Avionics Test Station And Aircraft Component

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Avionics Quizzes & Trivia

Avionics Test Station and Components specialists are responsible for ensuring that these systems remain perfectly calibrated. These professionals inspect and maintain everything from aircraft radar and weapons control to the testing equipment essential to the maintenance process. The test below is appropriate for people undergoing the training. Give it a try!


Questions and Answers
  • 1. 

    What should you do if the maintenance task you are working on appears to be too dangerous or unsafe?

    • A.

      Terminate the operation according to the Knock It Off program.

    • B.

      Complete the task and report your concerns to the Inspector General.

    • C.

      Complete the task and report your concerns to the Maintenance Operations Officer.

    • D.

      Allow a more experienced technician to complete the task.

    Correct Answer
    A. Terminate the operation according to the Knock It Off program.
    Explanation
    If the maintenance task appears to be too dangerous or unsafe, the best course of action is to terminate the operation according to the Knock It Off program. This program is likely a safety protocol or procedure that is in place to ensure the well-being of the workers. By terminating the operation, it demonstrates a commitment to safety and prevents any potential accidents or injuries. Reporting concerns to the Inspector General or Maintenance Operations Officer may be necessary, but the immediate action should be to stop the task to avoid any harm. Allowing a more experienced technician to complete the task may not be the best option if the task is deemed unsafe.

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  • 2. 

    When there is conflicting guidance from different safety instructions, which of the following statements apply?

    • A.

      Air Force Occupational and Environmental Safety, Fire Protection and Health (AFOSH) standards will always take precedence.

    • B.

      Follow the guidance with the most current date.

    • C.

      Department of Defense (DOD) safety directives will always take precedence.

    • D.

      Follow the guidance that provides the most protection.

    Correct Answer
    D. Follow the guidance that provides the most protection.
    Explanation
    When there is conflicting guidance from different safety instructions, it is important to follow the guidance that provides the most protection. This means that even if other standards or directives may have precedence, the priority should be given to the guidance that ensures the highest level of safety and protection. This ensures that the individual or organization is taking proactive measures to minimize risks and prioritize safety above all else.

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  • 3. 

    What should you do if you believe you have a physical or mental condition that may impact safe job performance?

    • A.

      Report to sick call so they can notify your shop.

    • B.

      Immediately report your condition to your supervisor.

    • C.

      Avoid all hazardous tasks until your condition improves.

    • D.

      Ensure an equally qualified coworker can cover your hazardous tasks for the shift.

    Correct Answer
    B. Immediately report your condition to your supervisor.
    Explanation
    If you believe you have a physical or mental condition that may impact safe job performance, it is important to immediately report your condition to your supervisor. By doing so, your supervisor can be aware of your condition and take appropriate measures to ensure your safety and the safety of others in the workplace. This may involve making necessary accommodations, providing additional support, or assigning alternative tasks that are suitable for your condition. Reporting to your supervisor allows for the implementation of necessary measures to mitigate any potential risks or hazards associated with your condition.

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  • 4. 

    Why should you keep your tools free from rust, nicks, burrs, and breaks?

    • A.

      So they look good during inspections.

    • B.

      Because you will have to pay to replace them if you do not.

    • C.

      So you do not have to complete all of the paperwork required to replace them.

    • D.

      Because your efficiency is often a direct result of the condition of the tools you use.

    Correct Answer
    D. Because your efficiency is often a direct result of the condition of the tools you use.
    Explanation
    Keeping tools free from rust, nicks, burrs, and breaks is important because the condition of the tools directly affects efficiency. Rust, nicks, burrs, and breaks can hinder the performance of the tools, making them less effective and potentially causing delays or errors in work. By maintaining the tools in good condition, efficiency can be maximized, leading to smoother and more productive work processes.

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  • 5. 

    While using power tools, what safety guideline should you follow to ensure maximum benefits from the tools and to reduce the chances of serious injury?

    • A.

      Minimize light in the work area to reduce glare.

    • B.

      Inspect all portable power tools before using them.

    • C.

      Clear a jammed power tool without disconnecting it from the power source.

    • D.

      Use a damaged power cord only when necessary to accomplish the mission.

    Correct Answer
    B. Inspect all portable power tools before using them.
    Explanation
    Inspecting all portable power tools before using them is an important safety guideline to ensure maximum benefits from the tools and reduce the chances of serious injury. By inspecting the tools, you can identify any potential issues such as damaged cords, loose parts, or malfunctioning mechanisms. This allows you to address these issues before using the tool, preventing accidents and ensuring that the tool is in proper working condition.

