Avionics Test Station And Aircraft Component
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How does the bioenvironmental office determine the noise exposure level of a work area?
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From stationary noise recording devices.
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From monitoring equipment worn by employees in the work area.
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From the noise level tables utilized for different pieces of equipment.
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From the manufacturer’s noise level documentation of all the equipment in the work area.
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Avionics Test Station and Components specialists are responsible for ensuring that these systems remain perfectly calibrated. These professionals inspect and maintain everything from aircraft radar and weapons control to the testing equipment essential to the maintenance process. The test below is appropriate for people undergoing the training. Give it a try!
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- 2.
How is your shop identified to receive revisions or updates for the computer programs you use?
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By the Automated Computer Program Identification Number System (ACPINS) distribution list.
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By the system program office roster.
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By the software management section distribution list.
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By the software technical order distribution office roster.
Correct Answer
A. By the Automated Computer Program Identification Number System (ACPINS) distribution list.Explanation
The correct answer is "By the Automated Computer Program Identification Number System (ACPINS) distribution list." This means that the shop is identified to receive revisions or updates for the computer programs they use through the ACPINS distribution list. This list likely includes the relevant information and updates for the computer programs used by the shop, ensuring that they stay up to date with any revisions or updates.Rate this question:
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- 3.
When maintenance data identifies an item as off-equipment, it is because
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It is a subassembly or component removed from an end item.
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There is no longer power applied to it.
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It is not located on the flightline.
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Supply has taken control of it.
Correct Answer
A. It is a subassembly or component removed from an end item.Explanation
When maintenance data identifies an item as off-equipment, it means that the item has been removed from an end item. This could be a subassembly or component that has been taken out for repair or replacement. The other options are not relevant to the concept of an item being identified as off-equipment.Rate this question:
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- 4.
What equipment red status symbol is used to indicate that an operational check is due?
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X.
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Dash.
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Diagonal slash.
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X in a circle.
Correct Answer
A. Dash.Explanation
The dash symbol is used to indicate that an operational check is due. This is commonly seen in equipment maintenance, where a dash symbol is used to remind users that a check or inspection needs to be performed. It serves as a visual reminder that the equipment needs attention and helps ensure that necessary maintenance tasks are not overlooked.Rate this question:
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- 5.
An electrostatic discharge (ESD) protected area is used when you are
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Handling electrostatic discharge-sensitive (ESDS) items outside their protective packaging.
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Performing a functional checkout of ESDS items inside their protective packaging.
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Repairing ESD control products.
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Testing ESD control products.
Correct Answer
A. Handling electrostatic discharge-sensitive (ESDS) items outside their protective packaging.Explanation
An electrostatic discharge (ESD) protected area is used when you are handling electrostatic discharge-sensitive (ESDS) items outside their protective packaging. This means that when you are working with ESDS items that are not in their protective packaging, such as when you are assembling, inspecting, or repairing them, you need to be in an ESD protected area. This area is designed to minimize the risk of electrostatic discharge that could damage the sensitive electronic components. It typically includes measures such as grounding, anti-static flooring, and the use of ESD-safe equipment and tools to prevent static electricity buildup and discharge.Rate this question:
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- 6.
The radio-frequency component used to prevent any feedback in a circuit is the
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Isolator.
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Attenuator.
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Band-pass filter.
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Directional coupler.
Correct Answer
A. Isolator.Explanation
An isolator is a radio-frequency component that is used to prevent any feedback in a circuit. It allows the signal to flow in only one direction, blocking any reflected signals from returning back to the source. This helps in preventing oscillations and instability in the circuit, ensuring proper functioning and preventing damage to the components. Attenuator, band-pass filter, and directional coupler are different components with different functions and do not specifically address the issue of preventing feedback in a circuit.Rate this question:
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- 7.
The power meter
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Must be operated manually.
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Can be operated manually or automatically.
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Can only be operated through use of an interface bus.
