Avionics Test Station And Aircraft Component

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1. How does the bioenvironmental office determine the noise exposure level of a work area?

Explanation

The bioenvironmental office determines the noise exposure level of a work area by using monitoring equipment worn by employees in the work area. This method allows for a more accurate assessment of the actual noise levels experienced by the workers, as it takes into account factors such as the proximity to the noise source and the duration of exposure. Stationary noise recording devices may not capture all the variations in noise levels throughout the work area, while noise level tables and manufacturer's documentation may not reflect the actual conditions in the specific work environment.

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About This Quiz
Avionics Quizzes & Trivia

Avionics Test Station and Components specialists are responsible for ensuring that these systems remain perfectly calibrated. These professionals inspect and maintain everything from aircraft radar and weapons control... see moreto the testing equipment essential to the maintenance process. The test below is appropriate for people undergoing the training. Give it a try! see less

2. When maintenance data identifies an item as off-equipment, it is because

Explanation

When maintenance data identifies an item as off-equipment, it means that the item has been removed from an end item. This could be a subassembly or component that has been taken out for repair or replacement. The other options are not relevant to the concept of an item being identified as off-equipment.

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3. What equipment red status symbol is used to indicate that an operational check is due?

Explanation

The dash symbol is used to indicate that an operational check is due. This is commonly seen in equipment maintenance, where a dash symbol is used to remind users that a check or inspection needs to be performed. It serves as a visual reminder that the equipment needs attention and helps ensure that necessary maintenance tasks are not overlooked.

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4. Providing a visual display for measuring voltage and frequency is a function of the

Explanation

An oscilloscope is a device used for visualizing electrical signals in the form of waveforms. It can measure voltage and frequency by displaying the signals on a screen, allowing users to analyze and interpret the data. A counter is used to measure the frequency of signals, but it does not provide a visual display. A power meter measures the power consumption of electrical devices, not voltage and frequency. A digital multimeter can measure voltage and frequency, but it does not provide a visual display like an oscilloscope. Therefore, the correct answer is the oscilloscope.

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5. Within the general-purpose interface test module (GPITM) general-purpose interface unit (GPIU), if multiple built-in test (BIT) failures occur for multiple circuit card assemblies (CCA) and the interface (I/F) chassis bus extender is one of the CCAs that has failed BIT, what action should be taken?

Explanation

If multiple built-in test (BIT) failures occur for multiple circuit card assemblies (CCA) and the interface (I/F) chassis bus extender is one of the CCAs that has failed BIT, the correct action to take is to ignore all other CCA BIT failures until the I/F chassis bus extender CCA fail is corrected. This means that the focus should be on fixing the issue with the I/F chassis bus extender CCA before addressing any other failures.

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6. The multisystem extension interface (MXI) bus has two cables: a point-to-point and a

Explanation

The correct answer is multidrop. The MXI bus has two cables, a point-to-point cable and a multidrop cable. A point-to-point cable connects two devices directly, while a multidrop cable allows multiple devices to be connected in a daisy-chain configuration. In the case of the MXI bus, the multidrop cable enables multiple devices to communicate with a single controller, allowing for efficient data transfer and control.

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7. An electrostatic discharge (ESD) protected area is used when you are

Explanation

An electrostatic discharge (ESD) protected area is used when you are handling electrostatic discharge-sensitive (ESDS) items outside their protective packaging. This means that when you are working with ESDS items that are not in their protective packaging, such as when you are assembling, inspecting, or repairing them, you need to be in an ESD protected area. This area is designed to minimize the risk of electrostatic discharge that could damage the sensitive electronic components. It typically includes measures such as grounding, anti-static flooring, and the use of ESD-safe equipment and tools to prevent static electricity buildup and discharge.

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8. What power is distributed to the upgraded systems test bench components and radar units under test (UUT)?

Explanation

The power distributed to the upgraded systems test bench components is 115V 60 Hz, while the power distributed to the radar units under test (UUT) is 115V 400 Hz.

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9. In a portable automatic test equipment calibrator (PATEC) calibration, which error is not associated with a systematic error?

Explanation

In a portable automatic test equipment calibrator (PATEC) calibration, random error is not associated with a systematic error. Random errors occur due to unpredictable factors and can cause measurements to vary in an unpredictable manner. On the other hand, systematic errors are consistent and predictable, often caused by flaws in the calibration process or equipment. Therefore, random error is the correct answer as it is not associated with systematic error in PATEC calibration.

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10. On the electronic systems test set (ESTS), in what slot of the radio frequency (RF) versatile modular European (VME) extension for instrumentation (VXI) assembly (A5) is the VXI bus extender module (A5A1) located?

Explanation

not-available-via-ai

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11. The radio-frequency component used to prevent any feedback in a circuit is the

Explanation

An isolator is a radio-frequency component that is used to prevent any feedback in a circuit. It allows the signal to flow in only one direction, blocking any reflected signals from returning back to the source. This helps in preventing oscillations and instability in the circuit, ensuring proper functioning and preventing damage to the components. Attenuator, band-pass filter, and directional coupler are different components with different functions and do not specifically address the issue of preventing feedback in a circuit.

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12. The power meter

Explanation

The correct answer is "can be operated manually or automatically." This means that the power meter can be controlled either by manual operation or by automated processes. It provides the flexibility for users to choose the preferred mode of operation based on their needs and preferences. Whether they want to control it manually or automate the process, the power meter allows for both options.

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13. How is your shop identified to receive revisions or updates for the computer programs you use?

Explanation

The correct answer is "By the Automated Computer Program Identification Number System (ACPINS) distribution list." This means that the shop is identified to receive revisions or updates for the computer programs they use through the ACPINS distribution list. This list likely includes the relevant information and updates for the computer programs used by the shop, ensuring that they stay up to date with any revisions or updates.

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14. As part of the electromagnetic frequency (EMF) Safety Program, who must ensure required warning signs and safety devices are in place and functional prior to beginning work?

Explanation

As part of the electromagnetic frequency (EMF) Safety Program, it is the responsibility of the individual to ensure that required warning signs and safety devices are in place and functional before starting work. This means that each person involved in the work must take personal accountability for ensuring that the necessary precautions are taken to protect themselves and others from potential EMF hazards. This includes checking and maintaining the warning signs and safety devices to minimize the risk of exposure to electromagnetic frequencies.

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15. Frequency is determined by the formula

Explanation

The given formula states that frequency (F) is equal to 1 divided by the period (T). Frequency is a measure of how many cycles of a wave occur in a given time period, while the period is the time it takes for one complete cycle to occur. Therefore, the correct answer is F=1/T, as it accurately represents the relationship between frequency and period.

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16. A spectrum analyzer is simply a receiver with the output of

Explanation

A spectrum analyzer is a device used to measure and analyze the frequency spectrum of a signal. It takes in the signal and displays it on a cathode-ray tube (CRT) display instead of using a speaker. The CRT display allows for visual representation of the signal's frequency components, making it easier to analyze and interpret the data.

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17. Phase shifting of a pulsed radio frequency (RF) input by 0 and 180° defines

Explanation

Phase shifting of a pulsed RF input by 0 and 180° refers to biphase modulation. In biphase modulation, the phase of the RF signal is shifted between two different values, typically 0 and 180°. This modulation technique is commonly used in digital communication systems to encode data onto the RF carrier signal. By shifting the phase of the signal, the data can be represented as different phase states, allowing for efficient transmission and decoding of information.

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18. What calibration sticker is normally used to indicate that a piece of test equipment has been calibrated?

Explanation

The AFTO Form 108 is the calibration sticker that is normally used to indicate that a piece of test equipment has been calibrated. This form is commonly used in the United States Air Force to track and document calibration activities. The AFTO Form 255 is not a calibration sticker, but rather a maintenance data collection form. The DD Form 1574 and DD Form 1575 are also not calibration stickers, but rather forms used for documenting the transfer and receipt of property.

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19. Hoists must be attached to

Explanation

Hoists need to be attached to well-defined dead-end points that are capable of handling the load because these points provide stability and strength. The dead-end points ensure that the hoist remains secure and prevents any accidents or mishaps. It is essential to have a clear and defined attachment point that can handle the weight and pressure of the load being lifted. This ensures the safety of both the hoist and the load being lifted.

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20. How is a cathode ray tube (CRT) placed on a work surface?

Explanation

A cathode ray tube (CRT) is placed face down on a work surface to prevent damage to the delicate screen and internal components. This positioning ensures that the weight of the tube is distributed evenly, preventing any potential stress on the fragile glass screen. Additionally, placing the CRT face down allows for easier access to the connectors and other components located on the back of the tube.

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21. What type of power supply is computer-controlled to produce variable outputs?

Explanation

A computer-controlled power supply is able to produce variable outputs, meaning it can be programmed to provide different voltage levels as required. This allows for flexibility and customization in power supply, making it suitable for various applications. Therefore, the correct answer is programmable.

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22. What should you do if you inadvertently sent an E-mail with classified information over an unclassified system?

Explanation

If you inadvertently sent an email with classified information over an unclassified system, the correct course of action is to notify your security manager immediately. This is important because the security manager can take appropriate measures to mitigate any potential risks associated with the unauthorized disclosure of classified information. They can also provide guidance on any further actions that need to be taken to address the situation effectively.

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23. If a classified document contains TOP SECRET information, which of the following portion marking statements apply?

Explanation

Every portion of the document will be marked to show the highest level of classification that it contains. This means that if a classified document contains TOP SECRET information, every part of the document, even if it is not classified, will be marked to indicate the highest level of classification present. This ensures that individuals handling the document are aware of the sensitive information contained within it and can take appropriate measures to protect it.

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24. Which signal generator operates in the 20 hertz (Hz) to 20 kilohertz (KHz) frequency range?

Explanation

The signal generator that operates in the 20 Hz to 20 KHz frequency range is called the audiofrequency generator. It is specifically designed to generate signals within the audible range of human hearing, making it suitable for applications such as audio testing, sound system calibration, and music production. The other options, radiofrequency and microwave generators, operate at much higher frequencies and are used for different purposes, such as wireless communication and radar systems. The option "Reference" does not specify a specific type of signal generator and is therefore not the correct answer.

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25. What are the three types of maintenance levels?

Explanation

The three types of maintenance levels are depot, intermediate, and organizational. Depot maintenance refers to the repair and overhaul of equipment at a central facility. Intermediate maintenance involves repairs and maintenance performed at a level between depot and organizational, usually at a regional or field level. Organizational maintenance is the lowest level of maintenance and is performed by the operators or crew of the equipment.

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26. Which type of publication is used to extend or add material to publications issued by higher headquarters?

Explanation

An Air Force supplement is used to extend or add material to publications issued by higher headquarters. It provides additional guidance or information that is specific to the Air Force and is intended to supplement existing publications. This type of publication is commonly used to address unique or specialized requirements that are not covered in the higher headquarters' publications.

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27. Who is responsible for designating flight chiefs?

Explanation

The squadron commander is responsible for designating flight chiefs. The squadron commander is a senior officer who oversees the operations and administration of a squadron. They have the authority to assign roles and responsibilities within the squadron, including designating flight chiefs. Flight chiefs are typically responsible for managing and coordinating the activities of a specific flight within the squadron.

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28. Which publication is made of compiled information, arranged in systematic order?

Explanation

A directory is a publication that is made of compiled information, arranged in a systematic order. It typically contains a list of names, addresses, and contact information for individuals or organizations. This organized format allows for easy access and reference to specific information. A pamphlet is a small booklet that provides information on a specific topic, while a handbook is a concise reference guide. A visual aid, on the other hand, is a tool used to enhance understanding through visual representation.

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29. What type of publication is a graphical illustration that may be permanent or temporary?

