the desired level. This valve opens and closes based on the fuel level in the tank, allowing fuel to enter when the level is low and shutting off the flow when the desired level is reached. By controlling the fuel level, the valve helps prevent overfilling and ensures efficient and safe fuel transfer.

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38. What components are required during gravity transfer of fuel?

Explanation

During gravity transfer of fuel, two components are required: a shutoff valve and a float valve. The shutoff valve is responsible for controlling the flow of fuel, allowing it to be turned on or off as needed. The float valve, on the other hand, helps maintain a consistent fuel level by regulating the flow of fuel into the tank. Together, these components ensure a smooth and controlled transfer of fuel during gravity feed systems.

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39. Where are vent ports located?

Explanation

Vent ports are located at the top of the fuel tank. These ports serve as outlets for air to escape from the tank as fuel is being pumped in or consumed. They are essential for maintaining proper pressure within the tank and preventing the buildup of excessive pressure or vacuum. By being positioned at the top, the vent ports ensure that air can easily exit the tank without any obstruction, allowing for efficient and safe operation of the fuel system.

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40. What system is used to remove residual fuel from a manifold?

Explanation

The system used to remove residual fuel from a manifold is called scavenge. Scavenge is a process in which any remaining fuel or exhaust gases are removed from the combustion chamber or manifold to ensure efficient operation of the engine. This helps to prevent any buildup of fuel or exhaust gases that could negatively impact the engine's performance.

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41. During refueling, when all tanks are filled, what happens to the fuel pressure?

Explanation

When all tanks are filled during refueling, the fuel pressure increases. This is because the tanks are now full, and as a result, there is a greater volume of fuel present in the system. With more fuel, the pressure inside the tanks and the fuel lines increases.

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42. What principle applies to the operation of an ejector pump?

Explanation

The principle that applies to the operation of an ejector pump is the venturi principle. The venturi principle states that as the fluid flows through a constricted section of a pipe, the velocity of the fluid increases while the pressure decreases. In the case of an ejector pump, the fluid is forced through a narrow section, creating a pressure difference that allows the pump to draw in and eject fluids or gases. This principle is commonly used in various applications, such as in jet engines, carburetors, and vacuum systems.

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43. Piston-type fuel level control valves operate on what principle?

Explanation

Piston-type fuel level control valves operate on the principle of hydromechanical. This means that they use a combination of hydraulic and mechanical mechanisms to control the fuel level. The piston inside the valve moves up and down based on the pressure and flow of the fuel, regulating the fuel level accordingly. This allows for precise control and adjustment of the fuel level in various applications.

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44. What controls the operation of the fuel control valve in a combination fuel control valve and pilot valve?

Explanation

The operation of the fuel control valve in a combination fuel control valve and pilot valve is controlled by the pilot valve. This means that the pilot valve is responsible for regulating the flow of fuel to the main fuel control valve, which in turn controls the amount of fuel being delivered to the system. The pilot valve acts as a control mechanism, ensuring that the fuel control valve operates efficiently and accurately.

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45. The capacitance-type fuel indicating system shows how much fuel is in a tank, using what form of measurment?

Explanation

The capacitance-type fuel indicating system measures the amount of fuel in a tank using the form of measurement in pounds of fuel. This means that the system calculates the weight of the fuel in the tank to provide an accurate indication of the fuel level. By measuring the capacitance, or the ability of the fuel to store an electric charge, the system can determine the weight of the fuel and display it in pounds.

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46. What component controls the amount of pressure entering a fuel tank?

Explanation

The air pressure regulator is the component that controls the amount of pressure entering a fuel tank. It regulates the flow of air into the tank, ensuring that the pressure remains within the desired range. By controlling the pressure, the air pressure regulator helps to maintain the proper functioning of the fuel system and prevents any potential damage or safety hazards that may arise from excessive pressure.

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47. What equipment is used to provide bleed air when aircraft is on the ground with the engine shutdown?

Explanation

A ground air cart is used to provide bleed air when an aircraft is on the ground with the engine shutdown. This equipment supplies compressed air to the aircraft's systems, such as the air conditioning and pressurization systems, to maintain a comfortable environment for passengers and crew. The ground air cart connects to the aircraft through an air hose, allowing the transfer of air from the cart to the aircraft. This ensures that essential systems can still function even when the aircraft's engines are not running.

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48. Besides stainless steel, what other materials can be used in the construction of medium-pressure/medium-temperature ducting?

Explanation

Titanium and aluminum alloy are both suitable materials for constructing medium-pressure/medium-temperature ducting besides stainless steel. These materials are chosen for their strength, durability, and resistance to corrosion. Titanium is known for its high strength-to-weight ratio and excellent corrosion resistance, making it ideal for applications where weight and durability are crucial. Aluminum alloy, on the other hand, is lightweight, easily formable, and has good thermal conductivity, making it suitable for ducting systems that require efficient heat transfer. Therefore, both titanium and aluminum alloy are viable alternatives to stainless steel in the construction of medium-pressure/medium-temperature ducting.

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49. Where in the aircraft can one find molded fiberglass ducting for distribution of conditioned air?

Explanation

Molded fiberglass ducting for distribution of conditioned air can be found in the cabin area of the aircraft. This type of ducting is commonly used to direct and distribute the conditioned air throughout the passenger cabin, ensuring a comfortable environment for the passengers. It is a lightweight and durable material that is suitable for use in aircraft, providing efficient airflow and insulation properties.

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50. What induces cooling airflow during ground operation and in flight at low speeds?

Explanation

An ejector induces cooling airflow during ground operation and in flight at low speeds. It works by utilizing the high-pressure air from the aircraft's engine exhaust to create a low-pressure area, which in turn draws in cooler air from the surroundings. This process helps to cool various components of the aircraft, such as the engine, avionics, and other systems, preventing overheating and ensuring optimal performance.

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51. How many thermistor elements does the anticipator sensor in each duct consist of?

Explanation

The anticipator sensor in each duct consists of two thermistor elements. Thermistor elements are temperature-sensitive resistors that change their resistance with temperature. Having two thermistor elements allows the sensor to accurately measure the temperature in the duct and make adjustments accordingly.

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52. What percentage of the earth's atmoshere is nitrogen?

Explanation

Approximately 78 percent of the Earth's atmosphere is composed of nitrogen. Nitrogen is the most abundant gas in the atmosphere, followed by oxygen. This high percentage of nitrogen is crucial for supporting life on Earth as it plays a vital role in various biological processes and is an essential component of proteins and DNA. It also helps to maintain the balance of gases in the atmosphere and contributes to the overall stability of the Earth's climate.

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53. What component opens and closes to control the amount of air leaving the aircraft's pressurized area?

Explanation

The outflow valve is a component that controls the amount of air leaving the aircraft's pressurized area. It opens and closes to regulate the cabin pressure and ensure a comfortable and safe environment for passengers and crew. By adjusting the outflow valve, the aircraft can maintain the desired cabin pressure during different phases of flight, such as ascent, descent, and cruising. This component plays a crucial role in maintaining the overall pressurization system of the aircraft.

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54. What component operates as a safety valve if the regulator fails?

Explanation

The outflow valve operates as a safety valve if the regulator fails. This valve is responsible for controlling the flow of air out of the system. In the event that the regulator fails and cannot properly regulate the air pressure, the outflow valve will automatically open to release excess pressure and prevent any damage or malfunction in the system. It acts as a safety mechanism to ensure that the pressure inside the system remains within safe limits, even if the regulator is not functioning correctly.

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55. What shape are aircraft fire extinguisher containers?

Explanation

Aircraft fire extinguisher containers are shaped in a spherical form. This shape is chosen because it allows for equal distribution of pressure and provides maximum strength to withstand the high-pressure environment inside the container. The spherical shape also minimizes the risk of stress concentration points, making it more resistant to impact and vibration. Additionally, the spherical shape allows for easy installation and placement in aircraft compartments, ensuring efficient use and accessibility in case of emergencies.

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56. What is incorporated in some two-shot systems to delay electrical current to the bonnet assemblies?

Explanation

In some two-shot systems, a time delay relay is incorporated to delay the electrical current to the bonnet assemblies. This relay is designed to introduce a delay in the activation of the bonnet assemblies, allowing for a controlled and timed release of the electrical current. This delay is important in order to ensure that the bonnet assemblies are activated at the appropriate time, preventing any premature or accidental activation. By incorporating a time delay relay, the system can effectively control the timing of the electrical current to the bonnet assemblies, enhancing safety and functionality.

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57. What color are low-pressure gaseous oxygen cylinders painted?

Explanation

Low-pressure gaseous oxygen cylinders are painted yellow. This is done to easily distinguish them from other types of cylinders and to indicate that they contain oxygen. The yellow color is a safety measure to prevent confusion and ensure that the cylinders are handled and stored properly.

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58. What's a disadvantage of the continuous-flow regulator as compared to other types?

Explanation

The continuous-flow regulator has a disadvantage of wasting oxygen compared to other types. This means that it uses more oxygen than necessary, resulting in inefficient use of the oxygen supply. This can be a drawback in situations where conserving oxygen is crucial, such as in medical settings or emergency situations.

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59. What's the probable cause if frost appears on the outside of a LOX container?

