# 2A533A Vol. 4 Part 2

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Preparation for comm/nav msn sys journeyman.

• 1.

### The identification, friend or foe transponder transmitter frequency is

• A.

1025 MHZ

• B.

1030 MHZ

• C.

1090 MHZ

C. 1090 MHZ
Explanation
The correct answer is 1090 MHz. The identification, friend or foe (IFF) transponder transmitter frequency is important for aircraft to communicate their identity to other aircraft and air traffic control. The IFF system uses a specific frequency to transmit signals that can be recognized and interpreted by other aircraft and ground stations. In this case, the correct frequency for the IFF transponder transmitter is 1090 MHz.

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• 2.

### The altitude-encoder provides the IFF transponder pressure altitude encoder in

• A.

50 foot increments

• B.

100 foot increments

• C.

200 foot increments

B. 100 foot increments
Explanation
The altitude-encoder provides the IFF transponder pressure altitude encoder in 100 foot increments. This means that the encoder is able to accurately measure and transmit the aircraft's altitude in increments of 100 feet. This level of precision allows for more accurate tracking and identification of the aircraft's position in the airspace.

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• 3.

### With the IFF antenna switch in both position each IFF antenna alternately selected

• A.

25 times per second

• B.

33 times per second

• C.

38 times per second

C. 38 times per second
Explanation
The IFF antenna switch alternates between the two positions, selecting each IFF antenna. This switching occurs at a rate of 38 times per second.

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• 4.

### How many complete reply trains for identification of position (I/P) operation are generated by the coding circuits when the identification, friend or foe (IFF) system's I/P control circuits are enabled?

• A.

One

• B.

Two

• C.

Three

B. Two
Explanation
When the identification, friend or foe (IFF) system's I/P control circuits are enabled, two complete reply trains for identification of position (I/P) operation are generated by the coding circuits.

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• 5.

### The identification, friend or foe transmitter oscillator frequency is

• A.

1025

• B.

1030

• C.

1090

C. 1090
Explanation
The correct answer is 1090. The Identification Friend or Foe (IFF) transmitter oscillator frequency is 1090. This frequency is used in aviation to identify aircraft and prevent friendly fire incidents. It allows aircraft to transmit a unique code that can be recognized by other aircraft and ground-based radar systems. The 1090 frequency is internationally standardized and widely used in air traffic control systems.

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• 6.

### Mode 4 identification, friend or foe code setting can be retained by momentarily placing the mode 4 code switch int he spring-loaded hold position, but aircraft power must be maintained for at least

• A.

8 seconds

• B.

10 seconds

• C.

15 seconds

C. 15 seconds
Explanation
The mode 4 identification, friend or foe code setting can be retained by momentarily placing the mode 4 code switch in the spring-loaded hold position. However, in order for the setting to be retained, aircraft power must be maintained for at least 15 seconds.

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• 7.

### The traffic alert and collision avoidance system survey valid transponder traffic that is approximately

• A.

15-40 Nm forward, 5-15 aft, 10-20 Nm on both sides of the a/c

• B.

15-40 forward, 10-20 aft, 5-15 both sides

• C.

10-40 forward.5-15 aft, 10-20 both sides

A. 15-40 Nm forward, 5-15 aft, 10-20 Nm on both sides of the a/c
Explanation
The traffic alert and collision avoidance system (TCAS) surveys valid transponder traffic within a certain range around the aircraft. The correct answer states that the TCAS surveys traffic that is approximately 15-40 Nm (nautical miles) forward, 5-15 Nm aft, and 10-20 Nm on both sides of the aircraft. This means that the TCAS is monitoring for other aircraft within these distances in order to provide collision avoidance alerts and guidance to the pilot.

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• 8.

### Traffic alert and collision avoidance system symbols representing increasing levels of urgency or threat change

• A.

Color and size

• B.

Size and shape

• C.

Shape and color

C. Shape and color
Explanation
The traffic alert and collision avoidance system symbols use both shape and color to represent increasing levels of urgency or threat. The shape of the symbol indicates the type of hazard or warning, such as a triangle for caution or an octagon for stop. The color of the symbol indicates the level of urgency or threat, with red typically representing the highest level of danger. By combining shape and color, the symbols effectively convey important information to drivers about the urgency and type of potential hazards on the road.

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• 9.

### What is not a traffic alert and collision avoidance system (TCAS) traffic advisory function?

• A.

Attracts attention to the traffic display

• B.

Provides initial alert from the tcas processor

• C.

