Clinical Chemistry Trivia Questions

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  • 1/300 Questions

    Which of the following agencies is involved in protecting the safety of employees in the workplace?

    • OSHA
    • CAP
    • NRA
    • CMS
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Clinical Chemistry Trivia Questions - Quiz

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  • 2. 

    A 46 year old male with pain in his feet and joints has just been diagnosed wtih gout, which of the following analytes were elevated on his lab report?

    • Uric acid

    • Creatinine

    • Ammonia

    • BUN

    Correct Answer
    A. Uric acid
    Explanation
    Gout is a form of arthritis that occurs when there is a buildup of uric acid in the body, leading to inflammation and pain in the joints. Therefore, in a patient diagnosed with gout, it is expected that the uric acid levels would be elevated on the lab report. Creatinine, ammonia, and BUN are not directly related to gout and would not be expected to be elevated in this case.

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  • 3. 

    Respirator fittings are performed to protect employees against what airborne pathogen?

    • Staph auereus

    • Mycobacterium tuberculosis

    • Human immunodeficiency virus

    • Hepatitis B virus

    Correct Answer
    A. Mycobacterium tuberculosis
    Explanation
    Respirator fittings are performed to protect employees against Mycobacterium tuberculosis, which is the correct answer. Mycobacterium tuberculosis is a bacterium that causes tuberculosis, a highly contagious airborne disease. Respirator fittings ensure that the respirator masks fit properly on employees' faces, creating a seal that prevents the inhalation of airborne pathogens such as Mycobacterium tuberculosis. Staph aureus, Human immunodeficiency virus, and Hepatitis B virus are not airborne pathogens that require respirator fittings for protection.

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  • 4. 

    Which of the following is NOT considered presonal protective equipment

    • Latex gloves

    • Goggles

    • Laboratory coat

    • Eyeglasses

    Correct Answer
    A. Eyeglasses
    Explanation
    Eyeglasses are not considered personal protective equipment because they do not provide protection against physical hazards or hazardous materials. While they may offer some level of eye protection from dust or debris, they are not specifically designed to protect against chemical splashes, impact, or other workplace hazards. Personal protective equipment is intended to minimize the risk of injury or illness in the workplace, and eyeglasses do not meet the criteria for this classification.

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  • 5. 

    What liver enzymes are most useful in the detection of hepatocelluar damage of the liver?

    • ALT and AST

    • AST and AMS

    • ALP and LPS

    • GGT and CK

    Correct Answer
    A. ALT and AST
    Explanation
    ALT (alanine aminotransferase) and AST (aspartate aminotransferase) are liver enzymes that are most useful in the detection of hepatocellular damage of the liver. Elevated levels of ALT and AST in the blood indicate liver cell injury or damage. ALT is primarily found in the liver and is more specific to liver damage, while AST is found in several tissues including the liver, heart, and muscles. Therefore, the combination of ALT and AST provides a comprehensive assessment of liver function and helps in the diagnosis and monitoring of liver diseases such as hepatitis, cirrhosis, and liver cancer.

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  • 6. 

    An elevated quantitative beta-hCG will be seen in which of the following conditions?

    • Menopause

    • Pregnancy

    • Hirutism

    • Spontaneous miscarriage

    Correct Answer
    A. Pregnancy
    Explanation
    An elevated quantitative beta-hCG (human chorionic gonadotropin) level is commonly seen in pregnancy. Beta-hCG is a hormone produced by the placenta during pregnancy. It can be detected in the blood or urine and is used as a marker to confirm pregnancy. Elevated levels of beta-hCG indicate the presence of a developing fetus. Therefore, pregnancy is the correct answer in this case.

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  • 7. 

    According to the NFPA hazards identification system, what does the red quadrant indicate?

    • A health hazard

    • A flammable hazard

    • A reactivity hazard

    • Special instructions

    Correct Answer
    A. A flammable hazard
    Explanation
    The red quadrant in the NFPA hazards identification system indicates a flammable hazard. This means that the substance or material being identified has the potential to catch fire easily and can pose a significant risk of fire if not handled properly. It is important to take appropriate precautions when dealing with substances in the red quadrant to prevent accidents and ensure safety.