Explanation

Frost appearing on the outside of a LOX (liquid oxygen) container is likely due to vacuum loss. LOX containers are designed to store liquid oxygen at extremely low temperatures, and they are typically insulated and kept under vacuum to prevent heat transfer. If there is a loss of vacuum, it means that the insulation is compromised and heat from the surroundings can enter the container, causing the oxygen to evaporate and condense on the outside surface as frost.

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60. What position is the filler and buildup valve in during a filling operation?

Explanation

During a filling operation, the filler and buildup valve is in the vent position. This means that the valve is open, allowing air or gas to escape from the system being filled. This is important to prevent pressure build-up and ensure a smooth filling process. By being in the vent position, the valve ensures that the system is properly vented before the filling operation begins, preventing any potential issues or damage.

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61. What symbol indicates that an inspection is overdue?

Explanation

A red dash is used to indicate that an inspection is overdue. This symbol serves as a visual reminder that the inspection has not been completed within the expected timeframe. The color red is commonly associated with urgency or danger, making it an effective way to draw attention to the fact that the inspection is overdue. The dash symbolizes a break or absence, further emphasizing that the inspection has been missed or delayed.

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62. What adjustable height of B-4 maintenance platform?

Explanation

The adjustable height of the B-4 maintenance platform is 3 to 7 feet. This means that the platform can be set at different heights within this range to accommodate different maintenance tasks. The adjustable height feature allows for flexibility and ensures that technicians can work at a comfortable and safe height for performing maintenance on various types of equipment.

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63. How much liquid oxygen does the TMU-27/M LOX mobile storage tank hold?

Explanation

The TMU-27/M LOX mobile storage tank holds 50 gallons of liquid oxygen.

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64. What form is used to track all aircraft oxygen systems that have been serviced with a specific LOX cart?

Explanation

The AFTO form 134 is used to track all aircraft oxygen systems that have been serviced with a specific LOX cart. This form is specifically designed for recording the servicing and maintenance of aircraft oxygen systems, ensuring that all necessary information is documented and easily accessible. By using the AFTO form 134, it becomes easier to track the history of oxygen system servicing and ensure that it is done with the correct LOX cart.

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65. What is stenciled in white on the side of each high-pressure gaseous oxygen cylinder bottle?

Explanation

Each high-pressure gaseous oxygen cylinder bottle is stenciled in white with "aviator's breathing oxygen" to indicate that the oxygen contained in the cylinder is specifically intended for use by aviators for breathing purposes. This labeling ensures that the oxygen is of the appropriate quality and meets the necessary safety standards for aviation use.

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66. How many oxygen cylinders is the AF/M32R-3 oxygen servicing trailer designed to transport?

Explanation

The AF/M32R-3 oxygen servicing trailer is designed to transport eight oxygen cylinders.

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67. On the AF/M32R-3 oxygen servicing trailer what component filters and dries the gas before it is fed to the pressure regulator?

Explanation

The purifier component on the AF/M32R-3 oxygen servicing trailer filters and dries the gas before it is fed to the pressure regulator. This ensures that any impurities or moisture present in the gas are removed, allowing for clean and dry oxygen to be supplied to the regulator. This is important to maintain the quality and effectiveness of the oxygen being delivered.

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68. What is the tank capacity on the NSU-L75 nitrogen servicing unit?

Explanation

The tank capacity on the NSU-L75 nitrogen servicing unit is 75 gallons.

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69. On the hydraulic filler and pressurization unit what prevents overpressurizing of the low-pressure pumping system when the high-pressure pump is used?

Explanation

A check valve is a mechanical device that allows fluid to flow in only one direction. In the context of the hydraulic filler and pressurization unit, the check valve prevents overpressurizing of the low-pressure pumping system when the high-pressure pump is used. It ensures that the fluid can only flow from the high-pressure side to the low-pressure side, preventing any backflow or excessive pressure buildup in the low-pressure system. This helps maintain the integrity and safety of the system by regulating the pressure and preventing any damage or failure due to overpressurization.

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70. How is the operation of the Model 4000/4100 maintenance trailer controlled?

Explanation

The operation of the Model 4000/4100 maintenance trailer is controlled hydraulically. This means that hydraulic systems are used to control and operate the various functions and components of the trailer. Hydraulic fluid is used to transmit power and control the movement of the trailer's mechanisms, such as lifting and lowering the trailer bed or operating any hydraulic attachments or tools. This type of control allows for precise and efficient operation of the maintenance trailer.

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71. How high can the mast on the FL-1D trailer mounted floodlight be raised?

Explanation

The mast on the FL-1D trailer mounted floodlight can be raised up to a maximum height of 12 feet. This suggests that the floodlight is designed to provide illumination at a considerable height, allowing for effective lighting in various situations. The 12-foot height limit may be due to safety regulations, practical considerations, or the technical capabilities of the equipment.

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72. What's the capacity of the fluid reservoir on the MK-3A-1 hydraulic test stand?

Explanation

The capacity of the fluid reservoir on the MK-3A-1 hydraulic test stand is 30 gallons.

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73. How is the MJ-2A  hydraulic test stand driven?

Explanation

The MJ-2A hydraulic test stand is driven by an engine. This means that the engine provides the power necessary to operate the test stand and perform hydraulic tests. The engine-driven design allows for efficient and reliable operation of the test stand, ensuring that it can handle the demands of hydraulic testing effectively.

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74. What terms are used to define the weight classes of the MB-2 towing tractor?

Explanation

The weight classes of the MB-2 towing tractor are defined as class I and class II. These terms are used to categorize the different weight capacities or capabilities of the towing tractor. Class I typically refers to a lower weight capacity, while class II indicates a higher weight capacity. These weight classes help in determining the suitability of the towing tractor for different types of towing tasks based on the weight requirements.

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75. What internal wing components serve as an attachment point for the skin?

Explanation

Ribs and stringers are internal wing components that serve as attachment points for the skin. Ribs are structural elements that run perpendicular to the wing's leading edge and provide support and shape to the wing. They are typically made of metal or composite materials. Stringers, on the other hand, are longitudinal members that run parallel to the wing's leading edge and provide additional structural support. Both ribs and stringers help distribute the aerodynamic loads across the wing's surface and ensure the skin remains securely attached to the wing structure.

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76. What's used to round out the angle formed between the fixed tail surfaces and the fuselage?

Explanation

A fairing is used to round out the angle formed between the fixed tail surfaces and the fuselage. A fairing is a streamlined structure that is typically made of lightweight materials such as fiberglass or composite materials. It is designed to reduce drag and improve the aerodynamic efficiency of an aircraft. In this case, the fairing is used to smooth out the transition between the tail surfaces and the fuselage, ensuring that the airflow over the aircraft is as smooth as possible.

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77. What component controls airflow around the weapons to reduce turbulence in the bay on some bomber aircraft?

Explanation

Bay spoilers or air spoilers are components that control airflow around the weapons bay on some bomber aircraft. These spoilers are designed to reduce turbulence in the bay, ensuring smooth airflow and preventing any disturbances that could affect the performance of the weapons or the aircraft itself. By deploying or adjusting these spoilers, pilots can optimize the airflow and maintain stable conditions within the weapons bay, ensuring the safe and effective deployment of weapons during missions.

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78. What category of -21 equipment is the aircraft' AME?

Explanation

The given answer suggests that the aircraft's AME (Aircraft Maintenance Engineer) falls under category II equipment.

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79. How are troop seats fastened to the aircraft floor?

Explanation

Troop seats are fastened to the aircraft floor using studs. Studs are typically metal rods or bolts that are inserted into pre-drilled holes in the floor and secured with nuts or other fasteners. This method ensures that the seats are securely attached to the floor, providing stability and safety for the troops during flight. Studs are a common and reliable fastening method used in aviation to ensure that equipment and components remain securely in place during aircraft operation.

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80. What instrument is used to measure the weight of air?

Explanation

A mercurial barometer is used to measure the weight of air. It consists of a glass tube filled with mercury and inverted into a dish of mercury. The weight of the air presses down on the mercury, causing it to rise in the tube. By measuring the height of the mercury column, the atmospheric pressure can be determined. Since air has weight, the height of the mercury column provides an indirect measure of the weight of the air. Therefore, a mercurial barometer is the instrument used to measure the weight of air.

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81. What's the term for the curve of the surface of an airfoil from the leading edge to the trailing edge?

Explanation

Camber refers to the curve of the surface of an airfoil from the leading edge to the trailing edge. It is a crucial characteristic of an airfoil as it affects the lift and drag forces acting on the aircraft. A positive camber means that the upper surface of the airfoil is more curved than the lower surface, resulting in increased lift but also increased drag. On the other hand, a negative camber means that the lower surface is more curved, which reduces lift but also decreases drag.

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82. What are the three axes that act upon an aircraft?

Explanation

An aircraft is subject to three main axes of movement: longitudinal, lateral, and vertical. The longitudinal axis runs from the nose to the tail of the aircraft and is responsible for pitch movements, controlling the aircraft's rotation around the lateral axis. The lateral axis runs from wingtip to wingtip and is responsible for roll movements, controlling the aircraft's rotation around the longitudinal axis. Lastly, the vertical axis runs vertically through the aircraft's center of gravity and is responsible for yaw movements, controlling the aircraft's rotation around the vertical axis. These three axes are crucial for the control and stability of an aircraft during flight.