Explanation

A graphical illustration that may be permanent or temporary is commonly known as a visual aid. Visual aids are used to enhance presentations or convey information in a visual format, such as charts, graphs, or images. They can be in the form of posters, slides, or digital media, and are often used to support or clarify verbal information. Unlike bulletins, pamphlets, or recurring publications, visual aids are specifically designed to provide a visual representation of information, making them a suitable answer for this question.

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30. Which flight performs off-equipment maintenance on communication-navigation, electronic warfare, guidance control, airborne photographic, and sensor systems?

Explanation

Avionics is the correct answer because avionics refers to the electronic systems used in aircraft, including communication-navigation, electronic warfare, guidance control, airborne photographic, and sensor systems. Avionics technicians are responsible for the maintenance and repair of these systems, ensuring that they are functioning properly and safely. Munitions, armament, and aerospace ground equipment (AGE) are not directly related to the maintenance of these specific systems.

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31. Responsibility for supply discipline rests with

Explanation

The responsibility for supply discipline rests with all military and civilian employees. This means that everyone, regardless of their role or position, is accountable for maintaining discipline and ensuring proper supply management. It emphasizes the importance of every individual's commitment to following established procedures, regulations, and guidelines to prevent any misuse, loss, or mishandling of supplies. This collective responsibility helps to maintain an efficient and effective supply chain within the organization.

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32. What type of technical order (TO) update is issued when changed material affects more than 80 percent of the text?

Explanation

When changed material affects more than 80 percent of the text in a technical order (TO), a revision is issued. A revision involves making significant changes to the content of the TO to ensure that it remains accurate and up to date. This type of update is necessary when a large portion of the information provided in the TO has changed and needs to be revised to reflect the new information.

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33. Each device on the Institute of Electrical and Electronic Engineers (IEEE)–488 bus has a unique bus address that starts at 0 and goes up to

Explanation

Each device on the IEEE-488 bus has a unique bus address that starts at 0 and goes up to 30.

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34. What process in the military standard number (MIL–STD)–1553B data bus, transmits information from several sources through one system with different signals staggered in time to form a composite pulse train?

Explanation

In the MIL-STD-1553B data bus, multiplexing is the process that transmits information from several sources through one system with different signals staggered in time to form a composite pulse train. This technique allows for efficient sharing of the data bus by multiple devices, enabling them to transmit their data sequentially without interference. Multiplexing ensures that each source gets its turn to transmit data, thereby optimizing the utilization of the data bus and improving overall system performance.

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35. What is always the first section of an Abbreviated Test Language for All Systems (ATLAS) program?

Explanation

The first section of an Abbreviated Test Language for All Systems (ATLAS) program is always the preamble structure. The preamble structure typically contains information about the program, such as the program name, author, purpose, and any necessary declarations or initializations. It serves as an introduction to the program and sets the stage for the rest of the code.

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36. The procedures for submitting a deficiency report (DR) are found in Technical Order (TO)

Explanation

The correct answer is 00–35D–54. This is because the question asks for the Technical Order (TO) that contains the procedures for submitting a deficiency report (DR). Among the options provided, 00–35D–54 is the only one that matches this requirement.

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37. Who does the responsibility for preparing a draft deficiency report (DR) rests with?

Explanation

The responsibility for preparing a draft deficiency report (DR) rests with the originator. The originator is the person who identifies the deficiency and is responsible for documenting it in the report. They are the ones who gather the necessary information, analyze the problem, and propose potential solutions. The originator plays a crucial role in ensuring that the deficiency is properly reported and addressed.

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38. Stabilators provide aircraft

Explanation

Stabilators are control surfaces on an aircraft that combine the functions of both a stabilizer and an elevator. They provide pitch control by changing the angle of the stabilator, which in turn changes the aircraft's pitch attitude. Additionally, stabilators aid in roll control by working in conjunction with ailerons to help the aircraft roll about its longitudinal axis. Therefore, the correct answer is that stabilators provide pitch control and aid in roll control.

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39. By what means are time compliance technical order (TCTO) instructions distributed when the urgency of conditions doesn't allow time for printing and distribution of instructions in formal technical order (TO) format?

Explanation

Interim TCTO instructions are distributed when there is an urgency to address the conditions but there is not enough time for printing and distribution of formal TO format instructions. Interim TCTOs are temporary instructions that provide immediate guidance and allow for quick implementation of necessary actions. These instructions are typically issued in a less formal format to expedite the distribution process and ensure that the urgent conditions are addressed promptly.

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40. If triboelectrification occurs due to friction between two bodies, the result is that

Explanation

When triboelectrification occurs due to friction between two bodies, it results in one body gaining electrons and the other body losing electrons. This is because when two materials come into contact and rub against each other, the friction causes the transfer of electrons from one material to another. The material that gains electrons becomes negatively charged, while the material that loses electrons becomes positively charged. This transfer of electrons is what leads to the phenomenon of triboelectrification.

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41. What should you do if the maintenance task you are working on appears to be too dangerous or unsafe?

Explanation

If the maintenance task appears to be too dangerous or unsafe, the best course of action is to terminate the operation according to the Knock It Off program. This program is likely a safety protocol or procedure that is in place to ensure the well-being of the workers. By terminating the operation, it demonstrates a commitment to safety and prevents any potential accidents or injuries. Reporting concerns to the Inspector General or Maintenance Operations Officer may be necessary, but the immediate action should be to stop the task to avoid any harm. Allowing a more experienced technician to complete the task may not be the best option if the task is deemed unsafe.

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42. Increased humidity helps to dissipate electrostatic charges by

Explanation

Increased humidity helps to dissipate electrostatic charges by increasing surface conductivity. When the air is more humid, it contains more moisture which can form a thin layer on the surface of objects. This moisture acts as a conductor, allowing the charges to flow more easily and preventing them from building up. As a result, the surface conductivity increases, reducing the likelihood of static electricity buildup and discharge.

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43. The electrostatic voltage sensitivity threshold of the human body is approximately

Explanation

The electrostatic voltage sensitivity threshold of the human body refers to the amount of voltage that can be felt by a person. In this case, the correct answer is 3,500 volts. This means that if the voltage exceeds this threshold, a person will be able to perceive it. The other options, 500 volts, 1,200 volts, and 4,500 volts, are not the correct answers as they do not match the given threshold.

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44. If electrostatic discharge-sensitive (ESDS) components are mounted on a circuit board, then the

Explanation

When electrostatic discharge-sensitive (ESDS) components are mounted on a circuit board, they are still susceptible to electrostatic discharge (ESD) damage. This means that even though they are mounted on the board, they can still be affected by ESD and potentially be damaged. The circuit board itself does not provide protection or act as a shield or static drain for the components. Therefore, the components remain vulnerable to ESD damage.

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45. Radar navigation systems associated with the weapons systems normally facilitate the computerized release of onboard

Explanation

Radar navigation systems are commonly used in weapons systems to guide and target projectiles. Rockets, missiles, and bombs are all types of projectiles that can be released from onboard weapons systems. However, nuclear bombs are not typically released using radar navigation systems, as they are usually deployed by strategic bombers or ballistic missiles. Therefore, the most likely correct answer is missiles, as they are commonly released using radar navigation systems in weapons systems.

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46. In the intercommunications system, which type of communication does not require the use of a push-to-talk switch to activate the microphone (MIC)?

Explanation

The correct answer is HOT-MIC. In an intercommunications system, a HOT-MIC communication does not require the use of a push-to-talk switch to activate the microphone. This means that the microphone is always active and can pick up sounds without the need for manual activation. This type of communication is commonly used in situations where constant communication is necessary, such as in aviation or military applications.

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47. On the Advanced Digital Test Station, which time interval counters (TIC) and digitizers must be removed and replaced as a set because of factory calibration?

Explanation

The correct answer is One VM2164 two-channel TIC, two VM2601 14-bit digitizers, and the SMP1200-S–11267 attenuator. This set of components must be removed and replaced together because they are factory calibrated. This means that they have been calibrated as a set and their performance is optimized when used together. If any of these components were replaced individually, the system may not function correctly or provide accurate measurements. Therefore, it is important to replace them as a set to maintain the accuracy and performance of the Advanced Digital Test Station.

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48. What should you do if you believe you have a physical or mental condition that may impact safe job performance?

Explanation

If you believe you have a physical or mental condition that may impact safe job performance, it is important to immediately report your condition to your supervisor. By doing so, your supervisor can be aware of your condition and take appropriate measures to ensure your safety and the safety of others in the workplace. This may involve making necessary accommodations, providing additional support, or assigning alternative tasks that are suitable for your condition. Reporting to your supervisor allows for the implementation of necessary measures to mitigate any potential risks or hazards associated with your condition.

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49. What unit displays all attack symbology and steering for weapons delivery and night terrain following operations?

Explanation

The head-up display (HUD) is a unit that displays all attack symbology and steering for weapons delivery and night terrain following operations. It provides crucial information to the pilot without requiring them to look down at the instrument panel, allowing them to maintain situational awareness and focus on the mission at hand. The HUD projects the information onto the windshield or a transparent screen, ensuring that the pilot can keep their eyes on the outside world while still accessing vital data.

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50. Topical antistats should not be used on electronic parts or printed circuit boards because they

Explanation

Topical antistats should not be used on electronic parts or printed circuit boards because they may form current leakage paths that cause malfunctions. This is because the antistat, when applied topically, can create conductive paths between different components or traces on the circuit board. These unintended paths can lead to the flow of electrical current where it shouldn't be, causing malfunctions or even damage to the electronic parts. Therefore, it is important to avoid using topical antistats on electronic parts to prevent the formation of these current leakage paths.

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51. If two pounds of force is applied to the handle end of a 5-inch wrench, how much torque has been developed at the bolt end of the wrench?

Explanation

Torque is calculated by multiplying the force applied by the distance from the pivot point. In this case, the force applied is 2 pounds and the distance from the pivot point is 5 inches. Therefore, the torque developed at the bolt end of the wrench is 2 pounds multiplied by 5 inches, which equals 10 inch-pounds.

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52. Which is a Department of Defense (DOD)-owned network approved for classified data transfer?

Explanation

SIPRNET is a Department of Defense (DOD)-owned network that is approved for classified data transfer. It is a secure network used for communication and information sharing among authorized personnel within the DOD and other government agencies. NIPRNET, on the other hand, is an unclassified network used for non-sensitive information. INTERNET and INTRANET are not specifically owned or approved by the DOD for classified data transfer.

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53. Why should you keep your tools free from rust, nicks, burrs, and breaks?

Explanation

Keeping tools free from rust, nicks, burrs, and breaks is important because the condition of the tools directly affects efficiency. Rust, nicks, burrs, and breaks can hinder the performance of the tools, making them less effective and potentially causing delays or errors in work. By maintaining the tools in good condition, efficiency can be maximized, leading to smoother and more productive work processes.

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54. While using power tools, what safety guideline should you follow to ensure maximum benefits from the tools and to reduce the chances of serious injury?

Explanation

Inspecting all portable power tools before using them is an important safety guideline to ensure maximum benefits from the tools and reduce the chances of serious injury. By inspecting the tools, you can identify any potential issues such as damaged cords, loose parts, or malfunctioning mechanisms. This allows you to address these issues before using the tool, preventing accidents and ensuring that the tool is in proper working condition.

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55. What control system component is responsible for evaluating test data on the intermediate automatic test equipment (IATE) test station?

Explanation

The computer is responsible for evaluating test data on the intermediate automatic test equipment (IATE) test station. It is the component that processes and analyzes the test data collected by the IATE system. The computer receives the data from various sources, such as the test module adapter and other connected devices, and then performs calculations and comparisons to determine the test results. It is an essential component in the control system of the IATE test station, as it plays a crucial role in interpreting and making decisions based on the test data.

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56. When would you use a torque wrench to break loose a bolt?