Provides recommendations to the pilot for aircraft maneuvers

C. Provides recommendations to the pilot for aircraft maneuvers
Explanation
The TCAS traffic advisory function is responsible for attracting attention to the traffic display and providing an initial alert from the TCAS processor. However, it does not provide recommendations to the pilot for aircraft maneuvers. This means that it does not suggest or advise the pilot on how to maneuver the aircraft in response to the traffic alert.

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• 10.

### How many aircraft can the traffic alert and collision avoidance system simultaneously track and generate displays for?

• A.

24

• B.

30

• C.

40

B. 30
Explanation
The traffic alert and collision avoidance system can simultaneously track and generate displays for a maximum of 30 aircraft.

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• 11.

### What intruder data omission specifically prohibits the traffic alert and collision avoidance system from issuing resolution advisories?

• A.

Range

• B.

Bearing

• C.

Altitude

C. Altitude
Explanation
The correct answer is altitude. In the context of the question, the traffic alert and collision avoidance system relies on accurate altitude information to issue resolution advisories. If the intruder data omits altitude, the system will not be able to determine the vertical separation between aircraft and therefore cannot provide appropriate advisories to avoid collisions.

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• 12.

### What is the purpose of the mode-s traffic alert and collision avoidance system function?

• A.

Establish and track aircraft identification and characteristics

• B.

Develop tcas symbology for traffic advisories

• C.

Establish resolution advisories based on intruding aircraft position

A. Establish and track aircraft identification and characteristics
Explanation
The purpose of the mode-s traffic alert and collision avoidance system function is to establish and track aircraft identification and characteristics. This system is designed to identify and track other aircraft in the vicinity, providing information about their identification and characteristics such as their speed, altitude, and direction. By establishing and tracking this information, the system can help pilots avoid potential collisions by providing timely alerts and advisories.

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• 13.

### What is the purpose of a traffic alert and collision avoidance system corrective advisory?

• A.

• B.

Used to correct a change previously issued in the present flight path

• C.

Used when a change to the present flight path is necessary for safe flight

C. Used when a change to the present flight path is necessary for safe flight
Explanation
The purpose of a Traffic Alert and Collision Avoidance System (TCAS) corrective advisory is to indicate when a change to the present flight path is necessary for safe flight. This advisory is triggered when the TCAS detects a potential collision with another aircraft and provides guidance to the pilot on how to avoid the collision. It is important for the pilot to follow the corrective advisory to ensure the safety of the flight.

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• 14.

### The airforce satellite communication manpack-type radio is capable of handling

• A.

A single-voice or low-speed data channel

• B.

Millions of bits of data per second

• C.

Hundreds of voice channels

A. A single-voice or low-speed data channel
Explanation
The airforce satellite communication manpack-type radio is designed to handle a single-voice or low-speed data channel. This means that it can transmit and receive either a voice communication or a data transmission at a relatively slow speed. It is not capable of handling millions of bits of data per second or hundreds of voice channels simultaneously.

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• 15.

### Air force satellite communication systems are generally characterized by high-power satellite transmitters with power outputs of

• A.

10-100 watts

• B.

200-2000 watts

• C.

25-3000 watts

B. 200-2000 watts
Explanation
Air force satellite communication systems are generally characterized by high-power satellite transmitters with power outputs ranging from 200 to 2000 watts. This power range allows for effective long-range communication and transmission of signals over large distances. The higher power output ensures that the signal can overcome any interference or obstacles it may encounter during transmission. Additionally, this power range provides the necessary strength to maintain reliable communication even in challenging environments or during adverse weather conditions.

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• 16.

### The space segment of the airforce satellite communication system is composed of several satellites equipped with

• A.

• B.

Transmitters

• C.

Transponders

C. Transponders
Explanation
The space segment of the airforce satellite communication system consists of multiple satellites that are equipped with transponders. Transponders are devices that receive signals from the ground, amplify them, and retransmit them back to Earth. They play a crucial role in facilitating communication between the satellites and the ground stations by receiving and transmitting signals. Therefore, transponders are an essential component of the space segment of the airforce satellite communication system.

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• 17.

### The navy fleet satellite communications system satellites are in a geosynchronous equatorial orbit and provide overlapping earth coverage in all areas, except

• A.

The polar regions

• B.

South america

• C.

