2a352h Volume 2 Aircraft Technology

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2a352h Volume 2 Aircraft Technology - Quiz


2A352H Volume 2 / Chapter 1 Self Test Questions. F-22A Familiarization and Avionic Systems


Questions and Answers
  • 1. 

    201. How does low observable (stealth) technology enhance the aircraft?

    • A.

      It makes the aircraft invisible to most radar sites.

    • B.

      It increases the lethality and survivability of this weapon system.

    • C.

      It increases the visibility of enemy defenses.

    • D.

      It makes the aircraft nearly invisible to enemy defenses and increases the lethality and survivability of this weapon system.

    Correct Answer
    D. It makes the aircraft nearly invisible to enemy defenses and increases the lethality and survivability of this weapon system.
    Explanation
    Low observable (stealth) technology enhances the aircraft by making it nearly invisible to enemy defenses. This means that the aircraft is difficult to detect and track using radar, giving it a significant advantage in combat situations. Additionally, this technology increases the lethality and survivability of the weapon system, as it allows the aircraft to approach targets undetected and deliver its payload with minimal risk of being intercepted or shot down.

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  • 2. 

    201. Does stealth make the aircraft invisible? Explain.

    • A.

      No. Stealth makes the aircraft radar evading, not invisible.

    • B.

      No. Stealth makes the aircraft radar jamming, not invisible.

    • C.

      Yes. Stealth make the aircraft invisible to most 2nd generation radar systems.

    • D.

      Yes. Stealth makes the aircraft invisible to all ground based radar systems.

    Correct Answer
    A. No. Stealth makes the aircraft radar evading, not invisible.
    Explanation
    Stealth technology is designed to reduce the radar signature of an aircraft, making it difficult for radar systems to detect and track it. However, it does not make the aircraft completely invisible. Stealth technology achieves this by minimizing the reflection of radar waves and by using special materials and shapes that absorb or deflect radar signals away from the radar receiver. While it can significantly reduce the aircraft's radar cross-section, it does not render it completely invisible to radar systems.

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  • 3. 

    201. What powerplant(s) does the F-22 use to power the aircraft?

    • A.

      Two F110-PW-100 afterburning turbofan engines.

    • B.

      Two F119-PW-100 afterburning turbofan engines.

    • C.

      Two F110-PW-220 afterburning turbofan engines.

    • D.

      Two F119-PW-220 afterburning turbofan engines.

    Correct Answer
    B. Two F119-PW-100 afterburning turbofan engines.
    Explanation
    The F-22 uses two F119-PW-100 afterburning turbofan engines to power the aircraft.

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  • 4. 

    201.  What is the thrust class of the F-22 engines?

    • A.

      25,000 lbs

    • B.

      35,000 lbs

    • C.

      45,000 lbs

    • D.

      55,000 lbs

    Correct Answer
    B. 35,000 lbs
    Explanation
    The thrust class of the F-22 engines is 35,000 lbs. This means that each engine is capable of producing a thrust of 35,000 pounds, which is a measure of the force that propels the aircraft forward. This level of thrust is necessary to provide the F-22 with the power and speed required for its advanced capabilities and maneuverability in the air.

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  • 5. 

    201. What is the maximum takeoff weight of the F-22?

    • A.

      40,000 lbs

    • B.

      50,000 lbs

    • C.

      60,000 lbs

    • D.

      70,000 lbs

    Correct Answer
    C. 60,000 lbs
    Explanation
    The correct answer is 60,000 lbs. This is the maximum weight at which the F-22 can take off. It is important for an aircraft to operate within its maximum takeoff weight limit to ensure safe and efficient performance during takeoff and flight.

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  • 6. 

    201. Define supercruise.

    • A.

      Achieving supersonic flight without the use of afterburners.

    • B.

      Achieving trans-sonic flight without the use of afterburners.

    • C.

      Achieving supersonic flight with the use of afterburners.

    • D.

      Achieving trans-sonic flight with the use of afterburners.