Explanation

A torque wrench is used to tighten bolts to a specific torque value, ensuring that they are neither too loose nor too tight. It is not meant to be used to break loose bolts. To break loose a bolt, a standard break-away wrench or a breaker bar is typically used. Therefore, the correct answer is "Never" as a torque wrench is not used for breaking loose bolts.

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57. On the intermediate automatic test equipment (IATE) test station, which switching subsystem circuit card assembly (CCA) provides programmable wraparound between the J1 connector pins and feedthrough from connector J1 to connector P1?

Explanation

The correct answer is the General-purpose switch jumper. This circuit card assembly provides programmable wraparound between the J1 connector pins and feedthrough from connector J1 to connector P1. The other options, such as the General-purpose switch 5-amp, 2 (8 matrix, and Stim matrix, do not provide the specific functionality required for this task.

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58. On the electronic systems test set (ESTS), digital word generators 1, 2, and 3 are what type of digital word generators?

Explanation

The correct answer is High-speed. This means that digital word generators 1, 2, and 3 on the electronic systems test set (ESTS) are capable of generating digital words at a high speed. This implies that they can quickly produce a large number of digital words, making them suitable for applications that require high-speed data generation or testing.

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59. The alignment (ALIN) and calibration (CALS) functions on the intermediate automatic test equipment (IATE) test station must be run every

Explanation

The alignment (ALIN) and calibration (CALS) functions on the intermediate automatic test equipment (IATE) test station must be run every 180 days or any time affected shop or tester replaceable units (SRU/TRU) are repaired or replaced. This ensures that the equipment remains accurate and properly calibrated, as well as accounting for any changes or repairs made to the SRU/TRUs which may affect the alignment and calibration.

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60. Which of the following is true about the operation of the oil-cooling cart?

Explanation

The correct answer is that the unused hydraulic circuit is bypassed with a jumper hose assembly. This means that when a hydraulic circuit is not being used, it is redirected and bypassed using a jumper hose assembly. This ensures that the hydraulic fluid continues to flow smoothly and does not cause any disruptions or blockages in the system. By bypassing the unused circuit, the oil-cooling cart can maintain optimal performance and efficiency.

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61. The responsibility to ensure your recommended technical order (TO) change is valid and warrants submittal rests with your

Explanation

The responsibility to ensure your recommended technical order (TO) change is valid and warrants submittal rests with your supervisor. The supervisor is responsible for overseeing the work of their subordinates and ensuring that any changes or recommendations made are valid and meet the necessary criteria before being submitted. They have the authority and knowledge to assess the validity of the TO change and make the final decision on whether it should be submitted or not.

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62. Why must all personnel know the location and on-off operation of the power distribution panels and power control switches in their work area?

Explanation

All personnel must know the location and on-off operation of the power distribution panels and power control switches in their work area in order to disengage electrical circuits to equipment in the event of a fire or accidental electrical contact. This knowledge is crucial for ensuring the safety of both personnel and the equipment. By being able to quickly and effectively shut off power to the affected equipment, potential hazards can be minimized, and the risk of electrical fires or accidents can be reduced.

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63. The digital defensive automatic test equipment (ATE) augmentation equipment (DAAE) test adapter group (TAG) serves what testing purpose?

Explanation

The correct answer is Digital DAAE self-test. This means that the digital defensive automatic test equipment (ATE) augmentation equipment (DAAE) test adapter group (TAG) is used for conducting self-tests on the digital DAAE. It is specifically designed to test and evaluate the performance of the digital DAAE itself.

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64. Each division of the oscilloscope faceplate is

Explanation

The divisions on the oscilloscope faceplate are one centimeter square. This means that each division on the faceplate measures one centimeter in both width and height. The divisions are used to measure and analyze the waveforms displayed on the oscilloscope screen.

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65. The horizontal divisions of an oscilloscope faceplate are calibrated to the settings of the

Explanation

The horizontal divisions of an oscilloscope faceplate are calibrated to the settings of the TIME/DIV control. This control allows the user to adjust the time scale on the oscilloscope, determining the amount of time represented by each horizontal division on the display. By changing the TIME/DIV control, the user can zoom in or out on the waveform being displayed, making it easier to analyze and measure different aspects of the signal. Therefore, the calibration of the horizontal divisions is directly linked to the TIME/DIV control.

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66. What is the recommended color coding for an electrical safety board?

Explanation

The recommended color coding for an electrical safety board is a dark green background with white letters and border. This color combination is commonly used to indicate safety equipment or areas related to electrical systems. The dark green background helps to make the board easily noticeable, while the white letters and border provide good contrast and visibility. Using red letters and border on a dark green background may not provide the same level of visibility and contrast, making it less effective for a safety board. Similarly, using a white background with dark green letters and border may not be as noticeable and may not convey the same level of importance as the recommended color coding.

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67. Before beginning any measurement with an oscilloscope, you must ensure the probe you are going to use is

Explanation

Before beginning any measurement with an oscilloscope, it is important to ensure that the probe you are going to use is calibrated correctly. Calibration ensures that the probe accurately measures and displays the voltage levels being measured. This is crucial for obtaining accurate and reliable measurements with the oscilloscope.

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68. Why should you not rely on color coding of compressed gas cylinders to identify the contents?

Explanation

Relying on color coding of compressed gas cylinders to identify the contents is not reliable because different manufacturers use different color codes. This means that the same color may represent different contents depending on the manufacturer, leading to confusion and potential safety risks. Therefore, it is important to use other methods, such as labels or markings, to accurately identify the contents of compressed gas cylinders.

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69. When measuring time on an oscilloscope, multiply the trace distance between reference points by the setting of the

Explanation

The correct answer is TIME/DIV control. When measuring time on an oscilloscope, the TIME/DIV control is used to adjust the time scale or the amount of time represented by each horizontal division on the screen. By multiplying the trace distance between reference points by the setting of the TIME/DIV control, the exact time duration between those points can be determined. The other options mentioned, such as VOLTS/DIV control, AC-GND-DC switch, and VERT MODE switch, are not directly related to measuring time on an oscilloscope.

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70. On the electronic systems test set (ESTS), which test program set (TPS) main menu option performs a test on a specific line replaceable unit (LRU) shop replaceable unit (SRU)?

Explanation

The correct answer is INDIVIDUAL TESTING. This option allows the user to perform a test on a specific line replaceable unit (LRU) shop replaceable unit (SRU). It is designed to test individual components or units separately, rather than testing the entire system as a whole. This option is useful for troubleshooting and identifying any faults or issues with a particular LRU or SRU.

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71. Which Automated Computer Program Identification Number System (ACPINS) product is a valuable research aid when you do not know the Computer Program Identification Number (CPIN), but you have other data pertaining to the system/equipment in question?

Explanation

Cross-references are a valuable research aid when you have other data pertaining to the system/equipment in question but do not know the Computer Program Identification Number (CPIN). Cross-references provide links or references to related information or documents that can help in identifying the CPIN. By following these cross-references, one can gather additional information and potentially find the CPIN they are looking for. This makes cross-references an important tool for research and identification purposes in the Automated Computer Program Identification Number System (ACPINS).

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72. What should you do with a compressed gas cylinder when the pressure of the contents reaches 25 pounds per square inch (psi)?

Explanation

When the pressure of the contents in a compressed gas cylinder reaches 25 pounds per square inch (psi), the appropriate action is to mark the cylinder with the letters "MT," close the valve, and secure the protective cap. This is done to indicate that the cylinder is empty and should not be used. It helps to prevent any accidents or mishaps that may occur if someone mistakenly tries to use the cylinder.

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73. Which tier(s) of the general-purpose interface unit (GPIU) form the interface test connector?

Explanation

The interface test connector of the general-purpose interface unit (GPIU) is formed by tiers A and B.

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74. Lever-operated hoists must only be used in

Explanation

Lever-operated hoists are designed to be used in a direct pull, meaning that the force is applied in a straight line from the hoist to the load being lifted. This ensures that the hoist operates efficiently and safely, as any sideways or angled force could cause the hoist to malfunction or the load to become unstable. Using a lever-operated hoist in an indirect pull, dead-end point, or no-load condition could lead to accidents or damage to the hoist and load.

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75. If duplicate identification (ID) numbers for maintenance data documentation are a concern, what can be used to eliminate the problem?

Explanation

To eliminate duplicate identification (ID) numbers for maintenance data documentation, a modified number of a locally developed alphanumeric designator can be used. This means that a unique identifier specific to the local organization or facility can be created by modifying an existing alphanumeric designator. This modified number will ensure that each maintenance data document has a distinct ID, reducing the risk of duplication and confusion. Using the last four positions of the equipment serial number or stock number may not be sufficient as there could still be duplicates within those ranges. Similarly, using a modified number of a major command (MAJCOM) developed alphanumeric designator may not be effective for local organizations as it may not be specific enough.

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76. How many and of what size in gigabytes (GB) are the removable mass storage drives used in the Advanced Digital Test Station controller?

Explanation

The removable mass storage drives used in the Advanced Digital Test Station controller are two in number and each drive has a size of 80 GB.

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77. Classified working papers must be treated like a finished document when they are retained

Explanation

Classified working papers are documents that contain sensitive or confidential information. According to the given answer, these papers must be treated like a finished document when they are retained for more than 180 days, or when they are released outside the activity. This means that after 180 days, or if they are shared with individuals or organizations outside the activity, these papers should be handled as if they were ready for public consumption. This is to ensure that the sensitive information they contain is protected and not compromised.

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78. Why would you consult a security classification guide regarding classified material in your control?

Explanation

Consulting a security classification guide regarding classified material in one's control is important to evaluate the degree of protection necessary. The guide provides information about the sensitivity and level of classification of the material, which helps in determining the appropriate security measures to be implemented. By understanding the degree of protection required, one can ensure that the classified material is handled, stored, and transmitted securely, preventing unauthorized access or disclosure.

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79. Your duty in maintenance is to ensure

Explanation

The correct answer is "assigned aircraft and equipment meet mission needs." This means that as a maintenance personnel, your responsibility is to make sure that the aircraft and equipment assigned to you are in proper working condition and meet the requirements of the mission they are intended for. This involves conducting regular inspections, repairs, and maintenance tasks to ensure optimal performance and safety.

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80. How is your military identification card utilized if you are picking up a classified asset from supply?

Explanation

The military identification card is utilized by LRS personnel to verify if the individual is authorized to receipt for classified material. They check the card against their current roster of authorized individuals to ensure that the person picking up the asset has the necessary clearance and authorization. This step helps maintain the security and control of classified assets during the supply process.

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81. The concept of interconnecting unit under test (UUT) and test station resources is

Explanation

The concept of interconnecting unit under test (UUT) and test station resources refers to the process of connecting and routing signals between different components in a test system. This involves the ability to switch between different connections and paths to ensure that the UUT is properly connected to the necessary resources for testing. Therefore, the correct answer is switching.

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82. Abbreviated Test Language for All Systems (ATLAS) statements peculiar to radar/electronic warfare (R/EW) test stations are used for all of the following except

Explanation

ATLAS statements are used for various purposes in radar/electronic warfare (R/EW) test stations, such as controlling and analyzing the spectrum analyzer, radio frequency (RF) synthesizers, and fixed direct current (DC) power supplies. However, they are not used for sourcing 5.6 kilohertz (kHz) power.

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83. An illustrated parts breakdown (IPB) is what type of technical order (TO)?

Explanation

An illustrated parts breakdown (IPB) is a type of technical order (TO) that falls under the category of operational and maintenance. This type of TO provides detailed illustrations and diagrams of the parts and components of a system or equipment, along with their corresponding part numbers and descriptions. It is used for maintenance and repair purposes, helping technicians and operators identify and order the correct parts needed for maintenance or replacement.

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84. What type of technical order (TO) update is issued when only small parts of the TO are affected?