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Can only be operated through an automatic test station (ATS).
Correct Answer
A. Can be operated manually or automatically.Explanation
The correct answer is "can be operated manually or automatically." This means that the power meter can be controlled either by manual operation or by automated processes. It provides the flexibility for users to choose the preferred mode of operation based on their needs and preferences. Whether they want to control it manually or automate the process, the power meter allows for both options.Rate this question:
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- 8.
Providing a visual display for measuring voltage and frequency is a function of the
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Counter.
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Power meter.
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Oscilloscope.
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Digital multimeter.
Correct Answer
A. Oscilloscope.Explanation
An oscilloscope is a device used for visualizing electrical signals in the form of waveforms. It can measure voltage and frequency by displaying the signals on a screen, allowing users to analyze and interpret the data. A counter is used to measure the frequency of signals, but it does not provide a visual display. A power meter measures the power consumption of electrical devices, not voltage and frequency. A digital multimeter can measure voltage and frequency, but it does not provide a visual display like an oscilloscope. Therefore, the correct answer is the oscilloscope.Rate this question:
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- 9.
The multisystem extension interface (MXI) bus has two cables: a point-to-point and a
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Multimaster.
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Multidrop.
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Multiline.
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Multibus.
Correct Answer
A. Multidrop.Explanation
The correct answer is multidrop. The MXI bus has two cables, a point-to-point cable and a multidrop cable. A point-to-point cable connects two devices directly, while a multidrop cable allows multiple devices to be connected in a daisy-chain configuration. In the case of the MXI bus, the multidrop cable enables multiple devices to communicate with a single controller, allowing for efficient data transfer and control.Rate this question:
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- 10.
In a portable automatic test equipment calibrator (PATEC) calibration, which error is not associated with a systematic error?
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Random.
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Instrumental.
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Observational.
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Environmental.
Correct Answer
A. Random.Explanation
In a portable automatic test equipment calibrator (PATEC) calibration, random error is not associated with a systematic error. Random errors occur due to unpredictable factors and can cause measurements to vary in an unpredictable manner. On the other hand, systematic errors are consistent and predictable, often caused by flaws in the calibration process or equipment. Therefore, random error is the correct answer as it is not associated with systematic error in PATEC calibration.Rate this question:
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- 11.
What power is distributed to the upgraded systems test bench components and radar units under test (UUT)?
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115V 400 Hertz (Hz) to components and 115V 60 Hz to UUTs.
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115V 60 Hz to components and 115V 400 Hz to UUTs.
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115V 400 Hz to components and UUTs.
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115V 60 Hz to components and UUTs.
Correct Answer
A. 115V 60 Hz to components and 115V 400 Hz to UUTs.Explanation
The power distributed to the upgraded systems test bench components is 115V 60 Hz, while the power distributed to the radar units under test (UUT) is 115V 400 Hz.Rate this question:
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- 12.
On the electronic systems test set (ESTS), in what slot of the radio frequency (RF) versatile modular European (VME) extension for instrumentation (VXI) assembly (A5) is the VXI bus extender module (A5A1) located?
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0.
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1.
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2.
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3.
Correct Answer
A. 0. -
- 13.
Within the general-purpose interface test module (GPITM) general-purpose interface unit (GPIU), if multiple built-in test (BIT) failures occur for multiple circuit card assemblies (CCA) and the interface (I/F) chassis bus extender is one of the CCAs that has failed BIT, what action should be taken?
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Ignore all other CCA BIT failures until the I/F chassis bus extender CCA fail is corrected.
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Start from tier A and reset each CCA one at a time and then rerun BIT after each reset.
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Reload system software because multiple CCA BIT fails indicate a software problem.
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Power down and back-up the test station, this will reset all CCA firmware.