    Correct Answer
    A. Achieving supersonic flight without the use of afterburners.
    Explanation
    Supercruise refers to the ability of an aircraft to sustain supersonic flight without the need for afterburners. Afterburners are typically used to provide an extra boost of thrust for supersonic flight, but with supercruise, the aircraft can maintain supersonic speeds using only its regular engines. This allows for improved fuel efficiency and longer range compared to using afterburners.

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  • 7. 

    201. What surfaces compose the F-22 speedbrake system?

    • A.

      The rudders, flaperons, horizontal tails, and longerons which deflect upon speedbrake switch activation.

    • B.

      The rudders, vertical stabilizers, and speedbrakes which deflect upon speedbrake switch activation.

    • C.

      The rudders, ailerons, and speedbrakes which deflect upon speedbrake switch activation.

    • D.

      The rudders, flaperons, horizontal tails, and ailerons which deflect upon speedbrake switch activation.

    Correct Answer
    D. The rudders, flaperons, horizontal tails, and ailerons which deflect upon speedbrake switch activation.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is the rudders, flaperons, horizontal tails, and ailerons which deflect upon speedbrake switch activation. This means that when the speedbrake switch is activated, these surfaces will change their position to help slow down the aircraft.

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  • 8. 

    201. What hydraulic system is used to actuate the nose and main landing gear?

    • A.

      System 1

    • B.

      System 2

    • C.

      System A

    • D.

      System B

    Correct Answer
    B. System 2
    Explanation
    System 2 is used to actuate the nose and main landing gear in the hydraulic system.

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  • 9. 

    201. In the event of a hydraulic failure, how are the landing gear extended?

    • A.

      Electrically

    • B.

      Mechanically

    • C.

      Pneumatically

    • D.

      Digitally

    Correct Answer
    C. Pneumatically
    Explanation
    In the event of a hydraulic failure, the landing gear is extended pneumatically. Pneumatic systems use compressed air to generate mechanical motion, and in this case, it is used to activate the landing gear mechanism. This method allows the landing gear to be deployed even when the hydraulic system is not functioning properly, ensuring the safety of the aircraft during landing.

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  • 10. 

    201. How many fuel tanks compost the fuel system and where are they?

    • A.

      Six. Four fuselage tanks and two internal wing tanks.

    • B.

      Seven. Five fuselage tanks and two internal wing tanks.

    • C.

      Eight. Six fuselage tanks and two internal wing tanks.

    • D.

      Nine. Seven fuselage tanks and two internal wing tanks.

    Correct Answer
    C. Eight. Six fuselage tanks and two internal wing tanks.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Eight. Six fuselage tanks and two internal wing tanks. This means that the fuel system consists of a total of eight tanks, with six located in the fuselage and two located in the wings.

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  • 11. 

    201. How much fuel can the F-22 carry externally?

    • A.

      1,200 gallons (2 ea / 600 gallon tanks).

    • B.

      1,000 gallons (2 ea / 500 gallon tanks).

    • C.

      740 gallons (2 ea / 370 gallon tanks).

    • D.

      700 gallons (2 ea / 350 gallon tanks).

    Correct Answer
    A. 1,200 gallons (2 ea / 600 gallon tanks).
    Explanation
    The F-22 can carry a total of 1,200 gallons of fuel externally, with each tank holding 600 gallons. This means that there are two tanks, each with a capacity of 600 gallons, resulting in a total of 1,200 gallons.

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  • 12. 

    201. Who maintains the electrical and environmental systems of the F-22?

    • A.

      Avionics technicians

    • B.

      Electrical and environmental technicians

    • C.

      Crew Chiefs

    • D.

      Weapons technicians

    Correct Answer
    A. Avionics technicians
    Explanation
    Avionics technicians are responsible for maintaining the electrical and environmental systems of the F-22. These systems are crucial for the functioning of the aircraft and include components such as electrical wiring, power distribution systems, climate control systems, and environmental monitoring systems. Avionics technicians are trained to troubleshoot, repair, and maintain these systems to ensure the aircraft's optimal performance and safety. They play a vital role in the overall maintenance and operation of the F-22.

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  • 13. 