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83. Which type of flight control system reduces the need for long cables, turnbuckles and quick disconnects, push-pull rods, and the associated flight control hardware?

Explanation

A fly-by-wire flight control system replaces traditional mechanical linkages with electronic signals, allowing for a lighter and more efficient design. By eliminating the need for long cables, turnbuckles, push-pull rods, and associated hardware, it reduces weight and maintenance requirements. This system uses electronic sensors to detect pilot inputs and sends corresponding signals to actuators, which control the aircraft's surfaces. This technology enhances aircraft maneuverability, responsiveness, and reliability.

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84. What controls all directional movements of aircraft?

Explanation

Primary flight controls are the components that control all directional movements of an aircraft. These controls include the ailerons, elevators, and rudder. The ailerons control the roll or banking motion of the aircraft, the elevators control the pitch or up and down motion, and the rudder controls the yaw or side-to-side motion. By manipulating these primary flight controls, pilots are able to maneuver the aircraft in different directions and maintain control during flight.

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85. What primary flight control guides the aircraft about the vertical axis?

Explanation

The rudder is the primary flight control that guides the aircraft about the vertical axis. It is located on the vertical stabilizer at the tail of the aircraft. By deflecting the rudder, the pilot can control the yawing motion of the aircraft, which is the rotation around its vertical axis. This allows the aircraft to maintain directional stability and control during flight.

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86. What mode of the auto pilot system automatically maintains aircraft speed?

Explanation

The mode of the auto pilot system that automatically maintains aircraft speed is mach hold. This mode is specifically designed to keep the aircraft flying at a constant Mach number, which is the ratio of the aircraft's true airspeed to the speed of sound. By utilizing mach hold, the auto pilot system adjusts the aircraft's throttle and other control surfaces to ensure that the desired speed is maintained throughout the flight.

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87. Since liquids and gases have many properties in common, how are they frequently classified?

Explanation

Liquids and gases share several properties, such as the ability to flow and take the shape of their container. Due to these similarities, they are often grouped together and classified as fluids. This classification helps to distinguish them from solids, which have different properties and behavior.

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88. What is all matter made up of?

Explanation

All matter is made up of molecules. Molecules are the smallest units of a substance that retain its chemical properties. They are composed of two or more atoms joined together by chemical bonds. Molecules can be made up of atoms of the same element or different elements. This answer correctly states that molecules are the building blocks of all matter.

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89. Which matter has the property of resisting changes in shape when a force is applied?

Explanation

Solids have the property of resisting changes in shape when a force is applied. Unlike liquids and gases, the particles in solids are tightly packed together, which gives them a fixed shape and volume. When a force is applied to a solid, the particles are unable to move freely and maintain their positions, causing the solid to resist deformation and maintain its shape. This property makes solids useful for building structures and objects that need to maintain their form under external forces.

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90. When sufficient force is applied to a solid to cause distortion, the solid is said to have exceeded what?

Explanation

When a solid is subjected to enough force that it causes distortion, it means that the solid has surpassed its elastic limit. The elastic limit is the maximum amount of stress or force that a material can withstand without undergoing permanent deformation. Once the elastic limit is exceeded, the solid will no longer return to its original shape and size when the force is removed. Therefore, the correct answer is "its elastic limit."

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91. What characteristic of a fluid determines its resistance to flow?

Explanation

Viscosity is a characteristic of a fluid that determines its resistance to flow. It refers to the internal friction or stickiness of a fluid, which affects how easily it flows. Fluids with high viscosity, such as honey or molasses, have a thick consistency and flow slowly, while fluids with low viscosity, such as water, have a thin consistency and flow more easily. Therefore, viscosity plays a crucial role in determining the resistance of a fluid to flow.

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92. What unit in the pressurized hydraulic reservoir pressurizes the hydraulic fluid to 5 psi?

Explanation

The piston spring in the pressurized hydraulic reservoir is responsible for pressurizing the hydraulic fluid to 5 psi. The spring exerts force on the piston, which in turn compresses the hydraulic fluid, increasing its pressure. This pressurized fluid can then be used to operate various hydraulic systems and components.

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93. When the hand pump handle is on the retraction stroke, which check valve is closed?

Explanation

During the retraction stroke of the hand pump handle, the inlet check valve is closed. This valve prevents the backflow of water from the outlet side of the pump back into the inlet side. By closing the inlet check valve, the pump ensures that water is only drawn in from the source during the pumping process and not allowed to flow back. This helps maintain the efficiency and effectiveness of the pumping system.

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94. What is the thinned portion on the drive shaft of a gear-type pump called?

Explanation

The thinned portion on the drive shaft of a gear-type pump is called the shear section. This section is designed to allow a controlled amount of fluid to pass through, creating a shearing action that helps to reduce the viscosity of the fluid and improve its flow. The shear section is an important component in gear-type pumps as it helps to enhance the pump's efficiency and performance.

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95. On a vane-type pump, what keeps the vanes against the housing wall?

Explanation

Springs are used in a vane-type pump to keep the vanes against the housing wall. The vanes are designed to slide in and out of slots in the rotor, and the springs provide the necessary pressure to ensure that the vanes stay in contact with the housing wall as the rotor rotates. This helps to create a seal and maintain the efficiency of the pump by preventing any leakage or loss of pressure.

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96. Which accumulator has a drilled passageway in the piston for lubrication?

Explanation

The piston is the correct answer because it has a drilled passageway that allows lubrication to flow through it. This passageway ensures that the piston remains properly lubricated, reducing friction and wear between the piston and the cylinder wall. This lubrication is essential for the smooth and efficient operation of the piston within the accumulator.

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97. How many pistons are found in a tandem actuator?

Explanation

A tandem actuator typically consists of two pistons. These pistons work together to generate the required force and motion. Having two pistons allows for increased power and efficiency in the actuator's operation. Therefore, the correct answer is two or 2.

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98. What component is used in systems to limit the speed of movement of such items as wing flaps and landing gear?

Explanation

Restrictors are components used in systems to limit the speed of movement of items like wing flaps and landing gear. They are designed to regulate the flow of fluid or air, thereby controlling the speed at which these mechanical components can move. By restricting the flow, restrictors ensure that the movement is controlled and gradual, preventing any sudden or excessive movements that could be potentially dangerous or damaging.

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99. What is another name for the supply section of a basic hydraulic system?

Explanation

The supply section of a basic hydraulic system is commonly referred to as the suction manifold. The suction manifold is responsible for drawing in fluid from the reservoir and supplying it to the pump. It is an important component that ensures a continuous flow of fluid to the system, enabling the hydraulic system to function properly.

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100. Which section of a basic hydraulic system contains all the lines and units starting with the pump to the selector valve?

Explanation

The pressure manifold is the section of a basic hydraulic system that contains all the lines and units starting from the pump to the selector valve. It is responsible for distributing the pressurized hydraulic fluid to various components of the system, ensuring proper functioning and control. The pressure manifold acts as a central hub, connecting the pump, lines, and selector valve, allowing for efficient and effective hydraulic power transmission.

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101. How much pressure is required to lift 2,300 pounds using an actuator with 2 square inches of working area?

Explanation

The pressure required to lift 2,300 pounds using an actuator with 2 square inches of working area can be calculated by dividing the force (2,300 pounds) by the area (2 square inches). This gives us a pressure of 1,150 pounds per square inch (psi).

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102. What type of landing gear does the C-5 and C-130 use?

Explanation

The C-5 and C-130 aircraft use modified tricycle landing gear. This type of landing gear configuration consists of a single nose gear located at the front of the aircraft and two main landing gear units located towards the rear. The main landing gear units are larger and support most of the aircraft's weight during landing and takeoff. The nose gear is smaller and provides steering capability for the aircraft on the ground. This modified tricycle landing gear design offers stability and maneuverability, making it suitable for the C-5 and C-130 aircraft.

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103. Which type of landing gear consists of four main gears mounted in the fuselage in the form of a rectangle and two outriggers or wing tip protection gears?

Explanation

The correct answer is quadricycle landing gear. This type of landing gear consists of four main gears mounted in the fuselage in the form of a rectangle, along with two outriggers or wing tip protection gears. This configuration provides stability and support during landing and takeoff, especially for larger aircraft.

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104. What component is installed on the truck assembly to prevent the truck from porpoising?

Explanation

A snubber is a component installed on the truck assembly to prevent the truck from porpoising. Porpoising refers to the bouncing or oscillating motion of the truck's front end, which can be caused by various factors such as uneven road surfaces or sudden braking. The snubber helps to dampen these vibrations and stabilize the truck, ensuring a smoother and safer ride.

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105. What are the two types of steer damper units presently used?

Explanation

The two types of steer damper units presently used are single-piston and vane. These types of units are used in vehicles to reduce the vibrations and oscillations caused by steering inputs. A single-piston damper consists of a piston that moves through a hydraulic fluid, providing damping force. On the other hand, a vane damper uses vanes that rotate in a fluid-filled chamber, generating resistance to dampen the steering movements. These types of steer damper units are commonly used in automotive applications to improve stability and control during steering maneuvers.

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106. What is used to ensure that the sliding spool returns to neutral position?