Explanation

When only small parts of a technical order (TO) are affected, a change update is issued. This means that there are specific modifications or updates made to certain sections or components of the TO, while the majority of the document remains unchanged. This allows for targeted and precise updates to be implemented without the need for a complete revision or rescission of the entire TO. A change update is efficient and practical when only minor adjustments are required.

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85. Which type of technical order (TO) supplement is issued to correct potentially fatal conditions?

Explanation

A safety TO supplement is issued to correct potentially fatal conditions. This type of supplement focuses on addressing safety concerns and ensuring the well-being of personnel and equipment. It provides instructions and procedures to mitigate risks and prevent accidents or injuries. By issuing safety TO supplements, organizations prioritize the safety of their personnel and aim to prevent any potentially fatal incidents from occurring.

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86. What Air Force manual (AFMAN) prescribes policies and procedures for Air Force participation in the Department of Defense (DOD) Precious Metals Recovery Program (PMRP)?

Explanation

not-available-via-ai

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87. What do you write on a Department of Defense (DD) Form 1348–1A if you are refusing to accept a delivery from supply?

Explanation

If you are refusing to accept a delivery from supply, you would write "Organizational refusal" on a Department of Defense (DD) Form 1348-1A. This indicates that the refusal is coming from the organization rather than an individual or specific reason such as a delivery error, avionics refusal, or item not needed.

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88. How many data lines does the Institute of Electrical and Electronic Engineers (IEEE)–488 bus have?

Explanation

The Institute of Electrical and Electronic Engineers (IEEE)-488 bus, also known as the General Purpose Interface Bus (GPIB), has 8 data lines. These data lines are used for transmitting and receiving data between different devices connected to the bus. Having 8 data lines allows for efficient and high-speed communication between devices in a GPIB system.

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89. The purpose of a deficiency report (DR) is to

Explanation

The purpose of a deficiency report (DR) is to identify, report, and resolve deficiencies in materials received from supply. This means that when any deficiencies are found in the materials received, the DR is used to identify and report these issues. It also serves the purpose of resolving these deficiencies by taking appropriate actions to rectify the problems. This ensures that the materials received from supply meet the required standards and quality.

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90. Regarding the MIL-STD 1553B data bus, which computer words can only be generated and transmitted by the bus controller?

Explanation

The MIL-STD 1553B data bus is a standard communication protocol used in avionics systems. In this context, the bus controller is responsible for managing and controlling the data flow on the bus. The bus controller is the only entity that can generate and transmit command words, which are used to instruct other devices on the bus to perform specific actions. Parity, status, and data words, on the other hand, can be generated and transmitted by both the bus controller and other devices on the bus.

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91. What type of damage to the test station may result with improper usage of certain Abbreviated Test Language for All Systems (ATLAS) system procedures?

Explanation

Improper usage of certain Abbreviated Test Language for All Systems (ATLAS) system procedures may result in catastrophic damage to the test station. This suggests that if these procedures are not followed correctly, the damage caused can be severe and have serious consequences.

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92. During the testing of the radio frequency (RF) source (RFS) band 4 through band 8 line replaceable unit (LRU), what provides the digital signal processing and control in response to the intermediate automatic test equipment's (IATE) program?

Explanation

The Radio frequency (RF) defensive automatic test equipment (ATE) augmentation equipment (DAAE) provides the digital signal processing and control in response to the intermediate automatic test equipment's (IATE) program during the testing of the RF source (RFS) band 4 through band 8 line replaceable unit (LRU).

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93. Both the radio frequency (RF) defensive automatic test equipment (ATE) augmentation equipment (DAAE) interface test adapter (ITA) and the intermediate automatic test equipment (IATE) ITA are

Explanation

The question is asking about the nature of the radio frequency (RF) defensive automatic test equipment (ATE) augmentation equipment (DAAE) interface test adapter (ITA) and the intermediate automatic test equipment (IATE) ITA. The correct answer is that they are passive devices. This means that they do not actively generate or amplify signals, but rather passively transmit and receive signals. They do not require an external power source to function and simply provide a connection between the equipment being tested and the test equipment.

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94. In addition to printing the words ―Urgent Action‖ in red, what is used to identify an urgent action time compliance technical order (TCTO) on the first page?

Explanation

The correct answer is "Red Xs alternately spaced with red diagonals." This is used to identify an urgent action time compliance technical order (TCTO) on the first page. The combination of red Xs and red diagonals creates a distinct pattern that is easily recognizable and stands out, making it clear that the action is urgent. The alternation of the Xs and diagonals adds to the visual impact and helps to differentiate it from other markings or symbols.

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95. An AF Form 614, Charge Out Record, is used to

Explanation

The AF Form 614, Charge Out Record, is used to remove a technical order (TO) from its storage location. This form is typically used to track the movement of TOs and ensure they are properly accounted for. By completing the AF Form 614, personnel can document the removal of a TO from storage, providing a record of who took it and when. This helps to maintain inventory control and ensure that TOs are returned to their proper location after use.

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96. In a technical order (TO), what does the illustrated parts breakdown assign each part of a system or equipment item?

Explanation

The illustrated parts breakdown assigns each part of a system or equipment item a figure and index. This means that each part is identified and labeled with a corresponding figure number and index number, making it easier for technicians to locate and order the specific parts they need for maintenance or repair.

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97. What two basic armament system controls are normally found on the pilot's stick grip?

Explanation

The correct answer is "Trigger and armament release switch." The pilot's stick grip typically includes a trigger, which is used to initiate firing of weapons, and an armament release switch, which is used to release or drop external stores such as bombs or missiles. These two controls are essential for the pilot to engage in combat and deploy weapons effectively.

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98. Which column in a technical order (TO) illustrated parts breakdown table indicates how many of each part are needed to completely put a section together?

Explanation

The column in a technical order (TO) illustrated parts breakdown table that indicates how many of each part are needed to completely put a section together is the "Units Per Assembly" column. This column provides the quantity of each part required for assembling a section, allowing technicians to ensure they have the correct number of parts for the assembly process.

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99. It is important for serviceable and unserviceable (reparable) electrostatic discharge-sensitive (ESDS) items to receive the same electrostatic discharge (ESD) protection so

Explanation

When both serviceable and unserviceable ESDS items receive the same ESD protection, it ensures that no further ESD damage is done to the remaining operating parts. Even though the unserviceable items may not be repaired, they still contain operating parts that need to be protected from ESD. By maintaining consistent ESD protection for all items, technicians develop a habit of protecting all items and reduce the risk of accidentally causing ESD damage to the remaining operating parts. Additionally, ensuring that the conductive connector caps are not lost helps to maintain the integrity of the ESD protection.

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100. The monitor switches of the intercommunications set control individually monitor and adjust the

Explanation

The correct answer is "eight audio level inputs." This means that the monitor switches of the intercommunications set control are responsible for monitoring and adjusting the audio levels of eight different inputs. These inputs could be from different sources or channels, and the monitor switches allow the user to individually control and adjust the audio levels for each input.

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101. In portable automatic test equipment calibrator (PATEC) equipment, what type of standard is a Rubidium frequency standard?

Explanation

A Rubidium frequency standard is a type of standard used for timing purposes in portable automatic test equipment calibrator (PATEC) equipment. It provides accurate and stable timing signals that are essential for calibrating and synchronizing various instruments and devices.

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102. Which is not provided by a tool accounting system (TAS)?

Explanation

A tool accounting system (TAS) is designed to track and manage tools within an organization. It provides information about the tool's status, location, and usage. The tool manufacturer is not provided by a TAS because it is not directly related to the tool's management within the organization. The TAS focuses on tracking the tool's movement, maintenance, and calibration, but it does not provide information about the manufacturer of the tool.

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103. After the CRITICAL alarm sounds, the intermediate automatic test equipment (IATE) station panel initiates the power down sequence. This will occur if the condition persists for

Explanation

The correct answer is 20 seconds. After the CRITICAL alarm sounds, the intermediate automatic test equipment (IATE) station panel will initiate the power down sequence if the condition persists for 20 seconds.

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104. The digital subsystem used with the intermediate automatic test equipment (IATE) test station provides both

Explanation

The digital subsystem used with the intermediate automatic test equipment (IATE) test station provides stimulus and measurement. This means that it is able to generate signals or stimuli to test the device under test, and also measure the responses or outputs of the device. This is an important capability in test equipment as it allows for comprehensive testing and analysis of the device's performance. The other options of serial and RS-232, parallel and RS-232, and conversion and measurement are not relevant to the digital subsystem's functionality in this context.

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105. What causes the statement "ENTRY POINT MAY PRODUCE INVALID FAILURE MESSAGES" to be displayed when running self-tests on the intermediate automatic test equipment (IATE) station?

Explanation

Conducting tests in other than the indicated sequence can cause the statement "ENTRY POINT MAY PRODUCE INVALID FAILURE MESSAGES" to be displayed when running self-tests on the intermediate automatic test equipment (IATE) station. This is because the self-tests are designed to be run in a specific sequence, and running them out of order can lead to incorrect failure messages being displayed.

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106. Which radio-frequency component is used to sample an input signal and does not have any moving parts?

Explanation

A directional coupler is a radio-frequency component that is used to sample an input signal without any moving parts. It is designed to split or combine power in a specific direction, allowing for the measurement or extraction of a portion of the input signal without affecting its overall performance. This makes it an ideal choice for sampling signals in various applications without the need for any mechanical components.

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107. The flow rate of cooling oil from the oil cooling cart to the line replaceable unit (LRU) being tested is determined by the

Explanation

The flow rate of cooling oil from the oil cooling cart to the line replaceable unit (LRU) being tested is determined by the requirements of the unit under test (UUT). This means that the UUT itself dictates the necessary flow rate for effective cooling. The UUT may have specific cooling needs, such as a certain amount of oil flow to maintain optimal temperature levels. Therefore, the flow rate is not determined by the number of LRUs being tested, the viscosity of the cooling oil, or the temperature of the coolant.

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108. The alarm/interlock circuit protects the oil-cooling cart from damage due to

Explanation

The alarm/interlock circuit is designed to safeguard the oil-cooling cart from potential harm caused by two specific factors: excessive coolant temperature and inadequate coolant flow. If the coolant temperature rises to dangerous levels, the circuit will trigger an alarm or interlock mechanism to prevent further damage. Similarly, if the coolant flow is insufficient to properly cool the system, the circuit will activate the alarm or interlock to protect the cart. This combination of excessive temperature and inadequate flow is the most likely scenario that the circuit is designed to address.

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109. How does a power divider affect the characteristics of the signal that enters it?

Explanation

A power divider is a device used to split an input signal into multiple output signals. When a signal enters a power divider, the power is divided equally among the output ports. This means that the power at each output port is reduced by one-half compared to the input power. However, the frequency of the signal remains unchanged. Therefore, the correct answer is that the power is reduced by one-half, but the frequency is unchanged.

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110. Which functional test group (FTG) is used to test the control interface unit (CIU) line replaceable unit (LRU) and operates in conjunction with the control interface unit (CIU) FTG?

Explanation

The Avionics Control Unit (ACU) is the functional test group (FTG) used to test the Control Interface Unit (CIU) line replaceable unit (LRU). It operates in conjunction with the CIU FTG, indicating that it works together with the CIU FTG to perform the testing. The ACU is responsible for controlling and monitoring various avionics systems, making it suitable for testing the CIU LRU. The other options, Test Module Adapter (TMA), Advanced Tracking Unit (ATU), and Emitter Simulator Processor (ESP), are not specifically designed for testing the CIU LRU and do not operate in conjunction with the CIU FTG.