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  • 8. 

    Which of the following is found in the highest concentration in bone?

    • Calcium

    • Magnesium

    • Phosphorous

    • Iron

    Correct Answer
    A. Calcium
    Explanation
    Calcium is found in the highest concentration in bones. Calcium is an essential mineral that plays a crucial role in maintaining the structure and strength of bones. It is the main component of hydroxyapatite, which is the mineralized matrix in bones. Calcium is necessary for bone formation, growth, and remodeling. It also helps in muscle contraction, blood clotting, and nerve function. Magnesium, phosphorous, and iron are also important for bone health, but calcium is present in the highest concentration in bones.

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  • 9. 

    What is the mechanism of EDTA?

    • Chelates calcium

    • Binds antithrombin

    • Antagonizes vitamin K

    • Inhibits platelet aggregation

    Correct Answer
    A. Chelates calcium
    Explanation
    EDTA is a chelating agent that forms stable complexes with metal ions, including calcium. It binds to the calcium ions, preventing them from participating in chemical reactions or forming insoluble precipitates. This property makes EDTA useful in various applications, such as in medicine to treat lead poisoning, in food preservation, and in laboratory settings to remove trace metals from solutions. Therefore, the correct answer is that EDTA chelates calcium.

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  • 10. 

    Which of the following is a postanalytical error?

    • Drawing above an IV site

    • Improper centrifugation of a specimen

    • Expired reagent used for the assay

    • A calculation error on a patient report

    Correct Answer
    A. A calculation error on a patient report
    Explanation
    A calculation error on a patient report is considered a postanalytical error because it occurs after the analysis of the specimen has taken place. This error refers to mistakes made in calculating and recording the results of the analysis, which can lead to incorrect information being reported to the healthcare provider or patient. It is important to ensure accuracy in the calculation and reporting of results to avoid any potential harm or misdiagnosis.

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  • 11. 

    The highest concentrations of serum amylase and lipase are seen in which of the following conditions?

    • Acute viral hep

    • Acute pancreatitis

    • Acute myocardial infarction

    • Alcoholic cirrhosis

    Correct Answer
    A. Acute pancreatitis
    Explanation
    In acute pancreatitis, there is inflammation of the pancreas, causing the release of amylase and lipase enzymes into the bloodstream. These enzymes are normally found in the pancreas and are responsible for the digestion of carbohydrates and fats. Therefore, the highest concentrations of serum amylase and lipase are seen in acute pancreatitis.

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  • 12. 

    What serum analyte is light sensitive?

    • Ammonia

    • Bilirubin

    • Triglycerides

    • Potassium

    Correct Answer
    A. Bilirubin
    Explanation
    Bilirubin is a serum analyte that is light sensitive. When exposed to light, bilirubin can undergo a chemical reaction called photoisomerization, which can alter its structure and affect its measurement. This is why it is important to protect samples containing bilirubin from light during storage and analysis.

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  • 13. 

    Which of the following provide information on how to clean up a chemical spill?

    • Material Safety Data Sheet

    • Package insert

    • Standard operating procedure

    • Policy manual

    Correct Answer
    A. Material Safety Data Sheet
    Explanation
    The Material Safety Data Sheet (MSDS) provides detailed information on how to clean up a chemical spill. It includes instructions on the proper handling, storage, and disposal of hazardous substances. The MSDS also provides information on the potential hazards associated with the chemical, as well as recommended personal protective equipment to be used during cleanup. This document is an essential resource for anyone working with or around hazardous chemicals, as it ensures the safe and effective cleanup of spills to minimize risks to human health and the environment.

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  • 14. 

    Which of the following are bloodborne pathogens?