    201. What are the three basic reference planes used on the F-22 aircraft?

    • A.

      The fuselage station, the buttock line, and the waterline.

    • B.

      Pitch, roll, and yaw.

    • C.

      The fuselage section, the empennage section, and the landing gear.

    • D.

      The fuselage section, the empennage section, and the wings.

    Correct Answer
    A. The fuselage station, the buttock line, and the waterline.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "The fuselage station, the buttock line, and the waterline." These three reference planes are used on the F-22 aircraft for measurement and alignment purposes. The fuselage station is a longitudinal reference plane that measures distance from a fixed point on the aircraft. The buttock line is a vertical reference plane that runs through the center of the aircraft's fuselage. The waterline is a horizontal reference plane that is parallel to the aircraft's water surface when it is at rest. These reference planes are essential for maintaining proper alignment and balance of the aircraft during construction and maintenance.

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  • 14. 

    201. Where is the starting point for each of the following stations?a.  Fuselage station.b.  Buttock line.c.  Waterline.

    • A.

      FS--Fuselage station zero (FS 0.0), 269.77 inches forward of the IFB. BL--Buttock line zero (BL 0), the horizontal centerline of the aircraft. WL--Waterline zero (WL 0.0), and is located 15 inches below the aircraft static ground plane.

    • B.

      FS--Fuselage station zero (FS 0.0), 269.77 inches forward of the IFB. BL--Buttock line zero (BL 0), the vertical centerline of the aircraft. WL--Waterline zero (WL 0.0), and is located 30 inches below the aircraft static ground plane.

    • C.

      FS--Fuselage station zero (FS 0.0), 169.77 inches aft of the IFB. BL--Buttock line zero (BL 0), the vertical centerline of the aircraft. WL--Waterline zero (WL 0.0), and is located 15 inches above the aircraft static ground plane.

    • D.

      FS--Fuselage station zero (FS 0.0), 169.77 inches forward of the IFB. BL--Buttock line zero (BL 0), the vertical centerline of the aircraft. WL--Waterline zero (WL 0.0), and is located 15 inches below the aircraft static ground plane.

    Correct Answer
    D. FS--Fuselage station zero (FS 0.0), 169.77 inches forward of the IFB. BL--Buttock line zero (BL 0), the vertical centerline of the aircraft. WL--Waterline zero (WL 0.0), and is located 15 inches below the aircraft static ground plane.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is FS--Fuselage station zero (FS 0.0), 169.77 inches forward of the IFB. BL--Buttock line zero (BL 0), the vertical centerline of the aircraft. WL--Waterline zero (WL 0.0), and is located 15 inches below the aircraft static ground plane. This means that the starting point for the fuselage station is located 169.77 inches forward of the IFB, the starting point for the buttock line is the vertical centerline of the aircraft, and the starting point for the waterline is located 15 inches below the aircraft static ground plane.

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  • 15. 

    201. How are the F-22 reference planes numbered?

    • A.

      They are numbered in 1 -inch increments.

    • B.

      They are numbered in 2 -inch increments.

    • C.

      They are numbered in 10 -inch increments.

    • D.

      They are numbered in 1 -foot increments.

    Correct Answer
    A. They are numbered in 1 -inch increments.
    Explanation
    The F-22 reference planes are numbered in 1-inch increments. This means that each reference plane is labeled with a number that is 1 inch apart from the next one. This numbering system allows for precise measurements and reference points on the F-22 aircraft.

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  • 16. 

    201. What provides access to internal aircraft equipment?

    • A.

      Access doors only.

    • B.

      Access panels only.

    • C.

      Access doors and panels.

    • D.

      None of the above.

    Correct Answer
    C. Access doors and panels.
    Explanation
    Access doors and panels provide access to internal aircraft equipment. These doors and panels are designed to be easily opened or removed, allowing maintenance personnel to access and inspect various components and systems inside the aircraft. This access is crucial for performing regular maintenance, repairs, and inspections to ensure the proper functioning and safety of the aircraft.

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  • 17. 

    201. How are the doors and panels categorized?

    • A.