Explanation

A centering spring is used to ensure that the sliding spool returns to the neutral position. This spring provides a force that counteracts any movement of the spool, helping to keep it centered. When the spool is released or when there is no external force acting on it, the centering spring pulls it back to the neutral position. This ensures that the spool is always ready for the next operation and prevents it from getting stuck in any particular position.

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107. What's the heart of the integral brake  system?

Explanation

The heart of the integral brake system is the PBCV.

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108. What ensures the rapid application and release of brakes?

Explanation

A debooster is a device that ensures the rapid application and release of brakes. It is designed to reduce the pressure and force required to activate the brakes, allowing for quicker response times. By decreasing the pressure, the debooster enables a faster release of the brakes, allowing for smoother and more efficient braking operations. This device is commonly used in various applications, such as automotive and industrial systems, to enhance the performance and safety of braking mechanisms.

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109. What term is used to describe a gradual loss of braking action due to overheating?

Explanation

Brake fade is the term used to describe a gradual loss of braking action due to overheating. When the brakes become overheated, the friction between the brake pads and the rotors decreases, causing a decrease in braking power. This can occur during prolonged or intense braking, such as when driving downhill or towing heavy loads. As the brakes heat up, the brake fluid may also boil, further reducing the effectiveness of the brakes. Brake fade is a common issue in high-performance vehicles or in situations where the brakes are subjected to heavy use for extended periods of time.

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110. What causes the multiple disc brake's piston to move inward?

Explanation

The multiple disc brake's piston moves inward due to hydraulic pressure. When the brake pedal is pressed, hydraulic fluid is forced through the brake lines, creating pressure. This pressure is transmitted to the pistons in the brake caliper, causing them to move inward and apply pressure on the brake pads. This pressure then allows the brake pads to clamp onto the brake discs, creating friction and ultimately slowing down or stopping the vehicle.

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111. At what temperature will the fusible metal core of the thermal plugs melt?

Explanation

The fusible metal core of the thermal plugs will melt at a temperature of 300 degrees Fahrenheit.

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112. What part of the bearing holds the assembly together?

Explanation

The cage is the part of the bearing that holds the assembly together. It is a metal or plastic component that separates the rolling elements, such as balls or rollers, and keeps them evenly spaced. The cage ensures that the rolling elements do not come into contact with each other, preventing friction and wear. Additionally, the cage helps to distribute the load evenly across the rolling elements, improving the overall performance and lifespan of the bearing.

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113. On landing gear with dual tires, what action should be taken when  one tire fails?

Explanation

When one tire fails on a landing gear with dual tires, both tires should be replaced. This is because the tires on a landing gear work together to distribute the weight and provide balance during landing. If one tire fails, it is likely that the other tire has also experienced similar wear and tear. Therefore, replacing both tires ensures that the landing gear remains in optimal condition and reduces the risk of further tire failures.

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114. If you suspect wheel or tire damage, from which direction should you approach the tire to deflate it?

Explanation

When suspecting wheel or tire damage and needing to deflate the tire, it is recommended to approach it from either the front or the rear. This is because approaching from the sides may put the person at risk if the tire were to suddenly burst or explode. By approaching from the front or rear, the person can maintain a safer distance and reduce the chances of potential injury.

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115. What material(s) are usually used for high-pressure/high-temperature ducting?

Explanation

Stainless steel is commonly used for high-pressure/high-temperature ducting due to its excellent corrosion resistance, high strength, and ability to withstand extreme temperatures. Its resistance to oxidation and scaling makes it suitable for applications where ducting is exposed to high temperatures and harsh environments. Additionally, stainless steel has good ductility, allowing it to be easily formed into various shapes and sizes required for ducting systems.

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116. How are the therocouples connected in respect to each other?

Explanation

Thermocouples are connected in series, meaning that the positive terminal of one thermocouple is connected to the negative terminal of the next thermocouple. This configuration allows the voltage generated by each thermocouple to add up, resulting in a higher overall voltage output. Connecting them in series also ensures that the temperature measurements are cumulative, as the voltage output is directly proportional to the temperature difference between the two junctions of each thermocouple.

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117. What is another name for a transformer-rectifier?

Explanation

A transformer-rectifier is also known as a converter. This device is used to convert alternating current (AC) to direct current (DC) by first transforming the voltage with a transformer and then rectifying it with a rectifier. The term "converter" is commonly used to refer to this type of device in various electrical and electronic systems.

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118. What is another name for the Boyles-Charles' law?

Explanation

The Boyles-Charles' law is another name for the general gas law. This law states that the volume of a gas is inversely proportional to its pressure, at constant temperature. It combines Boyle's law, which states that the volume of a gas is inversely proportional to its pressure, and Charles' law, which states that the volume of a gas is directly proportional to its temperature. Therefore, the general gas law encompasses both of these individual laws and provides a more comprehensive understanding of the relationship between volume, pressure, and temperature in gases.

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119. What is provided on the boom with a ball and universal joint to provide flexibility?

Explanation

A nozzle is provided on the boom with a ball and universal joint to provide flexibility. The ball and universal joint allow for movement and rotation, while the nozzle directs the flow of whatever substance is being dispensed. This combination of components allows for precise and flexible control over the direction and angle of the substance being released.

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120. How are float switches actuated?

Explanation

Float switches are actuated by the fuel level. A float switch consists of a buoyant object, such as a float, attached to a lever or arm. As the fuel level rises or falls, the float moves accordingly. This movement of the float is then used to actuate a switch, either opening or closing an electrical circuit. This allows for the monitoring or control of the fuel level in various applications, such as in fuel tanks or storage systems.

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121. What's used to lace the studs together in a metal foil blanket?

Explanation

Wire is used to lace the studs together in a metal foil blanket. This is because wire is a flexible and durable material that can be easily threaded through the studs, providing structural support and holding them together securely. It helps to maintain the integrity of the blanket and ensures that the metal foil remains in place, effectively reflecting and retaining heat.

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122. What is the maximum towing speed of PD2501D air conditioning unit?

Explanation

The maximum towing speed of the PD2501D air conditioning unit is 15 MPH. This means that when towing the unit, it should not exceed this speed to ensure safe transportation. Going beyond this speed limit could potentially cause damage to the unit or compromise its stability during transportation.

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123. What prevents foreign material from entering the reservoir during servicing?

Explanation

A wire screen prevents foreign material from entering the reservoir during servicing. The screen acts as a barrier, allowing only fluids to pass through while trapping any solid particles or debris. This helps to maintain the cleanliness and integrity of the reservoir, ensuring that foreign material does not contaminate the system during servicing.

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124. In order to service or preform maintanace on an air-pressurized reservoir, what is the first thing you must do?

Explanation

To service or perform maintenance on an air-pressurized reservoir, the first step is to depressurize it. This is necessary to ensure the safety of the technician and prevent any potential accidents or injuries. By releasing the pressure, the reservoir becomes safe to work on as it eliminates the risk of sudden air release or unexpected movements. Depressurizing the reservoir allows for a controlled environment where maintenance tasks can be carried out effectively and without any hazards.

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125. What type of seal is used between the disc and valve body of a disc type shutoff valve?

Explanation

An o-ring is used as the seal between the disc and valve body of a disc type shutoff valve. O-rings are commonly used in sealing applications due to their ability to create a tight and reliable seal. They are made of a flexible material, such as rubber, which allows them to conform to the shape of the sealing surfaces and prevent leakage. In the case of a disc type shutoff valve, the o-ring is placed between the disc and valve body to ensure a tight seal when the valve is closed, preventing any fluid from passing through.

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126. What component connects the inner and outer cylinder to maintain correct alignment?

Explanation

Torsion links are the component that connects the inner and outer cylinder to maintain correct alignment. These links are designed to resist torsional forces and provide stability and alignment between the cylinders. They are commonly used in mechanical systems where maintaining proper alignment is crucial, such as in automotive suspension systems. Torsion links help distribute the forces evenly between the cylinders, ensuring that they stay aligned and function properly.

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127. What two forms of energy does a jet engine produces?

Explanation

A jet engine produces thrust, which is the force that propels the aircraft forward. This is achieved by expelling a high-speed jet of gases in the opposite direction. Additionally, a jet engine also produces heat as a byproduct of the combustion process. This heat is generated by burning fuel in the engine's combustion chamber, which powers the turbine and ultimately drives the engine.

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128. What type of turbine design is used on most jet engines?

Explanation

Most jet engines use a combination of reaction and impulse turbine design. The reaction turbine extracts energy from the expanding gases by accelerating them in the opposite direction, which in turn rotates the turbine blades. The impulse turbine, on the other hand, extracts energy from the high-speed jet of gases by redirecting it onto the turbine blades, causing them to rotate. The combination of these two designs allows for efficient extraction of energy from the exhaust gases, resulting in the high performance of jet engines.

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129. What dissimilar metals are used in thermocouples?

Explanation

Thermocouples use dissimilar metals to generate a voltage in response to temperature changes. Alumel and chromel are commonly used in thermocouples because they have different thermoelectric properties. Alumel is an alloy of nickel, aluminum, and manganese, while chromel is an alloy of nickel and chromium. The combination of these metals allows for accurate temperature measurements within a wide range of temperatures.

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130. What brake system consists of a slave-metering valve remotely controlled by a master cylinder?