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  • 6. 

    Why must all personnel know the location and on-off operation of the power distribution panels and power control switches in their work area?

    • A.

      To shut down the equipment at the end of the shift.

    • B.

      To demonstrate their proper use during a safety inspection.

    • C.

      To instruct fire department personnel when they respond to a fire in the building.

    • D.

      To disengage electrical circuits to equipment in the event of a fire or accidental electrical contact.

    Correct Answer
    D. To disengage electrical circuits to equipment in the event of a fire or accidental electrical contact.
    Explanation
    All personnel must know the location and on-off operation of the power distribution panels and power control switches in their work area in order to disengage electrical circuits to equipment in the event of a fire or accidental electrical contact. This knowledge is crucial for ensuring the safety of both personnel and the equipment. By being able to quickly and effectively shut off power to the affected equipment, potential hazards can be minimized, and the risk of electrical fires or accidents can be reduced.

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  • 7. 

    What is the recommended color coding for an electrical safety board?

    • A.

      Dark green background with white letters and border.

    • B.

      White background with dark green letters and border.

    • C.

      Dark green background with red letters and border.

    • D.

      White background with red letters and border.

    Correct Answer
    A. Dark green background with white letters and border.
    Explanation
    The recommended color coding for an electrical safety board is a dark green background with white letters and border. This color combination is commonly used to indicate safety equipment or areas related to electrical systems. The dark green background helps to make the board easily noticeable, while the white letters and border provide good contrast and visibility. Using red letters and border on a dark green background may not provide the same level of visibility and contrast, making it less effective for a safety board. Similarly, using a white background with dark green letters and border may not be as noticeable and may not convey the same level of importance as the recommended color coding.

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  • 8. 

    Why should you not rely on color coding of compressed gas cylinders to identify the contents?

    • A.

      The colors fade easily.

    • B.

      Only large tanks are color coded.

    • C.

      Only the small tanks are color coded.

    • D.

      Different manufacturers use different color codes.

    Correct Answer
    D. Different manufacturers use different color codes.
    Explanation
    Relying on color coding of compressed gas cylinders to identify the contents is not reliable because different manufacturers use different color codes. This means that the same color may represent different contents depending on the manufacturer, leading to confusion and potential safety risks. Therefore, it is important to use other methods, such as labels or markings, to accurately identify the contents of compressed gas cylinders.

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  • 9. 

    What should you do with a compressed gas cylinder when the pressure of the contents reaches 25 pounds per square inch (psi)?

    • A.

      Mark the cylinder with the letters ―MT,‖ close the valve, and secure the protective cap.

    • B.

      Place an unserviceable tag on the cylinder and move it away from the other cylinders.

    • C.

      Open the valve and secure the cylinder valve protective cap.

    • D.

      Open the valve and move it away from the other cylinders.

    Correct Answer
    A. Mark the cylinder with the letters ―MT,‖ close the valve, and secure the protective cap.
    Explanation
    When the pressure of the contents in a compressed gas cylinder reaches 25 pounds per square inch (psi), the appropriate action is to mark the cylinder with the letters "MT," close the valve, and secure the protective cap. This is done to indicate that the cylinder is empty and should not be used. It helps to prevent any accidents or mishaps that may occur if someone mistakenly tries to use the cylinder.

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  • 10. 

    As part of the electromagnetic frequency (EMF) Safety Program, who must ensure required warning signs and safety devices are in place and functional prior to beginning work?

    • A.

      Individual.

    • B.

      Supervisor.

    • C.

      Squadron safety officer.

    • D.

      Bioenvironmental engineer (BEE).

    Correct Answer
    A. Individual.
    Explanation
    As part of the electromagnetic frequency (EMF) Safety Program, it is the responsibility of the individual to ensure that required warning signs and safety devices are in place and functional before starting work. This means that each person involved in the work must take personal accountability for ensuring that the necessary precautions are taken to protect themselves and others from potential EMF hazards. This includes checking and maintaining the warning signs and safety devices to minimize the risk of exposure to electromagnetic frequencies.

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  • 11. 

    How does the bioenvironmental office determine the noise exposure level of a work area?

    • A.

      From stationary noise recording devices.

    • B.

      From monitoring equipment worn by employees in the work area.

    • C.

      From the noise level tables utilized for different pieces of equipment.

    • D.

      From the manufacturer’s noise level documentation of all the equipment in the work area.