Correct Answer
A. Ignore all other CCA BIT failures until the I/F chassis bus extender CCA fail is corrected.Explanation
If multiple built-in test (BIT) failures occur for multiple circuit card assemblies (CCA) and the interface (I/F) chassis bus extender is one of the CCAs that has failed BIT, the correct action to take is to ignore all other CCA BIT failures until the I/F chassis bus extender CCA fail is corrected. This means that the focus should be on fixing the issue with the I/F chassis bus extender CCA before addressing any other failures.Rate this question:
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- 14.
What should you do if the maintenance task you are working on appears to be too dangerous or unsafe?
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Terminate the operation according to the Knock It Off program.
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Complete the task and report your concerns to the Inspector General.
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Complete the task and report your concerns to the Maintenance Operations Officer.
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Allow a more experienced technician to complete the task.
Correct Answer
A. Terminate the operation according to the Knock It Off program.Explanation
If the maintenance task appears to be too dangerous or unsafe, the best course of action is to terminate the operation according to the Knock It Off program. This program is likely a safety protocol or procedure that is in place to ensure the well-being of the workers. By terminating the operation, it demonstrates a commitment to safety and prevents any potential accidents or injuries. Reporting concerns to the Inspector General or Maintenance Operations Officer may be necessary, but the immediate action should be to stop the task to avoid any harm. Allowing a more experienced technician to complete the task may not be the best option if the task is deemed unsafe.Rate this question:
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- 15.
What should you do if you believe you have a physical or mental condition that may impact safe job performance?
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Report to sick call so they can notify your shop.
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Immediately report your condition to your supervisor.
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Avoid all hazardous tasks until your condition improves.
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Ensure an equally qualified coworker can cover your hazardous tasks for the shift.
Correct Answer
A. Immediately report your condition to your supervisor.Explanation
If you believe you have a physical or mental condition that may impact safe job performance, it is important to immediately report your condition to your supervisor. By doing so, your supervisor can be aware of your condition and take appropriate measures to ensure your safety and the safety of others in the workplace. This may involve making necessary accommodations, providing additional support, or assigning alternative tasks that are suitable for your condition. Reporting to your supervisor allows for the implementation of necessary measures to mitigate any potential risks or hazards associated with your condition.Rate this question:
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- 16.
Why should you keep your tools free from rust, nicks, burrs, and breaks?
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So they look good during inspections.
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Because you will have to pay to replace them if you do not.
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So you do not have to complete all of the paperwork required to replace them.
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Because your efficiency is often a direct result of the condition of the tools you use.
Correct Answer
A. Because your efficiency is often a direct result of the condition of the tools you use.Explanation
Keeping tools free from rust, nicks, burrs, and breaks is important because the condition of the tools directly affects efficiency. Rust, nicks, burrs, and breaks can hinder the performance of the tools, making them less effective and potentially causing delays or errors in work. By maintaining the tools in good condition, efficiency can be maximized, leading to smoother and more productive work processes.Rate this question:
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- 17.
While using power tools, what safety guideline should you follow to ensure maximum benefits from the tools and to reduce the chances of serious injury?
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Minimize light in the work area to reduce glare.
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Inspect all portable power tools before using them.
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Clear a jammed power tool without disconnecting it from the power source.
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Use a damaged power cord only when necessary to accomplish the mission.
Correct Answer
A. Inspect all portable power tools before using them.Explanation
Inspecting all portable power tools before using them is an important safety guideline to ensure maximum benefits from the tools and reduce the chances of serious injury. By inspecting the tools, you can identify any potential issues such as damaged cords, loose parts, or malfunctioning mechanisms. This allows you to address these issues before using the tool, preventing accidents and ensuring that the tool is in proper working condition.Rate this question:
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- 18.
Why must all personnel know the location and on-off operation of the power distribution panels and power control switches in their work area?
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To shut down the equipment at the end of the shift.
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To demonstrate their proper use during a safety inspection.
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To instruct fire department personnel when they respond to a fire in the building.
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To disengage electrical circuits to equipment in the event of a fire or accidental electrical contact.