Explanation

A slave brake system is a type of brake system that consists of a slave-metering valve that is controlled by a master cylinder. In this system, the master cylinder is responsible for generating hydraulic pressure, which is then transmitted to the slave-metering valve. The slave-metering valve regulates the amount of pressure that is applied to the brakes, allowing for precise control over braking force. This type of system is commonly used in vehicles where the master cylinder and slave-metering valve are located in different areas, such as in heavy-duty trucks or trailers.

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131. When a jet engine reaches idle speed, what determines how the fuel control regulates engine speed?

Explanation

The power lever setting determines how the fuel control regulates engine speed when a jet engine reaches idle speed. The power lever setting is the position of the lever that controls the amount of fuel being supplied to the engine. By adjusting the power lever setting, the pilot can increase or decrease the engine speed. Therefore, the fuel control system responds to the power lever setting to regulate the engine speed accordingly.

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132. In addition to a regulator, two outflow valves, and a pneumatic relay, what other component is a part of the dual-differential regulator/

Explanation

The dump valve is the other component that is a part of the dual-differential regulator. It works alongside the regulator, two outflow valves, and a pneumatic relay to regulate the flow of air or fluid in a system. The dump valve is responsible for releasing excess pressure or fluid from the system, ensuring that it does not exceed safe operating limits.

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133. When measuring current flow, how is the multimeter connected to the circuit?

Explanation

When measuring current flow, the multimeter is connected in series with the circuit. This means that the multimeter is placed in the path of the current flow, with the positive lead connected to the positive terminal of the power source and the negative lead connected to the load or component being measured. By connecting the multimeter in series, it allows the current to pass through the meter, allowing for an accurate measurement of the current flowing through the circuit.

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134. In a duel-orifice type of fuel nozzle, fuel is injected into the engine combustion chamber from which orifices for high-engine- thrust operation?

Explanation

In a duel-orifice type of fuel nozzle, fuel is injected into the engine combustion chamber from both the primary and secondary orifices. This means that fuel is delivered through two separate openings, allowing for a more efficient and controlled fuel injection process. By using both the primary and secondary orifices, the fuel nozzle can provide the necessary fuel flow for high-engine-thrust operation, ensuring optimal performance and power output.

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135. What component regulates and distributes fuel for most efficient  engine operation at all power settings?

Explanation

Fuel pumps regulate and distribute fuel for efficient engine operation at all power settings. They ensure that the engine receives the correct amount of fuel based on the power demands, maintaining a proper air-fuel ratio for combustion. By delivering fuel at the right pressure and flow rate, fuel pumps optimize engine performance, ensuring smooth and consistent power delivery. Without fuel pumps, the engine may not receive enough fuel or may experience fuel delivery issues, leading to inefficient operation and potential engine problems.

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136. What should be one of the first things checked if you had slow actuation of the wing spoilers?

Explanation

If there is slow actuation of the wing spoilers, one of the first things that should be checked is the system pressure. The wing spoilers are typically controlled hydraulically, so if there is low system pressure, it could result in slow or inadequate actuation of the spoilers. Checking the system pressure will help identify if there is any issue with the hydraulic system, such as a leak or a malfunctioning pump, which could be causing the slow actuation.

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137. What component provides a leaner mixture of fuel for engine starting?

Explanation

The fuel derichment valve is a component that provides a leaner mixture of fuel for engine starting. This means that it reduces the amount of fuel being supplied to the engine during the starting process, resulting in a mixture that has a higher air-to-fuel ratio. A leaner mixture is needed for engine starting because it allows for easier ignition and combustion, especially in colder conditions. By reducing the amount of fuel in the mixture, the fuel derichment valve helps to ensure a smooth and efficient start for the engine.

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138. What valve drains the fuel manifold on shutdown?

Explanation

The valve that drains the fuel manifold on shutdown is the pressurizing and dump valve, also known as the p&d valve. This valve is responsible for releasing the pressure in the fuel manifold and allowing any remaining fuel to be drained out.

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139. Approximately how many volts does the AC ignition system develop at the igniter plug?

Explanation

The AC ignition system develops approximately 20,000 volts at the igniter plug. This high voltage is necessary to create a spark that ignites the fuel-air mixture in the combustion chamber of an engine. The ignition system uses a transformer called the ignition coil to step up the voltage from the battery to this high level. The high voltage is then delivered to the igniter plug, which generates a spark to ignite the fuel and initiate the combustion process.

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140. What controls all shutoff valves in an engine feed system?

Explanation

Throttles control the flow of fuel or air in an engine feed system, which in turn controls the shutoff valves. By adjusting the position of the throttles, the operator can regulate the amount of fuel or air entering the engine, thus controlling the speed and power output. The throttles act as a control mechanism for the shutoff valves, allowing them to open or close as needed to maintain the desired engine performance.

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141. How much moisture that accumulates in the air as a result of rapid expansion do the water seperators remove?

Explanation

Water separators are devices used to remove moisture from the air. When air rapidly expands, such as in a compressor or turbine, it cools down. This cooling causes the moisture in the air to condense into water droplets. Water separators are designed to capture and remove these droplets, reducing the amount of moisture in the air. The correct answer, 70 to 85 percent, indicates that the water separators are able to remove a significant portion of the moisture that accumulates as a result of rapid expansion.

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142. What causes a thermocouple fire detector system to activate?

Explanation

A thermocouple fire detector system activates when there is a rapid increase in temperature. The system is designed to detect sudden changes in temperature, as this could indicate the presence of a fire. By monitoring the rate of temperature rise, the system can quickly identify and alert individuals to potential fire hazards, allowing for prompt action to be taken.

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143. What component removes the heat from the liquid coolant?

Explanation

The liquid coolant heat exchanger is the component responsible for removing heat from the liquid coolant. It works by transferring the heat from the coolant to another medium, such as air or water, which then carries the heat away. This process helps to maintain the desired temperature of the coolant, preventing it from overheating and causing damage to the system.

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144. What is the pressure gage range on TMU-27/M LOX mobile storage tank?

Explanation

The pressure gage range on the TMU-27/M LOX mobile storage tank is 0-100 psi. This means that the pressure gage is capable of measuring pressures within this range.

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145. How is the removable flange held in place?

Explanation

The removable flange is held in place by a retainer ring. The retainer ring is a circular metal component that is designed to secure and hold the flange in position. It is typically fitted around the outer edge of the flange and fastened tightly to prevent any movement or detachment. The retainer ring acts as a secure and reliable mechanism to keep the flange in place during operation or transportation.

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146. How are artificial magnets classified?

Explanation

Artificial magnets are classified based on their magnetism properties as either permanent or temporary. Permanent magnets retain their magnetism over a long period of time and do not require an external source of magnetism. They are usually made from materials like iron, cobalt, and nickel. On the other hand, temporary magnets only exhibit magnetism when they are in the presence of an external magnetic field. They lose their magnetism once the external magnetic field is removed. Temporary magnets are commonly made from materials like soft iron.

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147. What are the internal components of a battery?

Explanation

The internal components of a battery include plates, separators, and electrolyte. Plates are usually made of different materials and are responsible for the chemical reactions that generate electricity. Separators are placed between the plates to prevent them from coming into direct contact and causing a short circuit. The electrolyte is a substance, often a liquid or gel, that allows the flow of ions between the plates, facilitating the chemical reactions and the movement of electrons, which produces the electric current. These components work together to store and release electrical energy in a battery.

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148. Name the three types of turbines.

Explanation

The three types of turbines are impulse, reaction, and reaction-impulse. Impulse turbines are driven by the force of a high-velocity jet of steam or water, which impacts the turbine blades and causes them to rotate. Reaction turbines, on the other hand, are driven by the reaction force of steam or water as it passes through the blades, causing a change in momentum. Reaction-impulse turbines combine both impulse and reaction principles to generate power.

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149. What are the principal purposes of an oil system?

Explanation

The principal purposes of an oil system are to clean, cool, and lubricate. Oil plays a crucial role in removing dirt, debris, and contaminants from the engine, ensuring its proper functioning. It also helps in cooling the engine by dissipating heat generated during operation. Additionally, oil acts as a lubricant, reducing friction between moving parts and preventing wear and tear. Overall, the oil system is essential for maintaining the performance and longevity of the engine.

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150. What is positioned on some oil tanks to give a visual indication of oil level?

Explanation

Sight gages are positioned on some oil tanks to provide a visual indication of the oil level. These gages typically consist of a transparent tube or glass window that allows the user to see the level of oil inside the tank. By observing the oil level through the sight gage, individuals can easily determine if the tank needs to be refilled or if there are any issues with the oil level. This visual indicator is a convenient and efficient way to monitor the oil level in tanks.

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151. What is the purpose of oil system seals?

Explanation

Oil system seals are designed to prevent the loss of fluid within the oil system. These seals create a barrier between different components of the oil system, such as the engine block and the oil pan, to ensure that oil does not leak out. By preventing the loss of fluid, oil system seals help to maintain the proper lubrication and functioning of the engine. Without these seals, oil could leak out and result in decreased oil pressure, increased friction, and potential damage to the engine components. Therefore, the purpose of oil system seals is to maintain the integrity of the oil system and prevent fluid loss.

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152. What are the main parts of a direct-current ignition system?