    Correct Answer
    B. From monitoring equipment worn by employees in the work area.
    Explanation
    The bioenvironmental office determines the noise exposure level of a work area by using monitoring equipment worn by employees in the work area. This method allows for a more accurate assessment of the actual noise levels experienced by the workers, as it takes into account factors such as the proximity to the noise source and the duration of exposure. Stationary noise recording devices may not capture all the variations in noise levels throughout the work area, while noise level tables and manufacturer's documentation may not reflect the actual conditions in the specific work environment.

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  • 12. 

    Lever-operated hoists must only be used in

    • A.

      A direct pull.

    • B.

      An indirect pull.

    • C.

      A dead-end point.

    • D.

      A no-load condition.

    Correct Answer
    A. A direct pull.
    Explanation
    Lever-operated hoists are designed to be used in a direct pull, meaning that the force is applied in a straight line from the hoist to the load being lifted. This ensures that the hoist operates efficiently and safely, as any sideways or angled force could cause the hoist to malfunction or the load to become unstable. Using a lever-operated hoist in an indirect pull, dead-end point, or no-load condition could lead to accidents or damage to the hoist and load.

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  • 13. 

    Hoists must be attached to

    • A.

      Well-defined dead-end points capable of handling the load.

    • B.

      Lifeline attach points designed for hoists.

    • C.

      Load-tested attach points.

    • D.

      A free standing A-frame.

    Correct Answer
    A. Well-defined dead-end points capable of handling the load.
    Explanation
    Hoists need to be attached to well-defined dead-end points that are capable of handling the load because these points provide stability and strength. The dead-end points ensure that the hoist remains secure and prevents any accidents or mishaps. It is essential to have a clear and defined attachment point that can handle the weight and pressure of the load being lifted. This ensures the safety of both the hoist and the load being lifted.

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  • 14. 

    How is a cathode ray tube (CRT) placed on a work surface?

    • A.

      Face up.

    • B.

      On its side.

    • C.

      Face down.

    • D.

      In an approved holding fixture.

    Correct Answer
    C. Face down.
    Explanation
    A cathode ray tube (CRT) is placed face down on a work surface to prevent damage to the delicate screen and internal components. This positioning ensures that the weight of the tube is distributed evenly, preventing any potential stress on the fragile glass screen. Additionally, placing the CRT face down allows for easier access to the connectors and other components located on the back of the tube.

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  • 15. 

    What should you do if you inadvertently sent an E-mail with classified information over an unclassified system?

    • A.

      Notify your security manager immediately.

    • B.

      Call the recipient(s) to ensure it gets deleted.

    • C.

      Delete it from your ―sent mail‖ and reboot your computer.

    • D.

      Notify the Base Command Post.

    Correct Answer
    A. Notify your security manager immediately.
    Explanation
    If you inadvertently sent an email with classified information over an unclassified system, the correct course of action is to notify your security manager immediately. This is important because the security manager can take appropriate measures to mitigate any potential risks associated with the unauthorized disclosure of classified information. They can also provide guidance on any further actions that need to be taken to address the situation effectively.

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  • 16. 

    If a classified document contains TOP SECRET information, which of the following portion marking statements apply?

    • A.

      Only the TOP SECRET portions will be marked.

    • B.

      Portion markings are not used for TOP SECRET documents.

    • C.

      Only the TOP SECRET and UNCLASSIFIED portions will be marked.

    • D.

      Every portion of the document will be marked to show the highest level of classification that it contains.

    Correct Answer
    D. Every portion of the document will be marked to show the highest level of classification that it contains.
    Explanation
    Every portion of the document will be marked to show the highest level of classification that it contains. This means that if a classified document contains TOP SECRET information, every part of the document, even if it is not classified, will be marked to indicate the highest level of classification present. This ensures that individuals handling the document are aware of the sensitive information contained within it and can take appropriate measures to protect it.

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  • 17. 

    Classified working papers must be treated like a finished document when they are retained

    • A.

      More than 90 days, or when released outside the activity.

    • B.

      More than 180 days, or when released outside the activity.

    • C.

      At least one year, and are not released outside the activity.

    • D.

      Any length of time, as long as they are not released outside the activity.

    Correct Answer
    B. More than 180 days, or when released outside the activity.
    Explanation
    Classified working papers are documents that contain sensitive or confidential information. According to the given answer, these papers must be treated like a finished document when they are retained for more than 180 days, or when they are released outside the activity. This means that after 180 days, or if they are shared with individuals or organizations outside the activity, these papers should be handled as if they were ready for public consumption. This is to ensure that the sensitive information they contain is protected and not compromised.