Correct Answer
A. To disengage electrical circuits to equipment in the event of a fire or accidental electrical contact.Explanation
All personnel must know the location and on-off operation of the power distribution panels and power control switches in their work area in order to disengage electrical circuits to equipment in the event of a fire or accidental electrical contact. This knowledge is crucial for ensuring the safety of both personnel and the equipment. By being able to quickly and effectively shut off power to the affected equipment, potential hazards can be minimized, and the risk of electrical fires or accidents can be reduced.Rate this question:
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- 19.
What is the recommended color coding for an electrical safety board?
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Dark green background with white letters and border.
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White background with dark green letters and border.
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Dark green background with red letters and border.
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White background with red letters and border.
Correct Answer
A. Dark green background with white letters and border.Explanation
The recommended color coding for an electrical safety board is a dark green background with white letters and border. This color combination is commonly used to indicate safety equipment or areas related to electrical systems. The dark green background helps to make the board easily noticeable, while the white letters and border provide good contrast and visibility. Using red letters and border on a dark green background may not provide the same level of visibility and contrast, making it less effective for a safety board. Similarly, using a white background with dark green letters and border may not be as noticeable and may not convey the same level of importance as the recommended color coding.Rate this question:
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- 20.
Why should you not rely on color coding of compressed gas cylinders to identify the contents?
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The colors fade easily.
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Only large tanks are color coded.
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Only the small tanks are color coded.
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Different manufacturers use different color codes.
Correct Answer
A. Different manufacturers use different color codes.Explanation
Relying on color coding of compressed gas cylinders to identify the contents is not reliable because different manufacturers use different color codes. This means that the same color may represent different contents depending on the manufacturer, leading to confusion and potential safety risks. Therefore, it is important to use other methods, such as labels or markings, to accurately identify the contents of compressed gas cylinders.Rate this question:
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- 21.
As part of the electromagnetic frequency (EMF) Safety Program, who must ensure required warning signs and safety devices are in place and functional prior to beginning work?
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Individual.
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Supervisor.
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Squadron safety officer.
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Bioenvironmental engineer (BEE).
Correct Answer
A. Individual.Explanation
As part of the electromagnetic frequency (EMF) Safety Program, it is the responsibility of the individual to ensure that required warning signs and safety devices are in place and functional before starting work. This means that each person involved in the work must take personal accountability for ensuring that the necessary precautions are taken to protect themselves and others from potential EMF hazards. This includes checking and maintaining the warning signs and safety devices to minimize the risk of exposure to electromagnetic frequencies.Rate this question:
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- 22.
Hoists must be attached to
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Well-defined dead-end points capable of handling the load.
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Lifeline attach points designed for hoists.
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Load-tested attach points.
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A free standing A-frame.
Correct Answer
A. Well-defined dead-end points capable of handling the load.Explanation
Hoists need to be attached to well-defined dead-end points that are capable of handling the load because these points provide stability and strength. The dead-end points ensure that the hoist remains secure and prevents any accidents or mishaps. It is essential to have a clear and defined attachment point that can handle the weight and pressure of the load being lifted. This ensures the safety of both the hoist and the load being lifted.Rate this question:
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- 23.
How is a cathode ray tube (CRT) placed on a work surface?
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Face up.
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On its side.
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Face down.
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In an approved holding fixture.
Correct Answer
A. Face down.Explanation
A cathode ray tube (CRT) is placed face down on a work surface to prevent damage to the delicate screen and internal components. This positioning ensures that the weight of the tube is distributed evenly, preventing any potential stress on the fragile glass screen. Additionally, placing the CRT face down allows for easier access to the connectors and other components located on the back of the tube.Rate this question:
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- 24.
What should you do if you inadvertently sent an E-mail with classified information over an unclassified system?
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Notify your security manager immediately.
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Call the recipient(s) to ensure it gets deleted.
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Delete it from your ―sent mail‖ and reboot your computer.
