6c051 Contracting UREs Volume 2

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  • 1/88 Questions

    (205) Which socioeconomic program is aimed to help a small business located on an Indian reservation?

    • Historically underutilized business zone (HUBZone).
    • Small disadvantaged business (SDB).
    • Women-owned small business (WOSB).
    • Small disadvantaged veteran-owned small business (SDVOSB).
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About This Quiz

This quiz titled '6C051 Contracting UREs Volume 2' assesses knowledge in government procurement, focusing on acquisition planning, competitive sourcing, and roles within acquisition teams. It prepares learners for strategic decision-making in federal contracting environments.

6c051 Contracting UREs Volume 2 - Quiz

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  • 2. 

    (203) When executing a federal supply schedule (FSS) order, what is a circumstance in which a contracting officer (CO) can justify limiting sources?

    • An urgent and compelling need exists and following the procedures would result in delays.

    • The CO has been directed by leadership ordered to choose a certain contractor.

    • The local contractor knows the base processes better.

    • The CO wanted to award to the previous contractor.

    Correct Answer
    A. An urgent and compelling need exists and following the procedures would result in delays.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "An urgent and compelling need exists and following the procedures would result in delays." This means that if there is a situation where there is an urgent and compelling need for a particular product or service, and following the normal procedures would cause delays in meeting that need, the contracting officer can justify limiting sources and choosing a specific contractor. This allows for flexibility in the procurement process to ensure that critical needs are met in a timely manner.

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  • 3. 

    (205) What should a contracting officer (CO) do if he or she only receives one acceptable offer from a qualified historically underutilized business zone (HUBZone) small business?

    • Extend the deadline for offers.

    • Award to the acceptable offer.

    • Contact the Small Business Administration (SBA) for guidance

    • Cancel the solicitation and re-advertise when there is expectation that more offers will be received.

    Correct Answer
    A. Award to the acceptable offer.
    Explanation
    If a contracting officer (CO) only receives one acceptable offer from a qualified historically underutilized business zone (HUBZone) small business, they should award the contract to the acceptable offer. This means that the CO has determined that the offer meets all the necessary requirements and is suitable for the contract. There is no need to extend the deadline for offers, contact the Small Business Administration (SBA) for guidance, or cancel the solicitation and re-advertise.

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  • 4. 

    (211) Who decides if a preproposal conference is required and makes the necessary arrangements?

    • Contract specialist.

    • Contracting officer (CO)

    • Functional commander

    • Quality assurance personnel.

    Correct Answer
    A. Contracting officer (CO)
    Explanation
    The contracting officer (CO) is responsible for deciding if a preproposal conference is required and making the necessary arrangements. As the individual in charge of the contract, the CO has the authority to determine whether a preproposal conference is necessary to provide additional information or clarification to potential bidders. They will also handle the logistics and coordination of the conference, ensuring that all relevant parties are informed and able to attend. The contract specialist, functional commander, and quality assurance personnel may provide input or support, but the ultimate decision and responsibility lies with the CO.

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  • 5. 

    (211) When conducting a site visit,

    • Site information must be made available to all offerors in the same manner.

    • Only contractors previously cleared by security forces may attend.

    • Offerors are required to inspect the site in order to become eligible for award.

    • Civilian attendees are exempt from personal protective equipment requirements.

    Correct Answer
    A. Site information must be made available to all offerors in the same manner.
    Explanation
    When conducting a site visit, it is important to ensure fairness and equal opportunity for all offerors. Making site information available to all offerors in the same manner ensures that no one has an unfair advantage or access to privileged information. This promotes transparency and allows all offerors to make informed decisions and submit competitive proposals based on the same set of information.

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  • 6. 

    (203) If the Federal Prison Industries (FPI) product is not comparable in one or more areas of price, quality, and time of delivery, then the contracting officer (CO) can

    • Award it anyway because it is mandatory.

    • Give FPI a chance to change their offer.

    • Use competitive procedures to acquire the product.

    • Change the time of delivery so that FPI can compete.

    Correct Answer
    A. Use competitive procedures to acquire the product.
    Explanation
    If the Federal Prison Industries (FPI) product is not comparable in one or more areas of price, quality, and time of delivery, the contracting officer (CO) cannot award it anyway because it is mandatory. Instead, the CO can use competitive procedures to acquire the product. This means that the CO will open up the procurement process to other potential suppliers and allow them to submit their offers. By doing so, the CO can ensure that the best product, in terms of price, quality, and time of delivery, is selected for the contract.