The far east

A. The polar regions
Explanation
The navy fleet satellite communications system satellites are positioned in a geosynchronous equatorial orbit, which means they orbit the Earth at the same speed as the Earth's rotation and remain fixed over one location on the equator. This allows them to provide continuous coverage over most areas of the Earth, except for the polar regions. Due to the satellites' position, their signals cannot reach these extreme northern and southern latitudes effectively. Therefore, the correct answer is the polar regions.

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• 18.

### The type 1 air force satellite communication terminal is an airborne single integrated operational plan terminal operating in the frequency range of

• A.

30.0-87.975 MHZ

• B.

108.00-151.975 MHZ

• C.

225.000-399.975 MHZ

C. 225.000-399.975 MHZ
Explanation
The correct answer is 225.000-399.975 MHZ. This frequency range is specified as the operating range for the type 1 air force satellite communication terminal. This means that the terminal is designed to operate within this frequency range for effective communication.

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• 19.

### What asc-19(v)3 satellite communication (satcom) system line replaceable unit contains all controls for ultra-high frequency line-of sight operation and for switching system control for satellite operation?

• A.

Md-1035/a telegrapH modem

• B.

• C.

C-10091/a control power supply

Explanation
The correct answer is c-9665(v)1/a radio set control. This line replaceable unit contains all the controls for ultra-high frequency line-of-sight operation and for switching system control for satellite operation. It is responsible for controlling the radio set and ensuring proper communication with the satellite.

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• 20.

### With the c-10357 satellite communication control panel function switch in the built-in test position, tests are performed automatically and, if no-fault condition exists, continuous testing is performed until the control-indicator displays show

• A.

33333

• B.

55556

• C.

66666

C. 66666
Explanation
When the function switch is set to the built-in test position, the satellite communication control panel performs tests automatically. If there are no faults detected, the control-indicator displays will continuously show the number 66666. This suggests that the system is functioning properly and is in a stable condition.

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• 21.

### The asc-19(v)3 satellite communication system tt-712/a printer is a high speed printer capable of printing

• A.

100 words/min

• B.

200 words/min

• C.

500 words/min

A. 100 words/min
Explanation
The given statement describes the capabilities of the asc-19(v)3 satellite communication system tt-712/a printer. It states that the printer is a high-speed printer and is capable of printing at a speed of 100 words per minute. This means that the printer can print 100 words in just one minute, making it efficient and fast.

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• 22.

### What asc-19(v)3 satellite communication system component controls the tt-712/a printer operation?

• A.

C-10091/a control power supply

• B.

Md-1035/a telegrapH modem

• C.

C-10080/a keyboard

A. C-10091/a control power supply
Explanation
The correct answer is the c-10091/a control power supply. This component is responsible for controlling the operation of the tt-712/a printer in the asc-19(v)3 satellite communication system. It supplies power and regulates the electrical current to ensure proper functioning of the printer. The md-1035/a telegraph modem and c-10080/a keyboard are not directly related to controlling the printer operation.

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• 23.

### What ky-58 transmission security system line replaceable unit has the primary function of transmitting and receiving secure voice message?

• A.

Remote control unit control panel

• B.

Tsec secure voice processor

• C.

Kyk-13 fill device

B. Tsec secure voice processor
Explanation
The TSEC Secure Voice Processor is the line replaceable unit in the KY-58 transmission security system that is responsible for transmitting and receiving secure voice messages. This unit is specifically designed to ensure the confidentiality and integrity of voice communications by encrypting and decrypting the messages. The remote control unit control panel and KYK-13 fill device may have other functions within the system, but they do not have the primary function of transmitting and receiving secure voice messages.

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• 24.

### What secure voice component integrates the ky-58/ transmission security processor into existing aircraft installations?

• A.

• B.

Kyk-13 fill device

• C.

Ky-58 tsec processor

Explanation
The z-ahq adapter is the correct answer because it integrates the ky-58/ transmission security processor into existing aircraft installations. This adapter allows for secure voice communication by connecting the ky-58/ transmission security processor to the aircraft's existing systems. The kyk-13 fill device is used to load cryptographic keys into the ky-58/ transmission security processor, while the ky-58 tsec processor is the actual encryption device.

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• 25.

### The purpose of the battery in the ky58 transmission security processor is to

• A.

Prevent the automatic zeroing of the codes after the aircraft power is removed

• B.

Enabled the secure voice system to be used as an emergency transmitter

• C.

Enabled the secure voice system to operate from aircraft power

A. Prevent the automatic zeroing of the codes after the aircraft power is removed
Explanation
The purpose of the battery in the KY58 transmission security processor is to prevent the automatic zeroing of the codes after the aircraft power is removed. This means that even when the power is disconnected, the battery ensures that the codes are not reset or lost. This is important for maintaining the security and functionality of the transmission security processor.