    • TB and methiciliin resistant Staph auereus

    • Hep C and vancomyocin resistant enterococci

    • Human immunodeficiency virum and hep B

    • Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease and hep A

    Correct Answer
    A. Human immunodeficiency virum and hep B
    Explanation
    The correct answer is human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) and hepatitis B (hep B). These are both bloodborne pathogens, meaning they can be transmitted through contact with infected blood or other bodily fluids. TB and methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA) are not bloodborne pathogens, as they are primarily transmitted through respiratory droplets and direct contact with infected wounds or skin. Hepatitis C (hep C) and vancomycin-resistant enterococci (VRE) are also not bloodborne pathogens, as they are primarily transmitted through contact with contaminated needles or sexual contact. Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease (CJD) and hepatitis A (hep A) are not bloodborne pathogens either, as they are primarily transmitted through other routes such as ingestion or direct contact with infected tissues.

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  • 15. 

    EDTA-K3 is not an acceptable specimen for most chemistry tests.  What color tube would be recieved in the lab if it was drawn in error?

    • Red

    • Purple

    • Blue

    • Green

    Correct Answer
    A. Purple
    Explanation
    EDTA-K3 is a commonly used anticoagulant that is added to blood specimens to prevent clotting. However, EDTA can interfere with certain chemistry tests by binding to metal ions and affecting the accuracy of the results. Therefore, if a specimen is drawn using EDTA-K3 in error, it would be received in a purple tube. The purple top tube contains EDTA as the anticoagulant and is used for hematology tests, such as complete blood count (CBC), blood typing, and blood smear examination.

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  • 16. 

    Which one of the following enzymes is NOT a transferase?

    • ALT

    • AST

    • GGT

    • LDH

    Correct Answer
    A. LDH
    Explanation
    LDH (lactate dehydrogenase) is not a transferase enzyme. Transferases are enzymes that catalyze the transfer of functional groups between molecules. ALT (alanine transaminase), AST (aspartate transaminase), and GGT (gamma-glutamyl transferase) are all transferase enzymes involved in various metabolic processes. However, LDH is an oxidoreductase enzyme that catalyzes the interconversion of lactate and pyruvate. Therefore, LDH does not belong to the transferase enzyme class.

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  • 17. 

    Which of the following proteins binds and transports iron in the blood?

    • Hemopexin

    • Transferrin

    • Ferritin

    • Hemosiderin

    Correct Answer
    A. Transferrin
    Explanation
    Transferrin is a protein that binds and transports iron in the blood. It plays a crucial role in iron homeostasis by binding to iron and delivering it to cells throughout the body. Transferrin is responsible for transporting iron from sites of absorption or storage to sites of utilization or storage, ensuring that iron is distributed appropriately and efficiently. Hemopexin, ferritin, and hemosiderin are also involved in iron metabolism but do not specifically bind and transport iron in the blood like transferrin does.

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  • 18. 

    Using expired reagents to assay patient samples will result in an error in what phase of lab testing?

    • Preanalytical

    • Analytical

    • Postanalytical

    • Will not cause an error

    Correct Answer
    A. Analytical
    Explanation
    Using expired reagents during lab testing can result in an error in the analytical phase. The analytical phase of lab testing involves the actual testing and analysis of patient samples using various reagents and instruments. If the reagents used are expired, they may not provide accurate results, leading to errors in the analysis of the samples. Therefore, using expired reagents can significantly affect the accuracy and reliability of the analytical phase of lab testing.

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  • 19. 

    Which of the following is the most important buffer in the bloodstream that regulated pH?

    • Oxyhemoglobin-deoxyhemoglobin

    • Bicarbonate-carbonic acid

    • Lactate-lactic acid

    • Ammonium-ammonia

    Correct Answer
    A. Bicarbonate-carbonic acid
    Explanation
    Bicarbonate-carbonic acid is the most important buffer in the bloodstream that regulates pH. This buffer system helps maintain the blood pH within a narrow range by accepting or donating hydrogen ions. Carbonic acid can dissociate into bicarbonate ions and hydrogen ions, while bicarbonate ions can combine with hydrogen ions to form carbonic acid. This buffer system is crucial in preventing drastic changes in blood pH, as it can quickly adjust to either increase or decrease the concentration of hydrogen ions in the blood.

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  • 20. 

    The heart is primarily composed of what type of muscle tissue?