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  • 7. 

    (203) When executing a General Services Administration (GSA) task order above the micropurchase threshold but not exceeding the simplified acquisition threshold (SAT), the contracting officer (CO) shall provide the request for quotations (RFQ) to at least how many contractors?

    • Three.

    • Five 

    • Six

    • Eight

    Correct Answer
    A. Three.
    Explanation
    When executing a GSA task order above the micropurchase threshold but not exceeding the simplified acquisition threshold (SAT), the contracting officer (CO) is required to provide the request for quotations (RFQ) to at least three contractors. This ensures a competitive bidding process and allows for a fair evaluation of proposals. By soliciting quotes from multiple contractors, the CO can compare prices, services, and other factors to make an informed decision and obtain the best value for the government.

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  • 8. 

    (206) What action should a contracting officer (CO) take if only one acceptable offer is received from a responsible small business concern?

    • Cancel the requirement.

    • Make an award to that firm.

    • Dissolve the small business set-aside

    • Resolicit using full and open competition.

    Correct Answer
    A. Make an award to that firm.
    Explanation
    If only one acceptable offer is received from a responsible small business concern, the contracting officer should make an award to that firm. This is because the Federal Acquisition Regulation (FAR) states that if only one offer is received in response to a small business set-aside, the contracting officer may make an award to that firm if the price is reasonable. This promotes the goal of supporting small businesses and encourages competition within the small business sector.

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  • 9. 

    (211) Site visits should allow prospective offerors the opportunity to

    • Provide bid samples

    • Submit bid guarantee, performance, and payment bonds.

    • Provide an overview of supplies or services their company provides

    • Examine any government data available that may provide information concerning the performing of work.

    Correct Answer
    A. Examine any government data available that may provide information concerning the performing of work.
    Explanation
    Site visits should allow prospective offerors the opportunity to examine any government data available that may provide information concerning the performing of work. This means that during the site visit, the prospective offerors can access and review any relevant government data that can help them understand the requirements and scope of the work. This information can be crucial in preparing a competitive bid and ensuring that the offeror has a clear understanding of what is expected in terms of performing the work.

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  • 10. 

    (206) Which is not a factor in determining competitive procedures?

    • Micro-purchases.

    • Market conditions.

    • Support of existing systems.

    • End of fiscal year constraints

    Correct Answer
    A. End of fiscal year constraints
    Explanation
    End of fiscal year constraints are not a factor in determining competitive procedures. Competitive procedures are typically determined based on factors such as market conditions, support of existing systems, and the consideration of micro-purchases. However, the end of the fiscal year does not directly impact the decision-making process for competitive procedures.

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  • 11. 

    (201) A simplified acquisition strategy summary (SASS) is required for acquisitions with a dollar value

    • Exceeding $2,500

    • Exceeding $25,000

    • Between $8 million (M) and $25M.

    • Between the simplified acquisition threshold (SAT) and $10M

    Correct Answer
    A. Between the simplified acquisition threshold (SAT) and $10M
    Explanation
    A simplified acquisition strategy summary (SASS) is required for acquisitions with a dollar value between the simplified acquisition threshold (SAT) and $10M. This means that any acquisition with a value above the SAT (which is typically $250,000) but below $10M requires a SASS. The SASS is a summary document that outlines the acquisition strategy and provides key information about the acquisition, such as the scope of work, contracting approach, and evaluation criteria. It helps to ensure that acquisitions within this dollar range are planned and executed effectively.

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  • 12. 

    (203) Usually, who can approve limited sources justifications exceeding the simplified acquisition threshold (SAT) but less than $700,000?

    • The commander.

    • The contracting officer.

    • A general or flag officer equivalent.

    • The command contracting director.

    Correct Answer
    A. The contracting officer.
    Explanation
    The contracting officer is the correct answer because they have the authority to approve limited sources justifications exceeding the simplified acquisition threshold (SAT) but less than $700,000. The contracting officer is responsible for the acquisition process and has the authority to make decisions regarding contract awards and justifications. The commander, general or flag officer equivalent, and command contracting director may have oversight or advisory roles in the process, but the contracting officer has the final approval authority in this situation.

