Avionics Test Station And Aircraft Component

217 Questions | Total Attempts: 79

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Avionics Quizzes & Trivia

Avionics Test Station and Components specialists are responsible for ensuring that these systems remain perfectly calibrated. These professionals inspect and maintain everything from aircraft radar and weapons control to the testing equipment essential to the maintenance process. The test below is appropriate for people undergoing the training. Give it a try!


Questions and Answers
  • 1. 
    A spectrum analyzer is simply a receiver with the output of
    • A. 

      A paper chart printer.

    • B. 

      A signal indicating board.

    • C. 

      An audio-monitoring speaker.

    • D. 

      A cathode-ray tube (CRT) display instead of a speaker.

  • 2. 
    Abbreviated Test Language for All Systems (ATLAS) statements peculiar to radar/electronic warfare (R/EW) test stations are used for all of the following except
    • A. 

      Spectrum analyzer.

    • B. 

      Radio frequency (RF) synthesizers.

    • C. 

      5.6 kilohertz (kHz) power sourced.

    • D. 

      Fixed direct current (DC) power supplies.

  • 3. 
    After the CRITICAL alarm sounds, the intermediate automatic test equipment (IATE) station panel initiates the power down sequence. This will occur if the condition persists for
    • A. 

      10 seconds.

    • B. 

      20 seconds.

    • C. 

      30 seconds.

    • D. 

      1 minute.

  • 4. 
    An advantage of the intercommunications system two-button operation is it
    • A. 

      Prevents more than one person talking at a time.

    • B. 

      Allows the operator to speak on the radio and intercom at the same time.

    • C. 

      Requires more than one crew member to press a button before anyone can talk.

    • D. 

      Allows the pilots to easily select the interphone independent of the set control selector switch position.

  • 5. 
    An AF Form 614, Charge Out Record, is used to
    • A. 

      Report a technical order (TO) deficiency.

    • B. 

      Sign out tools from a consolidated tool kit.

    • C. 

      Account for classified items at the end of a shift.

    • D. 

      Remove a TO from its storage location.

  • 6. 
    An electrostatic discharge (ESD) protected area is used when you are
    • A. 

      Handling electrostatic discharge-sensitive (ESDS) items outside their protective packaging.

    • B. 

      Performing a functional checkout of ESDS items inside their protective packaging.

    • C. 

      Repairing ESD control products.

    • D. 

      Testing ESD control products.

  • 7. 
    An illustrated parts breakdown (IPB) is what type of technical order (TO)?
    • A. 

      Index.

    • B. 

      General.

    • C. 

      Methods and procedures.

    • D. 

      Operational and maintenance.

  • 8. 
    As part of the electromagnetic frequency (EMF) Safety Program, who must ensure required warning signs and safety devices are in place and functional prior to beginning work?
    • A. 

      Individual.

    • B. 

      Supervisor.

    • C. 

      Squadron safety officer.

    • D. 

      Bioenvironmental engineer (BEE).

  • 9. 
    Before beginning any measurement with an oscilloscope, you must ensure the probe you are going to use is
    • A. 

      Set to +10 volts direct current (VDC).

    • B. 

      Set to –10 VDC.

    • C. 

      Calibrated correctly.

    • D. 

      Adjusted to its maximum setting.

  • 10. 
    Both the radio frequency (RF) defensive automatic test equipment (ATE) augmentation equipment (DAAE) interface test adapter (ITA) and the intermediate automatic test equipment (IATE) ITA are
    • A. 

      Active devices.

    • B. 

      Passive devices.

    • C. 

      Semi-active devices.

    • D. 

      Semi-passive devices.

  • 11. 
    By what means are time compliance technical order (TCTO) instructions distributed when the urgency of conditions doesn’t allow time for printing and distribution of instructions in formal technical order (TO) format?
    • A. 

      Interim TCTO.

    • B. 

      Routine TCTO.

    • C. 

      Depot-level accomplishment.

    • D. 

      Intermediate-level accomplishment.

  • 12. 
    Classified working papers must be treated like a finished document when they are retained
    • A. 

      More than 90 days, or when released outside the activity.

