Avionics Test Station And Aircraft Component

217 Questions | Total Attempts: 46

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Avionics Quizzes & Trivia

Avionics Test Station and Components specialists are responsible for ensuring that these systems remain perfectly calibrated. These professionals inspect and maintain everything from aircraft radar and weapons control to the testing equipment essential to the maintenance process. The test below is appropriate for people undergoing the training. Give it a try!


Questions and Answers
  • 1. 
    A spectrum analyzer is simply a receiver with the output of
    • A. 

      A paper chart printer.

    • B. 

      A signal indicating board.

    • C. 

      An audio-monitoring speaker.

    • D. 

      A cathode-ray tube (CRT) display instead of a speaker.

  • 2. 
    Abbreviated Test Language for All Systems (ATLAS) statements peculiar to radar/electronic warfare (R/EW) test stations are used for all of the following except
    • A. 

      Spectrum analyzer.

    • B. 

      Radio frequency (RF) synthesizers.

    • C. 

      5.6 kilohertz (kHz) power sourced.

    • D. 

      Fixed direct current (DC) power supplies.

  • 3. 
    After the CRITICAL alarm sounds, the intermediate automatic test equipment (IATE) station panel initiates the power down sequence. This will occur if the condition persists for
    • A. 

      10 seconds.

    • B. 

      20 seconds.

    • C. 

      30 seconds.

    • D. 

      1 minute.

  • 4. 
    An advantage of the intercommunications system two-button operation is it
    • A. 

      Prevents more than one person talking at a time.

    • B. 

      Allows the operator to speak on the radio and intercom at the same time.

    • C. 

      Requires more than one crew member to press a button before anyone can talk.

    • D. 

      Allows the pilots to easily select the interphone independent of the set control selector switch position.

  • 5. 
    An AF Form 614, Charge Out Record, is used to
    • A. 

      Report a technical order (TO) deficiency.

    • B. 

      Sign out tools from a consolidated tool kit.

    • C. 

      Account for classified items at the end of a shift.

    • D. 

      Remove a TO from its storage location.

  • 6. 
    An electrostatic discharge (ESD) protected area is used when you are
    • A. 

      Handling electrostatic discharge-sensitive (ESDS) items outside their protective packaging.

    • B. 

      Performing a functional checkout of ESDS items inside their protective packaging.

    • C. 

      Repairing ESD control products.

    • D. 

      Testing ESD control products.

  • 7. 
    An illustrated parts breakdown (IPB) is what type of technical order (TO)?
    • A. 

      Index.

    • B. 

      General.

    • C. 

      Methods and procedures.

    • D. 

      Operational and maintenance.

  • 8. 
    As part of the electromagnetic frequency (EMF) Safety Program, who must ensure required warning signs and safety devices are in place and functional prior to beginning work?
    • A. 

      Individual.

    • B. 

      Supervisor.

    • C. 

      Squadron safety officer.

    • D. 

      Bioenvironmental engineer (BEE).

  • 9. 
    Before beginning any measurement with an oscilloscope, you must ensure the probe you are going to use is
    • A. 

      Set to +10 volts direct current (VDC).

    • B. 

      Set to –10 VDC.

    • C. 

      Calibrated correctly.

    • D. 

      Adjusted to its maximum setting.

  • 10. 
    Both the radio frequency (RF) defensive automatic test equipment (ATE) augmentation equipment (DAAE) interface test adapter (ITA) and the intermediate automatic test equipment (IATE) ITA are
    • A. 

      Active devices.

    • B. 

      Passive devices.

    • C. 

      Semi-active devices.

    • D. 

      Semi-passive devices.

  • 11. 
    By what means are time compliance technical order (TCTO) instructions distributed when the urgency of conditions doesn’t allow time for printing and distribution of instructions in formal technical order (TO) format?
    • A. 

      Interim TCTO.

    • B. 

      Routine TCTO.

    • C. 

      Depot-level accomplishment.

    • D. 

      Intermediate-level accomplishment.

  • 12. 
    Classified working papers must be treated like a finished document when they are retained
    • A. 

      More than 90 days, or when released outside the activity.

    • B. 

      More than 180 days, or when released outside the activity.

    • C. 

      At least one year, and are not released outside the activity.

    • D. 

      Any length of time, as long as they are not released outside the activity.

  • 13. 
    During the testing of the radio frequency (RF) source (RFS) band 4 through band 8 line replaceable unit (LRU), what provides the digital signal processing and control in response to the intermediate automatic test equipment’s (IATE) program?
    • A. 

      Radio frequency (RF) defensive automatic test equipment (ATE) augmentation equipment (DAAE).

    • B. 

      Band 4 through band 8 receiver functional test group (FTG).

    • C. 

      Radar electronic warfare (R/EW) test station.

    • D. 

      Monitor and control system.

  • 14. 
    Each device on the Institute of Electrical and Electronic Engineers (IEEE)–488 bus has a unique bus address that starts at 0 and goes up to
    • A. 

      20.

    • B. 

      30.

    • C. 

      40.

    • D. 

      50.

  • 15. 
    Each division of the oscilloscope faceplate is
    • A. 

      One-half inch square.

    • B. 

      One-quarter inch square.

    • C. 

      One centimeter square.

    • D. 

      One millimeter square.

  • 16. 
    Frequency is determined by the formula
    • A. 

      F=1/T

    • B. 

      F=2/T

    • C. 

      F=1/P

    • D. 

      F=2/P

  • 17. 
    Hoists must be attached to
    • A. 

      Well-defined dead-end points capable of handling the load.

    • B. 

      Lifeline attach points designed for hoists.

    • C. 

      Load-tested attach points.

    • D. 

      A free standing A-frame.

  • 18. 
    How does a power divider affect the characteristics of the signal that enters it?
    • A. 

      Power and frequency are reduced by one-half.

    • B. 

      Power and frequency are reduced by one-third.

    • C. 

      Power is reduced by one-half, but the frequency is unchanged.

    • D. 

      Power is reduced by one-third, but the frequency is unchanged.

  • 19. 
    How does the bioenvironmental office determine the noise exposure level of a work area?
    • A. 

      From stationary noise recording devices.

    • B. 

      From monitoring equipment worn by employees in the work area.

    • C. 

      From the noise level tables utilized for different pieces of equipment.

    • D. 

      From the manufacturer’s noise level documentation of all the equipment in the work area.

  • 20. 
    How does the upgraded systems test bench computer interface with the test equipment and units under test (UUT)?
    • A. 

      GPIB.

    • B. 

      1553B.

    • C. 

      IEEE–488.

    • D. 

      VXI chassis.

  • 21. 
    How is a cathode ray tube (CRT) placed on a work surface?
    • A. 

      Face up.

    • B. 

      On its side.

    • C. 

      Face down.

    • D. 

      In an approved holding fixture.

  • 22. 
    How is your military identification card utilized if you are picking up a classified asset from supply?
    • A. 

      It is used by the Logistics Readiness Squadron (LRS) security manager to determine your clearance in Joint Personnel Adjudication System (JPAS).

    • B. 

      LRS personnel make a copy of it as proof of who they turned the asset over to.

    • C. 

      It is checked against the current security classification guide to verify your need to know.

    • D. 

      LRS personnel check it against their current roster of individuals authorized to receipt for classified material.

  • 23. 
    How is your shop identified to receive revisions or updates for the computer programs you use?
    • A. 

      By the Automated Computer Program Identification Number System (ACPINS) distribution list.

    • B. 

      By the system program office roster.

    • C. 

      By the software management section distribution list.

    • D. 

      By the software technical order distribution office roster.

  • 24. 
    How many and of what size in gigabytes (GB) are the removable mass storage drives used in the Advanced Digital Test Station controller?
    • A. 

      Two, 40 GB.

    • B. 

      Two, 80 GB.

    • C. 

      One, 40 GB.

    • D. 

      One, 80 GB.

  • 25. 
    How many data lines does the Institute of Electrical and Electronic Engineers (IEEE)–488 bus have?
    • A. 

      3.

    • B. 

      5.

    • C. 

      8.

    • D. 

      24.

  • 26. 
    How many general purpose interface bus (GPIB) cards are installed in the controller of the Advanced Digital Test Station?
    • A. 

      1.

    • B. 

      2.

    • C. 

      3.

    • D. 

      4.

  • 27. 
    How many menu options does the electronic systems test set (ESTS) main menu provide to the operator?
    • A. 