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  • 13. 

    (207) Which is not a reason why a customer would want to limit competition?

    • Sole-source.

    • Brand-name.

    • Single source.

    • Customer preferred

    Correct Answer
    A. Customer preferred
    Explanation
    The reason "Customer preferred" is not a reason why a customer would want to limit competition is because it implies that the customer has a preference for a specific brand or supplier. However, limiting competition typically involves reducing the number of options available to the customer, which goes against the idea of customer preference. Therefore, "Customer preferred" does not align with the concept of limiting competition.

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  • 14. 

    (207) Who has the ultimate responsibility for satisfying statutory requirements of a sole-source or brand-name justification?

    • Technical expert.

    • Contracting officer (CO).

    • Competition advocate.

    • Requiring activity’s unit commander

    Correct Answer
    A. Contracting officer (CO).
    Explanation
    The contracting officer (CO) is responsible for satisfying statutory requirements of a sole-source or brand-name justification. As the individual responsible for managing the contracting process, the CO is in charge of ensuring that all procurement actions adhere to legal and regulatory requirements. This includes justifying the use of a sole-source or brand-name procurement method when necessary. The CO must ensure that the justification is valid and properly documented, taking into account factors such as cost, availability, and technical expertise. The technical expert, competition advocate, and requiring activity's unit commander may provide input and support, but the ultimate responsibility lies with the CO.

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  • 15. 

    (211) When amending a request for proposal (RFP), what may be changed?

    • Quantity, specifications, or contract

    • Quantity, contract type, or specifications

    • Quantity, specifications, or delivery schedules.

    • Defects or ambiguities after the closing date.

    Correct Answer
    A. Quantity, specifications, or delivery schedules.
    Explanation
    When amending a request for proposal (RFP), the quantity, specifications, or delivery schedules may be changed. This means that the number of items or services required, the specific requirements or features of the items or services, and the timeline for delivery can all be modified in an amended RFP.

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  • 16. 

    (206) All of the following are examples of competitive procedures except

    • Sealed bids

    • Two-step sealed bidding.

    • Brand-name requirements.

    • Competitive proposals.

    Correct Answer
    A. Brand-name requirements.
    Explanation
    The question asks for an example of a non-competitive procedure. Sealed bids, two-step sealed bidding, and competitive proposals are all examples of competitive procedures where multiple bidders can participate. However, brand-name requirements do not involve competition as they specify a particular brand or product, limiting the options available to bidders. Therefore, brand-name requirements are not considered a competitive procedure.

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  • 17. 

    (207) The difference between a brand-name requirement and single-source requirement is that the brand-name requirement

    • Can be provided by multiple sources whereas a single source is actually the purchase of one item

    • Can only be provided by only one source and a single source is actually a sole-source requirement

    • Is used for purchases under $25,000 whereas single source or one company can fill sole-source requirements.

    • Can be provided by multiple sources whereas single source or one company can only fill solesource requirements.

    Correct Answer
    A. Can be provided by multiple sources whereas single source or one company can only fill solesource requirements.
    Explanation
    The explanation for the given correct answer is that a brand-name requirement can be fulfilled by multiple sources, meaning that different companies can provide the same product or service under that brand name. On the other hand, a single-source requirement means that only one specific company or source can fulfill that requirement. Therefore, a brand-name requirement allows for competition and multiple options, while a single-source requirement restricts the choice to one company or source.

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  • 18. 

    (207) Brand-name justifications should describe unique capabilities and

    • At least three suggested sources.

    • The wing commander’s preference.

    • The impact on the mission if substituted.

    • Alternative brands that may be considered.

    Correct Answer
    A. The impact on the mission if substituted.
    Explanation
    Brand-name justifications should describe unique capabilities and the impact on the mission if substituted. This means that when justifying the use of a specific brand, it is important to highlight the unique features or capabilities that set it apart from other brands. Additionally, it is crucial to explain how substituting the brand could potentially affect the mission. This ensures that the chosen brand is necessary and essential for the successful completion of the mission.

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  • 19. 

    (210) Oral solicitations may not be practicable for

    • Micro-purchases

    • Actions exceeding $25,000.

    • The acquisition of commercial items.

    • The purchase of supplies and services.