Explanation

A direct-current ignition system consists of three main parts: a vibrator, a transformer, and igniter plugs. The vibrator is responsible for interrupting the flow of current, creating a pulsating direct current. This current is then sent to the transformer, which steps up the voltage to a level that can generate a spark. Finally, the high voltage current is delivered to the igniter plugs, which create the spark necessary to ignite the fuel-air mixture in the engine. Together, these three components work to ensure proper ignition and combustion in the engine.

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153. How is a tachometer powered?

Explanation

A tachometer is powered by a tachometer generator. A tachometer generator is a device that converts mechanical motion into an electrical signal. In the case of a tachometer, the mechanical motion is provided by the engine or motor being monitored. The tachometer generator then generates an electrical signal that is proportional to the speed of the engine or motor. This signal is used to power and drive the tachometer display, allowing it to accurately show the RPM (revolutions per minute) of the engine or motor.

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154. What are the three methods used to transfer fuel?

Explanation

The three methods used to transfer fuel are pump, air pressure, and gravity flow. A pump is commonly used to transfer fuel from one container to another by creating suction or pressure. Air pressure can be utilized to force the fuel through a system, pushing it from one location to another. Gravity flow, on the other hand, relies on the natural downward movement of the fuel due to gravity, allowing it to flow from a higher point to a lower point without the need for external forces. These three methods provide different ways to efficiently and effectively transfer fuel as needed.

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155. Why are shutoff valves installed in a manifold?

Explanation

Shutoff valves are installed in a manifold to control the flow of fuel or air. These valves allow the user to easily stop or regulate the flow of fuel or air to different parts of the system. By turning the valve on or off, the user can control the amount of fuel or air being supplied, which is crucial for maintaining the desired performance and efficiency of the system. Shutoff valves also provide a safety feature by allowing the fuel or air supply to be quickly and easily shut off in case of emergencies or maintenance requirements.

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156. What AFTO forms are used to document AGE discrepancies and corrective actions?

Explanation

AFTO forms 244 and 245 are used to document AGE (Aerospace Ground Equipment) discrepancies and corrective actions. These forms provide a standardized format for recording and tracking issues related to AGE equipment. Form 244 is used to document the discrepancy, including details such as the equipment identification, description of the problem, and any previous corrective actions taken. Form 245 is used to document the corrective action taken, including details such as the repair or replacement performed, parts used, and the technician responsible. By using these forms, organizations can maintain a comprehensive record of AGE discrepancies and ensure proper maintenance and repair procedures are followed.

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157. What 's the primary  function of a tow vehicle?

Explanation

The primary function of a tow vehicle is to tow and park large aircraft. This means that the vehicle is designed and equipped to safely move and position airplanes in airports or other designated areas. It is responsible for pulling the aircraft to the desired location and ensuring it is properly parked. This task requires specialized equipment and training to ensure the safety of both the vehicle operator and the aircraft being towed.

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158. What aerodynamic forces affect aircraft  in flight?

Explanation

The aerodynamic forces that affect aircraft in flight are lift, weight, thrust, and drag. Lift is the force that opposes weight and allows the aircraft to stay airborne. Weight is the force exerted by gravity, pulling the aircraft downwards. Thrust is the force produced by the engines, propelling the aircraft forward. Drag is the resistance encountered by the aircraft as it moves through the air, opposing its forward motion. These forces play a crucial role in the dynamics of flight and must be carefully managed by pilots to maintain control and stability.

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159. List the three types of trim systems?

Explanation

The three types of trim systems are roll, pitch, and yaw. These terms are commonly used in aviation and refer to the different ways an aircraft can adjust its orientation. Roll refers to the rotation of the aircraft around its longitudinal axis, pitch refers to the rotation around its lateral axis, and yaw refers to the rotation around its vertical axis. These trim systems allow pilots to control and stabilize the aircraft during flight.

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160. Regardless of your system knowledge, landing gear troubleshooting should be preformed using what other aid?

Explanation

When troubleshooting landing gear issues, it is essential to refer to current technical data. This information provides detailed instructions, procedures, and specifications for the specific landing gear system in question. It ensures that the troubleshooting process is carried out accurately and efficiently, minimizing the risk of errors or further damage. By relying on current technical data, technicians can access the most up-to-date and reliable information, enabling them to identify and resolve the problem effectively.

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161. What's the best method of determining proper operation after component replacement?

Explanation

The best method of determining proper operation after component replacement is to perform a retraction and extension check. This involves testing the retraction and extension functions of the replaced component to ensure that it is functioning correctly. By doing this check, any issues or malfunctions with the replacement component can be identified and addressed before it leads to further problems or failures in the system.

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162. What are atoms composed of?

Explanation

Atoms are composed of neutrons, protons, and electrons. Neutrons and protons are located in the nucleus of the atom, while electrons orbit around the nucleus in energy levels or shells. Neutrons have no charge, protons have a positive charge, and electrons have a negative charge. The number of protons determines the atomic number of an element, while the total number of protons and neutrons determines the atomic mass. Electrons are responsible for the chemical behavior of atoms, as they participate in bonding with other atoms to form molecules.

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163. List four examples of insulators.

Explanation

The four examples provided (wood, rubber, plastic, and glass) are all materials that have high resistance to the flow of electricity. Insulators are substances that do not allow electric charges to flow easily through them. Wood, rubber, plastic, and glass are commonly used as insulators in various electrical and electronic applications because they prevent the transfer of electrical energy and protect against electric shocks.

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164. List four examples of conductors.

Explanation

Platinum, gold, copper, and silver are all examples of conductors because they have a high electrical conductivity. Conductors are materials that allow the flow of electric current through them easily. These metals have a large number of free electrons that can move freely within the material, facilitating the transfer of electric charge. Due to their conductive properties, these metals are commonly used in electrical wiring, circuits, and various electronic devices.

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165. Where are semiconductors normally used?

Explanation

Semiconductors are typically used in solid-state devices. Solid-state devices are electronic devices that utilize semiconductors as the main component for their operation. These devices include transistors, diodes, integrated circuits, and many other electronic components. Semiconductors have unique properties that allow them to control the flow of electrical current, making them essential in the construction of various electronic devices.

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166. What are the three most commonly used shapes of magnets?

Explanation

The three most commonly used shapes of magnets are bar, ring, and horseshoe. These shapes are widely used because they provide different functionalities and applications. A bar magnet is a straight magnet with two poles at opposite ends, commonly used in compasses and magnetic strips. A ring magnet is a circular magnet with a hole in the middle, often used in speakers and generators. A horseshoe magnet is U-shaped and has a north and south pole on each end, commonly used in magnetic pick-up tools and door latches. These three shapes offer versatility and effectiveness in various magnetic applications.

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167. What rule is used to determine the flux direction of a wire in a loop?

Explanation

The left-hand rule is used to determine the flux direction of a wire in a loop. According to this rule, if the thumb of the left hand points in the direction of the current flow in the wire, then the fingers of the left hand will indicate the direction of the magnetic field lines or flux around the wire. This rule helps in understanding the relationship between the current and the magnetic field in a loop.

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168. Describe an open circuit.

Explanation

An open circuit refers to a circuit that is not complete or continuous. In this type of circuit, there is a break or gap in the path, preventing the flow of electric current. This interruption can be caused by a switch being turned off, a broken wire, or a disconnected component. As a result, no current can flow through the circuit, and any devices or components connected to it will not receive power or function properly.

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169. Where is the point of highest pressure within a jet engine?

Explanation

The point of highest pressure within a jet engine is in the diffuser section. The diffuser section is responsible for slowing down the incoming air and increasing its pressure before it enters the combustion chamber. This is achieved by gradually expanding the cross-sectional area of the duct, which causes the air to decelerate and its pressure to rise. The high pressure in this section is crucial for efficient combustion and overall engine performance.

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170. What are the major sections of a turboprop engine?

Explanation

The major sections of a turboprop engine are the pinion input and main drive gears. These gears play a crucial role in transmitting power from the engine to the propeller. The pinion input gear receives power from the engine's power turbine, while the main drive gear transfers this power to the propeller shaft. Together, these gears ensure efficient power transmission and enable the propeller to generate thrust for the aircraft.

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171. How are propeller blades anti-iced?

Explanation

Propeller blades are anti-iced using an electrical heating element. This means that the blades are equipped with a heating element that generates heat when activated. This heat is then transferred to the blades, preventing ice from forming or melting any existing ice. The electrical heating element is an effective method to ensure that propeller blades remain ice-free during flight, ensuring optimal performance and safety.

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172. What fuel control system uses a computer such as a digital electronic engine control (DEEC), digital engine control (DEC), or an electronic engine control (EEC) as primary control of fuel flow? 

Explanation

An electrohydromechanical system uses a computer, such as a digital electronic engine control (DEEC), digital engine control (DEC), or an electronic engine control (EEC), as the primary control of fuel flow. This means that the computer is responsible for regulating and adjusting the amount of fuel that is delivered to the engine based on various factors such as engine speed, load, and temperature. This system combines electronic and hydraulic components to ensure precise control of fuel flow, resulting in improved engine performance and efficiency.

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173. Classified as to function, what two basic pumps are used in a jet engine oil system?