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Notify the Base Command Post.
Correct Answer
A. Notify your security manager immediately.Explanation
If you inadvertently sent an email with classified information over an unclassified system, the correct course of action is to notify your security manager immediately. This is important because the security manager can take appropriate measures to mitigate any potential risks associated with the unauthorized disclosure of classified information. They can also provide guidance on any further actions that need to be taken to address the situation effectively.Rate this question:
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- 25.
If a classified document contains TOP SECRET information, which of the following portion marking statements apply?
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Only the TOP SECRET portions will be marked.
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Portion markings are not used for TOP SECRET documents.
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Only the TOP SECRET and UNCLASSIFIED portions will be marked.
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Every portion of the document will be marked to show the highest level of classification that it contains.
Correct Answer
A. Every portion of the document will be marked to show the highest level of classification that it contains.Explanation
Every portion of the document will be marked to show the highest level of classification that it contains. This means that if a classified document contains TOP SECRET information, every part of the document, even if it is not classified, will be marked to indicate the highest level of classification present. This ensures that individuals handling the document are aware of the sensitive information contained within it and can take appropriate measures to protect it.Rate this question:
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- 26.
Which type of publication is used to extend or add material to publications issued by higher headquarters?
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Air Force manual.
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Air Force instruction.
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Operating instruction.
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Air Force supplement.
Correct Answer
A. Air Force supplement.Explanation
An Air Force supplement is used to extend or add material to publications issued by higher headquarters. It provides additional guidance or information that is specific to the Air Force and is intended to supplement existing publications. This type of publication is commonly used to address unique or specialized requirements that are not covered in the higher headquarters' publications.Rate this question:
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- 27.
Which publication is made of compiled information, arranged in systematic order?
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Pamphlet.
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Directory.
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Handbook.
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Visual aid.
Correct Answer
A. Directory.Explanation
A directory is a publication that is made of compiled information, arranged in a systematic order. It typically contains a list of names, addresses, and contact information for individuals or organizations. This organized format allows for easy access and reference to specific information. A pamphlet is a small booklet that provides information on a specific topic, while a handbook is a concise reference guide. A visual aid, on the other hand, is a tool used to enhance understanding through visual representation.Rate this question:
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- 28.
What type of publication is a graphical illustration that may be permanent or temporary?
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Bulletin.
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Pamphlet.
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Visual aid.
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Recurring publication.
Correct Answer
A. Visual aid.Explanation
A graphical illustration that may be permanent or temporary is commonly known as a visual aid. Visual aids are used to enhance presentations or convey information in a visual format, such as charts, graphs, or images. They can be in the form of posters, slides, or digital media, and are often used to support or clarify verbal information. Unlike bulletins, pamphlets, or recurring publications, visual aids are specifically designed to provide a visual representation of information, making them a suitable answer for this question.Rate this question:
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- 29.
What type of technical order (TO) update is issued when changed material affects more than 80 percent of the text?
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Change.
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Revision.
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Rescission.
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Supplement.
Correct Answer
A. Revision.Explanation
When changed material affects more than 80 percent of the text in a technical order (TO), a revision is issued. A revision involves making significant changes to the content of the TO to ensure that it remains accurate and up to date. This type of update is necessary when a large portion of the information provided in the TO has changed and needs to be revised to reflect the new information.Rate this question:
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- 30.
By what means are time compliance technical order (TCTO) instructions distributed when the urgency of conditions doesn’t allow time for printing and distribution of instructions in formal technical order (TO) format?
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Interim TCTO.
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Routine TCTO.
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Depot-level accomplishment.
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Intermediate-level accomplishment.
Correct Answer
A. Interim TCTO.Explanation
Interim TCTO instructions are distributed when there is an urgency to address the conditions but there is not enough time for printing and distribution of formal TO format instructions. Interim TCTOs are temporary instructions that provide immediate guidance and allow for quick implementation of necessary actions. These instructions are typically issued in a less formal format to expedite the distribution process and ensure that the urgent conditions are addressed promptly.Rate this question:
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- 31.