    • Myoglobin

    • Smooth

    • Cardiac

    • Skeletal

    Correct Answer
    A. Cardiac
    Explanation
    The correct answer is cardiac because the heart is primarily composed of cardiac muscle tissue. Cardiac muscle tissue is a specialized type of muscle tissue that is found only in the heart. It is responsible for the contraction and relaxation of the heart, allowing it to pump blood throughout the body. Unlike skeletal muscle tissue, which is under voluntary control, cardiac muscle tissue is involuntary and contracts rhythmically to maintain the heart's pumping action.

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  • 21. 

    Which tissue has the highest distribution of CK-BB

    • Heart

    • Lungs

    • Muscle

    • Brain

    Correct Answer
    A. Brain
    Explanation
    The brain has the highest distribution of CK-BB. CK-BB, also known as creatine kinase-brain, is an enzyme primarily found in the brain tissue. It plays a crucial role in maintaining energy metabolism and neuronal function. Due to its high concentration in the brain, CK-BB is often used as a biomarker in diagnosing and monitoring various neurological disorders, such as brain injury, stroke, and brain tumors.

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  • 22. 

    Which is the storage form of glucose in muscle and liver?

    • Starch

    • Pentose

    • Dextrose

    • Glycogen

    Correct Answer
    A. Glycogen
    Explanation
    Glycogen is the storage form of glucose in both muscle and liver. It is a highly branched polysaccharide that serves as a readily available source of energy when glucose levels are low. Glycogen is synthesized and stored in the liver and muscle cells, where it can be broken down into glucose molecules when needed for energy. Starch, pentose, and dextrose are not the storage forms of glucose in muscle and liver.

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  • 23. 

    Due to the diurnal variation of cortisol, a patient that is being worked up for Adrenal insufficiency should have their blood drawn at what time of the day?

    • In the morning around 8:00

    • At noon

    • In the evening around 8:00

    • It doesn't matter

    Correct Answer
    A. In the morning around 8:00
    Explanation
    Cortisol levels follow a diurnal variation, meaning they are highest in the morning and gradually decrease throughout the day. Therefore, to accurately assess cortisol levels in a patient being worked up for Adrenal insufficiency, it is recommended to draw their blood in the morning around 8:00. This timing ensures that the cortisol levels are at their peak, providing the most reliable results for diagnosis.

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  • 24. 

    Which of the following best describes universal precautions?

    • Wearing personal protective equipment in the lab

    • Testing all patient specimens for anti-HIV-1/2

    • Treating all specimens as potentially bioharzardous

    • Washing hands immediately after removing gloves

    Correct Answer
    A. Treating all specimens as potentially bioharzardous
    Explanation
    Universal precautions refer to a set of guidelines that are followed in order to prevent the transmission of infectious diseases in healthcare settings. This includes treating all specimens as potentially biohazardous, regardless of whether or not they are known to be infected. By assuming that all specimens are potentially hazardous, healthcare workers can take the necessary precautions to protect themselves and others from potential infections. This may include wearing personal protective equipment, such as gloves and masks, and properly disposing of contaminated materials. Testing all patient specimens for anti-HIV-1/2 and washing hands immediately after removing gloves are important practices, but they do not encompass the concept of universal precautions.

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  • 25. 

    Chemistry analytes such as glucose and cholesterol are an example of which of the following?

    • Solvent

    • Solute

    • Solution

    • Buffer

    Correct Answer
    A. Solute
    Explanation
    Glucose and cholesterol are substances that can be dissolved in a solvent, such as water, to form a solution. In this case, they would be considered solutes, as they are the substances being dissolved. A solute is a substance that is dissolved in a solvent to form a solution.

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  • 26. 

    What optical technique measures metal ions in a solution based on ground state atoms absorbing light at defined wavelengths for the element being measured?

    • Atomic absorption spectrophotometry

    • Nephelometry

    • Chemiluminescence

    • Trubidimetry

    Correct Answer
    A. Atomic absorption spectrophotometry
    Explanation
    Atomic absorption spectrophotometry is an optical technique that measures metal ions in a solution by using ground state atoms that absorb light at specific wavelengths for the element being measured. This technique involves passing light through the sample solution and measuring the amount of light absorbed by the atoms of the metal ions. By comparing the absorption of light at specific wavelengths, the concentration of the metal ions in the solution can be determined.