      Semi-permanent, rain seals, close-out panels, or skins.

    • B.

      Actuated, screens and windows, seals, infrequent access, or permanent skins.

    • C.

      Quick access, structural, close-out panels, or permanent skins.

    • D.

      Infrequent access, rain seals, structural, or permanent.

    Correct Answer
    B. Actuated, screens and windows, seals, infrequent access, or permanent skins.
    Explanation
    The correct answer categorizes doors and panels based on their characteristics. It includes actuated doors (doors that are operated by a mechanism), screens and windows (doors and panels with screen or window features), seals (doors and panels that provide airtight or watertight closure), infrequent access (doors and panels that are not frequently used), and permanent skins (doors and panels that are permanently attached to the structure). This categorization helps in understanding the different types and purposes of doors and panels in a given context.

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  • 18. 

    201. What is the construction of the doors and panels?

    • A.

      An aluminum alloy.

    • B.

      A composite chromium material.

    • C.

      A composite/titanium material.

    • D.

      A depleted uranium alloy.

    Correct Answer
    C. A composite/titanium material.
    Explanation
    The doors and panels are constructed using a composite/titanium material. This means that the material used is a combination of different materials, with titanium being one of the main components. This combination of materials provides strength and durability to the doors and panels, making them suitable for various applications.

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  • 19. 

    201. What is the function of the main and side weapons bays?

    • A.

      Provide access for weapons loading and when open maintain aircraft low observable qualities and aerodynamic properties.

    • B.

      Provide access for weapons loading and when closed maintain aircraft low observable qualities and aerodynamic properties.

    • C.

      Provide access for weapons loading and when closed allow for access to critical avionic systems.

    • D.

      Provide access for weapons loading and when open allow for access to critical avionic systems.

    Correct Answer
    B. Provide access for weapons loading and when closed maintain aircraft low observable qualities and aerodynamic properties.
    Explanation
    The main and side weapons bays serve the function of providing access for weapons loading. When closed, they also help in maintaining the aircraft's low observable qualities and aerodynamic properties. This means that when the weapons bays are closed, the aircraft's stealth capabilities and overall performance are not compromised.

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  • 20. 

    201. How far will the main weapons bay doors open for weapons loading?

    • A.

      115 degrees

    • B.

      125 degrees

    • C.

      135 degrees

    • D.

      145 degrees

    Correct Answer
    B. 125 degrees
    Explanation
    The main weapons bay doors will open 125 degrees for weapons loading.

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  • 21. 

    201. What is the function of the aircraft service doors?

    • A.

      Provide access for scheduled inspections, servicing aircraft systems/ components, and removal and installation of line replaceable units.

    • B.

      Protect aircraft systems/components from environmental conditions and provide access to line replaceable units.

    • C.

      Maintain aircraft aerodynamic features.

    • D.

      Enhance aircraft low observable qualities.

    Correct Answer
    A. Provide access for scheduled inspections, servicing aircraft systems/ components, and removal and installation of line replaceable units.
    Explanation
    The function of the aircraft service doors is to provide access for scheduled inspections, servicing aircraft systems/components, and removal and installation of line replaceable units. These doors allow maintenance personnel to easily access and work on various components and systems of the aircraft, ensuring that they are properly inspected, serviced, and repaired as necessary. This helps to maintain the overall functionality and safety of the aircraft.

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  • 22. 

    201. What type of door or panel provides access to the keel beam and keelsons?

    • A.

      Removable Interior panels.

    • B.

      Removable exterior panels.

    • C.

      Fixed Interior panels.

    • D.

      Fixed exterior panels

    Correct Answer
    C. Fixed Interior panels.
    Explanation
    Fixed interior panels provide access to the keel beam and keelsons. These panels are securely attached to the structure of the door or panel and cannot be easily removed. They are designed to provide structural integrity and stability to the vessel's keel system. These fixed panels ensure that the keel beam and keelsons are protected and can be accessed for maintenance and inspection purposes. Removable panels, on the other hand, can be taken off easily, which may not be ideal for accessing and maintaining the keel system.

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  • 23. 