The responsibility to ensure your recommended technical order (TO) change is valid and warrants submittal rests with your
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Supervisor.
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Commander.
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Section chief.
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Quality assurance inspector.
Correct Answer
A. Supervisor.Explanation
The responsibility to ensure your recommended technical order (TO) change is valid and warrants submittal rests with your supervisor. The supervisor is responsible for overseeing the work of their subordinates and ensuring that any changes or recommendations made are valid and meet the necessary criteria before being submitted. They have the authority and knowledge to assess the validity of the TO change and make the final decision on whether it should be submitted or not.Rate this question:
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- 32.
What are the three types of maintenance levels?
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Depot, intermediate, and organizational.
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Organizational, contract, and condemned.
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On-equipment, off-equipment, and intermediate.
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Depot, contract, and not reparable this station (NRTS).
Correct Answer
A. Depot, intermediate, and organizational.Explanation
The three types of maintenance levels are depot, intermediate, and organizational. Depot maintenance refers to the repair and overhaul of equipment at a central facility. Intermediate maintenance involves repairs and maintenance performed at a level between depot and organizational, usually at a regional or field level. Organizational maintenance is the lowest level of maintenance and is performed by the operators or crew of the equipment.Rate this question:
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- 33.
Who is responsible for designating flight chiefs?
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Wing commander.
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Group commander.
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Squadron commander.
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Maintenance superintendent.
Correct Answer
A. Squadron commander.Explanation
The squadron commander is responsible for designating flight chiefs. The squadron commander is a senior officer who oversees the operations and administration of a squadron. They have the authority to assign roles and responsibilities within the squadron, including designating flight chiefs. Flight chiefs are typically responsible for managing and coordinating the activities of a specific flight within the squadron.Rate this question:
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- 34.
Which flight performs off-equipment maintenance on communication-navigation, electronic warfare, guidance control, airborne photographic, and sensor systems?
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Avionics.
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Munitions.
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Armament.
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Aerospace ground equipment (AGE).
Correct Answer
A. Avionics.Explanation
Avionics is the correct answer because avionics refers to the electronic systems used in aircraft, including communication-navigation, electronic warfare, guidance control, airborne photographic, and sensor systems. Avionics technicians are responsible for the maintenance and repair of these systems, ensuring that they are functioning properly and safely. Munitions, armament, and aerospace ground equipment (AGE) are not directly related to the maintenance of these specific systems.Rate this question:
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- 35.
Responsibility for supply discipline rests with
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Supply personnel.
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The squadron commander.
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The supply squadron commander.
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All military and civilian employees.
Correct Answer
A. All military and civilian employees.Explanation
The responsibility for supply discipline rests with all military and civilian employees. This means that everyone, regardless of their role or position, is accountable for maintaining discipline and ensuring proper supply management. It emphasizes the importance of every individual's commitment to following established procedures, regulations, and guidelines to prevent any misuse, loss, or mishandling of supplies. This collective responsibility helps to maintain an efficient and effective supply chain within the organization.Rate this question:
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- 36.
The procedures for submitting a deficiency report (DR) are found in Technical Order (TO)
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00–5–2.
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00–20–7.
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00–25–234.
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00–35D–54.
Correct Answer
A. 00–35D–54.Explanation
The correct answer is 00–35D–54. This is because the question asks for the Technical Order (TO) that contains the procedures for submitting a deficiency report (DR). Among the options provided, 00–35D–54 is the only one that matches this requirement.Rate this question:
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- 37.
Who does the responsibility for preparing a draft deficiency report (DR) rests with?
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Originator.
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Single manager.
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Support point personnel.
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Quality assurance (QA).