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  • 27. 

    What is the most commonly analyzed specimen in chemistry?

    • Plasma

    • Serum

    • Whole blood

    • 24 hour urine

    Correct Answer
    A. Serum
    Explanation
    Serum is the most commonly analyzed specimen in chemistry because it is the clear, yellowish fluid that remains after blood has clotted and the blood cells have been removed. It contains various proteins, electrolytes, hormones, and other substances that can provide valuable information about a person's health and diagnose diseases. Serum is easily obtained through a simple blood draw, making it a convenient and widely used specimen for chemical analysis in clinical laboratories.

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  • 28. 

    The precipitin curve, where does the optimal ratio of antibody to antigen occur?

    • Prozone

    • Zone of equivalence

    • Postzone

    • End zone

    Correct Answer
    A. Zone of equivalence
    Explanation
    The optimal ratio of antibody to antigen occurs in the zone of equivalence. In this zone, the amount of antibody and antigen is balanced, resulting in the formation of immune complexes. This is the point where the highest level of precipitation occurs, indicating the optimal binding between the antibody and antigen. The prozone refers to a situation where there is an excess of antibody, leading to a lack of precipitation. The postzone occurs when there is an excess of antigen, resulting in incomplete precipitation. The end zone is not a term commonly used in relation to the precipitin curve.

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  • 29. 

    What electrolyte is the major extracellular cation in plasma

    • Sodium

    • Potassium

    • Chloride

    • Bicarbonate

    Correct Answer
    A. Sodium
    Explanation
    Sodium is the major extracellular cation in plasma. It plays a crucial role in maintaining fluid balance, nerve function, and muscle contraction. Sodium ions are found in higher concentrations outside the cell, making it the major cation in the extracellular fluid. It helps regulate blood pressure and osmotic balance.

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  • 30. 

    Urine, an ultrafiltrate of plasma, is formed by the kidneys and primarily consists of which of the following analytes?

    • Water, salt, and urea

    • Water, protein, and uric acid

    • Water, glucose, and bilirubin

    • Water, ablumin, and creatinine

    Correct Answer
    A. Water, salt, and urea
    Explanation
    Urine is formed by the kidneys through the process of ultrafiltration of plasma. It primarily consists of water, salt, and urea. Water is the main component of urine, while salt and urea are waste products that are filtered out by the kidneys. Protein, uric acid, glucose, bilirubin, and creatinine are not the primary analytes found in urine.

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  • 31. 

    Which of teh following is characterized by hyperbilirubinemia and deposition of bile prigment in the skin and sclera?

    • Myxedema

    • Cholestasis

    • Jaundice

    • Kernicterus

    Correct Answer
    A. Jaundice
    Explanation
    Jaundice is characterized by hyperbilirubinemia, which refers to an elevated level of bilirubin in the blood. Bilirubin is a yellow pigment that is formed when red blood cells break down. In jaundice, there is an accumulation of bilirubin, leading to the yellowing of the skin and sclera (the white part of the eyes). This condition can occur due to various reasons such as liver disease, hepatitis, or obstruction of the bile ducts. Myxedema refers to severe hypothyroidism, cholestasis is a condition where bile flow is impaired, and kernicterus is a neurological condition caused by high levels of bilirubin in newborns.

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  • 32. 

    What hormone synthesized by the pituitary gland promotes function of the thyroid gland?

    • Thyroxine

    • Triiodothyronine

    • Thyroid stimulating hormone

    • Calcitonin

    Correct Answer
    A. Thyroid stimulating hormone
    Explanation
    Thyroid stimulating hormone (TSH) is synthesized by the pituitary gland and promotes the function of the thyroid gland. It stimulates the production and release of thyroxine and triiodothyronine, which are hormones produced by the thyroid gland. Thyroxine and triiodothyronine play a crucial role in regulating metabolism, growth, and development in the body. Therefore, TSH is essential for maintaining the proper function of the thyroid gland and ensuring the appropriate levels of thyroxine and triiodothyronine in the body.

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  • 33. 