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  • 18. 

    Why would you consult a security classification guide regarding classified material in your control?

    • A.

      To evaluate the degree of protection necessary.

    • B.

      To determine all locations in possession of that same classified material.

    • C.

      Since it lists the current point of contact for questions regarding that classified material.

    • D.

      Since all of the personnel in your work area who are authorized access to that classified material are listed.

    Correct Answer
    A. To evaluate the degree of protection necessary.
    Explanation
    Consulting a security classification guide regarding classified material in one's control is important to evaluate the degree of protection necessary. The guide provides information about the sensitivity and level of classification of the material, which helps in determining the appropriate security measures to be implemented. By understanding the degree of protection required, one can ensure that the classified material is handled, stored, and transmitted securely, preventing unauthorized access or disclosure.

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  • 19. 

    How is your military identification card utilized if you are picking up a classified asset from supply?

    • A.

      It is used by the Logistics Readiness Squadron (LRS) security manager to determine your clearance in Joint Personnel Adjudication System (JPAS).

    • B.

      LRS personnel make a copy of it as proof of who they turned the asset over to.

    • C.

      It is checked against the current security classification guide to verify your need to know.

    • D.

      LRS personnel check it against their current roster of individuals authorized to receipt for classified material.

    Correct Answer
    D. LRS personnel check it against their current roster of individuals authorized to receipt for classified material.
    Explanation
    The military identification card is utilized by LRS personnel to verify if the individual is authorized to receipt for classified material. They check the card against their current roster of authorized individuals to ensure that the person picking up the asset has the necessary clearance and authorization. This step helps maintain the security and control of classified assets during the supply process.

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  • 20. 

    Which type of publication is used to extend or add material to publications issued by higher headquarters?

    • A.

      Air Force manual.

    • B.

      Air Force instruction.

    • C.

      Operating instruction.

    • D.

      Air Force supplement.

    Correct Answer
    D. Air Force supplement.
    Explanation
    An Air Force supplement is used to extend or add material to publications issued by higher headquarters. It provides additional guidance or information that is specific to the Air Force and is intended to supplement existing publications. This type of publication is commonly used to address unique or specialized requirements that are not covered in the higher headquarters' publications.

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  • 21. 

    Which type of publication is used by a unit to standardize local maintenance or safety procedures when they are not specified in an Air Force instruction or supplement?

    • A.

      Air Force manual.

    • B.

      Operating instruction.

    • C.

      Air Force policy directive.

    • D.

      Air Force doctrine document.

    Correct Answer
    B. Operating instruction.
    Explanation
    An operating instruction is used by a unit to standardize local maintenance or safety procedures when they are not specified in an Air Force instruction or supplement. This type of publication provides specific guidance and instructions for carrying out tasks and operations within a unit. It helps ensure consistency and uniformity in procedures, enhancing efficiency and safety. An Air Force manual, Air Force policy directive, and Air Force doctrine document may provide broader guidance or principles, but an operating instruction is more specific and tailored to the unit's needs.

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  • 22. 

    Which publication is made of compiled information, arranged in systematic order?

    • A.

      Pamphlet.

    • B.

      Directory.

    • C.

      Handbook.

    • D.

      Visual aid.

    Correct Answer
    B. Directory.
    Explanation
    A directory is a publication that is made of compiled information, arranged in a systematic order. It typically contains a list of names, addresses, and contact information for individuals or organizations. This organized format allows for easy access and reference to specific information. A pamphlet is a small booklet that provides information on a specific topic, while a handbook is a concise reference guide. A visual aid, on the other hand, is a tool used to enhance understanding through visual representation.

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  • 23. 

    What type of publication is a graphical illustration that may be permanent or temporary?

    • A.

      Bulletin.

    • B.

      Pamphlet.

    • C.

      Visual aid.

    • D.

      Recurring publication.

    Correct Answer
    C. Visual aid.
    Explanation
    A graphical illustration that may be permanent or temporary is commonly known as a visual aid. Visual aids are used to enhance presentations or convey information in a visual format, such as charts, graphs, or images. They can be in the form of posters, slides, or digital media, and are often used to support or clarify verbal information. Unlike bulletins, pamphlets, or recurring publications, visual aids are specifically designed to provide a visual representation of information, making them a suitable answer for this question.

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  • 24. 

    An illustrated parts breakdown (IPB) is what type of technical order (TO)?

    • A.

      Index.

    • B.

      General.

    • C.

      Methods and procedures.

    • D.

      Operational and maintenance.