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• 26.

### The purpose of the ky-100 secure voice system main terminal unit?

• A.

Establishes operating mode selection and code zeroing

• B.

Controls plain text, cipHer, and guard transmission levels

• C.

Encodes and decodes transmitted and received audio signals

C. Encodes and decodes transmitted and received audio signals
Explanation
The main terminal unit of the KY-100 secure voice system is responsible for encoding and decoding the audio signals that are transmitted and received. This means that it converts the audio signals into a format that can be securely transmitted and then decodes them back into their original form upon reception. This process ensures that the communication remains confidential and secure. The other options mentioned, such as establishing operating mode selection and code zeroing or controlling transmission levels, are not the primary functions of the main terminal unit.

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• 27.

### The ky-100 secure voice system is addressed by the crew members through the

• A.

An/arc-210 switch panel

• B.

Ky-100 mode control panel

• C.

An/arc-18 inter-pHone system

C. An/arc-18 inter-pHone system
Explanation
The correct answer is the an/arc-18 inter-phone system. The ky-100 secure voice system is addressed by the crew members through this system. The an/arc-18 inter-phone system allows for communication between crew members, making it the appropriate choice for addressing the ky-100 secure voice system.

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• 28.

### What is the maximum number of cryptographic keys that van be transferred by the kyk-13 loading device?

• A.

6

• B.

10

• C.

12

A. 6
Explanation
The maximum number of cryptographic keys that can be transferred by the KYK-13 loading device is 6.

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• 29.

### What is not a function of the cyz-10 data transferring device?

• A.

Store electronic keying material

• B.

Store frequency hopping data

• C.

Store host/application data

C. Store host/application data
Explanation
The cyz-10 data transferring device is designed to perform various functions related to data transfer. However, storing host/application data is not one of its functions. This device is primarily used to store electronic keying material and frequency hopping data, which are essential for secure and efficient data transfer. Storing host/application data is typically handled by other devices or systems.

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• 30.

### How is the cyz-10 data transfer device (dtd) classified?

• A.

• B.

By data entry on the dtd key pad

• C.

By installing the crypto ignition key

C. By installing the crypto ignition key
Explanation
The cyz-10 data transfer device (DTD) is classified by installing the crypto ignition key. The crypto ignition key is a security measure used to protect sensitive data during transfer. By installing this key, the DTD ensures that the data being transferred is encrypted and secure.

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• 31.

### Parachute emergency  radios transmit on the

• A.

Vhf am guard frequency

• B.

Vhf fm guard frequency

• C.

Uhf guard frequency

C. Uhf guard frequency
Explanation
The correct answer is UHF guard frequency. In emergency situations, parachute radios transmit on the UHF guard frequency. This frequency is specifically designated for emergency communication and is widely used in aviation. It allows for clear and reliable communication between pilots, air traffic control, and search and rescue teams during emergency situations. VHF AM and VHF FM guard frequencies are not used for parachute emergency radios.

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• 32.

### The prc-90 hand-held emergency radio transits on what two fixed channels?

• A.

254.5 and 282.8 MHZ

• B.

243.0 and 282.8 MHZ

• C.

121.5 and 243.0 MHZ

B. 243.0 and 282.8 MHZ
Explanation
The correct answer is 243.0 and 282.8 MHZ. The PRC-90 hand-held emergency radio transmits on these two fixed channels.

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• 33.

### What is not an operation mode of the prc-90 emergency radio?

• A.

Variable audio modulation between 1000 and 300 hz

• B.

Two-way voice communication

• C.

Satellite communications

C. Satellite communications
Explanation
The correct answer is satellite communications. The PRC-90 emergency radio does not have the capability for satellite communications. It does, however, have variable audio modulation between 1000 and 300 hz and allows for two-way voice communication.

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• 34.

### Once activated, the emergency located transmitter continues to transmit until

• A.

The elt operation switch is placed into auto

• B.

The self-contained battery pack is exhaustd

• C.

The g-force sensor circuit activates

B. The self-contained battery pack is exhaustd
Explanation
The correct answer is that the emergency locator transmitter (ELT) continues to transmit until the self-contained battery pack is exhausted. This means that once the ELT is activated, it will keep transmitting distress signals until the battery power is depleted. The other options mentioned, such as placing the ELT operation switch into auto or the activation of the g-force sensor circuit, do not affect the transmission of the ELT.

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• 35.