      2.

    • B. 

      4.

    • C. 

      6.

    • D. 

      8.

  • 28. 
    If a classified document contains TOP SECRET information, which of the following portion marking statements apply?
    • A. 

      Only the TOP SECRET portions will be marked.

    • B. 

      Portion markings are not used for TOP SECRET documents.

    • C. 

      Only the TOP SECRET and UNCLASSIFIED portions will be marked.

    • D. 

      Every portion of the document will be marked to show the highest level of classification that it contains.

  • 29. 
    If duplicate identification (ID) numbers for maintenance data documentation are a concern, what can be used to eliminate the problem?
    • A. 

      The last four positions of the equipment serial number.

    • B. 

      The last four positions of the equipment stock number.

    • C. 

      A modified number of a locally developed alphanumeric designator.

    • D. 

      A modified number of a major command (MAJCOM) developed alphanumeric designator.

  • 30. 
    If electrostatic discharge-sensitive (ESDS) components are mounted on a circuit board, then the
    • A. 

      Components are still susceptible to electrostatic discharge (ESD) damage.

    • B. 

      Circuit board forms an electrostatic shield, protecting the components.

    • C. 

      Circuit board forms a static drain, protecting the components.

    • D. 

      Components are no longer susceptible to ESD damage.

  • 31. 
    If triboelectrification occurs due to friction between two bodies, the result is that
    • A. 

      Both bodies lose electrons.

    • B. 

      Both bodies gain electrons.

    • C. 

      There is no change in electrons.

    • D. 

      One body gains electrons and one body loses electrons.

  • 32. 
    If two pounds of force is applied to the handle end of a 5-inch wrench, how much torque has been developed at the bolt end of the wrench?
    • A. 

      2 ½ inch-pounds.

    • B. 

      5-inch-pounds.

    • C. 

      10-inch-pounds.

    • D. 

      20-inch-pounds.

  • 33. 
    In a multisystem extension interface (MXI) bus configuration, up to how many MXI devices can be daisy chained together?
    • A. 

      4.

    • B. 

      6.

    • C. 

      8.

    • D. 

      10.

  • 34. 
    In a portable automatic test equipment calibrator (PATEC) calibration, which error is not associated with a systematic error?
    • A. 

      Random.

    • B. 

      Instrumental.

    • C. 

      Observational.

    • D. 

      Environmental.

  • 35. 
    In a technical order (TO), what does the illustrated parts breakdown assign each part of a system or equipment item?
    • A. 

      A figure and index.

    • B. 

      A safety summary.

    • C. 

      A supply designator.

    • D. 

      To a list of illustrations.

  • 36. 
    In addition to printing the words ―Urgent Action‖ in red, what is used to identify an urgent action time compliance technical order (TCTO) on the first page?
    • A. 

      Red Xs only.

    • B. 

      Red diagonals only.

    • C. 

      Red Xs alternately spaced with red diagonals.

    • D. 

      Red Xs alternately spaced with circled red Xs.

  • 37. 
    In amplitude modulation (AM), how is the amplitude of the carrier wave altered?
    • A. 

      Only the top amplitude is varied.

    • B. 

      Only the bottom amplitude is varied.

    • C. 

      The top and bottom of the carrier amplitude are varied by the same amount.

    • D. 

      The top of the carrier amplitude is varied more than the bottom of the carrier amplitude.

  • 38. 
    In portable automatic test equipment calibrator (PATEC) equipment, what type of standard is a Rubidium frequency standard?
    • A. 

      Measurement.

    • B. 

      Modulation.

    • C. 

      Calibration.

    • D. 

      Timing.

  • 39. 
    In the Advanced Digital Test Station’s Agilent 33250A arbitrary waveform generator, what are the upper frequency limits, in megahertz (MHz) or gigahertz (GHz), for sine and square wave outputs and for pulse waveform outputs, respectively?
    • A. 

      50 MHz, 80 MHz.

    • B. 

      80 MHz, 50 MHz.

    • C. 

      50 GHz, 80 GHz.

    • D. 

      80 GHz, 50 GHz.

  • 40. 
    In the intercommunications system, which type of communication does not require the use of a push-to-talk switch to activate the microphone (MIC)?
    • A. 

      CALL.

    • B. 

      HOT-MIC.

    • C. 

      EXTERNAL.

    • D. 

      INTERPHONE.

  • 41. 
    Increased humidity helps to dissipate electrostatic charges by
    • A. 

      Increasing surface conductivity.

    • B. 

      Decreasing surface conductivity.

    • C. 

      Increasing component insulation.

    • D. 

      Decreasing component insulation.

  • 42. 
    It is important for serviceable and unserviceable (reparable) electrostatic discharge-sensitive (ESDS) items to receive the same electrostatic discharge (ESD) protection so
    • A. 

      The conductive connector caps are not lost.

    • B. 

      Technicians stay in the habit of protecting all items.

    • C. 

      No further ESD damage is done to the damaged parts.

    • D. 

      No further ESD damage is done to the remaining operating parts.

  • 43. 
    Lever-operated hoists must only be used in
    • A. 

      A direct pull.

    • B. 

      An indirect pull.

    • C. 

      A dead-end point.

    • D. 

      A no-load condition.

  • 44. 
    On the Advanced Digital Test Station, which interface uses the Resource Manager (ResMan) communication utility program to establish a bus communication path?
    • A. 

      VXI.

    • B. 

      DAQ.

    • C. 

      GPIB.

    • D. 

      Ethernet.

  • 45. 
    On the Advanced Digital Test Station, which time interval counters (TIC) and digitizers must be removed and replaced as a set because of factory calibration?
    • A. 

      One VM2164 two-channel TIC, two VM2601 14-bit digitizers, and the SMP1200-S–11267 attenuator.

    • B. 

      Two SMP1200-S–11267 attenuators and two VM2164 two-channel TIC.

    • C. 

      One VM2164 two-channel TIC and one VM2601 14-bit digitizer only.

    • D. 

      Two VM2601 14-bit digitizers only.

  • 46. 
    On the defensive automatic test equipment (ATE) augmentation equipment (DAAE), what wire list includes columns labeled LEVEL 1 GOES TO and LEVEL 2 GOES TO?
    • A. 

      Wire-wrap list.

    • B. 

      Signal family list.

    • C. 

      Cable termination list.

    • D. 

      Double entry wire listing.

  • 47. 
    On the digital defensive automatic test equipment (ATE) augmentation equipment (DAAE), standard wire run lists the columns provided are labeled FROM TERMINAL, TO TERMINAL, and
    • A. 

      AWG NO.

    • B. 

      NO OF WIRES.

    • C. 

      SIGNAL NAME.

    • D. 

      SIGNAL NUMBER.

  • 48. 
    On the digital defensive automatic test equipment (ATE) augmentation equipment (DAAE), the SIGNAL NUMBER column of the double entry wire list is used to cross-reference with what other list?
    • A. 

      Wire-wrap.

    • B. 

      Signal name.

    • C. 

      Signal family.

    • D. 

      Cable termination.

  • 49. 
    On the electronic systems test set (ESTS), at what rate does the H009 interface module (A7A4) transfer serial data?
    • A. 

      1 megahertz (MHz).

    • B. 

      1 gigahertz (GHz).

    • C. 

      10 MHz.

    • D. 

      10 GHz.

  • 50. 
    On the electronic systems test set (ESTS), digital word generators 1, 2, and 3 are what type of digital word generators?
    • A. 

      High-density.

    • B. 

      Low-density.

    • C. 

      High-speed.

    • D. 

      Low-speed.

  • 51. 
    On the electronic systems test set (ESTS), digital word generators 4 and 5 are what type of digital word generators?
    • A. 

      High-density.

    • B. 

      Low-density.

    • C. 

      High-speed.

    • D. 

      Low-speed.

  • 52. 
    On the electronic systems test set (ESTS), each switch module No. 1 and No. 2 (A6A3 and A6A4) consists of 211 relays. What type of relays are they?
    • A. 

      Single pole, single throw (SPST).

    • B. 

      Single pole, double throw (SPDT).

    • C. 

      Double pole, single throw (DPST).

    • D. 

      Double pole, double throw (DPDT).

  • 53. 
    On the electronic systems test set (ESTS), how many independently programmable power supply modules does the alternating current (AC) power supply assembly (A3A3) contain?
    • A. 

      1.

    • B. 

      2.