    Correct Answer
    D. Operational and maintenance.
    Explanation
    An illustrated parts breakdown (IPB) is a type of technical order (TO) that falls under the category of operational and maintenance. This type of TO provides detailed illustrations and diagrams of the parts and components of a system or equipment, along with their corresponding part numbers and descriptions. It is used for maintenance and repair purposes, helping technicians and operators identify and order the correct parts needed for maintenance or replacement.

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  • 25. 

    What type of technical order (TO) update is issued when only small parts of the TO are affected?

    • A.

      Change.

    • B.

      Revision.

    • C.

      Rescission.

    • D.

      Supplement.

    Correct Answer
    A. Change.
    Explanation
    When only small parts of a technical order (TO) are affected, a change update is issued. This means that there are specific modifications or updates made to certain sections or components of the TO, while the majority of the document remains unchanged. This allows for targeted and precise updates to be implemented without the need for a complete revision or rescission of the entire TO. A change update is efficient and practical when only minor adjustments are required.

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  • 26. 

    Which type of technical order (TO) supplement is issued to correct potentially fatal conditions?

    • A.

      Safety.

    • B.

      TO page.

    • C.

      Operational.

    • D.

      Time compliance.

    Correct Answer
    A. Safety.
    Explanation
    A safety TO supplement is issued to correct potentially fatal conditions. This type of supplement focuses on addressing safety concerns and ensuring the well-being of personnel and equipment. It provides instructions and procedures to mitigate risks and prevent accidents or injuries. By issuing safety TO supplements, organizations prioritize the safety of their personnel and aim to prevent any potentially fatal incidents from occurring.

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  • 27. 

    What type of technical order (TO) update is issued when changed material affects more than 80 percent of the text?

    • A.

      Change.

    • B.

      Revision.

    • C.

      Rescission.

    • D.

      Supplement.

    Correct Answer
    B. Revision.
    Explanation
    When changed material affects more than 80 percent of the text in a technical order (TO), a revision is issued. A revision involves making significant changes to the content of the TO to ensure that it remains accurate and up to date. This type of update is necessary when a large portion of the information provided in the TO has changed and needs to be revised to reflect the new information.

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  • 28. 

    What technical orders (TO) give general information and instructions in various subject areas for supervisory and administrative personnel?

    • A.

      General.

    • B.

      Preliminary.

    • C.

      Abbreviated.

    • D.

      Methods and procedures.

    Correct Answer
    D. Methods and procedures.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "Methods and procedures." Technical orders (TO) provide general information and instructions in various subject areas for supervisory and administrative personnel. Methods and procedures TOs specifically outline the step-by-step processes and guidelines to be followed in carrying out tasks or operations. This type of TO is crucial for ensuring consistency and standardization in the execution of duties, as it provides clear instructions on how to perform specific tasks effectively and efficiently.

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  • 29. 

    In addition to printing the words ―Urgent Action‖ in red, what is used to identify an urgent action time compliance technical order (TCTO) on the first page?

    • A.

      Red Xs only.

    • B.

      Red diagonals only.

    • C.

      Red Xs alternately spaced with red diagonals.

    • D.

      Red Xs alternately spaced with circled red Xs.

    Correct Answer
    C. Red Xs alternately spaced with red diagonals.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "Red Xs alternately spaced with red diagonals." This is used to identify an urgent action time compliance technical order (TCTO) on the first page. The combination of red Xs and red diagonals creates a distinct pattern that is easily recognizable and stands out, making it clear that the action is urgent. The alternation of the Xs and diagonals adds to the visual impact and helps to differentiate it from other markings or symbols.

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  • 30. 

    By what means are time compliance technical order (TCTO) instructions distributed when the urgency of conditions doesn’t allow time for printing and distribution of instructions in formal technical order (TO) format?

    • A.

      Interim TCTO.

    • B.

      Routine TCTO.

    • C.

      Depot-level accomplishment.

    • D.

      Intermediate-level accomplishment.

    Correct Answer
    A. Interim TCTO.
    Explanation
    Interim TCTO instructions are distributed when there is an urgency to address the conditions but there is not enough time for printing and distribution of formal TO format instructions. Interim TCTOs are temporary instructions that provide immediate guidance and allow for quick implementation of necessary actions. These instructions are typically issued in a less formal format to expedite the distribution process and ensure that the urgent conditions are addressed promptly.

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  • 31. 

    An AF Form 614, Charge Out Record, is used to

    • A.

      Report a technical order (TO) deficiency.

    • B.