    Correct Answer
    A. Actions exceeding $25,000.
    Explanation
    Oral solicitations may not be practicable for actions exceeding $25,000 because these larger purchases require a more formal and documented procurement process. In order to ensure fairness, transparency, and competition, it is necessary to have written solicitations, such as requests for proposals (RFPs) or invitations for bids (IFBs), for actions exceeding $25,000. This allows potential suppliers to submit their proposals or bids in writing, providing a clear record of the procurement process. Oral solicitations may not be sufficient for larger purchases as they lack the necessary documentation and transparency.

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  • 20. 

    (211) Oral presentations can potentially reduce the time and costs associated with the source selection process and

    • May be a substitute for written information.

    • Occur during the final round of negotiations.

    • Are evaluated quantitatively and scored by the government.

    • May contain only the information provided in the offeror’s proposal.

    Correct Answer
    A. May be a substitute for written information.
    Explanation
    Oral presentations can potentially reduce the time and costs associated with the source selection process because they allow for direct communication and clarification of information. They provide an opportunity for offerors to present their proposals in person, allowing the government to ask questions and seek further details. This can eliminate the need for extensive written documentation and back-and-forth communication. Therefore, oral presentations can serve as a substitute for written information in the source selection process.

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  • 21. 

    (211) Which circumstance would justify canceling a request for proposal (RFP) before closing?

    • The incumbent contractor did not submit a proposal.

    • Several contractors have combined together into a teaming arrangement

    • Changes are so substantial they exceed what prospective offerors reasonably could have anticipated.

    • The civil servants union submitted a complaint about the ongoing competitive sourcing.

    Correct Answer
    A. Changes are so substantial they exceed what prospective offerors reasonably could have anticipated.
    Explanation
    If the changes in the circumstances are so significant that they go beyond what potential offerors could have reasonably expected, it would be justified to cancel the request for proposal (RFP) before closing. This means that the changes are unexpected and would significantly impact the nature or requirements of the project, making it unfair to proceed with the current RFP process.

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  • 22. 

    (201) Acquisition planning must take place

    • Upon receipt of funds.

    • Once a purchase request is received.

    • As soon as an agency need is identified

    • Immediately upon completion of the source selection plan.

    Correct Answer
    A. As soon as an agency need is identified
    Explanation
    Acquisition planning must take place as soon as an agency need is identified because it is crucial to start the planning process early in order to effectively meet the agency's requirements. Identifying the need allows the agency to determine the necessary resources, budget, and timeline for the acquisition. By starting the planning process early, the agency can also conduct market research, identify potential suppliers, and develop a comprehensive acquisition strategy. This ensures that the agency can efficiently and effectively acquire the goods or services needed to fulfill their mission.

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  • 23. 

    (201) The group of functional experts that reviews and recommends acquisition strategies for a specific product or service is known as

    • An acquisition strategy panel (ASP).

    • An expeditionary sourcing group (ESG).

    • An enterprise sourcing squadron (ESS).

    • A business support squadron (BSS).

    Correct Answer
    A. An acquisition strategy panel (ASP).
    Explanation
    An acquisition strategy panel (ASP) is a group of functional experts that reviews and recommends acquisition strategies for a specific product or service. They are responsible for evaluating various options and determining the best approach to acquiring the desired product or service. The ASP ensures that the acquisition strategy aligns with the organization's goals and objectives, and they provide guidance and recommendations to support effective decision-making in the acquisition process.

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  • 24. 

    (203) At what prices shall agencies purchase required supplies listed in the Federal Prison Industries (FPI) schedule?

    • At whatever price is stated on the schedule.

    • At prices listed above market value.

    • 10 percent above fair market value

    • At prices not to exceed fair market value.

    Correct Answer
    A. At prices not to exceed fair market value.
    Explanation
    Agencies shall purchase required supplies listed in the Federal Prison Industries (FPI) schedule at prices not to exceed fair market value. This means that the agencies should not pay more than what is considered a reasonable and competitive price in the market for the supplies.

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  • 25. 

    (203) When executing a General Services Administration (GSA) task order, which is not included in the requirements package?

    • The price indicated on the independent government estimate.

    • Location of work and delivery schedule.

    • Description of work to be performed.

    • Security clearance requirements.