    • C. 

      3.

    • D. 

      4.

  • 54. 
    On the electronic systems test set (ESTS), how many independent digital to analog converter channels does the digital to analog converter (A6A2) provide?
    • A. 

      1.

    • B. 

      12.

    • C. 

      16.

    • D. 

      24.

  • 55. 
    On the electronic systems test set (ESTS), in what slot of the radio frequency (RF) versatile modular European (VME) extension for instrumentation (VXI) assembly (A5) is the VXI bus extender module (A5A1) located?
    • A. 

      0.

    • B. 

      1.

    • C. 

      2.

    • D. 

      3.

  • 56. 
    On the electronic systems test set (ESTS), in what slots of the radio frequency (RF) versatile modular European (VME) extension for instrumentation (VXI) assembly (A5) is the RF generator number 2 (A5A2) located?
    • A. 

      0, 1, and 2.

    • B. 

      1, 2, and 3.

    • C. 

      2, 3, and 4.

    • D. 

      3, 4, and 5.

  • 57. 
    On the electronic systems test set (ESTS), in what slots of the radio frequency (RF) versatile modular European (VME) extension for instrumentation (VXI) assembly (A5) is the RF counter (A5A9) located?
    • A. 

      1, 2, and 3.

    • B. 

      6, 7, and 8.

    • C. 

      9, 10, and 11.

    • D. 

      11, 12, and 13.

  • 58. 
    On the electronic systems test set (ESTS), the Form C relay module (A6A7) consists of how many independent Form C relays?
    • A. 

      32.

    • B. 

      64.

    • C. 

      128.

    • D. 

      256.

  • 59. 
    On the electronic systems test set (ESTS), the versatile modular European (VME) extension for instrumentation (VXI) bus extender module (A6A1) serves as the interface between the multisystem extension interface (MXI) bus and how many analog stimulus and response modules?
    • A. 

      4.

    • B. 

      6.

    • C. 

      8.

    • D. 

      10.

  • 60. 
    On the electronic systems test set (ESTS), what is the voltage programming range of the high voltage direct current (DC) power supply (DCPS) module (DCPS6/A4A2)?
    • A. 

      100 to 200 volts DC (VDC).

    • B. 

      100 to 500 VDC.

    • C. 

      0 to 100 VDC.

    • D. 

      0 to 200 VDC.

  • 61. 
    On the electronic systems test set (ESTS), which power control circuit breaker controls power to the alternating current (AC) and direct current (DC) power equipment assemblies?
    • A. 

      MAIN POWER ON/OFF.

    • B. 

      VXI POWER ON/OFF.

    • C. 

      RF POWER ON/OFF.

    • D. 

      PS POWER ON/OFF.

  • 62. 
    On the electronic systems test set (ESTS), which test program set (TPS) main menu option performs a test on a specific line replaceable unit (LRU) shop replaceable unit (SRU)?
    • A. 

      LOAD OFP.

    • B. 

      READ/VERIFY OFP.

    • C. 

      INDIVIDUAL TESTING.

    • D. 

      END-TO-END TESTING.

  • 63. 
    On the intermediate automatic test equipment (IATE) test station, which switching subsystem circuit card assembly (CCA) provides programmable wraparound between the J1 connector pins and feedthrough from connector J1 to connector P1?
    • A. 

      General-purpose switch jumper.

    • B. 

      General-purpose switch 5-amp.

    • C. 

      2 ( 8 matrix.

    • D. 

      Stim matrix.

  • 64. 
    On the intermediate automatic test equipment (IATE) test station, switching subsystem readback bits inform the computer that the
    • A. 

      Output is present at the interface connector assembly (ICA).

    • B. 

      Appropriate relays have been programmed.

    • C. 

      Circuit paths have been completed.

    • D. 

      Appropriate relays are operational.

  • 65. 
    On the Tactical Electronic Warfare System (TEWS) Intermediate Support System (TISS) test station, what interface functions does the stimulus distribution assembly (SDA) perform?
    • A. 

      Combines radio frequency (RF) signals and routes output signals only.

    • B. 

      Produces time base signal and provides output signal termination only.

    • C. 

      Combines RF signals, provides output signal termination and routes output signals.

    • D. 

      Produces time base signal, provides output signal termination and routes output signals.

  • 66. 
    Overall test station switching can be classed as
    • A. 

      Stimulus and switching

    • B. 

      Stimulus and measurement.

    • C. 

      Stimulus and computer control.

    • D. 

      Computer control and switching.

  • 67. 
    Phase shifting of a pulsed radio frequency (RF) input by 0 and 180° defines
    • A. 

      Biphase modulation.

    • B. 

      Pulse modulation.

    • C. 

      Carrier noise.

    • D. 

      Phase noise.

  • 68. 
    Proper static drain is fast enough to quickly remove the static charge before any damage is done, yet slow enough so it does not produce a damaging
    • A. 

      Electrostatic field.

    • B. 

      Discharge current.

    • C. 

      Discharge voltage.

    • D. 

      Microdiffusion field.

  • 69. 
    Providing a visual display for measuring voltage and frequency is a function of the
    • A. 

      Counter.

    • B. 

      Power meter.

    • C. 

      Oscilloscope.

    • D. 

      Digital multimeter.

  • 70. 
    Radar navigation systems associated with the weapons systems normally facilitate the computerized release of onboard
    • A. 

      Rockets.

    • B. 

      Missiles.

    • C. 

      Nuclear bombs.

    • D. 

      Conventional bombs.

  • 71. 
    Regarding the MIL-STD 1553B data bus, which computer words can only be generated and transmitted by the bus controller?
    • A. 

      Command.

    • B. 

      Parity.

    • C. 

      Status.

    • D. 

      Data.

  • 72. 
    Responsibility for supply discipline rests with
    • A. 

      Supply personnel.

    • B. 

      The squadron commander.

    • C. 

      The supply squadron commander.

    • D. 

      All military and civilian employees.

  • 73. 
    Routing of alternating current (AC) power to line replaceable unit (LRU) direct current (DC) power supplies in the radio frequency (RF) module is performed by the
    • A. 

      Computer assembly.

    • B. 

      Controlled turn-on panel.

    • C. 

      DC power switching unit.

    • D. 

      Microwave signal conditioner.

  • 74. 
    Stabilators provide aircraft
    • A. 

      Pitch control and aid in yaw control.

    • B. 

      Roll control and aid in pitch control.

    • C. 

      Pitch control and aid in roll control.

    • D. 

      Yaw control and aid in direction.

  • 75. 
    Technical order (TO) deficiencies such as word omissions and typographical errors that do not cause any misinterpretation that would affect mission accomplishment may be submitted as
    • A. 

      A minor correction.

    • B. 

      A routine recommendation.

    • C. 

      An urgent recommendation.

    • D. 

      An emergency recommendation.

  • 76. 
    The 115 volts alternating current (VAC), 400 hertz (Hz) facility power input to a test station originates from the
    • A. 

      Public utility line.

    • B. 

      Input power generator.

    • C. 

      Main facility power panel.

    • D. 

      400 Hz test station power panel.

  • 77. 
    The 400 hertz (Hz) facility power input to the test station is primarily used to
    • A. 

      Provide power to cooling air blowers, measurement devices, and standard outlets.

    • B. 

      Provide power to the monitoring and analysis circuits and to develop tester replaceable units (TRU) and UUT voltages.

    • C. 

      Develop voltages for self-test functions, automatic test station shutdown, and monitoring and analysis circuits.

    • D. 

      Develop all the necessary voltages for the test station TRUs and the line replaceable units (LRU) involved in checkout procedures.

  • 78. 
    The 60 hertz (Hz) facility power input to the test station is primarily used to
    • A. 

      Provide power to cooling air blowers, measurement devices, and standard outlets.

    • B. 

      Provide power to the monitoring and analysis circuits and develop tester replaceable unit (TRU) and unit under test (UUT) voltages.

    • C. 

      Develop voltages for self-test functions, automatic test station shutdown, and monitoring and analysis circuits.

    • D. 

      Develop all the necessary voltages for the test station TRUs and the line replaceable units (LRU) involved in checkout procedures.

  • 79. 
    The Abbreviated Test Language for All Systems (ATLAS) command that can be used only during internal confidence testing, when you are programming the fixed direct current (DC) power supply, is
    • A. 

      APPLY.

    • B. 

      SETUP.

    • C. 

      CLOSE.