Explanation

In a jet engine oil system, two basic pumps are used: a pressure pump and a scavenge pump. The pressure pump is responsible for supplying oil under pressure to various components of the engine, such as bearings and gears, ensuring proper lubrication. On the other hand, the scavenge pump is used to remove excess oil and prevent oil accumulation in certain areas of the engine. These two pumps work together to maintain the oil system's functionality and optimize engine performance.

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174. Classified as to structure, what three types of pumps are used most often in jet engine oil systems?  Which of these three is the most common?

Explanation

Gear, gerotor, and sliding vane are the three types of pumps used most often in jet engine oil systems. Among these three, the gear type pump is the most common.

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175. List three types of oil seals used in jet engine.

Explanation

The three types of oil seals used in jet engines are synthetic, labyrinth, and carbon. Synthetic oil seals are made from synthetic materials and are designed to withstand high temperatures and pressures. Labyrinth oil seals have a complex design that creates a tortuous path for the oil, preventing leakage. Carbon oil seals are made from carbon composite materials and are known for their high strength and durability. These three types of oil seals are commonly used in jet engines to ensure proper lubrication and prevent oil leakage.

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176. What two items should you check prior to replacing seals?

Explanation

Before replacing seals, it is important to check the cure date and part number. The cure date ensures that the seal is not expired and still effective. The part number ensures that the correct seal is being used for the specific application. By checking both the cure date and part number, you can ensure that the replacement seals are suitable and will function properly.

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177. What is the most common method used to refuel an aircraft?

Explanation

The most common method used to refuel an aircraft is through a single-point refueling system. This system allows fuel to be pumped directly into the aircraft's fuel tanks through a single connection point. This method is efficient and reduces the risk of fuel spills or contamination. It also allows for faster refueling times and minimizes the need for multiple fueling hoses or connections.

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178. How is the boom attached to the underside of the aircraft fuselage?

Explanation

The boom is attached to the underside of the aircraft fuselage by using a yoke and trunnion. A yoke is a device that connects two parts together, while a trunnion is a pivot or axle that allows rotation or movement. In this case, the yoke and trunnion mechanism is used to securely fasten the boom to the fuselage, providing stability and support.

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179. What is the primary purpose of centrifugal pump?

Explanation

The primary purpose of a centrifugal pump is to pressurize the fuel manifold. This means that the pump is responsible for creating enough pressure to ensure that the fuel is delivered to the manifold at the required pressure for efficient operation. By pressurizing the fuel manifold, the pump ensures that the fuel is properly distributed to the engine or system it is supplying, allowing for smooth and consistent fuel flow.

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180. How are centrifual-type pumps driven?

Explanation

Centrifugal-type pumps can be driven by either hydraulic power or electricity. Hydraulic power refers to the use of pressurized fluid to generate mechanical power, which can be used to drive the pump. On the other hand, electricity can also be used to power centrifugal pumps by connecting them to an electric motor. Both methods provide the necessary energy to drive the pump and facilitate the movement of fluids through the system.

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181. Which pump consist of an electric motor and a shaft with circular vanes at the end?

Explanation

Rotary vane-type pumps consist of an electric motor and a shaft with circular vanes at the end. These pumps work by using the rotation of the vanes to create suction and move fluids or gases. As the vanes rotate, they trap the fluid or gas between the vanes and the pump casing, and then transfer it to the outlet. This design makes rotary vane-type pumps ideal for applications that require high vacuum levels and continuous operation.

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182. List two types of check valves.

Explanation

The correct answer is flapper and pressure-loading. A flapper check valve is a type of check valve that uses a hinged flapper to allow flow in one direction and prevent backflow. It opens when the pressure on the upstream side is greater than the downstream side. On the other hand, a pressure-loading check valve uses a spring-loaded disc to control the flow direction. The pressure of the fluid pushes against the disc, causing it to open and allow flow, and when the pressure decreases, the spring pushes the disc back to close the valve and prevent backflow.

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183. How are pressure-loaded  check valves opened?

Explanation

Pressure-loaded check valves are designed to open and allow fluid flow in one direction when there is sufficient pressure applied. In this case, the check valve is opened solely by the pressure generated by the pump. Other external factors or mechanisms are not involved in opening the valve.

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184. How is the diaphagm-type valve controlled?

Explanation

The diaphragm-type valve is controlled by electricity. This means that electrical signals are used to open or close the valve, regulating the flow of fluid or gas. The electrical control can be achieved through various methods such as solenoids or electric actuators that apply electrical energy to move the diaphragm and control the valve's position. This type of control offers precise and efficient operation, allowing for automation and remote control of the valve.

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185. What switch indicates a flow or no flow condition?

Explanation

A flow-indicating switch is a type of switch that is designed to indicate whether there is a flow or no flow condition. It is used in various systems and processes where it is important to monitor the flow of a substance, such as liquids or gases. The switch is typically connected to a sensor or a flow meter, and when there is a flow, it triggers the switch to indicate the presence of flow. Conversely, when there is no flow, the switch remains in its default state, indicating the absence of flow.

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186. If the air pressure regulator fails, what unit will relieve the excess pressure?

Explanation

If the air pressure regulator fails, the pressure/vacuum relief valve will relieve the excess pressure. This valve is designed to open when the pressure exceeds a certain threshold, allowing the excess pressure to escape and preventing any damage or malfunction caused by the excessive pressure. It ensures that the pressure remains within safe limits and prevents any potential hazards that may arise from the failure of the air pressure regulator.

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187. What item of a disconnect coupling prevents fuel leakage from an installed external tank?

Explanation

The o-ring is a crucial component of a disconnect coupling that prevents fuel leakage from an installed external tank. It forms a tight seal between the coupling and the tank, ensuring that no fuel can escape. The o-ring is designed to withstand the pressure and chemicals present in the fuel system, making it an effective barrier against leaks.

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188. In what TO series would you find information about nonpowered AGE?

Explanation

The correct answer is 35 and 37 TO's. These two TO series provide information about nonpowered AGE.

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189. Which maintanance stand is best suited for preforming maintenance and inspections on the vertical stabilizer and rudder?

Explanation

The B-2 maintenance stand is the best suited for performing maintenance and inspections on the vertical stabilizer and rudder. This stand is specifically designed to provide access and support for working on aircraft components at heights. It is likely equipped with features such as adjustable height, stability, and safety measures to ensure efficient and safe maintenance procedures on the vertical stabilizer and rudder.

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190. What should you ensure prior to standing on the ladder of a scissors-type maintenance stand?

Explanation

Before standing on a ladder of a scissors-type maintenance stand, it is crucial to ensure that the safety pins are installed. Safety pins are designed to prevent the stand from collapsing or closing accidentally while in use. By ensuring that the safety pins are properly installed, you can minimize the risk of accidents or injuries while working on the ladder.

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191. What is the height adjustment and maximum load on a B-5 maintenance stand?

Explanation

The height adjustment and maximum load on a B-5 maintenance stand is 7 to 12 feet and 600 pounds. This means that the stand can be adjusted to a height between 7 and 12 feet, allowing for flexibility in different maintenance tasks. Additionally, the stand is capable of supporting a maximum load of 600 pounds, ensuring that it can safely accommodate heavy equipment or components during maintenance procedures.

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192. Aircraft oxygen systems are serviced with what two types of oxygen?

Explanation

Aircraft oxygen systems can be serviced with either gaseous or liquid oxygen. Gaseous oxygen is stored in high-pressure cylinders and is commonly used in smaller aircraft. It is delivered to the user through a regulator that controls the flow rate. On the other hand, liquid oxygen is stored in insulated containers and is typically used in larger aircraft. It is converted back into a gas before being delivered to the user. Both types of oxygen are essential for providing a breathable atmosphere at high altitudes during flight.

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193. What is nitrogen used for in aircraft maintenance?

Explanation

Nitrogen is used in aircraft maintenance for pressure-operated mechanisms. These mechanisms require a controlled and stable pressure environment to function properly. Nitrogen, being an inert gas, is ideal for this purpose as it does not react with other substances and maintains a consistent pressure. It is commonly used in aircraft systems such as hydraulic systems, landing gear, and tires to ensure safe and efficient operation.

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194. How much compressed air is the MC-2A air compressor capable of producing?

Explanation

The MC-2A air compressor is capable of producing compressed air at a rate of 15 cubic feet per minute (CFM) with a maximum pressure of 200 pounds per square inch (psi). This means that the compressor can deliver a continuous flow of compressed air at a rate of 15 CFM while maintaining a pressure of up to 200 psi.

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195. Where would the MD-4 generator normally be used?

Explanation

The MD-4 generator would normally be used in shops or hangars. This suggests that the generator is specifically designed for use in these locations, possibly for powering equipment or providing electricity in these settings. It implies that the generator may not be suitable for other locations or purposes outside of shops or hangars.

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196. Which fuselages design does not use formers, frame assemblies, or bulkheads to give shape to the fuselage?

Explanation

The monocoque design does not use formers, frame assemblies, or bulkheads to give shape to the fuselage. Instead, the structure of the fuselage is created by the skin itself, which is designed to bear the load and stresses. This design relies on the skin and internal structural components working together to distribute the forces throughout the structure, resulting in a lightweight and efficient design.

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197. What type of material is usually used for construction of flight control surfaces?