    Correct Answer
    A. The price indicated on the independent government estimate.
    Explanation
    The price indicated on the independent government estimate is not included in the requirements package when executing a GSA task order. The requirements package typically includes the location of work and delivery schedule, description of work to be performed, and security clearance requirements. However, the price indicated on the independent government estimate is separate from the requirements package and is usually determined separately during the procurement process.

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  • 26. 

    (205) One criterion that a woman is presumed economically disadvantaged under the economically disadvantaged women-owned small business (EDWOSB) program is if her personal net worth is less than what dollar amount?

    • $750,000.

    • $350,000.

    • $1 million (M).

    • $6M.

    Correct Answer
    A. $750,000.
    Explanation
    The criterion for a woman to be presumed economically disadvantaged under the EDWOSB program is if her personal net worth is less than $750,000.

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  • 27. 

    (208) When the clause Federal Acquisition Regulation (FAR) 52.228–5, Insurance-Work on a Government Installation, is included in a contract, the contracting officer (CO) requests and receives proof of insurance

    • Before the contractor begins work.

    • With the offerors bid or proposal.

    • Within seven days after work begins

    • Within 10 days after work begins

    Correct Answer
    A. Before the contractor begins work.
    Explanation
    When the clause Federal Acquisition Regulation (FAR) 52.228-5, Insurance-Work on a Government Installation, is included in a contract, the contracting officer (CO) requests and receives proof of insurance before the contractor begins work. This means that the CO needs to ensure that the contractor has the necessary insurance coverage in place before they start working on the government installation.

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  • 28. 

    (208) When a contractor is required to obtain insurance for work on a government installation, the minimum acceptable insurance coverage for employer’s liability is

    • $20,000

    • $100,000

    • $200,000

    • $500,000

    Correct Answer
    A. $100,000
    Explanation
    The minimum acceptable insurance coverage for employer's liability when a contractor is required to obtain insurance for work on a government installation is $100,000. This coverage amount is determined to ensure that the contractor has adequate financial protection in case of any employee injuries or accidents that may occur during the project. It is important for the contractor to have this coverage to fulfill their legal and financial obligations towards their employees and to mitigate any potential liabilities.

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  • 29. 

    (210) Solicitations issued using simplified acquisition procedures (SAP) are referred to as

    • Oral solicitations.

    • Invitation for bids (IFB).

    • Request for quotations (RFQ).

    • Request for proposals (RFP).

    Correct Answer
    A. Request for quotations (RFQ).
    Explanation
    Solicitations issued using simplified acquisition procedures (SAP) are referred to as request for quotations (RFQ). RFQs are used when the government needs to procure goods or services that fall below a certain dollar threshold. They are typically used for purchases that are relatively simple and straightforward, and the government is seeking price quotes from potential vendors. RFQs are less formal and less complex than other types of solicitations, such as invitation for bids (IFB) or request for proposals (RFP), which are used for more complex and competitive procurements.

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  • 30. 

    (211) In terms of physical characteristics and estimated price range, advance notices and solicitations for a requirement must state

    • The project magnitude.

    • The project classification

    • The government estimate

    • Whether it is under or over the simplified acquisition threshold (SAT).

    Correct Answer
    A. The project magnitude.
    Explanation
    The advance notices and solicitations for a requirement must state the project magnitude. This means that they need to provide information about the physical characteristics of the project, such as its size, scope, and complexity. Additionally, they must also include an estimated price range for the project. This information is important for potential contractors to determine if they have the capabilities and resources to successfully complete the project. The project classification, government estimate, and whether it is under or over the simplified acquisition threshold (SAT) are not mentioned as requirements for the advance notices and solicitations.

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  • 31. 

    (211) What happens to unopened offeror proposals after a request for proposal (RFP) is cancelled?

    • Staged for a minimum of one year.

    • Returned to the offeror unopened.

    • Destroyed by an approved method

    • E-files are saved and filed according to the file plan.

    Correct Answer
    A. Returned to the offeror unopened.
    Explanation
    After a request for proposal (RFP) is cancelled, the unopened offeror proposals are returned to the offeror without being opened. This means that the proposals are not reviewed or considered by the contracting agency. The reason for returning the unopened proposals is to maintain fairness and transparency in the procurement process. By returning the proposals, the offerors have the opportunity to use them for other potential opportunities or make necessary revisions before resubmitting them in the future.

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  • 32. 