Correct Answer
A. Originator.Explanation
The responsibility for preparing a draft deficiency report (DR) rests with the originator. The originator is the person who identifies the deficiency and is responsible for documenting it in the report. They are the ones who gather the necessary information, analyze the problem, and propose potential solutions. The originator plays a crucial role in ensuring that the deficiency is properly reported and addressed.Rate this question:
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- 38.
If triboelectrification occurs due to friction between two bodies, the result is that
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Both bodies lose electrons.
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Both bodies gain electrons.
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There is no change in electrons.
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One body gains electrons and one body loses electrons.
Correct Answer
A. One body gains electrons and one body loses electrons.Explanation
When triboelectrification occurs due to friction between two bodies, it results in one body gaining electrons and the other body losing electrons. This is because when two materials come into contact and rub against each other, the friction causes the transfer of electrons from one material to another. The material that gains electrons becomes negatively charged, while the material that loses electrons becomes positively charged. This transfer of electrons is what leads to the phenomenon of triboelectrification.Rate this question:
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- 39.
Increased humidity helps to dissipate electrostatic charges by
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Increasing surface conductivity.
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Decreasing surface conductivity.
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Increasing component insulation.
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Decreasing component insulation.
Correct Answer
A. Increasing surface conductivity.Explanation
Increased humidity helps to dissipate electrostatic charges by increasing surface conductivity. When the air is more humid, it contains more moisture which can form a thin layer on the surface of objects. This moisture acts as a conductor, allowing the charges to flow more easily and preventing them from building up. As a result, the surface conductivity increases, reducing the likelihood of static electricity buildup and discharge.Rate this question:
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- 40.
The electrostatic voltage sensitivity threshold of the human body is approximately
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500 volts.
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1,200 volts.
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3,500 volts.
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4,500 volts.
Correct Answer
A. 3,500 volts.Explanation
The electrostatic voltage sensitivity threshold of the human body refers to the amount of voltage that can be felt by a person. In this case, the correct answer is 3,500 volts. This means that if the voltage exceeds this threshold, a person will be able to perceive it. The other options, 500 volts, 1,200 volts, and 4,500 volts, are not the correct answers as they do not match the given threshold.Rate this question:
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- 41.
If electrostatic discharge-sensitive (ESDS) components are mounted on a circuit board, then the
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Components are still susceptible to electrostatic discharge (ESD) damage.
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Circuit board forms an electrostatic shield, protecting the components.
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Circuit board forms a static drain, protecting the components.
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Components are no longer susceptible to ESD damage.
Correct Answer
A. Components are still susceptible to electrostatic discharge (ESD) damage.Explanation
When electrostatic discharge-sensitive (ESDS) components are mounted on a circuit board, they are still susceptible to electrostatic discharge (ESD) damage. This means that even though they are mounted on the board, they can still be affected by ESD and potentially be damaged. The circuit board itself does not provide protection or act as a shield or static drain for the components. Therefore, the components remain vulnerable to ESD damage.Rate this question:
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- 42.
Topical antistats should not be used on electronic parts or printed circuit boards because they
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Harden and cause cracked runs.
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Hasten the formation of surface fungus.
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May form current leakage paths that cause malfunctions.
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Form surface fungus on parts not completely dipped in the antistat.
Correct Answer
A. May form current leakage paths that cause malfunctions.Explanation
Topical antistats should not be used on electronic parts or printed circuit boards because they may form current leakage paths that cause malfunctions. This is because the antistat, when applied topically, can create conductive paths between different components or traces on the circuit board. These unintended paths can lead to the flow of electrical current where it shouldn't be, causing malfunctions or even damage to the electronic parts. Therefore, it is important to avoid using topical antistats on electronic parts to prevent the formation of these current leakage paths.Rate this question:
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- 43.
If two pounds of force is applied to the handle end of a 5-inch wrench, how much torque has been developed at the bolt end of the wrench?
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2 ½ inch-pounds.
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5-inch-pounds.
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10-inch-pounds.
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20-inch-pounds.