    • D. 

      OPEN.

  • 80. 
    The Abbreviated Test Language for All Systems (ATLAS) command that disconnects the measurement instrument from the line replaceable unit (LRU), recovers the data, converts it to proper format, and stores it in the system variable MEASUREMENT is
    • A. 

      READ.

    • B. 

      APPLY.

    • C. 

      MEASURE.

    • D. 

      MONITOR.

  • 81. 
    The alarm/interlock circuit protects the oil-cooling cart from damage due to
    • A. 

      Viscosity or excessive coolant flow.

    • B. 

      Incorrect viscosity or coolant pressure.

    • C. 

      Excessive coolant temperature or inadequate coolant flow.

    • D. 

      Inadequate coolant temperature or excessive coolant flow.

  • 82. 
    The alignment (ALIN) and calibration (CALS) functions on the intermediate automatic test equipment (IATE) test station must be run every
    • A. 

      90 days or any time affected shop or tester replaceable units (SRU/TRU) are repaired or replaced.

    • B. 

      180 days or any time affected SRU/TRUs are repaired or replaced.

    • C. 

      90 days for ALIN and every 180 days for CALS.

    • D. 

      180 days for ALIN and every 90 days for CALS.

  • 83. 
    The common aircraft portable reprogramming equipment (CAPRE) uses what type of computer?
    • A. 

      Commercial off-the-shelf ruggedized laptop.

    • B. 

      Portable unit with programmable cartridge.

    • C. 

      Ruggedized personal data assistant.

    • D. 

      Solid-state personal computer.

  • 84. 
    The common aircraft portable reprogramming equipment (CAPRE) requires visual inspection of components
    • A. 

      Daily.

    • B. 

      Monthly.

    • C. 

      Semi-annually.

    • D. 

      Annually.

  • 85. 
    The concept of interconnecting unit under test (UUT) and test station resources is
    • A. 

      Routing.

    • B. 

      Switching.

    • C. 

      Measurement.

    • D. 

      Computer control.

  • 86. 
    The digital defensive automatic test equipment (ATE) augmentation equipment (DAAE) functional test group that provides the programmed input/output (I/O) scenario and direct memory access for the control interface unit (CIU) line replaceable unit (LRU) is the
    • A. 

      Emitter simulator processor (ESP).

    • B. 

      Avionics control unit (ACU).

    • C. 

      Control interface unit (CIU).

    • D. 

      Test module adapter (TMA).

  • 87. 
    The digital defensive automatic test equipment (ATE) augmentation equipment (DAAE) test adapter group (TAG) serves what testing purpose?
    • A. 

      Digital DAAE self-test.

    • B. 

      DIG test station self-test.

    • C. 

      Test module adapter self-test.

    • D. 

      DIG test station performance test.

  • 88. 
    The digital subsystem used with the intermediate automatic test equipment (IATE) test station provides both
    • A. 

      Serial and RS–232.

    • B. 

      Parallel and RS–232.

    • C. 

      Stimulus and measurement.

    • D. 

      Conversion and measurement.

  • 89. 
    The electronic systems test set (ESTS) power supply system consists of the
    • A. 

      Alternating current (AC) power supply assembly only.

    • B. 

      AC power supply assembly and the direct current (DC) power supply assembly only.

    • C. 

      DC power supply assembly and the high voltage DC power supply module only.

    • D. 

      DC and AC power supply assemblies and the high voltage DC power supply module.

  • 90. 
    The electrostatic voltage sensitivity threshold of the human body is approximately
    • A. 

      500 volts.

    • B. 

      1,200 volts.

    • C. 

      3,500 volts.

    • D. 

      4,500 volts.

  • 91. 
    The first-line manager and supervisor of maintenance production is the
    • A. 

      Section chief.

    • B. 

      Flight commander.

    • C. 

      Squadron commander.

    • D. 

      Maintenance superintendent.

  • 92. 
    The flow rate of cooling oil from the oil cooling cart to the line replaceable unit (LRU) being tested is determined by the
    • A. 

      Requirements of the unit under test (UUT).

    • B. 

      Number of LRUs being tested.

    • C. 

      Viscosity of the cooling oil.

    • D. 

      Temperature of the coolant.

  • 93. 
    The general-purpose interface test module (GPITM) power-on and initiated are two of the three types of built-in tests (BIT). What is the third type?
    • A. 

      Nonstop.

    • B. 

      Permanent.

    • C. 

      Continuous.

    • D. 

      Uninterrupted.

  • 94. 
    The horizontal divisions of an oscilloscope faceplate are calibrated to the settings of the
    • A. 

      TIME/DIV control.

    • B. 

      VOLTS/DIV control.

    • C. 

      AC-GND-DC switch.

    • D. 

      VERT MODE switch.

  • 95. 
    The intermediate automatic test equipment (IATE) subinstrument module (SIM) multiple output power supplies (MOPS) receive power from the
    • A. 

      Utility power panel.

    • B. 

      Station power panel.

    • C. 

      AC/DC switching assembly.

    • D. 

      3-phase, 400-Hz power supply.

  • 96. 
    The monitor switches of the intercommunications set control individually monitor and adjust the
    • A. 

      HOT-MIC LISTENING function.

    • B. 

      Rotary select switch output.

    • C. 

      Eight audio level inputs.

    • D. 

      Master system volume.

  • 97. 
    The multisystem extension interface (MXI) bus has two cables: a point-to-point and a
    • A. 

      Multimaster.

    • B. 

      Multidrop.

    • C. 

      Multiline.

    • D. 

      Multibus.

  • 98. 
    The operation of a pulse modulated transmitter involves
    • A. 

      High energy pulses, long distances and low power consumption.

    • B. 

      Low energy pulses, long distances and high power consumption.

    • C. 

      Low energy pulses, short distances and low power consumption.

    • D. 

      High energy pulses, short distances and high power consumption.

  • 99. 
    The power meter
    • A. 

      Must be operated manually.

    • B. 

      Can be operated manually or automatically.

    • C. 

      Can only be operated through use of an interface bus.

    • D. 

      Can only be operated through an automatic test station (ATS).

  • 100. 
    The procedures for submitting a deficiency report (DR) are found in Technical Order (TO)
    • A. 

      00–5–2.

    • B. 

      00–20–7.

    • C. 

      00–25–234.

    • D. 

      00–35D–54.

  • 101. 
    The purpose of a balanced torquing sequence is to
    • A. 

      Ensure the recommended torque value is not exceeded.

    • B. 

      Ensure the recommended torque value is attained.

    • C. 

      Allow the use of two different torque wrenches.

    • D. 

      Prevent warping in the assembly.

  • 102. 
    The purpose of a deficiency report (DR) is to
    • A. 

      Report and resolve deficiencies in test equipment received from the manufacturer.

    • B. 

      Identify and resolve deficiencies in materials received from the manufacturer.

    • C. 

      Identify, report, and resolve deficiencies in materials received from supply.

    • D. 

      Report deficiencies in test equipment received from supply.

  • 103. 
    The radio frequency (RF) module power meter is capable of measuring RF power with a range in decibels (referenced to milliwatts), or dBm, of
    • A. 

      –90 to +20 dBm.

    • B. 

      –70 to +70 dBm.

    • C. 

      –70 to +35 dBm.

    • D. 

      –35 to +70 dBm.

  • 104. 
    The radio-frequency component used to prevent any feedback in a circuit is the
    • A. 

      Isolator.

    • B. 

      Attenuator.

    • C. 

      Band-pass filter.

    • D. 

      Directional coupler.

  • 105. 
    The responsibility to ensure your recommended technical order (TO) change is valid and warrants submittal rests with your
    • A. 

      Supervisor.

    • B. 

      Commander.

    • C. 

      Section chief.

    • D. 

      Quality assurance inspector.

  • 106. 
    The signals required by the microwave signal conditioner (MSC) when making a biphase measurement are biphase modulated radio frequency (RF),
    • A. 

      LO1, LO2, and LRU 50 MHz REF.

    • B. 

      LO1, LO2, and LRU 75 MHz REF.

    • C. 

      Amplitude modulation (AM) REF, LO1, and LRU 50 MHz REF.

    • D. 

      Amplitude modulation (AM) REF, LO1, and LRU 75 MHz REF.

  • 107. 
    The spectrum analyzer in the radio frequency (RF) module is capable of providing complex waveform analysis over a hertz (Hz) to gigahertz (GHz) frequency range of
    • A. 