      Sign out tools from a consolidated tool kit.

    • C.

      Account for classified items at the end of a shift.

    • D.

      Remove a TO from its storage location.

    Correct Answer
    D. Remove a TO from its storage location.
    Explanation
    The AF Form 614, Charge Out Record, is used to remove a technical order (TO) from its storage location. This form is typically used to track the movement of TOs and ensure they are properly accounted for. By completing the AF Form 614, personnel can document the removal of a TO from storage, providing a record of who took it and when. This helps to maintain inventory control and ensure that TOs are returned to their proper location after use.

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  • 32. 

    In a technical order (TO), what does the illustrated parts breakdown assign each part of a system or equipment item?

    • A.

      A figure and index.

    • B.

      A safety summary.

    • C.

      A supply designator.

    • D.

      To a list of illustrations.

    Correct Answer
    A. A figure and index.
    Explanation
    The illustrated parts breakdown assigns each part of a system or equipment item a figure and index. This means that each part is identified and labeled with a corresponding figure number and index number, making it easier for technicians to locate and order the specific parts they need for maintenance or repair.

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  • 33. 

    Which column in a technical order (TO) illustrated parts breakdown table indicates how many of each part are needed to completely put a section together?

    • A.

      Description.

    • B.

      Part Number.

    • C.

      Units Per Assembly.

    • D.

      Figure and Index Number.

    Correct Answer
    C. Units Per Assembly.
    Explanation
    The column in a technical order (TO) illustrated parts breakdown table that indicates how many of each part are needed to completely put a section together is the "Units Per Assembly" column. This column provides the quantity of each part required for assembling a section, allowing technicians to ensure they have the correct number of parts for the assembly process.

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  • 34. 

    The responsibility to ensure your recommended technical order (TO) change is valid and warrants submittal rests with your

    • A.

      Supervisor.

    • B.

      Commander.

    • C.

      Section chief.

    • D.

      Quality assurance inspector.

    Correct Answer
    A. Supervisor.
    Explanation
    The responsibility to ensure your recommended technical order (TO) change is valid and warrants submittal rests with your supervisor. The supervisor is responsible for overseeing the work of their subordinates and ensuring that any changes or recommendations made are valid and meet the necessary criteria before being submitted. They have the authority and knowledge to assess the validity of the TO change and make the final decision on whether it should be submitted or not.

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  • 35. 

    Technical order (TO) deficiencies such as word omissions and typographical errors that do not cause any misinterpretation that would affect mission accomplishment may be submitted as

    • A.

      A minor correction.

    • B.

      A routine recommendation.

    • C.

      An urgent recommendation.

    • D.

      An emergency recommendation.

    Correct Answer
    A. A minor correction.
    Explanation
    Technical order (TO) deficiencies that do not cause any misinterpretation or affect mission accomplishment are considered minor. Word omissions and typographical errors fall into this category as they do not significantly impact the overall understanding or execution of the TO. Therefore, such deficiencies can be submitted as a minor correction, which implies a lower level of urgency compared to routine, urgent, or emergency recommendations.

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  • 36. 

    Which statement applies to all AF computer software?

    • A.

      It’s managed as automatic test equipment.

    • B.

      Software computer program identification number (CPIN) compendiums are revised twice yearly.

    • C.

      It’s designated and managed as computer software configuration items (CSCI).

    • D.

      Numerical index and requirement tables (NI&RT) provide the consolidated index of USAF embedded computer system (ECS) software within each major command.

    Correct Answer
    C. It’s designated and managed as computer software configuration items (CSCI).
  • 37. 

    How is your shop identified to receive revisions or updates for the computer programs you use?

    • A.

      By the Automated Computer Program Identification Number System (ACPINS) distribution list.

    • B.

      By the system program office roster.

    • C.

      By the software management section distribution list.

    • D.

      By the software technical order distribution office roster.

    Correct Answer
    A. By the Automated Computer Program Identification Number System (ACPINS) distribution list.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "By the Automated Computer Program Identification Number System (ACPINS) distribution list." This means that the shop is identified to receive revisions or updates for the computer programs they use through the ACPINS distribution list. This list likely includes the relevant information and updates for the computer programs used by the shop, ensuring that they stay up to date with any revisions or updates.

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  • 38. 

    Which of the following correctly indicates a command computer program identification number (CPIN) compendium?

    • A.

      ACC–8–2.

    • B.

      80–ALC–2.

    • C.

      80–2–ACC.

    • D.

      AFSC–2–80.