Correct Answer
A. 10-inch-pounds.Explanation
Torque is calculated by multiplying the force applied by the distance from the pivot point. In this case, the force applied is 2 pounds and the distance from the pivot point is 5 inches. Therefore, the torque developed at the bolt end of the wrench is 2 pounds multiplied by 5 inches, which equals 10 inch-pounds.Rate this question:
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- 44.
When would you use a torque wrench to break loose a bolt?
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Never.
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Whenever the bolt is overtightened.
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When using a torque wrench extender.
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When it is too tight to use a standard break-away wrench.
Correct Answer
A. Never.Explanation
A torque wrench is used to tighten bolts to a specific torque value, ensuring that they are neither too loose nor too tight. It is not meant to be used to break loose bolts. To break loose a bolt, a standard break-away wrench or a breaker bar is typically used. Therefore, the correct answer is "Never" as a torque wrench is not used for breaking loose bolts.Rate this question:
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- 45.
Each division of the oscilloscope faceplate is
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One-half inch square.
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One-quarter inch square.
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One centimeter square.
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One millimeter square.
Correct Answer
A. One centimeter square.Explanation
The divisions on the oscilloscope faceplate are one centimeter square. This means that each division on the faceplate measures one centimeter in both width and height. The divisions are used to measure and analyze the waveforms displayed on the oscilloscope screen.Rate this question:
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- 46.
The horizontal divisions of an oscilloscope faceplate are calibrated to the settings of the
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TIME/DIV control.
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VOLTS/DIV control.
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AC-GND-DC switch.
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VERT MODE switch.
Correct Answer
A. TIME/DIV control.Explanation
The horizontal divisions of an oscilloscope faceplate are calibrated to the settings of the TIME/DIV control. This control allows the user to adjust the time scale on the oscilloscope, determining the amount of time represented by each horizontal division on the display. By changing the TIME/DIV control, the user can zoom in or out on the waveform being displayed, making it easier to analyze and measure different aspects of the signal. Therefore, the calibration of the horizontal divisions is directly linked to the TIME/DIV control.Rate this question:
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- 47.
Before beginning any measurement with an oscilloscope, you must ensure the probe you are going to use is
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Set to +10 volts direct current (VDC).
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Set to –10 VDC.
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Calibrated correctly.
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Adjusted to its maximum setting.
Correct Answer
A. Calibrated correctly.Explanation
Before beginning any measurement with an oscilloscope, it is important to ensure that the probe you are going to use is calibrated correctly. Calibration ensures that the probe accurately measures and displays the voltage levels being measured. This is crucial for obtaining accurate and reliable measurements with the oscilloscope.Rate this question:
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- 48.
When measuring time on an oscilloscope, multiply the trace distance between reference points by the setting of the
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TIME/DIV control.
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VOLTS/DIV control.
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AC-GND-DC switch.
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VERT MODE switch.
Correct Answer
A. TIME/DIV control.Explanation
The correct answer is TIME/DIV control. When measuring time on an oscilloscope, the TIME/DIV control is used to adjust the time scale or the amount of time represented by each horizontal division on the screen. By multiplying the trace distance between reference points by the setting of the TIME/DIV control, the exact time duration between those points can be determined. The other options mentioned, such as VOLTS/DIV control, AC-GND-DC switch, and VERT MODE switch, are not directly related to measuring time on an oscilloscope.Rate this question:
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- 49.
Frequency is determined by the formula
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F=1/T
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F=2/T
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F=1/P
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F=2/P
Correct Answer
A. F=1/TExplanation
The given formula states that frequency (F) is equal to 1 divided by the period (T). Frequency is a measure of how many cycles of a wave occur in a given time period, while the period is the time it takes for one complete cycle to occur. Therefore, the correct answer is F=1/T, as it accurately represents the relationship between frequency and period.Rate this question:
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Current Version
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Mar 21, 2023Quiz Edited by
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Sep 08, 2015Quiz Created by
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