    A fire that is cuased by discarding a lit cigarette in a trash can is an example of what type of fire?

    • Class A

    • Class B

    • Class C

    • Class D

    Correct Answer
    A. Class A
    Explanation
    A fire that is caused by discarding a lit cigarette in a trash can is an example of a Class A fire. Class A fires involve ordinary combustible materials such as wood, paper, fabric, and plastics. In this case, the cigarette ignites the trash, which is made up of combustible materials, resulting in a Class A fire.

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  • 34. 

    What specimen is unacceptable for the analysis of carbon dioxide?

    • Serum

    • Plasma

    • Urine

    • Whole blood

    Correct Answer
    A. Urine
    Explanation
    Urine is the specimen that is unacceptable for the analysis of carbon dioxide. This is because urine does not directly reflect the current levels of carbon dioxide in the body. Carbon dioxide levels are typically measured in blood samples, such as serum or plasma, as they provide a more accurate representation of the body's carbon dioxide levels. Urine analysis is usually used to assess other substances and waste products in the body, but not specifically for carbon dioxide levels.

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  • 35. 

    Cholesterol functions as the backbone structure for which of the following?

    • Steroidal hormones

    • Chylomicrons

    • Specific enzymes

    • Ribosomes

    Correct Answer
    A. Steroidal hormones
    Explanation
    Cholesterol functions as the backbone structure for steroidal hormones. Steroidal hormones are a class of hormones that are derived from cholesterol and include hormones such as cortisol, estrogen, and testosterone. Cholesterol serves as the starting material for the synthesis of these hormones, and it provides the structural framework upon which other molecules are added to form the final hormone molecules. Therefore, cholesterol is essential for the production of steroidal hormones in the body.

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  • 36. 

    A patient had a specimen drawn for iron determination at 8 am and another one drawn for the same test at 4 pm. The results were higher in the am than the pm.  This is an example of which of the following?

    • Delta check

    • Physiological variation

    • Diurnal variation

    • Critical value alert

    Correct Answer
    A. Diurnal variation
    Explanation
    Diurnal variation refers to the natural fluctuations in a person's biological processes over a 24-hour period. In this case, the patient's iron levels were higher in the morning (8 am) compared to the afternoon (4 pm). This can be attributed to diurnal variation, as iron levels tend to be higher in the morning and decrease throughout the day. Therefore, the correct answer is diurnal variation.

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  • 37. 

    In a spectrophotometric analysis what is the purpose of the reagent blank?

    • Correct for hemolysis in the patient sample

    • Correct for lipemia in the patient sample

    • Correct for high protein levels in the patient sample

    • Correct for color contribution of the reagents

    Correct Answer
    A. Correct for color contribution of the reagents
    Explanation
    The purpose of the reagent blank in a spectrophotometric analysis is to correct for the color contribution of the reagents. This is necessary because the reagents used in the analysis can have their own inherent color that can interfere with the measurement of the sample. By measuring the absorbance of the reagents alone, without the sample, and subtracting this value from the absorbance of the sample with reagents, the color contribution of the reagents can be eliminated, allowing for a more accurate measurement of the sample's absorbance.

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  • 38. 

    What are the normal ranges for arterial blood gases at 37 C?  (pH, pO2, and pCO2, respectively).

    • 6.95-7.05, 80-100%, 35-45

    • 7.15-7.25, 90-100%, 22-24

    • 7.35-7.45, 80-110%, 35-45

    • 7.55-7.75, 90-100%, 22-24

    Correct Answer
    A. 7.35-7.45, 80-110%, 35-45
    Explanation
    The normal ranges for arterial blood gases at 37 C are a pH range of 7.35-7.45, a pO2 range of 80-110%, and a pCO2 range of 35-45. These ranges indicate the acceptable levels of acidity (pH), oxygenation (pO2), and carbon dioxide levels (pCO2) in the arterial blood. The given answer falls within these normal ranges, making it the correct choice.

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  • 39. 

    The following results are avilable from a patient seen in the ER. Amylase---elevated Lipase---elevated What is the most probably cause of these test results?