      1 Hz to 22 GHz.

    • B. 

      1 Hz to 222 GHz.

    • C. 

      10 Hz to 222 GHz.

    • D. 

      100 Hz to 22 GHz.

  • 108. 
    The tester replaceable unit (TRU) responsible for providing modulation drive signals, modulating and demodulating test signals, and routing signals to and from the unit under test (UUT) is the
    • A. 

      Radio frequency (RF) synthesizer.

    • B. 

      Microwave signal conditioner.

    • C. 

      Phase noise analyzer.

    • D. 

      Power meter.

  • 109. 
    The variable (VAR) control of an oscilloscope must be in the calibrated detent or the time measurement will be
    • A. 

      Accurate.

    • B. 

      Inaccurate.

    • C. 

      Reading positive in voltage.

    • D. 

      Reading negative in voltage.

  • 110. 
    The vertical system of your oscilloscope should be
    • A. 

      Zero to one times faster than the rise of the applied signal.

    • B. 

      One to two times faster than the rise of the applied signal.

    • C. 

      One to four times faster than the rise of the applied signal.

    • D. 

      Two to five times faster than the rise of the applied signal.

  • 111. 
    Topical antistats should not be used on electronic parts or printed circuit boards because they
    • A. 

      Harden and cause cracked runs.

    • B. 

      Hasten the formation of surface fungus.

    • C. 

      May form current leakage paths that cause malfunctions.

    • D. 

      Form surface fungus on parts not completely dipped in the antistat.

  • 112. 
    What Air Force manual (AFMAN) prescribes policies and procedures for Air Force participation in the Department of Defense (DOD) Precious Metals Recovery Program (PMRP)?
    • A. 

      24–206.

    • B. 

      24–202.

    • C. 

      23–161.

    • D. 

      23–110.

  • 113. 
    What aircraft control surfaces control the movement of an aircraft about the vertical axis and produce the motion known as yaw?
    • A. 

      Wings.

    • B. 

      Rudders.

    • C. 

      Elevators.

    • D. 

      Flaperons.

  • 114. 
    What are the three types of maintenance levels?
    • A. 

      Depot, intermediate, and organizational.

    • B. 

      Organizational, contract, and condemned.

    • C. 

      On-equipment, off-equipment, and intermediate.

    • D. 

      Depot, contract, and not reparable this station (NRTS).

  • 115. 
    What are the voltage alternating current (VAC) power requirements for electronic systems test set (ESTS) operation?
    • A. 

      220 VAC single-phase.

    • B. 

      115 VAC single-phase.

    • C. 

      220 VAC 3-phase.

    • D. 

      115 VAC 3-phase.

  • 116. 
    What bombing system release option can be equated to a single selected weapons release?
    • A. 

      Manual.

    • B. 

      Computed.

    • C. 

      Automatic.

    • D. 

      Manual-computed.

  • 117. 
    What calibration sticker is normally used to indicate that a piece of test equipment has been calibrated?
    • A. 

      The AFTO Form 108.

    • B. 

      The AFTO Form 255.

    • C. 

      The DD Form 1574.

    • D. 

      The DD Form 1575.

  • 118. 
    What causes the statement "ENTRY POINT MAY PRODUCE INVALID FAILURE MESSAGES" to be displayed when running self-tests on the intermediate automatic test equipment (IATE) station?
    • A. 

      Insufficient warm-up period.

    • B. 

      Installation of incorrect test adapter.

    • C. 

      Using outdated self-test software disk.

    • D. 

      Conducting tests in other than the indicated sequence.

  • 119. 
    What code denotes the maximum time that may elapse before assets are delivered to the customer?
    • A. 

      Supply response priority.

    • B. 

      Force activity designator.

    • C. 

      Urgency justification code.

    • D. 

      Urgency of need designator.

  • 120. 
    What control surface is not a part of the F–15 primary flight control system?
    • A. 

      Twin rudders.

    • B. 

      Stabilators.

    • C. 

      Flaperons.

    • D. 

      Ailerons.

  • 121. 
    What control system component is responsible for evaluating test data on the intermediate automatic test equipment (IATE) test station?
    • A. 

      Color graphics terminal.

    • B. 

      Test module adapter.

    • C. 

      Computer.

    • D. 

      Disc drive.

  • 122. 
    What do the transducer assemblies on the F–15 Digital Electronic Engine Controller measure?
    • A. 

      Only engine inlet and exit pressure.

    • B. 

      Only fuel flow pressure and mainburner pressure.

    • C. 

      Fuel flow pressure, mainburner pressure, and engine exit pressure.

    • D. 

      Engine inlet pressure, mainburner pressure, and engine exit pressure.

  • 123. 
    What do you write on a Department of Defense (DD) Form 1348–1A if you are refusing to accept a delivery from supply?
    • A. 

      Delivery error.

    • B. 

      Avionics refusal.

    • C. 

      Item not needed.

    • D. 

      Organizational refusal.

  • 124. 
    What does the 10 megahertz (MHZ) reference shop replaceable unit (SRU), in the Tactical Electronic Warfare System (TEWS) Intermediate Support System (TISS) test station’s stimulus distribution assembly (SDA), provide to the station radio frequency (RF) resources?
    • A. 

      A feedback reference.

    • B. 

      A local oscillator signal.

    • C. 

      A stable time base signal.

    • D. 

      An intermediate frequency.

  • 125. 
    What does the angle of attack (AOA) transmitter use to produce its output?
    • A. 

      The heating element.

    • B. 

      A stabilized gyroscope that detects aircraft angle.

    • C. 

      Two synchros that align the probe tip with the airstream.

    • D. 

      A movable sensing element that routes air into two synchro cavities.

  • 126. 
    What equipment red status symbol is used to indicate that an operational check is due?
    • A. 

      X.

    • B. 

      Dash.

    • C. 

      Diagonal slash.

    • D. 

      X in a circle.

  • 127. 
    What field of an Abbreviated Test Language for All Systems (ATLAS) statement specifies in great detail exactly what is applied or how the timing of a signal is set up?
    • A. 

      Noun.

    • B. 

      Verb.

    • C. 

      Variable.

    • D. 

      Evaluation.

  • 128. 
    What in the versatile modular European (VME) extension for instrumentation (VXI) bus system has the physical mounting and backplane connections for plug-in modules?
    • A. 

      Wiring.

    • B. 

      Connectors.

    • C. 

      Motherboard.

    • D. 

      Mainframe chassis.

  • 129. 
    What information does the third field position of a Computer Program Identification Number (CPIN) compendium number indicate?
    • A. 

      Major system and subsystem.

    • B. 

      Revision, baseline, and version.

    • C. 

      Type of software and sequence number.

    • D. 

      Supplemental information to use with program.

  • 130. 
    What is always the first section of an Abbreviated Test Language for All Systems (ATLAS) program?
    • A. 

      System procedure.

    • B. 

      Program structure.

    • C. 

      Preamble structure.

    • D. 

      Procedural structure.

  • 131. 
    What is specified by the world wide identification (WWID) portion of a consolidated tool kit’s (CTK) equipment identification designator (EID)?
    • A. 

      Base and unit.

    • B. 

      Base, unit, and shop.

    • C. 

      Country and base.

    • D. 

      Country, base and unit.

  • 132. 
    What is the maximum number of devices that can be connected to an Institute of Electrical and Electronic Engineers (IEEE) 488 bus?
    • A. 

      15.

    • B. 

      20.

    • C. 

      25.

    • D. 

      40.

  • 133. 
    What is the principle interface used by the Tactical Electronic Warfare System (TEWS) Intermediate Support System (TISS) test station for radio frequency (RF) testing of the unit under test (UUT)?
    • A. 

      Load carts.

    • B. 

      Interface test adapter.

    • C. 

      General-purpose interface test module (GPITM).

    • D. 

      Stimulus distribution assembly/measurement distribution assembly (SDA/MDA).

  • 134. 
    What is the purpose of the synchronizer in a radar system?
    • A. 

      Display range information.

    • B. 

      Trigger units into operation.

    • C. 

      Monitor the operation of all other units.

    • D. 

      Measure the time between the transmission and the echo.

  • 135. 
    What is the recommended color coding for an electrical safety board?
    • A. 

      Dark green background with white letters and border.

    • B. 

      White background with dark green letters and border.

    • C. 

      Dark green background with red letters and border.