    (212) Amendments to invitation for bids (IFB) may change any of the following except

    • Contract type.

    • Specifications

    • Delivery schedule.

    • Ambiguous invitation.

    Correct Answer
    A. Contract type.
    Explanation
    Amendments to an invitation for bids (IFB) can modify various aspects of the bid, such as specifications, delivery schedule, or any ambiguities in the invitation. However, the contract type cannot be changed through amendments to the IFB. The contract type is typically determined before the bidding process begins and is not subject to change through amendments.

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  • 33. 

    (209) Streamlined procedures

    • Are mandatory.

    • Do not meet the synopsis requirements of Federal Acquisition Regulation (FAR) Part 5.

    • Increase the government-wide point of entry posting time.

    • Eliminate the need to issue a separate synopsis and solicitation

    Correct Answer
    A. Eliminate the need to issue a separate synopsis and solicitation
    Explanation
    Streamlined procedures eliminate the need to issue a separate synopsis and solicitation. This means that when using streamlined procedures, there is no requirement to publish a separate notice announcing the government's intent to procure goods or services, and there is no need to issue a separate solicitation document. This helps to simplify the procurement process and save time and resources for both the government and potential vendors.

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  • 34. 

    (203) Which is not an example of a wholesale supply source?

    • Defense Logistics Agency (DLA).

    • Department of Veteran Affairs (VA).

    • General Services Administration (GSA)

    • Army and Air Force Exchange Services (AAFES).

    Correct Answer
    A. Army and Air Force Exchange Services (AAFES).
    Explanation
    The Army and Air Force Exchange Services (AAFES) is not an example of a wholesale supply source because it is primarily a retail organization that provides goods and services to members of the military and their families. It operates department stores, convenience stores, restaurants, and other retail establishments on military installations. In contrast, the Defense Logistics Agency (DLA), Department of Veteran Affairs (VA), and General Services Administration (GSA) are all examples of wholesale supply sources that provide goods and services to government agencies, including the military.

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  • 35. 

    (203) Who is responsible for managing inventories of supplies and determining if the customer’s requirements can be met through available supply channels?

    • Mission support group commander.

    • Contracting squadron commander.

    • Requiring agency.

    • Base supply officer.

    Correct Answer
    A. Base supply officer.
    Explanation
    The base supply officer is responsible for managing inventories of supplies and determining if the customer's requirements can be met through available supply channels. They oversee the procurement, storage, and distribution of supplies to ensure that the needs of the organization or base are met efficiently. This role involves coordinating with various departments and suppliers to ensure timely availability of required materials and maintaining inventory levels. The base supply officer plays a crucial role in ensuring that the organization has the necessary supplies to carry out its mission effectively.

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  • 36. 

    (204) A lease versus purchase determination is required when equipment will be leased for more than

    • 60 days.

    • 45 days.

    • 30 days.

    • 14 days.

    Correct Answer
    A. 60 days.
    Explanation
    A lease versus purchase determination is required when equipment will be leased for more than 60 days. This means that if the equipment will be leased for a period of 60 days or less, there is no need to assess whether it is better to lease or purchase the equipment. However, if the lease duration exceeds 60 days, it becomes necessary to evaluate the costs, benefits, and other factors associated with leasing versus purchasing the equipment.

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  • 37. 

    (212) What additional product information may be required of offerors to ensure that products meet the requirements of an invitation for bid (IFB)?

    • Submittals

    • Bid offerings.

    • Oral presentations

    • Descriptive literature.

    Correct Answer
    A. Descriptive literature.
    Explanation
    To ensure that products meet the requirements of an invitation for bid (IFB), offerors may be required to provide descriptive literature. Descriptive literature refers to written information or materials that describe the characteristics, features, and specifications of a product. This additional information allows the procuring agency to evaluate whether the offered products meet the required standards and specifications outlined in the IFB. It helps the agency to make an informed decision and select the most suitable offeror based on the product's capabilities and compliance with the stated requirements.

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  • 38. 

    (205) Which is a factor in which a contracting officer (CO) can award a sole-source contract to a service-disabled veteran-owned small business (SDVOSB)?

    • Award cannot be made at a fair and reasonable price

    • The requirement is already being performed by an 8(a) participant.

    • The anticipated award price of the contract to include options will not exceed $8.5M

    • The CO does not have a reasonable expectation that offers would be received from two or more SDVOSB concerns.