    201. How is the NLG held in the up position?

    • A.

      It is mechanically linked to the nose landing gear assembly and close as the nose landing gear extends. They remain there until the gear is again lowered.

    • B.

      It is hydraulically linked to the nose landing gear assembly and close as the nose landing gear retracts. They remain there until the gear is again lowered.

    • C.

      It is mechanically linked to the nose landing gear assembly and close as the nose landing gear retracts. They remain there until the gear is again lowered.

    • D.

      It is pneumatically linked to the nose landing gear assembly and close as the nose landing gear retracts. They remain there until the gear is again lowered.

    Correct Answer
    C. It is mechanically linked to the nose landing gear assembly and close as the nose landing gear retracts. They remain there until the gear is again lowered.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is that the NLG (Nose Landing Gear) is mechanically linked to the nose landing gear assembly and closes as the nose landing gear retracts. It remains in the up position until the gear is lowered again. This means that the NLG is not hydraulically or pneumatically linked, but rather operates through mechanical linkage.

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  • 24. 

    201. How can the weapons bay doors be opened?

    • A.

      They can be opened using the external weapons aid (EWA), or from access door 9121.

    • B.

      They can be opened using the portable maintenance aid (PMA), or from access door 9121.

    • C.

      They can be opened using the portable maintenance aid (PMA), or from the nose landing gear.

    • D.

      They can be opened using the portable maintenance aid (PMA), or from the cockpit.

    Correct Answer
    D. They can be opened using the portable maintenance aid (PMA), or from the cockpit.
    Explanation
    The weapons bay doors can be opened using the portable maintenance aid (PMA), which is a tool specifically designed for maintenance tasks. Additionally, the doors can also be opened from the cockpit, allowing the pilot to have direct control over the opening process.

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  • 25. 

    201. How many J-seals and form in place seals are used on the aircraft?

    • A.

      15 J-seals and 77 form-in place seals.

    • B.

      77 J-seals and 15 form-in place seals.

    • C.

      17 J-seals and 75 form-in place seals.

    • D.

      75 J-seals and 17 form-in place seals.

    Correct Answer
    D. 75 J-seals and 17 form-in place seals.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is 75 J-seals and 17 form-in place seals. This means that there are a total of 92 seals used on the aircraft, with the majority being J-seals.

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  • 26. 

    201. What type of tools should be used to remove structure panels?

    • A.

      Only powered tools shall be used.

    • B.

      Only non-powered tools shall be used.

    • C.

      Only metallic tools shall be used.

    • D.

      Only non-metallic tools shall be used.

    Correct Answer
    D. Only non-metallic tools shall be used.
    Explanation
    Non-metallic tools should be used to remove structure panels to prevent any damage or scratches to the surface. Metallic tools can potentially cause damage to the panels or leave marks, while non-metallic tools are less likely to cause any harm.

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  • 27. 

    201. Why is it important to replace worn fasteners immediately?

    • A.

      Worn fasteners are more likely to be subjected to corrosion.

    • B.

      Worn fasteners are more difficult to use with conventional tools.

    • C.

      Tool slippage can cause damage to aircraft door or panel skin.

    • D.

      There is no evidence that suggest worn fasteners should be replaced immediately.

    Correct Answer
    C. Tool slippage can cause damage to aircraft door or panel skin.
    Explanation
    Worn fasteners are more likely to loosen over time, leading to tool slippage. When a tool slips while trying to tighten or loosen a worn fastener, it can cause damage to the aircraft door or panel skin. This can result in compromised structural integrity or even potential safety hazards. Therefore, it is important to replace worn fasteners immediately to prevent any potential damage or accidents caused by tool slippage.

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  • 28. 

    202. Name the three main sections of the airframe.

    • A.

      The forward section, center section, and aft section.

    • B.

      The fuselage, empennage, and the cockpit.

    • C.

      The fuselage, the empennage, and the wings.

    • D.

      The fuselage stations, the buttock line, and the waterline.