    • D. 

      White background with red letters and border.

  • 136. 
    What is the simplest way to limit access to the Integrated Maintenance Data System (IMDS)?
    • A. 

      Log off the Core Automated Maintenance System (CAMS) terminal immediately upon completion of entries.

    • B. 

      Avoid logging on to the computer unless there are no unauthorized personnel in the area.

    • C. 

      Keep the remote terminal in your work area off-line from the base computer.

    • D. 

      Limit access to the user ID/password required to activate the terminal.

  • 137. 
    What is the voltage amplification range in direct current (DC) or alternating current (AC) of the Trek PA1209 high voltage amplifier in the Advanced Digital Test Station?
    • A. 

      +/–25 volts, DC or peak AC.

    • B. 

      +/–37 volts, DC or peak AC.

    • C. 

      +/–62 volts, DC or peak AC.

    • D. 

      +/–82 volts, DC or peak AC.

  • 138. 
    What is used to enter or transfer classified data or software to the electronic systems test set (ESTS)?
    • A. 

      Keyboard.

    • B. 

      Compact disk.

    • C. 

      3.5-inch floppy disk.

    • D. 

      Removable disk drive.

  • 139. 
    What power is distributed to the upgraded systems test bench components and radar units under test (UUT)?
    • A. 

      115V 400 Hertz (Hz) to components and 115V 60 Hz to UUTs.

    • B. 

      115V 60 Hz to components and 115V 400 Hz to UUTs.

    • C. 

      115V 400 Hz to components and UUTs.

    • D. 

      115V 60 Hz to components and UUTs.

  • 140. 
    What power supply requires the use of filters and transformers to produce output?
    • A. 

      Alternating current (AC) only.

    • B. 

      Direct current (DC) only.

    • C. 

      AC and DC.

    • D. 

      AC, DC, or 400 hertz (Hz).

  • 141. 
    What process in the military standard number (MIL–STD)–1553B data bus, transmits information from several sources through one system with different signals staggered in time to form a composite pulse train?
    • A. 

      Transaction.

    • B. 

      Bus protocol.

    • C. 

      Multiplexing.

    • D. 

      Bus architecture.

  • 142. 
    What provide the aircrew with visual pitch, roll, heading, and command information?
    • A. 

      Flight instruments.

    • B. 

      Air data computers.

    • C. 

      Flight director instruments.

    • D. 

      Inertial navigation systems.

  • 143. 
    What radio frequency (RF) defensive automatic test equipment (ATE) augmentation equipment (DAAE) functional test group (FTG) consists of processors, receivers, and pulse generators under test module adapter (TMA) FTG control?
    • A. 

      Frequency encoder.

    • B. 

      Waveform generator.

    • C. 

      Tail warning receiver.

    • D. 

      Emitter simulator processor.

  • 144. 
    What radio frequency (RF) equipment device provides the electronic systems test set (ESTS) with its phase noise measurement capability?
    • A. 

      Signal analyzer.

    • B. 

      Signal generator.

    • C. 

      Spectrum analyzer.

    • D. 

      Function select keys.

  • 145. 
    What screen would you start with when your supervisor directs you to take time in Integrated Maintenance Data System (IMDS) for the maintenance performed today?
    • A. 

      054, Event Maintenance.

    • B. 

      073, Schedule Maintenance.

    • C. 

      499, Supply Data Record Maintenance.

    • D. 

      907, Job Data Documentation (JDD) utilities.

  • 146. 
    What section of the Air Force Technical Order (AFTO) Form 244 provides a continuous record of all major and minor maintenance that has been done on the equipment it is attached to?
    • A. 

      II.

    • B. 

      III.

    • C. 

      IV.

    • D. 

      V.

  • 147. 
    What should you do if the maintenance task you are working on appears to be too dangerous or unsafe?
    • A. 

      Terminate the operation according to the Knock It Off program.

    • B. 

      Complete the task and report your concerns to the Inspector General.

    • C. 

      Complete the task and report your concerns to the Maintenance Operations Officer.

    • D. 

      Allow a more experienced technician to complete the task.

  • 148. 
    What should you do if you believe you have a physical or mental condition that may impact safe job performance?
    • A. 

      Report to sick call so they can notify your shop.

    • B. 

      Immediately report your condition to your supervisor.

    • C. 

      Avoid all hazardous tasks until your condition improves.

    • D. 

      Ensure an equally qualified coworker can cover your hazardous tasks for the shift.

  • 149. 
    What should you do if you inadvertently sent an E-mail with classified information over an unclassified system?
    • A. 

      Notify your security manager immediately.

    • B. 

      Call the recipient(s) to ensure it gets deleted.

    • C. 

      Delete it from your ―sent mail‖ and reboot your computer.

    • D. 

      Notify the Base Command Post.

  • 150. 
    What should you do with a compressed gas cylinder when the pressure of the contents reaches 25 pounds per square inch (psi)?
    • A. 

      Mark the cylinder with the letters ―MT,‖ close the valve, and secure the protective cap.

    • B. 

      Place an unserviceable tag on the cylinder and move it away from the other cylinders.

    • C. 

      Open the valve and secure the cylinder valve protective cap.

    • D. 

      Open the valve and move it away from the other cylinders.

  • 151. 
    What subgrouping list of the wire-wrap programs provides a signal number and name cross-reference?
    • A. 

      Input data listing.

    • B. 

      Signal family listing.

    • C. 

      Signal name directory.

    • D. 

      Double entry wire listing.

  • 152. 
    What technical orders (TO) give general information and instructions in various subject areas for supervisory and administrative personnel?
    • A. 

      General.

    • B. 

      Preliminary.

    • C. 

      Abbreviated.

    • D. 

      Methods and procedures.

  • 153. 
    What term identifies the motion about the lateral axis of an aircraft?
    • A. 

      Bank.

    • B. 

      Pitch.

    • C. 

      Yaw.

    • D. 

      Roll.

  • 154. 
    What two basic armament system controls are normally found on the pilot’s stick grip?
    • A. 

      Trigger and chaff and flare switch.

    • B. 

      Trigger and armament release switch.

    • C. 

      Armament release switch and missile mode switch.

    • D. 

      Armament release switch and chaff dispense switch.

  • 155. 
    What two talk functions are provided by the intercommunication station?
    • A. 

      PTT and HOT MIC.

    • B. 

      HOT MIC and CALL.

    • C. 

      CALL and INTERPHONE.

    • D. 

      HOT MIC TALK and INTERPHONE.

  • 156. 
    What type of Abbreviated Test Language for All Systems (ATLAS) statement does not require the use of the rest of the test station to properly execute?
    • A. 

      Test.

    • B. 

      Nontest.

    • C. 

      Protocol.

    • D. 

      Procedural.

  • 157. 
    What type of damage to the test station may result with improper usage of certain Abbreviated Test Language for All Systems (ATLAS) system procedures?
    • A. 

      Insignificant.

    • B. 

      Catastrophic.

    • C. 

      Negligible.

    • D. 

      Minor.

  • 158. 
    What type of power supply is computer-controlled to produce variable outputs?
    • A. 

      Programmable.

    • B. 

      Step-up transformer.

    • C. 

      Step-down transformer.

    • D. 

      Automated voltage divider.

  • 159. 
    What type of publication is a graphical illustration that may be permanent or temporary?
    • A. 

      Bulletin.

    • B. 

      Pamphlet.

    • C. 

      Visual aid.

    • D. 

      Recurring publication.

  • 160. 
    What type of technical order (TO) update is issued when changed material affects more than 80 percent of the text?
    • A. 

      Change.

    • B. 

      Revision.

    • C. 

      Rescission.

    • D. 

      Supplement.

  • 161. 
    What type of technical order (TO) update is issued when only small parts of the TO are affected?
    • A. 

      Change.

    • B. 

      Revision.

    • C. 

      Rescission.

    • D. 

      Supplement.

  • 162. 
    What unit displays all attack symbology and steering for weapons delivery and night terrain following operations?
    • A. 

      Head up display (HUD).

    • B. 

      Multipurpose display (MPD).

    • C. 

      Multifunction display (MFD).

    • D. 

      Multipurpose color display (MCPD).

  • 163. 
    What unit generates and overlays symbology for the F–15 head up display system?
    • A. 

      Programmable display processor.

    • B. 

      Programmable display generator.

    • C. 

      Multipurpose display processor.

    • D. 