    Correct Answer
    A. The CO does not have a reasonable expectation that offers would be received from two or more SDVOSB concerns.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "The CO does not have a reasonable expectation that offers would be received from two or more SDVOSB concerns." This factor allows the contracting officer to award a sole-source contract to a service-disabled veteran-owned small business (SDVOSB) when they do not anticipate receiving offers from multiple SDVOSB concerns. This means that there is a lack of competition in the market, and therefore a sole-source contract can be awarded to the SDVOSB.

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  • 39. 

    (206) The advocate for competition prepares and submits an annual report to the agency senior procurement executive describing new initiatives

    • Required to limit competition.

    • Required to increase the acquisition of commercial items.

    • Required to increase the acquisition of non-commercial items

    • To ensure non-salient characteristics are included in requirements..

    Correct Answer
    A. Required to increase the acquisition of commercial items.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "required to increase the acquisition of commercial items." This is because the advocate for competition is preparing and submitting an annual report to the agency senior procurement executive, and the report is describing new initiatives that are required to increase the acquisition of commercial items. This suggests that the advocate is focused on promoting competition and increasing the acquisition of commercial items in the procurement process.

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  • 40. 

    (206) In what situation would purchases automatically be reserved for small business concerns?

    • Less or equal to the micro-purchase threshold.

    • Between the micro-purchase threshold and the simplified acquisition threshold (SAT).

    • Between the SAT and simplified procedures for certain commercial items amount.

    • Above the simplified procedures for certain commercial items amount.

    Correct Answer
    A. Between the micro-purchase threshold and the simplified acquisition threshold (SAT).
    Explanation
    Purchases are automatically reserved for small business concerns when they fall between the micro-purchase threshold and the simplified acquisition threshold (SAT). This means that if the purchase amount is greater than the micro-purchase threshold but less than or equal to the SAT, it must be set aside for small businesses. This is done to promote and support small businesses by giving them opportunities to compete for government contracts within a certain price range.

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  • 41. 

    (208) Which statute requires performance and payment bonds for any domestic construction contract expected to exceed $150,000?

    • 40 United States Code (USC), Chapter 31, Subchapter II, Bonds.

    • Competition in Contracting Act.

    • Wage Rate Requirements (Construction).

    • Contracts for materials, supplies, articles, and equipment exceeding $15,000.

    Correct Answer
    A. 40 United States Code (USC), Chapter 31, Subchapter II, Bonds.
  • 42. 

    (211) Which statement describes the correct use of wage determinations?

    • Inclusion of wage determinations by reference is permitted.

    • Wage determinations do not apply to contracts that primarily include painting of buildings.

    • The Small Business Administration (SBA) is responsible for reviewing and issuing wage determinations on an annual basis.

    • Contracts must be modified to incorporate the most current wage determination each time the contracting officer (CO) exercises an option to extend the term of a construction contract.

    Correct Answer
    A. Contracts must be modified to incorporate the most current wage determination each time the contracting officer (CO) exercises an option to extend the term of a construction contract.
    Explanation
    Contracts must be modified to incorporate the most current wage determination each time the contracting officer (CO) exercises an option to extend the term of a construction contract. This means that when the CO decides to extend the contract, they must update the wage determination to reflect the most recent rates. This ensures that the workers are paid according to the current standards and prevents any potential discrepancies or disputes regarding wages.

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  • 43. 

    (212) What should be considered before amending an invitation for bid (IFB)?

    • The impact on small businesses.

    • The total number of offerors who submitted a bid in response to the IFB.

    • The period of time remaining until bid opening and the need to extend the period

    • Whether or not any such changes have already been discussed at the pre-bid conference.

    Correct Answer
    A. The period of time remaining until bid opening and the need to extend the period
    Explanation
    Before amending an invitation for bid (IFB), it is important to consider the period of time remaining until bid opening and the need to extend the period. This is because any amendments to the IFB may require additional time for potential bidders to review and prepare their bids. Extending the bid period allows for fairness and ensures that all interested parties have sufficient time to adjust their proposals accordingly.

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  • 44. 

    (213) What Federal Business Opportunities (FBO) template may be used to determine the availability of commercial sources or conducting market research?

    • Sources sought

    • Presolicitation notice.

    • Combined synopsis/solicitation.