    • B. 

      More than 180 days, or when released outside the activity.

    • C. 

      At least one year, and are not released outside the activity.

    • D. 

      Any length of time, as long as they are not released outside the activity.

  • 13. 
    During the testing of the radio frequency (RF) source (RFS) band 4 through band 8 line replaceable unit (LRU), what provides the digital signal processing and control in response to the intermediate automatic test equipment’s (IATE) program?
    • A. 

      Radio frequency (RF) defensive automatic test equipment (ATE) augmentation equipment (DAAE).

    • B. 

      Band 4 through band 8 receiver functional test group (FTG).

    • C. 

      Radar electronic warfare (R/EW) test station.

    • D. 

      Monitor and control system.

  • 14. 
    Each device on the Institute of Electrical and Electronic Engineers (IEEE)–488 bus has a unique bus address that starts at 0 and goes up to
    • A. 

      20.

    • B. 

      30.

    • C. 

      40.

    • D. 

      50.

  • 15. 
    Each division of the oscilloscope faceplate is
    • A. 

      One-half inch square.

    • B. 

      One-quarter inch square.

    • C. 

      One centimeter square.

    • D. 

      One millimeter square.

  • 16. 
    Frequency is determined by the formula
    • A. 

      F=1/T

    • B. 

      F=2/T

    • C. 

      F=1/P

    • D. 

      F=2/P

  • 17. 
    Hoists must be attached to
    • A. 

      Well-defined dead-end points capable of handling the load.

    • B. 

      Lifeline attach points designed for hoists.

    • C. 

      Load-tested attach points.

    • D. 

      A free standing A-frame.

  • 18. 
    How does a power divider affect the characteristics of the signal that enters it?
    • A. 

      Power and frequency are reduced by one-half.

    • B. 

      Power and frequency are reduced by one-third.

    • C. 

      Power is reduced by one-half, but the frequency is unchanged.

    • D. 

      Power is reduced by one-third, but the frequency is unchanged.

  • 19. 
    How does the bioenvironmental office determine the noise exposure level of a work area?
    • A. 

      From stationary noise recording devices.

    • B. 

      From monitoring equipment worn by employees in the work area.

    • C. 

      From the noise level tables utilized for different pieces of equipment.

    • D. 

      From the manufacturer’s noise level documentation of all the equipment in the work area.

  • 20. 
    How does the upgraded systems test bench computer interface with the test equipment and units under test (UUT)?
    • A. 

      GPIB.

    • B. 

      1553B.

    • C. 

      IEEE–488.

    • D. 

      VXI chassis.

  • 21. 
    How is a cathode ray tube (CRT) placed on a work surface?
    • A. 

      Face up.

    • B. 

      On its side.

    • C. 

      Face down.

    • D. 

      In an approved holding fixture.

  • 22. 
    How is your military identification card utilized if you are picking up a classified asset from supply?
    • A. 

      It is used by the Logistics Readiness Squadron (LRS) security manager to determine your clearance in Joint Personnel Adjudication System (JPAS).

    • B. 

      LRS personnel make a copy of it as proof of who they turned the asset over to.

    • C. 

      It is checked against the current security classification guide to verify your need to know.

    • D. 

      LRS personnel check it against their current roster of individuals authorized to receipt for classified material.

  • 23. 
    How is your shop identified to receive revisions or updates for the computer programs you use?
    • A. 

      By the Automated Computer Program Identification Number System (ACPINS) distribution list.

    • B. 

      By the system program office roster.

    • C. 

      By the software management section distribution list.

    • D. 

      By the software technical order distribution office roster.

  • 24. 
    How many and of what size in gigabytes (GB) are the removable mass storage drives used in the Advanced Digital Test Station controller?
    • A. 

      Two, 40 GB.

    • B. 

      Two, 80 GB.

    • C. 

      One, 40 GB.

    • D. 

      One, 80 GB.

  • 25. 
    How many data lines does the Institute of Electrical and Electronic Engineers (IEEE)–488 bus have?
    • A. 

      3.

    • B. 

      5.

    • C. 

      8.

    • D. 

      24.

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