    Correct Answer
    C. The fuselage, the empennage, and the wings.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is the fuselage, the empennage, and the wings. The fuselage is the main body of the aircraft that houses the crew, passengers, and cargo. The empennage refers to the tail section of the aircraft, which includes the horizontal and vertical stabilizers. The wings are the primary lifting surfaces of the aircraft, responsible for generating lift and providing stability during flight. These three main sections are crucial components of the airframe that contribute to the overall structure, stability, and performance of the aircraft.

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  • 29. 

    202. where is the side stick controller located?

    • A.

      Left horizontal console

    • B.

      Right horizontal console

    • C.

      Left vertical console

    • D.

      Right vertical console

    Correct Answer
    B. Right horizontal console
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Right horizontal console. The side stick controller, which is used to control the aircraft's pitch and roll, is located on the right horizontal console. This console is typically positioned within easy reach of the pilot's right hand, allowing for precise control of the aircraft's movements.

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  • 30. 

    202. Where is the battery switch located?

    • A.

      Left primary console

    • B.

      Left aux console

    • C.

      Right primary console

    • D.

      Right aux console

    Correct Answer
    D. Right aux console
    Explanation
    The battery switch is located on the right aux console.

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  • 31. 

    203. How fast cant the F-22 aircraft be ready to taxi after engine start?

    • A.

      10 seconds

    • B.

      20 seconds

    • C.

      30 seconds

    • D.

      40 seconds

    Correct Answer
    C. 30 seconds
    Explanation
    The F-22 aircraft can be ready to taxi within 30 seconds after engine start. This suggests that the aircraft has efficient systems and processes in place to quickly prepare for takeoff. A shorter time frame, such as 10 or 20 seconds, may be too quick for the necessary checks and preparations, while 40 seconds may indicate a slower process. Therefore, 30 seconds seems to strike a balance between speed and thoroughness.

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  • 32. 

    203. What is the fuel grade used on the F-22?

    • A.

      JP-4

    • B.

      JP-8

    • C.

      JP-10

    • D.

      JP-15

    Correct Answer
    B. JP-8
    Explanation
    The F-22 uses JP-8 fuel grade.

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  • 33. 

    203. The two independent hydraulic systems are capable of providing what pressure?

    • A.

      2100 psi

    • B.

      3100 psi

    • C.

      4100 psi

    • D.

      5100 psi

    Correct Answer
    C. 4100 psi
    Explanation
    The two independent hydraulic systems are capable of providing a pressure of 4100 psi.

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  • 34. 

    203. How much fluid flow is provided for emergency in-flight hydraulic power?

    • A.

      27 gpm

    • B.

      37 gpm

    • C.

      47 gpm

    • D.

      57 gpm

    Correct Answer
    A. 27 gpm
    Explanation
    The correct answer is 27 gpm. This refers to the amount of fluid flow provided for emergency in-flight hydraulic power. It indicates that in emergency situations, a flow rate of 27 gallons per minute is available to maintain hydraulic power.

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  • 35. 

    203. What aircraft voltage is provided to the engine  inlet total temperate sensor

    • A.

      28 vdc

    • B.

      270 vdc

    • C.

      28 vac

    • D.

      270 vac

    Correct Answer
    B. 270 vdc
    Explanation
    The correct answer is 270 vdc. The engine inlet total temperature sensor requires a high voltage direct current (vdc) of 270 volts to operate effectively. This voltage is necessary to accurately measure the temperature of the air entering the engine. Alternating current (vac) is not suitable for this sensor as it requires a continuous and stable voltage supply.

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  • 36. 

    203.What hydraulic system provides power for the main landing gear extension and retraction?

    • A.

      System 1

    • B.

      System 2

    • C.

      System 3

    • D.

      System 4

    Correct Answer
    B. System 2
    Explanation
    System 2 provides power for the main landing gear extension and retraction in the hydraulic system.

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  • 37. 

    203. How many AMADs are installed on the F-22 aircraft?

    • A.

      2

    • B.

      4

    • C.

      6

    • D.

      8

    Correct Answer
    A. 2
    Explanation
    The correct answer is 2 because the question is asking for the number of AMADs (Aircraft Mounted Accessory Drives) installed on the F-22 aircraft. The answer options provide different numbers, and the correct answer is the option with the number 2.