    • Modification/amendment/cancel.

    Correct Answer
    A. Sources sought
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "Sources sought." A sources sought notice is a Federal Business Opportunities (FBO) template that is used to determine the availability of commercial sources or conduct market research. It is typically used when the government is interested in identifying potential vendors who can fulfill a specific requirement, but doesn't yet have a formal solicitation prepared. This allows the government to gather information about potential sources and determine the appropriate acquisition strategy.

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  • 45. 

    (205) What Federal Acquisition Regulation (FAR) part prescribes policy for contracting with small businesses?

    • 12

    • 17

    • 19

    • 26

    Correct Answer
    A. 19
    Explanation
    Federal Acquisition Regulation (FAR) part 19 prescribes policy for contracting with small businesses. This part of the FAR specifically addresses the requirements and procedures for promoting the utilization of small businesses in federal contracting. It provides guidance on various programs and initiatives aimed at ensuring small businesses have fair opportunities to compete for and win government contracts. By prescribing these policies, FAR part 19 helps to promote small business participation in federal procurement and supports the government's goal of fostering economic growth and development within the small business sector.

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  • 46. 

    (206) At what dollar amount is a streamlined acquisition strategy summary (SASS) required?

    • Between the simplified acquisition threshold (SAT) and $10M.

    • Between the micro-purchase threshold and the SAT.

    • Between $150,000 and $650,000

    • $650,000 and above.

    Correct Answer
    A. Between the simplified acquisition threshold (SAT) and $10M.
    Explanation
    A streamlined acquisition strategy summary (SASS) is required for acquisitions that fall between the simplified acquisition threshold (SAT) and $10M. This means that any acquisition with a dollar amount that is greater than the SAT but less than or equal to $10M will require a SASS. This summary helps to streamline the acquisition process and ensure that it is conducted efficiently and effectively.

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  • 47. 

    (211) Orders placed under a task-order contract or delivery-order contract awarded by another agency are

    • Not exempt from the development of acquisition plans.

    • Exempt from all Federal Acquisition Regulation (FAR) requirements for a bundled contract

    • Exempt from information technology acquisition strategy plans.

    • Used to get around conditions and limitations imposed on the use of funds.

    Correct Answer
    A. Not exempt from the development of acquisition plans.
    Explanation
    Orders placed under a task-order contract or delivery-order contract awarded by another agency are not exempt from the development of acquisition plans. This means that even if the contract is awarded by another agency, the process of developing acquisition plans is still required. This ensures that the acquisition process is properly planned and executed, regardless of the agency involved.

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  • 48. 

    (201) Leadership of an acquisition team may be shared between the contracting officer (CO) and

    • The head of the contracting agency (HCA).

    • A contract specialist.

    • The program manager.

    • The technical team.

    Correct Answer
    A. The program manager.
    Explanation
    The program manager is responsible for overseeing the overall management and execution of a program, including acquisitions. They work closely with the contracting officer and other team members to ensure that the acquisition process aligns with the program's objectives and requirements. The program manager's expertise in the program's technical aspects, budget, and schedule make them a valuable leader in the acquisition team. Additionally, their role involves coordinating with stakeholders and providing guidance to the contracting officer and other team members throughout the acquisition process.

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  • 49. 

    (202) What action must a contracting officer (CO) take if market research indicates that a commercial item is not available to meet customer needs?

    • Restate terms to permit the acquisition of commercial items.

    • Cancel the solicitation and resolicit using military specifications.

    • Issue the award on a sole-source basis.

    • Dissolve the small business set-aside.

    Correct Answer
    A. Restate terms to permit the acquisition of commercial items.
    Explanation
    If market research indicates that a commercial item is not available to meet customer needs, the contracting officer (CO) must restate the terms to permit the acquisition of commercial items. This means that the CO should revise the requirements or specifications in a way that allows for the purchase of a commercial item that meets the customer's needs. This option is the most appropriate response in this scenario as it addresses the issue of unavailability while still considering the customer's requirements.

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Quiz Review Timeline (Updated): Mar 21, 2023 +

Our quizzes are rigorously reviewed, monitored and continuously updated by our expert board to maintain accuracy, relevance, and timeliness.

  • Current Version
  • Mar 21, 2023
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • Feb 28, 2020
    Quiz Created by
    Antonio Ortega
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