    Correct Answer
    C. 80–2–ACC.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is 80-2-ACC. This is because the command computer program identification number (CPIN) compendium typically follows the format of a numerical code followed by a hyphen, another numerical code, and then a three-letter acronym. In this case, 80 represents the numerical code, 2 represents the second numerical code, and ACC is the three-letter acronym.

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  • 39. 

    Which Automated Computer Program Identification Number System (ACPINS) product is a valuable research aid when you do not know the Computer Program Identification Number (CPIN), but you have other data pertaining to the system/equipment in question?

    • A.

      Cross-references.

    • B.

      USAF compendiums.

    • C.

      Major command (MAJCOM) compendiums.

    • D.

      USAF consortium reference.

    Correct Answer
    A. Cross-references.
    Explanation
    Cross-references are a valuable research aid when you have other data pertaining to the system/equipment in question but do not know the Computer Program Identification Number (CPIN). Cross-references provide links or references to related information or documents that can help in identifying the CPIN. By following these cross-references, one can gather additional information and potentially find the CPIN they are looking for. This makes cross-references an important tool for research and identification purposes in the Automated Computer Program Identification Number System (ACPINS).

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  • 40. 

    What information does the third field position of a Computer Program Identification Number (CPIN) compendium number indicate?

    • A.

      Major system and subsystem.

    • B.

      Revision, baseline, and version.

    • C.

      Type of software and sequence number.

    • D.

      Supplemental information to use with program.

    Correct Answer
    C. Type of software and sequence number.
    Explanation
    The third field position of a Computer Program Identification Number (CPIN) compendium number indicates the type of software and the sequence number. This means that the third field position provides information about the category or classification of the software, such as whether it is an application, utility, or system software, and also indicates the order or sequence in which the software was released or updated.

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  • 41. 

    Why is the data from maintenance documentation important to maintenance activities across the base regarding maintenance problems?

    • A.

      It provides a quarterly total of maintenance problems.

    • B.

      The base quality assurance office can review the problems at any time.

    • C.

      It provides the means for validating and initiating corrective action on them.

    • D.

      It increases the quantity of repair assets assigned to a maintenance activity.

    Correct Answer
    C. It provides the means for validating and initiating corrective action on them.
    Explanation
    The data from maintenance documentation is important to maintenance activities across the base regarding maintenance problems because it provides the means for validating and initiating corrective action on them. This means that the documentation allows for the identification and verification of maintenance problems, which then enables the implementation of appropriate corrective measures. This helps in ensuring that maintenance issues are addressed effectively and efficiently, leading to improved maintenance operations and overall base performance.

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  • 42. 

    When maintenance data identifies an item as off-equipment, it is because

    • A.

      It is a subassembly or component removed from an end item.

    • B.

      There is no longer power applied to it.

    • C.

      It is not located on the flightline.

    • D.

      Supply has taken control of it.

    Correct Answer
    A. It is a subassembly or component removed from an end item.
    Explanation
    When maintenance data identifies an item as off-equipment, it means that the item has been removed from an end item. This could be a subassembly or component that has been taken out for repair or replacement. The other options are not relevant to the concept of an item being identified as off-equipment.

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  • 43. 

    If duplicate identification (ID) numbers for maintenance data documentation are a concern, what can be used to eliminate the problem?

    • A.

      The last four positions of the equipment serial number.

    • B.

      The last four positions of the equipment stock number.

    • C.

      A modified number of a locally developed alphanumeric designator.

    • D.

      A modified number of a major command (MAJCOM) developed alphanumeric designator.

    Correct Answer
    C. A modified number of a locally developed alphanumeric designator.
    Explanation
    To eliminate duplicate identification (ID) numbers for maintenance data documentation, a modified number of a locally developed alphanumeric designator can be used. This means that a unique identifier specific to the local organization or facility can be created by modifying an existing alphanumeric designator. This modified number will ensure that each maintenance data document has a distinct ID, reducing the risk of duplication and confusion. Using the last four positions of the equipment serial number or stock number may not be sufficient as there could still be duplicates within those ranges. Similarly, using a modified number of a major command (MAJCOM) developed alphanumeric designator may not be effective for local organizations as it may not be specific enough.

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  • 44. 

    What would be considered a significant event that needs to be documented on an Air Force technical order (AFTO) Form 95?

    • A.

      Software update.

    • B.

      Compliance with a Time Compliance Technical Order (TCTO).

    • C.

      180 day calibration.

    • D.

      Verification of a new test adapter.