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111. On the digital defensive automatic test equipment (ATE) augmentation equipment (DAAE), standard wire run lists the columns provided are labeled FROM TERMINAL, TO TERMINAL, and

Explanation

The correct answer is "AWG NO." In the given context of a digital defensive automatic test equipment (ATE) augmentation equipment (DAAE), the columns provided in the standard wire run list are labeled "FROM TERMINAL," "TO TERMINAL," "AWG NO.," "NO OF WIRES," "SIGNAL NAME," and "SIGNAL NUMBER." The "AWG NO." column is used to indicate the American Wire Gauge number, which is a standardized system for specifying the diameter of electrical conductors. This information is crucial in determining the appropriate wire size for a particular application, ensuring efficient and safe signal transmission.

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112. The variable (VAR) control of an oscilloscope must be in the calibrated detent or the time measurement will be

Explanation

If the variable control of an oscilloscope is not in the calibrated detent, the time measurement will be inaccurate. This means that the oscilloscope will not accurately display the time intervals of the waveform being measured.

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113. The vertical system of your oscilloscope should be

Explanation

The vertical system of an oscilloscope should be two to five times faster than the rise of the applied signal. This is because the vertical system determines the sensitivity and accuracy of the oscilloscope in capturing and displaying the signal. By having a vertical system that is faster than the rise of the applied signal, the oscilloscope can accurately capture and display the waveform without any distortion or loss of information. Having a faster vertical system ensures that the oscilloscope can accurately capture the rapid changes in the signal and provide an accurate representation on the display.

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114. Why is the data from maintenance documentation important to maintenance activities across the base regarding maintenance problems?

Explanation

The data from maintenance documentation is important to maintenance activities across the base regarding maintenance problems because it provides the means for validating and initiating corrective action on them. This means that the documentation allows for the identification and verification of maintenance problems, which then enables the implementation of appropriate corrective measures. This helps in ensuring that maintenance issues are addressed effectively and efficiently, leading to improved maintenance operations and overall base performance.

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115. The tester replaceable unit (TRU) responsible for providing modulation drive signals, modulating and demodulating test signals, and routing signals to and from the unit under test (UUT) is the

Explanation

The TRU is responsible for providing modulation drive signals, modulating and demodulating test signals, and routing signals to and from the UUT. The RF synthesizer is a device used to generate and manipulate radio frequency signals, but it does not perform the other functions mentioned. The phase noise analyzer is used to measure the phase noise of a signal, and the power meter is used to measure the power of a signal. The microwave signal conditioner, on the other hand, is specifically designed to perform the mentioned functions, making it the correct answer.

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116. What would be considered a significant event that needs to be documented on an Air Force technical order (AFTO) Form 95?

Explanation

A significant event that needs to be documented on an Air Force technical order (AFTO) Form 95 is compliance with a Time Compliance Technical Order (TCTO). This is because a TCTO is a directive issued to address a specific safety, reliability, or operational concern, and compliance with it is crucial for the proper functioning and maintenance of the equipment. Therefore, documenting the compliance with a TCTO on the AFTO Form 95 ensures that the information is recorded and tracked for future reference and accountability.

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117. What power supply requires the use of filters and transformers to produce output?

Explanation

Alternating current (AC) requires the use of filters and transformers to produce output because AC voltage continuously changes direction and magnitude. Filters are used to remove any unwanted noise or harmonics from the AC signal, while transformers are used to step up or step down the voltage level as needed. On the other hand, direct current (DC) does not require filters or transformers as it provides a constant voltage with a fixed polarity. The option "AC and DC" is incorrect because DC does not require filters and transformers. The option "AC, DC, or 400 Hz" is also incorrect as it includes DC, which does not require filters and transformers.

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118. The 60 hertz (Hz) facility power input to the test station is primarily used to

Explanation

The 60 hertz (Hz) facility power input to the test station is primarily used to provide power to cooling air blowers, measurement devices, and standard outlets. This means that the power input is used to operate the cooling system, various measurement devices, and provide power to standard outlets for other equipment or devices that may be needed in the test station.

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119. Why is a work center event (WCE) used in maintenance data documentation?

Explanation

A work center event (WCE) is used in maintenance data documentation to differentiate between different maintenance actions required to complete a particular job. This allows for better organization and tracking of the various tasks and actions that need to be performed in order to successfully complete the job. By using WCEs, maintenance personnel can easily identify and prioritize the specific actions that need to be taken, ensuring that all necessary tasks are completed in a timely and efficient manner.

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120. What screen would you start with when your supervisor directs you to take time in Integrated Maintenance Data System (IMDS) for the maintenance performed today?

Explanation

When directed by a supervisor to take time in Integrated Maintenance Data System (IMDS) for the maintenance performed today, the screen you would start with is 907, Job Data Documentation (JDD) utilities. This screen allows you to document and record the job data related to the maintenance tasks performed.

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121. The radio frequency (RF) module power meter is capable of measuring RF power with a range in decibels (referenced to milliwatts), or dBm, of

Explanation

The correct answer is –70 to +35 dBm. This range indicates that the RF module power meter can measure RF power levels from -70 dBm (a very weak signal) to +35 dBm (a relatively strong signal). This wide range allows for the measurement of a broad spectrum of RF power levels, making the power meter versatile and suitable for various applications.

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122. The first-line manager and supervisor of maintenance production is the

Explanation

The correct answer is section chief. The section chief is responsible for overseeing the first-line managers and supervisors in the maintenance production department. They are in charge of managing the day-to-day operations, coordinating maintenance tasks, and ensuring that production goals are met. The flight commander, squadron commander, and maintenance superintendent may have higher-level responsibilities but are not directly responsible for managing the maintenance production section.

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123. Which type of publication is used by a unit to standardize local maintenance or safety procedures when they are not specified in an Air Force instruction or supplement?

Explanation

An operating instruction is used by a unit to standardize local maintenance or safety procedures when they are not specified in an Air Force instruction or supplement. This type of publication provides specific guidance and instructions for carrying out tasks and operations within a unit. It helps ensure consistency and uniformity in procedures, enhancing efficiency and safety. An Air Force manual, Air Force policy directive, and Air Force doctrine document may provide broader guidance or principles, but an operating instruction is more specific and tailored to the unit's needs.

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124. What is the principle interface used by the Tactical Electronic Warfare System (TEWS) Intermediate Support System (TISS) test station for radio frequency (RF) testing of the unit under test (UUT)?

Explanation

The principle interface used by the Tactical Electronic Warfare System (TEWS) Intermediate Support System (TISS) test station for RF testing of the unit under test (UUT) is the Stimulus distribution assembly/measurement distribution assembly (SDA/MDA). This interface is responsible for distributing the stimulus signals to the UUT and measuring the response signals from the UUT during testing. It ensures accurate and reliable RF testing of the UUT within the TISS system.

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125. On the Tactical Electronic Warfare System (TEWS) Intermediate Support System (TISS) test station, what interface functions does the stimulus distribution assembly (SDA) perform?

Explanation

The stimulus distribution assembly (SDA) on the Tactical Electronic Warfare System (TEWS) Intermediate Support System (TISS) test station performs three interface functions. It combines RF signals, provides output signal termination, and routes output signals. This means that the SDA combines multiple RF signals, terminates the output signal to ensure proper signal quality, and then routes the output signals to their intended destinations.

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126. The Abbreviated Test Language for All Systems (ATLAS) command that disconnects the measurement instrument from the line replaceable unit (LRU), recovers the data, converts it to proper format, and stores it in the system variable MEASUREMENT is

Explanation

The correct answer is READ. The question is asking for the ATLAS command that disconnects the measurement instrument from the line replaceable unit (LRU), recovers the data, converts it to proper format, and stores it in the system variable MEASUREMENT. The command that accomplishes all of these tasks is the READ command.

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127. What type of Abbreviated Test Language for All Systems (ATLAS) statement does not require the use of the rest of the test station to properly execute?

Explanation

The correct answer is "Nontest." In the context of Abbreviated Test Language for All Systems (ATLAS), a nontest statement does not require the use of the rest of the test station to properly execute. This means that it is a statement that does not involve actual testing but rather performs other functions such as initialization, configuration, or setup of the test environment. It is a statement that does not contribute to the actual testing process itself.

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128. What aircraft control surfaces control the movement of an aircraft about the vertical axis and produce the motion known as yaw?

Explanation

Rudders are the aircraft control surfaces that control the movement of an aircraft about the vertical axis and produce the motion known as yaw. Yaw is the side-to-side movement of the aircraft's nose, and it is controlled by the rudders. The rudders are usually located at the rear of the aircraft and are used to control the aircraft's heading and maintain stability during flight. They work by deflecting airflow and creating a force that counteracts any yawing motion. Wings control the aircraft's roll, elevators control the pitch, and flaperons are a combination of flaps and ailerons used for roll control.

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129. What does the angle of attack (AOA) transmitter use to produce its output?

Explanation

The AOA transmitter uses a movable sensing element that routes air into two synchro cavities to produce its output. This sensing element is able to detect the angle of attack of the aircraft by measuring the airflow and directing it into the synchro cavities. The synchros then convert this airflow information into an electrical signal, which is used as the output of the AOA transmitter. The other options, such as the heating element or stabilized gyroscope, are not mentioned as components of the AOA transmitter and therefore are not the correct answer.

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130. Which of the following enables a radar pulse to reach maximum range?

Explanation

A radar pulse can reach maximum range when it has a flat-top and long duration. A flat-top pulse has a constant amplitude, which allows it to maintain its power over a longer distance. The long duration ensures that the pulse has enough time to travel to its maximum range before it starts to decay. This combination of a flat-top and long duration enables the radar pulse to reach its maximum range effectively.

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131. What bombing system release option can be equated to a single selected weapons release?

Explanation

The correct answer is "Manual" because it refers to a bombing system release option that requires human intervention or manual operation for releasing a single selected weapon. This means that the pilot or operator has direct control over the release of the weapon and can make a conscious decision to deploy it. This option provides the highest level of precision and allows for selective targeting, making it suitable for situations where accuracy and specific targeting are crucial.

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132. Proper static drain is fast enough to quickly remove the static charge before any damage is done, yet slow enough so it does not produce a damaging

Explanation

Proper static drain is designed to remove the static charge quickly and efficiently, preventing any potential damage. The drain needs to be fast enough to remove the static charge before any harm is done. However, it also needs to be slow enough to avoid creating a damaging electrostatic field. Therefore, the correct answer is discharge current, as it refers to the flow of electric charge that neutralizes the static charge without causing any harm.

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133. The common aircraft portable reprogramming equipment (CAPRE) uses what type of computer?

Explanation

The common aircraft portable reprogramming equipment (CAPRE) uses a commercial off-the-shelf ruggedized laptop. This type of computer is specifically designed to withstand harsh conditions and is commonly used in aviation for its durability and reliability. It allows for easy portability and can be used for reprogramming aircraft systems while in the field.

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134. The electronic systems test set (ESTS) power supply system consists of the

Explanation

The correct answer is DC and AC power supply assemblies and the high voltage DC power supply module. This means that the ESTS power supply system consists of both DC and AC power supply assemblies, as well as the high voltage DC power supply module. It suggests that the system is designed to provide both direct current and alternating current power, as well as high voltage DC power.

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135. The common aircraft portable reprogramming equipment (CAPRE) requires visual inspection of components

Explanation

The correct answer is annually because the common aircraft portable reprogramming equipment (CAPRE) requires visual inspection of its components once a year. This suggests that the equipment is designed to be durable and reliable, requiring maintenance and inspection only on a yearly basis.

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136. Which torque wrench uses micrometer-like markings and a rotating adjustment sleeve to set torque values?

Explanation

Type III torque wrench uses micrometer-like markings and a rotating adjustment sleeve to set torque values. This type of torque wrench allows for precise and accurate torque adjustments by aligning the desired torque value with the markings on the sleeve. The micrometer-like markings provide a visual indicator of the torque setting, making it easier for the user to set the desired torque value accurately.