Explanation

Aluminum alloy is commonly used for the construction of flight control surfaces due to its lightweight yet strong properties. It offers a good balance between strength and weight, making it ideal for aircraft applications. Aluminum alloys also have excellent corrosion resistance, which is crucial for the longevity and performance of flight control surfaces exposed to harsh environments. Additionally, aluminum alloys are easily machinable and can be formed into complex shapes, allowing for precise and efficient manufacturing of flight control surfaces.

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198. Why should you avoid wearing plastic contact lenses when working with composites?

Explanation

Plastic contact lenses have a low melting point and can be easily affected by heat. When working with composites, resin fumes are released which can generate heat. If plastic contact lenses are worn in such an environment, the heat from the resin fumes may cause the lenses to melt. Therefore, it is advisable to avoid wearing plastic contact lenses when working with composites to prevent any damage to the lenses and potential harm to the eyes.

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199. What are the three main parts of an aircraft tire?

Explanation

The three main parts of an aircraft tire are the tread and sidewall, cord body, and beads. The tread and sidewall provide traction and protect the tire from wear and tear. The cord body is made up of layers of fabric cords that give the tire strength and flexibility. The beads are the inner edges of the tire that secure it to the wheel rim. These three parts work together to ensure the tire's durability and performance during aircraft operations.

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200. What part of an aircraft tire gives the tire its structural strength?

Explanation

The cord body or carcass of an aircraft tire provides its structural strength. The cord body is made up of layers of fabric cords, usually made of nylon or polyester, that are embedded in rubber. These cords provide the tire with the necessary strength and stability to withstand the forces and pressures experienced during takeoff, landing, and taxiing. The cord body also helps to distribute the weight of the aircraft evenly across the tire's surface, ensuring proper contact with the ground and preventing excessive wear and tear.

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Can magnetic lines of force be insulated?
When current flows through a conductor, does a magnetic field exist?
What's the unit of measurment for frequency?
What's the fundamental unit of the nickel-cadmium battery?
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What type of energy does a falling object possess?
Can energy pass from potential to kinetic and back to potential?
Approximately what percent of the energy produced by the fuel is...
On a jet engine that does not have an afterburner, where is the point...
Where is the point of highest airflow velocity in a jet engine?
After the gases leave the turbine section and enter the exhuast...
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What is the most frequently used method of attaching the turbine...
What three types of fasteners are used to secure the turbine blades to...
What are the two priniciple configurations of turbine blades?
An augmenter is classified as what type of engine?
What effect should augmenter operation have on engine operation?
What is meant by a rich blowout?
What are the two types of oil nozzles?
What component provides high-temperature spark for engine starting?
In addition to being light in weight and small in size, what other...
Oil pressure indicators measure pressure in what unit of measurment?
How is engine fuel-flow measured?
What is used to analyze oil samples and determine the identity of...
What problem most frequently  affects sample integrity?
What are the two categories of oil samples that you may be required to...
If a pump fails to operate, what component prevents the reverse flow...
What component controls fuel level in the recieving tank during fuel...
What components are required during gravity transfer of fuel?
Where are vent ports located?
What system is used to remove residual fuel from a manifold?
During refueling, when all tanks are filled, what happens to the fuel...
What principle applies to the operation of an ejector pump?
Piston-type fuel level control valves operate on what principle?
What controls the operation of the fuel control valve in a combination...
The capacitance-type fuel indicating system shows how much fuel is in...
What component controls the amount of pressure entering a fuel tank?
What equipment is used to provide bleed air when aircraft is on the...
Besides stainless steel, what other materials can be used in the...
Where in the aircraft can one find molded fiberglass ducting for...
What induces cooling airflow during ground operation and in flight at...
How many thermistor elements does the anticipator sensor in each duct...
What percentage of the earth's atmoshere is nitrogen?
What component opens and closes to control the amount of air leaving...
What component operates as a safety valve if the regulator fails?
What shape are aircraft fire extinguisher containers?
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What color are low-pressure gaseous oxygen cylinders painted?
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What's the probable cause if frost appears on the outside of a LOX...
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What symbol indicates that an inspection is overdue?
What adjustable height of B-4 maintenance platform?
How much liquid oxygen does the TMU-27/M LOX mobile storage tank hold?
What form is used to track all aircraft oxygen systems that have been...
What is stenciled in white on the side of each high-pressure gaseous...
How many oxygen cylinders is the AF/M32R-3 oxygen servicing...
On the AF/M32R-3 oxygen servicing trailer what component filters and...
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On the hydraulic filler and pressurization unit what prevents...
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How is the MJ-2A  hydraulic test stand driven?
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What component controls airflow around the weapons to reduce...
What category of -21 equipment is the aircraft' AME?
How are troop seats fastened to the aircraft floor?
What instrument is used to measure the weight of air?
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What are the three axes that act upon an aircraft?
Which type of flight control system reduces the need for long cables,...
What controls all directional movements of aircraft?
What primary flight control guides the aircraft about the vertical...
What mode of the auto pilot system automatically maintains aircraft...
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How many pistons are found in a tandem actuator?
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How much pressure is required to lift 2,300 pounds using an actuator...
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Which type of landing gear consists of four main gears mounted in the...
What component is installed on the truck assembly to prevent the truck...
What are the two types of steer damper units presently used?
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What ensures the rapid application and release of brakes?
What term is used to describe a gradual loss of braking action due to...
What causes the multiple disc brake's piston to move inward?
At what temperature will the fusible metal core of the thermal plugs...
What part of the bearing holds the assembly together?
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If you suspect wheel or tire damage, from which direction should you...
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How are the therocouples connected in respect to each other?
What is another name for a transformer-rectifier?
What is another name for the Boyles-Charles' law?
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How are float switches actuated?
What's used to lace the studs together in a metal foil blanket?
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What type of seal is used between the disc and valve body of a disc...
What component connects the inner and outer cylinder to maintain...
What two forms of energy does a jet engine produces?
What type of turbine design is used on most jet engines?
What dissimilar metals are used in thermocouples?
What brake system consists of a slave-metering valve remotely...
When a jet engine reaches idle speed, what determines how the fuel...
In addition to a regulator, two outflow valves, and a pneumatic relay,...
When measuring current flow, how is the multimeter connected to the...
In a duel-orifice type of fuel nozzle, fuel is injected into the...
What component regulates and distributes fuel for most efficient ...
What should be one of the first things checked if you had slow...
What component provides a leaner mixture of fuel for engine starting?
What valve drains the fuel manifold on shutdown?
Approximately how many volts does the AC ignition system develop at...
What controls all shutoff valves in an engine feed system?
How much moisture that accumulates in the air as a result of rapid...
What causes a thermocouple fire detector system to activate?
What component removes the heat from the liquid coolant?
What is the pressure gage range on TMU-27/M LOX mobile storage tank?
How is the removable flange held in place?
How are artificial magnets classified?
What are the internal components of a battery?
Name the three types of turbines.
What are the principal purposes of an oil system?
What is positioned on some oil tanks to give a visual indication of...
What is the purpose of oil system seals?
What are the main parts of a direct-current ignition system?
How is a tachometer powered?
What are the three methods used to transfer fuel?
Why are shutoff valves installed in a manifold?
What AFTO forms are used to document AGE discrepancies and corrective...
What 's the primary  function of a tow vehicle?
What aerodynamic forces affect aircraft  in flight?
List the three types of trim systems?
Regardless of your system knowledge, landing gear troubleshooting...
What's the best method of determining proper operation after component...
What are atoms composed of?
List four examples of insulators.
List four examples of conductors.
Where are semiconductors normally used?
What are the three most commonly used shapes of magnets?
What rule is used to determine the flux direction of a wire in a loop?
Describe an open circuit.
Where is the point of highest pressure within a jet engine?
What are the major sections of a turboprop engine?
How are propeller blades anti-iced?
What fuel control system uses a computer such as a digital electronic...
Classified as to function, what two basic pumps are used in a jet...
Classified as to structure, what three types of pumps are used most...
List three types of oil seals used in jet engine.
What two items should you check prior to replacing seals?
What is the most common method used to refuel an aircraft?
How is the boom attached to the underside of the aircraft fuselage?
What is the primary purpose of centrifugal pump?
How are centrifual-type pumps driven?
Which pump consist of an electric motor and a shaft with circular...
List two types of check valves.
How are pressure-loaded  check valves opened?
How is the diaphagm-type valve controlled?
What switch indicates a flow or no flow condition?
If the air pressure regulator fails, what unit will relieve the excess...
What item of a disconnect coupling prevents fuel leakage from an...
In what TO series would you find information about nonpowered AGE?
Which maintanance stand is best suited for preforming maintenance and...
What should you ensure prior to standing on the ladder of a...
What is the height adjustment and maximum load on a B-5 maintenance...
Aircraft oxygen systems are serviced with what two types of oxygen?
What is nitrogen used for in aircraft maintenance?
How much compressed air is the MC-2A air compressor capable of...
Where would the MD-4 generator normally be used?
Which fuselages design does not use formers, frame assemblies, or...
What type of material is usually used for construction of flight...
Why should you avoid wearing plastic contact lenses when working with...
What are the three main parts of an aircraft tire?
What part of an aircraft tire gives the tire its structural strength?
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