      Multipurpose display generator.

  • 164. 
    What would be considered a significant event that needs to be documented on an Air Force technical order (AFTO) Form 95?
    • A. 

      Software update.

    • B. 

      Compliance with a Time Compliance Technical Order (TCTO).

    • C. 

      180 day calibration.

    • D. 

      Verification of a new test adapter.

  • 165. 
    When is a probable cause of failure (PCOF) displayed in a CONF self-test failure message on the intermediate automatic test equipment (IATE) test station?
    • A. 

      Every time there is a failure.

    • B. 

      When requested by the operator.

    • C. 

      If the failure is repeated on retest.

    • D. 

      When the failure can only be the result of a single shop-replaceable unit (SRU).

  • 166. 
    When maintenance data identifies an item as off-equipment, it is because
    • A. 

      It is a subassembly or component removed from an end item.

    • B. 

      There is no longer power applied to it.

    • C. 

      It is not located on the flightline.

    • D. 

      Supply has taken control of it.

  • 167. 
    When measuring time on an oscilloscope, multiply the trace distance between reference points by the setting of the
    • A. 

      TIME/DIV control.

    • B. 

      VOLTS/DIV control.

    • C. 

      AC-GND-DC switch.

    • D. 

      VERT MODE switch.

  • 168. 
    When the Advanced Digital Test Station’s unit under test (UUT) power inhibit circuit microcontroller completes its power on sequence, it
    • A. 

      De-energizes into an alternating current (AC) power interrupt state.

    • B. 

      De-energizes into an UUT power interrupt state.

    • C. 

      Energizes into an UUT power interrupt state.

    • D. 

      Energizes into an AC power interrupt state.

  • 169. 
    When there is conflicting guidance from different safety instructions, which of the following statements apply?
    • A. 

      Air Force Occupational and Environmental Safety, Fire Protection and Health (AFOSH) standards will always take precedence.

    • B. 

      Follow the guidance with the most current date.

    • C. 

      Department of Defense (DOD) safety directives will always take precedence.

    • D. 

      Follow the guidance that provides the most protection.

  • 170. 
    When would you use a torque wrench to break loose a bolt?
    • A. 

      Never.

    • B. 

      Whenever the bolt is overtightened.

    • C. 

      When using a torque wrench extender.

    • D. 

      When it is too tight to use a standard break-away wrench.

  • 171. 
    Where does facility alternating current (AC) power enter the Advanced Digital Test Station?
    • A. 

      Primary AC box.

    • B. 

      Secondary AC box.

    • C. 

      Control panel assembly.

    • D. 

      Master power distribution unit.

  • 172. 
    Which Abbreviated Test Language for All Systems (ATLAS) test statements generate a signal that can have more states than just ―ON‖ or ―OFF‖?
    • A. 

      Analog measurement.

    • B. 

      Analog stimulus.

    • C. 

      Digital testing.

    • D. 

      Protocols.

  • 173. 
    Which Advanced Digital Test Station components verify the incoming facility power for phase rotation, under and over voltage, and over current conditions?
    • A. 

      Primary and secondary alternating current (AC) boxes.

    • B. 

      Master and slave power distribution units (PDU).

    • C. 

      Uninterruptible power supplies (UPS).

    • D. 

      System Controller and Interfaces.

  • 174. 
    Which Automated Computer Program Identification Number System (ACPINS) product is a valuable research aid when you do not know the Computer Program Identification Number (CPIN), but you have other data pertaining to the system/equipment in question?
    • A. 

      Cross-references.

    • B. 

      USAF compendiums.

    • C. 

      Major command (MAJCOM) compendiums.

    • D. 

      USAF consortium reference.

  • 175. 
    Which column in a technical order (TO) illustrated parts breakdown table indicates how many of each part are needed to completely put a section together?
    • A. 

      Description.

    • B. 

      Part Number.

    • C. 

      Units Per Assembly.

    • D. 

      Figure and Index Number.

  • 176. 
    Which flight performs off-equipment maintenance on communication-navigation, electronic warfare, guidance control, airborne photographic, and sensor systems?
    • A. 

      Avionics.

    • B. 

      Munitions.

    • C. 

      Armament.

    • D. 

      Aerospace ground equipment (AGE).

  • 177. 
    Which functional test group (FTG) is used to test the control interface unit (CIU) line replaceable unit (LRU) and operates in conjunction with the control interface unit (CIU) FTG?
    • A. 

      Test module adapter (TMA).

    • B. 

      Avionics control unit (ACU).

    • C. 

      Advanced tracking unit (ATU).

    • D. 

      Emitter simulator processor (ESP).

  • 178. 
    Which general-purpose interface test module (GPITM) built-in test (BIT) verifies the proper operation of the test module adapter (TMA)?
    • A. 

      Initiated.

    • B. 

      Power-on.

    • C. 

      Continuous.

    • D. 

      Uninterrupted.

  • 179. 
    Which general-purpose interface unit (GPIU) subsystem controls triggering and synchronization for analog waveform stimulus, digital stimulus/measurement and the analog measurement instruments?
    • A. 

      Serial bus.

    • B. 

      Digital test.

    • C. 

      Waveform stimulus.

    • D. 

      Test module adapter.

  • 180. 
    Which inspection includes a review of the forms for current status, a visual inspection of equipment for defects, and adequate servicing?
    • A. 

      Special.

    • B. 

      Operator.

    • C. 

      Acceptance.

    • D. 

      Periodic and scheduled lubrication.

  • 181. 
    Which is a Department of Defense (DOD)-owned network approved for classified data transfer?
    • A. 

      SIPRNET.

    • B. 

      NIPRNET.

    • C. 

      INTERNET.

    • D. 

      INTRANET.

  • 182. 
    Which is not a line replaceable unit (LRU) tested by the radio frequency (RF) defensive automatic test equipment (ATE) augmentation equipment (DAAE) station?
    • A. 

      Radio repeater.

    • B. 

      Waveform generator.

    • C. 

      Emitter simulator processor.

    • D. 

      Tail warning function receiver processor.

  • 183. 
    Which is not provided by a tool accounting system (TAS)?
    • A. 

      Tool manufacturer.

    • B. 

      Tool broken and removed.

    • C. 

      Tool removed for calibration.

    • D. 

      Consolidated tool kit (CTK) due for periodic inspection.

  • 184. 
    Which line replaceable unit (LRU) is not tested using the digital defensive automatic test equipment (ATE) augmentation equipment (DAAE)?
    • A. 

      Identification friend or foe receiver.

    • B. 

      Receiver threshold controller.

    • C. 

      Advanced tracking unit.

    • D. 

      Jammer logic A.

  • 185. 
    Which modifier identifies that an abbreviated test language for all systems (ATLAS) statement is peculiar to the digital defensive automatic test equipment (ATE) augmentation equipment (DAAE)?
    • A. 

      DAAE.

    • B. 

      DAAE TEST.

    • C. 

      Electronic countermeasures (ECM).

    • D. 

      Electronic countermeasures (ECM) TEST.

  • 186. 
    Which of the following correctly indicates a command computer program identification number (CPIN) compendium?
    • A. 

      ACC–8–2.

    • B. 

      80–ALC–2.

    • C. 

      80–2–ACC.

    • D. 

      AFSC–2–80.

  • 187. 
    Which of the following enables a radar pulse to reach maximum range?
    • A. 

      Flat-top and long duration.

    • B. 

      Flat-top and short duration.

    • C. 

      Sharp trailing edge and short duration.

    • D. 

      Sharp trailing edge and long duration.

  • 188. 
    Which of the following is true about the operation of the oil-cooling cart?
    • A. 

      The flow rate of coolant is indicated on pressure gauges.

    • B. 

      Unused hydraulic circuit is bypassed with a jumper hose assembly.

    • C. 

      The flow rate of the hydraulic circuits is not independently variable.

    • D. 

      A maximum of four line replaceable units (LRU) can be cooled at one time.

  • 189. 
    Which one of the radio frequency (RF) module tester replaceable units (TRU) provides both stimulus and measurement for the module?
    • A. 

      Power meter.

    • B. 

      RF synthesizer.

    • C. 

      Spectrum analyzer.

    • D. 

      Microwave signal conditioner.

  • 190. 
    Which piece of test equipment is primarily used to self-calibrate radio frequency (RF) devices within equipment and test stations?
    • A. 

      Oscilloscope.

    • B. 

      Sweep oscillator.