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  • 38. 

    204. Where should you be while ensuring the cockpit is safe for entry?

    • A.

      On the crew ladder

    • B.

      In the cockpit

    • C.

      On the ground

    • D.

      In the wheel well

    Correct Answer
    A. On the crew ladder
    Explanation
    To ensure the cockpit is safe for entry, you should be on the crew ladder. This is because the crew ladder provides a stable and secure platform for accessing the cockpit. Being on the crew ladder allows you to visually inspect the cockpit for any potential hazards or obstructions before entering. It also ensures that you can safely climb into the cockpit without risking any injuries or accidents. Therefore, being on the crew ladder is the appropriate location to ensure the cockpit is safe for entry.

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  • 39. 

    204. If the ejection seat sequencer  is red, how long should you wait before performing any maintenance on the aircraft?

    • A.

      1 hours

    • B.

      2 hours

    • C.

      3 hours

    • D.

      4 hours

    Correct Answer
    B. 2 hours
    Explanation
    If the ejection seat sequencer is red, it indicates that the seat has been activated or there is a malfunction. In order to ensure safety, it is necessary to wait for a certain period of time before performing any maintenance on the aircraft. The correct answer of 2 hours suggests that it is necessary to wait for this duration before conducting any maintenance activities on the aircraft after the ejection seat sequencer turns red.

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  • 40. 

    205. What is the minimum safe distance from the intake of a running aircraft at all power settings.

    • A.

      10 feet

    • B.

      15 feet

    • C.

      25 feet

    • D.

      30 feet

    Correct Answer
    C. 25 feet
    Explanation
    The minimum safe distance from the intake of a running aircraft at all power settings is 25 feet. This distance is necessary to ensure the safety of individuals and prevent any potential accidents or injuries that could occur due to the powerful airflow and debris being sucked into the intake. It is important to maintain this distance to avoid any risk of being pulled towards the intake or being hit by flying debris.

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  • 41. 

    205. What is the recommended safe distance behind a running aircraft engine?

    • A.

      100 feet

    • B.

      200 feet

    • C.

      300 feet

    • D.

      400 feet

    Correct Answer
    B. 200 feet
    Explanation
    The recommended safe distance behind a running aircraft engine is 200 feet. This distance is necessary to ensure the safety of individuals as the engine exhaust and debris can pose a risk. Being at a safe distance minimizes the chances of being exposed to potential hazards such as heat, noise, and jet blast. It also allows for better visibility and maneuverability for ground personnel and other aircraft in the vicinity.

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  • 42. 

    206.The F-22 flight control system is driven by what hydraulic pressure?

    • A.

      2100 psi

    • B.

      3100 psi

    • C.

      4100 psi

    • D.

      5100 psi

    Correct Answer
    C. 4100 psi
    Explanation
    The correct answer is 4100 psi. The F-22 flight control system is driven by hydraulic pressure, and specifically, it requires a pressure of 4100 psi to operate effectively. This level of pressure ensures that the system has enough power to control the aircraft's movements and respond quickly to pilot inputs.

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  • 43. 

    206. During ground maintenance operation, how fast will the weapons bay doors open and close?

    • A.

      3 seconds

    • B.

      5 seconds

    • C.

      6 seconds

    • D.

      7 seconds

    Correct Answer
    A. 3 seconds
    Explanation
    The weapons bay doors will open and close in 3 seconds during ground maintenance operations.

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  • 44. 

    206. Contrary to the F-16, how far should personnel remain away from a transmitting radar on the F-22 aircraft?

    • A.

      100 feet

    • B.

      200 feet

    • C.

      300 feet

    • D.

      400 feet

    Correct Answer
    C. 300 feet
    Explanation
    Personnel should remain 300 feet away from a transmitting radar on the F-22 aircraft, in contrast to the F-16. This distance is necessary to ensure the safety of personnel as the radar emits electromagnetic radiation, which can be harmful if exposed to at close proximity. By maintaining a distance of 300 feet, the personnel can minimize their risk of potential health hazards associated with the radar's radiation.