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137. The purpose of a balanced torquing sequence is to

Explanation

A balanced torquing sequence is used to prevent warping in the assembly. When tightening bolts or fasteners, uneven torque distribution can cause the assembly to warp, leading to potential issues such as leaks, misalignment, or structural damage. By following a balanced torquing sequence, the torque is evenly distributed across all bolts, ensuring that the assembly remains flat and does not warp. This helps to maintain the integrity and functionality of the assembly.

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138. The intermediate automatic test equipment (IATE) subinstrument module (SIM) multiple output power supplies (MOPS) receive power from the

Explanation

The correct answer is station power panel. The intermediate automatic test equipment (IATE) subinstrument module (SIM) multiple output power supplies (MOPS) receive power from the station power panel.

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139. What is specified by the world wide identification (WWID) portion of a consolidated tool kit's (CTK) equipment identification designator (EID)?

Explanation

The world wide identification (WWID) portion of a consolidated tool kit's (CTK) equipment identification designator (EID) specifies the base, unit, and shop. This means that the WWID provides information about the specific location (base), the organizational unit within that location (unit), and the specific shop within that unit. This helps to identify and track the equipment within the CTK, making it easier to manage and maintain.

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140. On the electronic systems test set (ESTS), each switch module No. 1 and No. 2 (A6A3 and A6A4) consists of 211 relays. What type of relays are they?

Explanation

The switch modules No. 1 and No. 2 (A6A3 and A6A4) on the electronic systems test set (ESTS) consist of 211 relays. The type of relays used in these switch modules is double pole, double throw (DPDT). This means that each relay has two sets of contacts (poles) that can be connected to two different positions (throws). This configuration allows for more flexibility in routing signals and switching between different circuits.

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141. In amplitude modulation (AM), how is the amplitude of the carrier wave altered?

Explanation

In amplitude modulation (AM), the amplitude of the carrier wave is altered by varying both the top and bottom amplitudes by the same amount. This means that the amplitude of the carrier wave increases and decreases symmetrically around its average value. This alteration allows for the encoding of the information signal onto the carrier wave, which can then be demodulated at the receiver to retrieve the original signal.

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142. On the electronic systems test set (ESTS), digital word generators 4 and 5 are what type of digital word generators?

Explanation

Digital word generators 4 and 5 on the electronic systems test set (ESTS) are classified as high-density digital word generators. This means that they are capable of generating a large number of digital words or signals within a given time frame. High-density digital word generators are designed to provide a high level of signal density, allowing for efficient testing and evaluation of electronic systems.

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143. What is used to enter or transfer classified data or software to the electronic systems test set (ESTS)?

Explanation

A 3.5-inch floppy disk is used to enter or transfer classified data or software to the electronic systems test set (ESTS). This type of disk was commonly used in the past to store and transfer data. It is a portable and removable storage medium that can be easily inserted into a disk drive. The other options, such as a keyboard, compact disk, or removable disk drive, are not typically used for this purpose.

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144. Technical order (TO) deficiencies such as word omissions and typographical errors that do not cause any misinterpretation that would affect mission accomplishment may be submitted as

Explanation

Technical order (TO) deficiencies that do not cause any misinterpretation or affect mission accomplishment are considered minor. Word omissions and typographical errors fall into this category as they do not significantly impact the overall understanding or execution of the TO. Therefore, such deficiencies can be submitted as a minor correction, which implies a lower level of urgency compared to routine, urgent, or emergency recommendations.

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145. Which statement applies to all AF computer software?

Explanation

not-available-via-ai

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146. How many menu options does the electronic systems test set (ESTS) main menu provide to the operator?

Explanation

The electronic systems test set (ESTS) main menu provides 6 menu options to the operator.

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147. The 115 volts alternating current (VAC), 400 hertz (Hz) facility power input to a test station originates from the

Explanation

The correct answer is "input power generator." This is because the question states that the facility power input to a test station originates from the input power generator. This means that the 115 volts alternating current (VAC), 400 hertz (Hz) power is generated by the input power generator and is then used as the facility power input for the test station.

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148. Which Advanced Digital Test Station components verify the incoming facility power for phase rotation, under and over voltage, and over current conditions?

Explanation

The master and slave power distribution units (PDU) are responsible for verifying the incoming facility power for phase rotation, under and over voltage, and over current conditions. These components are designed to monitor and control the power distribution in a digital test station, ensuring that the power meets the necessary requirements and is within safe operating limits. The PDUs act as intermediaries between the power source and the equipment, providing protection and regulation to prevent any damage or malfunction caused by power irregularities.

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149. What is the simplest way to limit access to the Integrated Maintenance Data System (IMDS)?

Explanation

not-available-via-ai

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150. The spectrum analyzer in the radio frequency (RF) module is capable of providing complex waveform analysis over a hertz (Hz) to gigahertz (GHz) frequency range of

Explanation

The spectrum analyzer in the RF module can analyze waveforms within a frequency range of 100 Hz to 22 GHz.

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151. The signals required by the microwave signal conditioner (MSC) when making a biphase measurement are biphase modulated radio frequency (RF),

Explanation

The microwave signal conditioner (MSC) requires LO1, LO2, and LRU 50 MHz REF signals when making a biphase measurement. These signals are necessary for the biphase modulation of the radio frequency (RF) signal. The LO1 and LO2 signals are used for local oscillator purposes, while the LRU 50 MHz REF signal serves as a reference for the measurement. The other options mentioned do not include all the required signals for biphase modulation in the MSC.

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152. What technical orders (TO) give general information and instructions in various subject areas for supervisory and administrative personnel?

Explanation

The correct answer is "Methods and procedures." Technical orders (TO) provide general information and instructions in various subject areas for supervisory and administrative personnel. Methods and procedures TOs specifically outline the step-by-step processes and guidelines to be followed in carrying out tasks or operations. This type of TO is crucial for ensuring consistency and standardization in the execution of duties, as it provides clear instructions on how to perform specific tasks effectively and efficiently.

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153. Overall test station switching can be classed as

Explanation

The correct answer is stimulus and measurement. In an overall test station switching, stimulus refers to the signals or inputs that are applied to the device under test, while measurement refers to the measurements or outputs that are taken from the device. This implies that the test station switches between applying stimulus and taking measurements from the device, making stimulus and measurement the most appropriate classification for the switching process. The other options, such as stimulus and computer control or computer control and switching, do not accurately capture the two main components of the switching process.

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154. Which inspection includes a review of the forms for current status, a visual inspection of equipment for defects, and adequate servicing?

Explanation

The correct answer is "Operator." This is because the inspection described in the question involves reviewing forms for current status, visually inspecting equipment for defects, and ensuring adequate servicing. These tasks are typically performed by the operator of the equipment, as they are responsible for its day-to-day operation and maintenance.

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155. When there is conflicting guidance from different safety instructions, which of the following statements apply?

Explanation

When there is conflicting guidance from different safety instructions, it is important to follow the guidance that provides the most protection. This means that even if other standards or directives may have precedence, the priority should be given to the guidance that ensures the highest level of safety and protection. This ensures that the individual or organization is taking proactive measures to minimize risks and prioritize safety above all else.

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156. An advantage of the intercommunications system two-button operation is it

Explanation

The intercommunications system two-button operation allows the pilots to easily select the interphone independent of the set control selector switch position. This means that they can switch to the interphone without having to change the position of the control selector switch, making it more convenient and efficient for the pilots to communicate.

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157. In the Advanced Digital Test Station's Agilent 33250A arbitrary waveform generator, what are the upper frequency limits, in megahertz (MHz) or gigahertz (GHz), for sine and square wave outputs and for pulse waveform outputs, respectively?

Explanation

The upper frequency limit for the sine and square wave outputs in the Agilent 33250A arbitrary waveform generator is 80 MHz, while the upper frequency limit for the pulse waveform output is 50 MHz.

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158. How does the upgraded systems test bench computer interface with the test equipment and units under test (UUT)?

Explanation

The upgraded systems test bench computer interface with the test equipment and units under test (UUT) using a VXI chassis. A VXI chassis is a standardized platform for modular test and measurement instruments that allows for easy integration and communication between the computer and the equipment being tested. It provides a high-speed data transfer and control interface, making it an ideal choice for connecting and controlling the test equipment and UUT in the upgraded systems test bench.

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159. On the electronic systems test set (ESTS), what is the voltage programming range of the high voltage direct current (DC) power supply (DCPS) module (DCPS6/A4A2)?

Explanation

The voltage programming range of the high voltage direct current (DC) power supply module (DCPS6/A4A2) on the electronic systems test set (ESTS) is from 0 to 200 volts DC (VDC).

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160. On the electronic systems test set (ESTS), in what slots of the radio frequency (RF) versatile modular European (VME) extension for instrumentation (VXI) assembly (A5) is the RF generator number 2 (A5A2) located?

Explanation

The RF generator number 2 (A5A2) is located in slots 2, 3, and 4 of the RF versatile modular European (VME) extension for instrumentation (VXI) assembly (A5).

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161. On the electronic systems test set (ESTS), the Form C relay module (A6A7) consists of how many independent Form C relays?

Explanation

The Form C relay module (A6A7) on the electronic systems test set (ESTS) consists of 32 independent Form C relays.

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162. The operation of a pulse modulated transmitter involves

Explanation

The correct answer is high energy pulses, long distances and low power consumption. In pulse modulation, high energy pulses are used to transmit the signal over long distances. This is necessary to ensure that the signal can reach its intended destination without significant loss or degradation. Additionally, low power consumption is desired in order to maximize the efficiency of the transmitter and conserve energy. Therefore, using high energy pulses, long distances, and low power consumption is the most effective and efficient way to operate a pulse modulated transmitter.

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163. When is a probable cause of failure (PCOF) displayed in a CONF self-test failure message on the intermediate automatic test equipment (IATE) test station?

Explanation

A probable cause of failure (PCOF) is displayed in a CONF self-test failure message on the intermediate automatic test equipment (IATE) test station when the failure can only be the result of a single shop-replaceable unit (SRU). This means that the failure is specific to a particular component or unit that can be easily replaced without requiring extensive troubleshooting or repair. The PCOF helps identify the exact cause of the failure, allowing for quick and efficient resolution by replacing the faulty SRU.

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164. On the electronic systems test set (ESTS), which power control circuit breaker controls power to the alternating current (AC) and direct current (DC) power equipment assemblies?

Explanation

The correct answer is PS POWER ON/OFF. This is because the PS (Power Supply) power control circuit breaker is responsible for controlling power to the AC and DC power equipment assemblies on the ESTS. The other options, MAIN POWER ON/OFF, VXI POWER ON/OFF, and RF POWER ON/OFF, do not specifically refer to the power control circuit breaker for the power equipment assemblies.

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165. Which line replaceable unit (LRU) is not tested using the digital defensive automatic test equipment (ATE) augmentation equipment (DAAE)?

Explanation

The Identification Friend or Foe (IFF) receiver is not tested using the digital defensive automatic test equipment (ATE) augmentation equipment (DAAE). The IFF receiver is a line replaceable unit (LRU) that is responsible for identifying whether an aircraft or vehicle is friendly or hostile. Since the DAAE is designed to test and augment the performance of LRUs, it is likely that the IFF receiver is not included in its testing capabilities.

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166. On the digital defensive automatic test equipment (ATE) augmentation equipment (DAAE), the SIGNAL NUMBER column of the double entry wire list is used to cross-reference with what other list?

Explanation

The SIGNAL NUMBER column of the double entry wire list on the digital defensive automatic test equipment (ATE) augmentation equipment (DAAE) is used to cross-reference with the Signal family list. This suggests that the SIGNAL NUMBER is associated with a specific signal family, which helps in identifying and organizing the different signals within the wire list.

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167. Which radio frequency (RF) module synthesizer is used to provide pulse amplitude modulation (PAM) outputs for the test station?