    • C. 

      Spectrum analyzer.

    • D. 

      Scalar network analyzer.

  • 191. 
    Which publication is made of compiled information, arranged in systematic order?
    • A. 

      Pamphlet.

    • B. 

      Directory.

    • C. 

      Handbook.

    • D. 

      Visual aid.

  • 192. 
    Which radio frequency (RF) module synthesizer is used to provide pulse amplitude modulation (PAM) outputs for the test station?
    • A. 

      3A1A1.

    • B. 

      3A1A2.

    • C. 

      3A1A3.

    • D. 

      3A1A4

  • 193. 
    Which radio frequency (RF) module tester replaceable unit (TRU) is used specifically for making measurements?
    • A. 

      Microwave signal conditioner (MSC).

    • B. 

      Phase noise analyzer.

    • C. 

      MSC power supply.

    • D. 

      Spectrum analyzer.

  • 194. 
    Which radio-frequency component is used to sample an input signal and does not have any moving parts?
    • A. 

      Filter.

    • B. 

      Mixer.

    • C. 

      Isolator.

    • D. 

      Directional coupler.

  • 195. 
    Which signal characteristics are necessary to make a phase noise measurement?
    • A. 

      Identical frequency, constantly changing amplitude.

    • B. 

      Different frequencies, constantly changing amplitude.

    • C. 

      Identical frequency, constantly changing phase relationship.

    • D. 

      Different frequencies, constantly changing phase relationship.

  • 196. 
    Which signal generator operates in the 1 gigahertz (GHz) to 18-GHz frequency range?
    • A. 

      Audiofrequency.

    • B. 

      Radiofrequency.

    • C. 

      Reference.

    • D. 

      Microwave.

  • 197. 
    Which signal generator operates in the 10 kilohertz (KHz) to 10 gigahertz (GHz) frequency range?
    • A. 

      Audiofrequency.

    • B. 

      Radiofrequency.

    • C. 

      Reference.

    • D. 

      Microwave.

  • 198. 
    Which signal generator operates in the 20 hertz (Hz) to 20 kilohertz (KHz) frequency range?
    • A. 

      Audiofrequency.

    • B. 

      Radiofrequency.

    • C. 

      Reference.

    • D. 

      Microwave.

  • 199. 
    Which software enables the common aircraft portable reprogramming equipment (CAPRE) to communicate with reprogramming equipment?
    • A. 

      Operating system (OS).

    • B. 

      Aircraft adapter group (AAG).

    • C. 

      Operational flight program (OFP).

    • D. 

      CAPRE Communication Manager (CCM).

  • 200. 
    Which statement applies to all AF computer software?
    • A. 

      It’s managed as automatic test equipment.

    • B. 

      Software computer program identification number (CPIN) compendiums are revised twice yearly.

    • C. 

      It’s designated and managed as computer software configuration items (CSCI).

    • D. 

      Numerical index and requirement tables (NI&RT) provide the consolidated index of USAF embedded computer system (ECS) software within each major command.

  • 201. 
    Which tier(s) of the general-purpose interface unit (GPIU) form the interface test connector?
    • A. 

      A and B.

    • B. 

      B and C.

    • C. 

      A only.

    • D. 

      B only.

  • 202. 
    Which torque wrench uses micrometer-like markings and a rotating adjustment sleeve to set torque values?
    • A. 

      Type I.

    • B. 

      Type II.

    • C. 

      Type III.

    • D. 

      Type IV.

  • 203. 
    Which type of publication is used by a unit to standardize local maintenance or safety procedures when they are not specified in an Air Force instruction or supplement?
    • A. 

      Air Force manual.

    • B. 

      Operating instruction.

    • C. 

      Air Force policy directive.

    • D. 

      Air Force doctrine document.

  • 204. 
    Which type of publication is used to extend or add material to publications issued by higher headquarters?
    • A. 

      Air Force manual.

    • B. 

      Air Force instruction.

    • C. 

      Operating instruction.

    • D. 

      Air Force supplement.

  • 205. 
    Which type of technical order (TO) supplement is issued to correct potentially fatal conditions?
    • A. 

      Safety.

    • B. 

      TO page.

    • C. 

      Operational.

    • D. 

      Time compliance.

  • 206. 
    While using power tools, what safety guideline should you follow to ensure maximum benefits from the tools and to reduce the chances of serious injury?
    • A. 

      Minimize light in the work area to reduce glare.

    • B. 

      Inspect all portable power tools before using them.

    • C. 

      Clear a jammed power tool without disconnecting it from the power source.

    • D. 

      Use a damaged power cord only when necessary to accomplish the mission.

  • 207. 
    Who does the responsibility for preparing a draft deficiency report (DR) rests with?
    • A. 

      Originator.

    • B. 

      Single manager.

    • C. 

      Support point personnel.

    • D. 

      Quality assurance (QA).

  • 208. 
    Who is responsible for designating flight chiefs?
    • A. 

      Wing commander.

    • B. 

      Group commander.

    • C. 

      Squadron commander.

    • D. 

      Maintenance superintendent.

  • 209. 
    Why is a work center event (WCE) used in maintenance data documentation?
    • A. 

      To change a job’s status.

    • B. 

      To track scheduled maintenance actions.

    • C. 

      To report discrepancies on unrelated jobs.

    • D. 

      To differentiate between different maintenance actions required to complete a particular job.

  • 210. 
    Why is the data from maintenance documentation important to maintenance activities across the base regarding maintenance problems?
    • A. 

      It provides a quarterly total of maintenance problems.

    • B. 

      The base quality assurance office can review the problems at any time.

    • C. 

      It provides the means for validating and initiating corrective action on them.

    • D. 

      It increases the quantity of repair assets assigned to a maintenance activity.

  • 211. 
    Why must all personnel know the location and on-off operation of the power distribution panels and power control switches in their work area?
    • A. 

      To shut down the equipment at the end of the shift.

    • B. 

      To demonstrate their proper use during a safety inspection.

    • C. 

      To instruct fire department personnel when they respond to a fire in the building.

    • D. 

      To disengage electrical circuits to equipment in the event of a fire or accidental electrical contact.

  • 212. 
    Why should you keep your tools free from rust, nicks, burrs, and breaks?
    • A. 

      So they look good during inspections.

    • B. 

      Because you will have to pay to replace them if you do not.

    • C. 

      So you do not have to complete all of the paperwork required to replace them.

    • D. 

      Because your efficiency is often a direct result of the condition of the tools you use.

  • 213. 
    Why should you not rely on color coding of compressed gas cylinders to identify the contents?
    • A. 

      The colors fade easily.

    • B. 

      Only large tanks are color coded.

    • C. 

      Only the small tanks are color coded.

    • D. 

      Different manufacturers use different color codes.

  • 214. 
    Why would you consult a security classification guide regarding classified material in your control?
    • A. 

      To evaluate the degree of protection necessary.

    • B. 

      To determine all locations in possession of that same classified material.

    • C. 

      Since it lists the current point of contact for questions regarding that classified material.

    • D. 

      Since all of the personnel in your work area who are authorized access to that classified material are listed.

  • 215. 
    Within the general-purpose interface test module (GPITM) general-purpose interface unit (GPIU), if multiple built-in test (BIT) failures occur for multiple circuit card assemblies (CCA) and the interface (I/F) chassis bus extender is one of the CCAs that has failed BIT, what action should be taken?
    • A. 

      Ignore all other CCA BIT failures until the I/F chassis bus extender CCA fail is corrected.

    • B. 

      Start from tier A and reset each CCA one at a time and then rerun BIT after each reset.

    • C. 

      Reload system software because multiple CCA BIT fails indicate a software problem.

    • D. 

      Power down and back-up the test station, this will reset all CCA firmware.

  • 216. 
    You must torque a bolt to 60 inch-pounds, but you only have a foot-pound torque wrench. To what value must you set the foot-pound torque wrench to properly torque the bolt?
    • A. 

      3 foot-pounds.

    • B. 

      5 foot-pounds.

    • C. 

      6 foot-pounds.

    • D. 

      12 foot-pounds.

  • 217. 
    Your duty in maintenance is to ensure
    • A. 

      Assigned aircraft and equipment meet mission needs.

    • B. 

      Wing maintenance meets quality assurance standards.

    • C. 

      Aircraft repair is contracted to the appropriate agency.

    • D. 

      You take appropriate shortcuts to expedite repair time.