    Correct Answer
    B. Compliance with a Time Compliance Technical Order (TCTO).
    Explanation
    A significant event that needs to be documented on an Air Force technical order (AFTO) Form 95 is compliance with a Time Compliance Technical Order (TCTO). This is because a TCTO is a directive issued to address a specific safety, reliability, or operational concern, and compliance with it is crucial for the proper functioning and maintenance of the equipment. Therefore, documenting the compliance with a TCTO on the AFTO Form 95 ensures that the information is recorded and tracked for future reference and accountability.

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  • 45. 

    What section of the Air Force Technical Order (AFTO) Form 244 provides a continuous record of all major and minor maintenance that has been done on the equipment it is attached to?

    • A.

      II.

    • B.

      III.

    • C.

      IV.

    • D.

      V.

    Correct Answer
    D. V.
    Explanation
    Section V of the Air Force Technical Order (AFTO) Form 244 provides a continuous record of all major and minor maintenance that has been done on the equipment it is attached to. This section is likely to contain detailed information about the maintenance activities performed on the equipment, allowing for a comprehensive record of its maintenance history.

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  • 46. 

    What equipment red status symbol is used to indicate that an operational check is due?

    • A.

      X.

    • B.

      Dash.

    • C.

      Diagonal slash.

    • D.

      X in a circle.

    Correct Answer
    B. Dash.
    Explanation
    The dash symbol is used to indicate that an operational check is due. This is commonly seen in equipment maintenance, where a dash symbol is used to remind users that a check or inspection needs to be performed. It serves as a visual reminder that the equipment needs attention and helps ensure that necessary maintenance tasks are not overlooked.

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  • 47. 

    What is the simplest way to limit access to the Integrated Maintenance Data System (IMDS)?

    • A.

      Log off the Core Automated Maintenance System (CAMS) terminal immediately upon completion of entries.

    • B.

      Avoid logging on to the computer unless there are no unauthorized personnel in the area.

    • C.

      Keep the remote terminal in your work area off-line from the base computer.

    • D.

      Limit access to the user ID/password required to activate the terminal.

    Correct Answer
    C. Keep the remote terminal in your work area off-line from the base computer.
  • 48. 

    Why is a work center event (WCE) used in maintenance data documentation?

    • A.

      To change a job’s status.

    • B.

      To track scheduled maintenance actions.

    • C.

      To report discrepancies on unrelated jobs.

    • D.

      To differentiate between different maintenance actions required to complete a particular job.

    Correct Answer
    D. To differentiate between different maintenance actions required to complete a particular job.
    Explanation
    A work center event (WCE) is used in maintenance data documentation to differentiate between different maintenance actions required to complete a particular job. This allows for better organization and tracking of the various tasks and actions that need to be performed in order to successfully complete the job. By using WCEs, maintenance personnel can easily identify and prioritize the specific actions that need to be taken, ensuring that all necessary tasks are completed in a timely and efficient manner.

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  • 49. 

    What screen would you start with when your supervisor directs you to take time in Integrated Maintenance Data System (IMDS) for the maintenance performed today?

    • A.

      054, Event Maintenance.

    • B.

      073, Schedule Maintenance.

    • C.

      499, Supply Data Record Maintenance.

    • D.

      907, Job Data Documentation (JDD) utilities.

    Correct Answer
    D. 907, Job Data Documentation (JDD) utilities.
    Explanation
    When directed by a supervisor to take time in Integrated Maintenance Data System (IMDS) for the maintenance performed today, the screen you would start with is 907, Job Data Documentation (JDD) utilities. This screen allows you to document and record the job data related to the maintenance tasks performed.

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  • 50. 

    Your duty in maintenance is to ensure

    • A.

      Assigned aircraft and equipment meet mission needs.

    • B.

      Wing maintenance meets quality assurance standards.

    • C.

      Aircraft repair is contracted to the appropriate agency.

    • D.

      You take appropriate shortcuts to expedite repair time.

    Correct Answer
    A. Assigned aircraft and equipment meet mission needs.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "assigned aircraft and equipment meet mission needs." This means that as a maintenance personnel, your responsibility is to make sure that the aircraft and equipment assigned to you are in proper working condition and meet the requirements of the mission they are intended for. This involves conducting regular inspections, repairs, and maintenance tasks to ensure optimal performance and safety.

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Quiz Review Timeline +

Our quizzes are rigorously reviewed, monitored and continuously updated by our expert board to maintain accuracy, relevance, and timeliness.

  • Current Version
  • Mar 21, 2023
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • Sep 08, 2015
    Quiz Created by
    Carmine123
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