Explanation

not-available-via-ai

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168. What information does the third field position of a Computer Program Identification Number (CPIN) compendium number indicate?

Explanation

The third field position of a Computer Program Identification Number (CPIN) compendium number indicates the type of software and the sequence number. This means that the third field position provides information about the category or classification of the software, such as whether it is an application, utility, or system software, and also indicates the order or sequence in which the software was released or updated.

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169. The 400 hertz (Hz) facility power input to the test station is primarily used to

Explanation

The 400 hertz (Hz) facility power input to the test station is primarily used to develop all the necessary voltages for the test station TRUs and the line replaceable units (LRU) involved in checkout procedures. This means that the power input is responsible for providing the required voltages for the functioning of the test station and its components during the checkout procedures. It is not used for powering cooling air blowers, measurement devices, standard outlets, monitoring and analysis circuits, or self-test functions.

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170. Which signal generator operates in the 10 kilohertz (KHz) to 10 gigahertz (GHz) frequency range?

Explanation

The signal generator that operates in the 10 kilohertz (KHz) to 10 gigahertz (GHz) frequency range is the Radiofrequency generator. This type of generator is specifically designed to generate signals within the radiofrequency range, which spans from 10 KHz to 10 GHz. It is commonly used in various applications such as telecommunications, wireless communication systems, and RF testing.

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171. What code denotes the maximum time that may elapse before assets are delivered to the customer?

Explanation

The code that denotes the maximum time that may elapse before assets are delivered to the customer is the "Supply response priority." This code is used to prioritize the supply response based on the urgency and importance of the need. It helps in determining the order in which the assets should be delivered to ensure efficient and timely delivery to the customer.

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172. What is the maximum number of devices that can be connected to an Institute of Electrical and Electronic Engineers (IEEE) 488 bus?

Explanation

The maximum number of devices that can be connected to an IEEE 488 bus is 15. This is because the IEEE 488 standard, also known as the General Purpose Interface Bus (GPIB), supports a maximum of 15 devices in a single bus configuration. Each device connected to the bus is assigned a unique address, ranging from 0 to 30, with addresses 0 and 31 reserved for specific purposes. Therefore, the correct answer is 15.

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173. What two talk functions are provided by the intercommunication station?

Explanation

The intercommunication station provides two talk functions: CALL and INTERPHONE. The term "CALL" refers to making a call or initiating communication with another station or device. "INTERPHONE" refers to internal communication within the intercommunication station itself, allowing users to talk to each other without the need for external devices or connections.

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174. What provide the aircrew with visual pitch, roll, heading, and command information?

Explanation

Flight director instruments provide the aircrew with visual pitch, roll, heading, and command information. These instruments assist the pilots in maintaining the desired flight path by providing guidance on the aircraft's attitude and direction. They display important information such as the aircraft's attitude, heading, and vertical speed, allowing the pilots to make precise adjustments to maintain the desired flight parameters. Flight director instruments are an essential tool for pilots to ensure safe and accurate flight operations.

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175. What unit generates and overlays symbology for the F–15 head up display system?

Explanation

The correct answer is Multipurpose display processor. The multipurpose display processor is responsible for generating and overlaying symbology for the F-15 head-up display system. It is a versatile unit that can handle multiple display functions and processes the necessary information to create the symbology displayed on the head-up display.

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176. What do the transducer assemblies on the F–15 Digital Electronic Engine Controller measure?

Explanation

The transducer assemblies on the F-15 Digital Electronic Engine Controller measure engine inlet pressure, mainburner pressure, and engine exit pressure. This means that these assemblies are responsible for monitoring the pressure levels at different points in the engine, including the air intake, the combustion chamber, and the exhaust. By measuring these pressures, the controller can effectively manage the engine's performance and ensure optimal operation.

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177. Which software enables the common aircraft portable reprogramming equipment (CAPRE) to communicate with reprogramming equipment?

Explanation

The CAPRE Communication Manager (CCM) is the software that enables the common aircraft portable reprogramming equipment (CAPRE) to communicate with reprogramming equipment. It serves as the intermediary between the CAPRE and the reprogramming equipment, facilitating the transfer of data and instructions. The operating system (OS) is the underlying software that manages the computer's hardware and software resources, but it does not specifically enable communication with reprogramming equipment. The aircraft adapter group (AAG) is a component that connects the CAPRE to the aircraft, but it does not handle the communication with reprogramming equipment. The operational flight program (OFP) refers to the software that controls the aircraft's systems during flight, but it is not responsible for communication with reprogramming equipment.

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178. On the electronic systems test set (ESTS), how many independently programmable power supply modules does the alternating current (AC) power supply assembly (A3A3) contain?

Explanation

The correct answer is 4 because the question asks about the number of independently programmable power supply modules in the AC power supply assembly on the ESTS. Therefore, the answer is 4.

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179. On the electronic systems test set (ESTS), in what slots of the radio frequency (RF) versatile modular European (VME) extension for instrumentation (VXI) assembly (A5) is the RF counter (A5A9) located?

Explanation

The RF counter (A5A9) is located in slots 9, 10, and 11 of the RF versatile modular European (VME) extension for instrumentation (VXI) assembly (A5) on the electronic systems test set (ESTS).

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180. On the electronic systems test set (ESTS), how many independent digital to analog converter channels does the digital to analog converter (A6A2) provide?

Explanation

The digital to analog converter (A6A2) on the electronic systems test set (ESTS) provides 12 independent digital to analog converter channels.

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181. On the electronic systems test set (ESTS), at what rate does the H009 interface module (A7A4) transfer serial data?

Explanation

The H009 interface module (A7A4) on the electronic systems test set (ESTS) transfers serial data at a rate of 1 megahertz (MHz).

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182. The Abbreviated Test Language for All Systems (ATLAS) command that can be used only during internal confidence testing, when you are programming the fixed direct current (DC) power supply, is

Explanation

The correct answer is SETUP. During internal confidence testing, when programming the fixed DC power supply using ATLAS, the SETUP command is used. This command is likely used to configure and initialize the power supply before conducting the testing. The APPLY command is typically used to apply a specific voltage or current to the device under test, while the CLOSE command may be used to close a switch or relay. The OPEN command may be used to open a switch or relay. However, in this specific context of internal confidence testing and programming the power supply, the SETUP command is the most appropriate choice.

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183. The digital defensive automatic test equipment (ATE) augmentation equipment (DAAE) functional test group that provides the programmed input/output (I/O) scenario and direct memory access for the control interface unit (CIU) line replaceable unit (LRU) is the

Explanation

The avionics control unit (ACU) is responsible for providing the programmed input/output (I/O) scenario and direct memory access for the control interface unit (CIU) line replaceable unit (LRU). This means that the ACU is the component that controls and manages the communication between the digital defensive automatic test equipment (ATE) augmentation equipment (DAAE) functional test group and the CIU LRU. Therefore, the ACU is the correct answer in this case.

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184. On the defensive automatic test equipment (ATE) augmentation equipment (DAAE), what wire list includes columns labeled LEVEL 1 GOES TO and LEVEL 2 GOES TO?

Explanation

The correct answer is Double entry wire listing. This is because a double entry wire listing includes columns labeled LEVEL 1 GOES TO and LEVEL 2 GOES TO, which indicate the connections between different levels or components in the ATE augmentation equipment (DAAE). This type of wire listing helps in ensuring accurate and reliable connections between various wires and components during testing and troubleshooting processes.

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185. Which signal characteristics are necessary to make a phase noise measurement?

Explanation

To make a phase noise measurement, it is necessary to have identical frequencies and a constantly changing phase relationship. Phase noise refers to the random fluctuations in the phase of a signal, and it is typically measured by comparing the phase of the signal of interest to a reference signal with the same frequency. By having identical frequencies, the phase noise measurement can accurately capture the random phase variations in the signal. The constantly changing phase relationship ensures that the measurement covers a wide range of phase variations over time, providing a comprehensive assessment of the signal's phase noise characteristics.

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186. On the Advanced Digital Test Station, which interface uses the Resource Manager (ResMan) communication utility program to establish a bus communication path?

Explanation

The correct answer is VXI. VXI, which stands for VME eXtensions for Instrumentation, uses the Resource Manager (ResMan) communication utility program to establish a bus communication path on the Advanced Digital Test Station. VXI is a modular instrument standard that allows for the integration of multiple instruments into a single test system. ResMan helps manage and control the resources within the VXI system, ensuring efficient communication between instruments and the test station.

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187. How many general purpose interface bus (GPIB) cards are installed in the controller of the Advanced Digital Test Station?

Explanation

The correct answer is 3 because it is stated in the question that there are three general purpose interface bus (GPIB) cards installed in the controller of the Advanced Digital Test Station.

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188. The general-purpose interface test module (GPITM) power-on and initiated are two of the three types of built-in tests (BIT). What is the third type?

Explanation

The question asks for the third type of built-in test (BIT) in addition to the GPITM power-on and initiated. The options provided are Nonstop, Permanent, Continuous, and Uninterrupted. Out of these options, Continuous is the correct answer as it is the only option that represents a type of test that is ongoing and uninterrupted. Nonstop, Permanent, and Uninterrupted do not accurately describe the nature of a built-in test.

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189. What does the 10 megahertz (MHZ) reference shop replaceable unit (SRU), in the Tactical Electronic Warfare System (TEWS) Intermediate Support System (TISS) test station's stimulus distribution assembly (SDA), provide to the station radio frequency (RF) resources?

Explanation

The 10 megahertz (MHZ) reference shop replaceable unit (SRU) in the Tactical Electronic Warfare System (TEWS) Intermediate Support System (TISS) test station's stimulus distribution assembly (SDA) provides a stable time base signal to the station's radio frequency (RF) resources. This stable time base signal is essential for maintaining accurate timing and synchronization in the RF components of the system. It ensures that the various RF signals and frequencies are properly coordinated and aligned, allowing for reliable and precise operation of the TEWS system.

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190. What control surface is not a part of the F–15 primary flight control system?

Explanation

Flaperons are not a part of the F-15 primary flight control system. Flaperons are control surfaces that combine the functions of both ailerons and flaps, typically found on aircraft with delta wings. However, the F-15 does not have flaperons as a part of its primary flight control system. The primary flight control surfaces on the F-15 include twin rudders, stabilators (which are a combination of stabilizers and elevators), and ailerons.

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191. What is the purpose of the synchronizer in a radar system?

Explanation

The purpose of the synchronizer in a radar system is to trigger units into operation. This means that the synchronizer is responsible for initiating the various components and subsystems of the radar system, ensuring that they all start working together at the correct time. By synchronizing the operation of the units, the radar system can function effectively and provide accurate and timely information. The synchronizer plays a crucial role in coordinating the actions of the radar system and ensuring its proper functioning.

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192. What is the voltage amplification range in direct current (DC) or alternating current (AC) of the Trek PA1209 high voltage amplifier in the Advanced Digital Test Station?

Explanation

The voltage amplification range of the Trek PA1209 high voltage amplifier in the Advanced Digital Test Station is +/–62 volts, whether it is direct current (DC) or peak alternating current (AC). This means that the amplifier can amplify voltages within this range, providing a maximum output of +62 volts and a minimum output of -62 volts.

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193. Which general-purpose interface unit (GPIU) subsystem controls triggering and synchronization for analog waveform stimulus, digital stimulus/measurement and the analog measurement instruments?

Explanation

The digital test subsystem controls triggering and synchronization for analog waveform stimulus, digital stimulus/measurement, and analog measurement instruments. It is responsible for coordinating and controlling the various test signals and measurements in a digital test environment. This includes generating and synchronizing digital stimulus signals, capturing and analyzing digital measurements, and coordinating the overall test flow. The other options, such as serial bus, waveform stimulus, and test module adapter, do not specifically deal with the control of triggering and synchronization in the same way as the digital test subsystem.