### The emergency locator transmitter is designed to survive an impact of up to

• A.

50 g's

• B.

100 g's

• C.

125 g's

B. 100 g's
Explanation
The emergency locator transmitter is designed to survive an impact of up to 100 g's. This means that it can withstand a force of acceleration up to 100 times the acceleration due to gravity without being damaged. This level of durability is necessary to ensure that the transmitter remains functional and can send out distress signals even in high-impact situations such as crashes or accidents.

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• 36.

### All inter-phone audio common lines are connected to ground at a single point to

• A.

Eliminate audio frequencies above 16000 KHZ

• B.

Ensure high voltage potentials are not detected in the audio circuits

• C.

Minimize the stray electromagnetic radiation from being picked up by the system

C. Minimize the stray electromagnetic radiation from being picked up by the system
Explanation
Connecting all inter-phone audio common lines to ground at a single point helps to minimize the stray electromagnetic radiation from being picked up by the system. This grounding technique reduces the chances of interference caused by external electromagnetic fields and helps maintain signal integrity. By providing a common reference point for the audio circuits, any stray electromagnetic radiation is effectively minimized, ensuring a cleaner and more reliable audio signal transmission within the system.

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• 37.

### Which statement is true concerning the c-6567/aic-24 interphone set control

• A.

It is a bulkhead mounted unit

• B.

It has a five-position rotary select switch used to key the radios

• C.

It has eight monitor/volume controls that are switches and potentiometers

C. It has eight monitor/volume controls that are switches and potentiometers
Explanation
The correct answer is that the c-6567/aic-24 interphone set control has eight monitor/volume controls that are switches and potentiometers. This means that the control panel has eight separate controls that can be used to adjust the volume or monitor different audio sources. These controls can be switched on or off, and can also be adjusted using a potentiometer to increase or decrease the volume.

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• 38.

### The seven-position rotary select switch on the c-6567 interphone control panel allows the operator to select, monitor key and modulate any one of

• A.

Four different radios through the intercom system

• B.

Five different radios through the intercom system

• C.

Six different radios through the intercom system

C. Six different radios through the intercom system
Explanation
The seven-position rotary select switch on the c-6567 interphone control panel allows the operator to select, monitor key, and modulate any one of six different radios through the intercom system. This means that there are six options available for the operator to choose from when using the intercom system, allowing them to connect to and communicate with different radios.

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• 39.

### The interphone operation used for emergency or high-priority communications between crew members is the

• A.

CALL function

• B.

Hot-mic function

• C.

Monitor function

A. CALL function
Explanation
The correct answer is the CALL function. The CALL function is used for emergency or high-priority communications between crew members. It allows crew members to quickly and directly contact each other in urgent situations. This function ensures effective and efficient communication during critical moments.

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• 40.

### The c-6567 interphone control panel radio transmitter selection switch is a sever-position rotary switch that enables the aircrew to

• A.

Select and transmit on each radio system and interpHone

• B.

Select and monitor the aircraft emergency warning tones

• C.

Tune each radio system and key the interpHone

A. Select and transmit on each radio system and interpHone
Explanation
The c-6567 interphone control panel radio transmitter selection switch is a sever-position rotary switch that allows the aircrew to choose and send signals on each radio system and interphone.

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• 41.

### The c-6624/aic-25 interphone station allows a crewmember to talk to

• A.

Hot-mic and interpHone

• B.

Two-button and call functions

• C.

Call and interpHone functions

C. Call and interpHone functions
Explanation
The c-6624/aic-25 interphone station provides the capability for a crewmember to engage in both call and interphone functions. This means that they can use the station to make calls as well as communicate with other crewmembers through the interphone system. The station likely has dedicated buttons or controls for initiating calls and activating the interphone feature, allowing for seamless communication within the crew.

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• 42.

### The major difference between the u-92a/u jack and the u-94a/u plug is the

• A.

U-94a/u plugh is located on the pilots throttle grip

• B.

U-92a/u jack ahs a push-to-talk button

• C.

U-94a/u plug has a ptt button

C. U-94a/u plug has a ptt button
Explanation
The major difference between the U-92A/U jack and the U-94A/U plug is that the U-94A/U plug has a push-to-talk (PTT) button. This means that the U-94A/U plug allows the user to easily activate the microphone by simply pressing the PTT button, while the U-92A/U jack does not have this feature.

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• 43.

### When connecting the wm-85/u  interphon cable to the u-94a/u , what color is connected to the push-to-talk button on the u-94a/u?