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  • 45. 

    206. How far should personnel remain away from the stoned energy exhaust when the engines are running.

    • A.

      4 feet

    • B.

      6 feet

    • C.

      8 feet

    • D.

      12 feet

    Correct Answer
    B. 6 feet
    Explanation
    Personnel should remain at least 6 feet away from the stoned energy exhaust when the engines are running. This distance is necessary to ensure their safety and prevent any potential harm from the hot gases and debris that may be emitted from the exhaust. Being too close to the exhaust can pose a risk of burns, injuries, or even fatalities, so it is important to maintain a safe distance of 6 feet.

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  • 46. 

    207. How much faster does a fiber optic cable transmit information over twisted pair or coaxial cable?

    • A.

      10 times faster

    • B.

      15 times faster

    • C.

      20 times faster

    • D.

      25 times faster

    Correct Answer
    B. 15 times faster
    Explanation
    A fiber optic cable transmits information 15 times faster than twisted pair or coaxial cable. This is because fiber optic cables use light signals to transmit data, while twisted pair and coaxial cables use electrical signals. Light signals can travel at a much higher speed than electrical signals, resulting in faster transmission of information.

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  • 47. 

    207. How is the glass fiber bonded to the ferrule in fiber optic termini?

    • A.

      Epoxy

    • B.

      Tape

    • C.

      Glue

    • D.

      Shrink wrap

    Correct Answer
    A. Epoxy
    Explanation
    The glass fiber is bonded to the ferrule in fiber optic termini using epoxy. Epoxy is a type of adhesive that is commonly used in fiber optic applications because it provides a strong and durable bond. It is able to bond the glass fiber securely to the ferrule, ensuring that it stays in place and maintains proper alignment. Epoxy is also resistant to temperature changes and can withstand the harsh conditions typically encountered in fiber optic systems. This makes it an ideal choice for bonding the glass fiber to the ferrule in fiber optic termini.

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  • 48. 

    207. At a minimum, a fiberscope should have what minimum magnification factor?

    • A.

      100x

    • B.

      150x

    • C.

      200x

    • D.

      250x

    Correct Answer
    C. 200x
    Explanation
    A fiberscope is a device used for visual inspection of small and difficult-to-reach areas. It consists of a flexible tube with an eyepiece and a lens at the tip. The magnification factor determines how much an object is enlarged when viewed through the fiberscope. A higher magnification factor allows for better visibility of details. Therefore, a minimum magnification factor of 200x ensures that the fiberscope provides sufficient magnification to effectively inspect objects and areas of interest.

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  • 49. 

    207.Assume the subtraction method is being used. If the cable under test is reading -21.2 dB and the patch cable signal loss was -19.6 dB , what is the signal loss of the aircraft cable only?

    • A.

      -1.6 dB

    • B.

      -2.7 dB

    • C.

      -1.3 dB

    • D.

      -3.5 dB

    Correct Answer
    A. -1.6 dB
    Explanation
    The signal loss of the aircraft cable can be calculated by subtracting the patch cable signal loss from the reading of the cable under test. In this case, the patch cable signal loss is -19.6 dB and the cable under test is reading -21.2 dB. Therefore, the signal loss of the aircraft cable only is -1.6 dB.

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  • 50. 

    208. How many loops are there in the liquid cooling system?

    • A.

      1

    • B.

      2

    • C.

      3

    • D.

      4

    Correct Answer
    B. 2
    Explanation
    The liquid cooling system has two loops. This means that there are two separate paths through which the liquid flows. Each loop has its own set of components, such as pumps, radiators, and tubing, to cool different parts of the system. Having two loops allows for more efficient cooling as it helps to distribute the heat evenly and prevent any overheating issues.

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Quiz Review Timeline +

Our quizzes are rigorously reviewed, monitored and continuously updated by our expert board to maintain accuracy, relevance, and timeliness.

  • Current Version
  • Jun 27, 2023
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • Aug 30, 2010
    Quiz Created by
    Td3wood
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