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194. Which general-purpose interface test module (GPITM) built-in test (BIT) verifies the proper operation of the test module adapter (TMA)?

Explanation

The power-on built-in test (BIT) verifies the proper operation of the test module adapter (TMA). This test is performed when the GPITM is powered on. It ensures that the TMA is functioning correctly and ready for testing. The power-on BIT is an essential step to ensure the overall effectiveness and reliability of the GPITM.

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195. In a multisystem extension interface (MXI) bus configuration, up to how many MXI devices can be daisy chained together?

Explanation

In a multisystem extension interface (MXI) bus configuration, up to 8 MXI devices can be daisy chained together. This means that you can connect a maximum of 8 MXI devices in a series, where each device is connected to the previous one, forming a chain-like structure. This allows for easy expansion and connection of multiple devices in a single bus configuration.

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196. What field of an Abbreviated Test Language for All Systems (ATLAS) statement specifies in great detail exactly what is applied or how the timing of a signal is set up?

Explanation

The field of an Abbreviated Test Language for All Systems (ATLAS) statement that specifies in great detail exactly what is applied or how the timing of a signal is set up is the "Variable" field. This field allows for the precise configuration and control of signals in the ATLAS statement, providing detailed information on the application and timing of the signal.

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197. What term identifies the motion about the lateral axis of an aircraft?

Explanation

Pitch is the term that identifies the motion about the lateral axis of an aircraft. Pitch refers to the up or down movement of the aircraft's nose, with the nose moving either up or down in relation to the horizon. This motion is controlled by adjusting the elevator, which is the control surface on the tail of the aircraft. The other options, bank, yaw, and roll, refer to motions about different axes of the aircraft.

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198. You must torque a bolt to 60 inch-pounds, but you only have a foot-pound torque wrench. To what value must you set the foot-pound torque wrench to properly torque the bolt?

Explanation

To convert inch-pounds to foot-pounds, you divide the value by 12. So, to torque the bolt to 60 inch-pounds, you would need to set the foot-pound torque wrench to 5 foot-pounds (60 divided by 12).

Submit
199. On the intermediate automatic test equipment (IATE) test station, switching subsystem readback bits inform the computer that the

Explanation

The correct answer is "appropriate relays have been programmed." This means that the switching subsystem readback bits are informing the computer that the relays necessary for the desired circuit paths have been properly programmed and set up. The other options, such as "output is present at the interface connector assembly" or "circuit paths have been completed," do not specifically address the programming of the relays. Similarly, the option "appropriate relays are operational" suggests that the relays are working, but it does not indicate whether they have been programmed correctly.

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200. What are the voltage alternating current (VAC) power requirements for electronic systems test set (ESTS) operation?

Explanation

The correct answer is 115 VAC single-phase. This means that the electronic systems test set (ESTS) requires a voltage of 115 volts of alternating current (VAC) in a single phase. This voltage is sufficient for the operation of the ESTS and meets the power requirements for electronic systems testing.

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What should you do if the maintenance task you are working on appears...
Increased humidity helps to dissipate electrostatic charges by
The electrostatic voltage sensitivity threshold of the human body is...
If electrostatic discharge-sensitive (ESDS) components are mounted on...
Radar navigation systems associated with the weapons systems normally...
In the intercommunications system, which type of communication does...
On the Advanced Digital Test Station, which time interval counters...
What should you do if you believe you have a physical or mental...
What unit displays all attack symbology and steering for weapons...
Topical antistats should not be used on electronic parts or printed...
If two pounds of force is applied to the handle end of a 5-inch...
Which is a Department of Defense (DOD)-owned network approved for...
Why should you keep your tools free from rust, nicks, burrs, and...
While using power tools, what safety guideline should you follow to...
What control system component is responsible for evaluating test data...
When would you use a torque wrench to break loose a bolt?
On the intermediate automatic test equipment (IATE) test station,...
On the electronic systems test set (ESTS), digital word generators 1,...
The alignment (ALIN) and calibration (CALS) functions on the...
Which of the following is true about the operation of the oil-cooling...
The responsibility to ensure your recommended technical order (TO)...
Why must all personnel know the location and on-off operation of the...
The digital defensive automatic test equipment (ATE) augmentation...
Each division of the oscilloscope faceplate is
The horizontal divisions of an oscilloscope faceplate are calibrated...
What is the recommended color coding for an electrical safety board?
Before beginning any measurement with an oscilloscope, you must ensure...
Why should you not rely on color coding of compressed gas cylinders to...
When measuring time on an oscilloscope, multiply the trace distance...
On the electronic systems test set (ESTS), which test program set...
Which Automated Computer Program Identification Number System (ACPINS)...
What should you do with a compressed gas cylinder when the pressure of...
Which tier(s) of the general-purpose interface unit (GPIU) form the...
Lever-operated hoists must only be used in
If duplicate identification (ID) numbers for maintenance data...
How many and of what size in gigabytes (GB) are the removable mass...
Classified working papers must be treated like a finished document...
Why would you consult a security classification guide regarding...
Your duty in maintenance is to ensure
How is your military identification card utilized if you are picking...
The concept of interconnecting unit under test (UUT) and test station...
Abbreviated Test Language for All Systems (ATLAS) statements peculiar...
An illustrated parts breakdown (IPB) is what type of technical order...
What type of technical order (TO) update is issued when only small...
Which type of technical order (TO) supplement is issued to correct...
What Air Force manual (AFMAN) prescribes policies and procedures for...
What do you write on a Department of Defense (DD) Form 1348–1A...
How many data lines does the Institute of Electrical and Electronic...
The purpose of a deficiency report (DR) is to
Regarding the MIL-STD 1553B data bus, which computer words can only be...
What type of damage to the test station may result with improper usage...
During the testing of the radio frequency (RF) source (RFS) band 4...
Both the radio frequency (RF) defensive automatic test equipment (ATE)...
In addition to printing the words ―Urgent Action‖ in red, what is...
An AF Form 614, Charge Out Record, is used to
In a technical order (TO), what does the illustrated parts breakdown...
What two basic armament system controls are normally found on the...
Which column in a technical order (TO) illustrated parts breakdown...
It is important for serviceable and unserviceable (reparable)...
The monitor switches of the intercommunications set control...
In portable automatic test equipment calibrator (PATEC) equipment,...
Which is not provided by a tool accounting system (TAS)?
After the CRITICAL alarm sounds, the intermediate automatic test...
The digital subsystem used with the intermediate automatic test...
What causes the statement "ENTRY POINT MAY PRODUCE INVALID...
Which radio-frequency component is used to sample an input signal and...
The flow rate of cooling oil from the oil cooling cart to the line...
The alarm/interlock circuit protects the oil-cooling cart from damage...
How does a power divider affect the characteristics of the signal that...
Which functional test group (FTG) is used to test the control...
On the digital defensive automatic test equipment (ATE) augmentation...
The variable (VAR) control of an oscilloscope must be in the...
The vertical system of your oscilloscope should be
Why is the data from maintenance documentation important to...
The tester replaceable unit (TRU) responsible for providing modulation...
What would be considered a significant event that needs to be...
What power supply requires the use of filters and transformers to...
The 60 hertz (Hz) facility power input to the test station is...
Why is a work center event (WCE) used in maintenance data...
What screen would you start with when your supervisor directs you to...
The radio frequency (RF) module power meter is capable of measuring RF...
The first-line manager and supervisor of maintenance production is the
Which type of publication is used by a unit to standardize local...
What is the principle interface used by the Tactical Electronic...
On the Tactical Electronic Warfare System (TEWS) Intermediate Support...
The Abbreviated Test Language for All Systems (ATLAS) command that...
What type of Abbreviated Test Language for All Systems (ATLAS)...
What aircraft control surfaces control the movement of an aircraft...
What does the angle of attack (AOA) transmitter use to produce its...
Which of the following enables a radar pulse to reach maximum range?
What bombing system release option can be equated to a single selected...
Proper static drain is fast enough to quickly remove the static charge...
The common aircraft portable reprogramming equipment (CAPRE) uses what...
The electronic systems test set (ESTS) power supply system consists of...
The common aircraft portable reprogramming equipment (CAPRE) requires...
Which torque wrench uses micrometer-like markings and a rotating...
The purpose of a balanced torquing sequence is to
The intermediate automatic test equipment (IATE) subinstrument module...
What is specified by the world wide identification (WWID) portion of a...
On the electronic systems test set (ESTS), each switch module No. 1...
In amplitude modulation (AM), how is the amplitude of the carrier wave...
On the electronic systems test set (ESTS), digital word generators 4...
What is used to enter or transfer classified data or software to the...
Technical order (TO) deficiencies such as word omissions and...
Which statement applies to all AF computer software?
How many menu options does the electronic systems test set (ESTS) main...
The 115 volts alternating current (VAC), 400 hertz (Hz) facility power...
Which Advanced Digital Test Station components verify the incoming...
What is the simplest way to limit access to the Integrated Maintenance...
The spectrum analyzer in the radio frequency (RF) module is capable of...
The signals required by the microwave signal conditioner (MSC) when...
What technical orders (TO) give general information and instructions...
Overall test station switching can be classed as
Which inspection includes a review of the forms for current status, a...
When there is conflicting guidance from different safety instructions,...
An advantage of the intercommunications system two-button operation is...
In the Advanced Digital Test Station's Agilent 33250A arbitrary...
How does the upgraded systems test bench computer interface with the...
On the electronic systems test set (ESTS), what is the voltage...
On the electronic systems test set (ESTS), in what slots of the radio...
On the electronic systems test set (ESTS), the Form C relay module...
The operation of a pulse modulated transmitter involves
When is a probable cause of failure (PCOF) displayed in a CONF...
On the electronic systems test set (ESTS), which power control circuit...
Which line replaceable unit (LRU) is not tested using the digital...
On the digital defensive automatic test equipment (ATE) augmentation...
Which radio frequency (RF) module synthesizer is used to provide pulse...
What information does the third field position of a Computer Program...
The 400 hertz (Hz) facility power input to the test station is...
Which signal generator operates in the 10 kilohertz (KHz) to 10...
What code denotes the maximum time that may elapse before assets are...
What is the maximum number of devices that can be connected to an...
What two talk functions are provided by the intercommunication...
What provide the aircrew with visual pitch, roll, heading, and command...
What unit generates and overlays symbology for the F–15 head up...
What do the transducer assemblies on the F–15 Digital Electronic...
Which software enables the common aircraft portable reprogramming...
On the electronic systems test set (ESTS), how many independently...
On the electronic systems test set (ESTS), in what slots of the radio...
On the electronic systems test set (ESTS), how many independent...
On the electronic systems test set (ESTS), at what rate does the H009...
The Abbreviated Test Language for All Systems (ATLAS) command that can...
The digital defensive automatic test equipment (ATE) augmentation...
On the defensive automatic test equipment (ATE) augmentation equipment...
Which signal characteristics are necessary to make a phase noise...
On the Advanced Digital Test Station, which interface uses the...
How many general purpose interface bus (GPIB) cards are installed in...
The general-purpose interface test module (GPITM) power-on and...
What does the 10 megahertz (MHZ) reference shop replaceable unit...
What control surface is not a part of the F–15 primary flight...
What is the purpose of the synchronizer in a radar system?
What is the voltage amplification range in direct current (DC) or...
Which general-purpose interface unit (GPIU) subsystem controls...
Which general-purpose interface test module (GPITM) built-in test...
In a multisystem extension interface (MXI) bus configuration, up to...
What field of an Abbreviated Test Language for All Systems (ATLAS)...
What term identifies the motion about the lateral axis of an aircraft?
You must torque a bolt to 60 inch-pounds, but you only have a...
On the intermediate automatic test equipment (IATE) test station,...
What are the voltage alternating current (VAC) power requirements for...
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