• A.

Green

• B.

Black

• C.

Yellow

C. Yellow
Explanation
The correct answer is yellow. When connecting the wm-85/u interphon cable to the u-94a/u, the yellow wire is connected to the push-to-talk button on the u-94a/u.

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• 44.

### What is the electrical difference between the record and play back processes in video tape recorders?

• A.

Playback is a current functions; record is a voltage function

• B.

Playback is a voltage function; record is a current function

• C.

The play back signal is negatively biased; the record signal is positively biased

B. Playback is a voltage function; record is a current function
Explanation
The correct answer is that playback is a voltage function and record is a current function. In video tape recorders, during playback, the recorded signal is read from the tape and converted into a voltage signal that can be sent to a display device. This voltage signal represents the video and audio information stored on the tape. On the other hand, during the recording process, the incoming video and audio signals are converted into a current that magnetizes the magnetic particles on the tape, storing the information for later playback. Therefore, the electrical difference between the record and playback processes is that one is based on voltage (playback) and the other is based on current (record).

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• 45.

### The frequency response of a video tape recorder is determined by the

• A.

Heap gap width and tape width

• B.

Head gap width and tape speed

• C.

Slant angle of the tape and tape speed

B. Head gap width and tape speed
Explanation
The frequency response of a video tape recorder is determined by the head gap width and tape speed. The head gap width refers to the distance between the magnetic heads that read and write data on the tape. A wider gap allows for a broader range of frequencies to be recorded and played back accurately. The tape speed also affects the frequency response, as a higher speed allows for more data to be recorded per unit of time, resulting in a higher frequency range. Therefore, the combination of a wider head gap width and higher tape speed leads to a better frequency response in a video tape recorder.

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• 46.

### In a video tape recorder, what determines how far the tape should be wrapped around a spinning drum assembly?

• A.

• B.

Width of the tape used in the machine

• C.

Number of heads contained on the drum

C. Number of heads contained on the drum
Explanation
The number of heads contained on the drum determines how far the tape should be wrapped around a spinning drum assembly in a video tape recorder. Each head is responsible for recording or playing back a specific portion of the tape, so the more heads there are, the more tape needs to be wrapped around the drum to ensure all the necessary information is captured or read.

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• 47.

### In a video tape recorder what is the frequency of the pulse generator sampling signals used in the servo control circuits when the drum speed is 1,800 revolutions per minute?

• A.

30 HZ

• B.

60 HZ

• C.

90 HZ

A. 30 HZ
Explanation
The frequency of the pulse generator sampling signals used in the servo control circuits is 30 Hz. This is because the drum speed of the video tape recorder is given as 1,800 revolutions per minute, and the pulse generator sampling signals are typically set at a frequency that is a fraction of the drum speed. In this case, the pulse generator is set at 30 Hz, which is 1/60th of the drum speed (1,800 RPM divided by 60 seconds). This frequency allows for accurate and precise control of the servo mechanisms in the video tape recorder.

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• 48.

### Within the airborne video tape recorder, drum overload or drum jam causes the loss of the pg-2 signal which triggers

• A.

The drum muting circuit

• B.

The drum pHasing circuit

• C.

An error signal to the drum servo circuit

A. The drum muting circuit
Explanation
When there is a drum overload or drum jam within the airborne video tape recorder, it causes the loss of the pg-2 signal. This loss of signal then triggers the drum muting circuit. The drum muting circuit is designed to mute or silence the audio and video signals coming from the drum when there is an issue with the drum operation. Therefore, in this scenario, the drum muting circuit is activated to prevent any further transmission of faulty signals.

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• 49.

### What is not a advantage video tape recorder units have over film-based systems?

• A.

Cost effectivness

• B.

Long processing time

• C.

Prompt mission feedback

B. Long processing time
Explanation
The correct answer is "long processing time". This means that video tape recorder units do not have the advantage of quick processing time compared to film-based systems. This can be a disadvantage in situations where prompt mission feedback is necessary. Additionally, it may also result in delays in accessing and reviewing recorded footage.

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• 50.

### In the airborne video tape recorder unit the event mark signal is recorded on

• A.

Both audio channels

• B.

One of the audio channels

• C.

The same track as the audio signal

B. One of the audio channels
Explanation
In the airborne video tape recorder unit, the event mark signal is recorded on one of the audio channels. This means that the event mark signal is not recorded on both audio channels or on the same track as the audio signal. Instead, it is specifically recorded on only one of the audio channels.

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• Feb 22, 2011
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