    • Zollinger-Ellison syndrome

    • Crohn's disease

    • Acute pancreatitis

    • Cystic fibrosis

    Correct Answer
    A. Acute pancreatitis
    Explanation
    The most probable cause of elevated amylase and lipase levels in this patient seen in the ER is acute pancreatitis. Elevated levels of amylase and lipase are commonly observed in cases of acute pancreatitis, which is inflammation of the pancreas. This condition can be caused by various factors such as gallstones, alcohol abuse, or trauma to the pancreas. Zollinger-Ellison syndrome, Crohn's disease, and cystic fibrosis are not typically associated with elevated amylase and lipase levels.

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  • 40. 

    Which of the following hormones is a glucocorticoid?

    • Cortisol

    • Aldosterone

    • Androstenedione

    • Dehydroepiandrosterone

    Correct Answer
    A. Cortisol
    Explanation
    Cortisol is a glucocorticoid hormone produced by the adrenal glands. It plays a crucial role in regulating metabolism, immune response, and stress response. Glucocorticoids, including cortisol, help to increase blood sugar levels, suppress inflammation, and inhibit the immune system. Aldosterone, on the other hand, is a mineralocorticoid hormone that regulates electrolyte and water balance in the body. Androstenedione and dehydroepiandrosterone are androgens, which are sex hormones involved in the development of male characteristics.

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  • 41. 

    What is serum?

    • Liquid component of blood including all coagulation factors

    • Liquid component of blood synonymous with absorbed proteins

    • Cellular component of blood above the red cells

    • Liquid component of blood without presence of fibrinogen

    Correct Answer
    A. Liquid component of blood without presence of fibrinogen
    Explanation
    Serum is the liquid component of blood that does not contain fibrinogen. Fibrinogen is a protein involved in blood clotting, so the absence of fibrinogen in serum allows it to remain in a liquid state. Serum contains other components such as electrolytes, hormones, antibodies, and waste products. It is often used in medical tests and research to analyze the levels of various substances in the blood.

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  • 42. 

    Which of the following is an example of a noncontrollable preanalytical error?

    • Fasting

    • Posture

    • Prolonged bed rest

    • Age

    Correct Answer
    A. Age
    Explanation
    Age is an example of a noncontrollable preanalytical error because it is a factor that cannot be controlled or changed. Preanalytical errors refer to mistakes or variations that occur before the actual analysis of a sample, and in this case, age is not something that can be altered or controlled in the context of a laboratory test. Therefore, it is considered a noncontrollable preanalytical error.

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  • 43. 

    Which of the following is an example of an analytical error?

    • Storing samples at an improper temperature

    • Using an outdated calibration curve

    • Inappropriate specimen type received

    • Intravenous saline contamination from an IV

    Correct Answer
    A. Using an outdated calibration curve
    Explanation
    Using an outdated calibration curve is an example of an analytical error because it can lead to inaccurate results. Calibration curves are used to relate the signal produced by an analytical instrument to the concentration of a substance being measured. If the calibration curve is outdated, it may not accurately reflect the relationship between the signal and the concentration, resulting in incorrect measurements.

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  • 44. 

    Which of teh following refers to the way in which the twisted amino acid chain folds back on itself to form a 3-dimensional structure?

    • Primary

    • Secondary

    • Tertiary

    • Quaternary

    Correct Answer
    A. Tertiary
    Explanation
    The term "tertiary" refers to the way in which the twisted amino acid chain folds back on itself to form a 3-dimensional structure. This folding is crucial for the protein to acquire its functional shape and allows for the interaction of different amino acid residues within the chain. The tertiary structure is stabilized by various bonds and interactions, such as hydrogen bonds, disulfide bridges, hydrophobic interactions, and electrostatic interactions. It is important for the proper functioning of proteins and determines their specific properties and functions.

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  • 45. 

    Bence Jones proteins are associated with what disease?

    • Multiple myeloma

    • Wilson's disease

    • Inflammation

    • Down's syndrome

    Correct Answer
    A. Multiple myeloma
    Explanation
    Bence Jones proteins are abnormal proteins found in the urine of patients with multiple myeloma. Multiple myeloma is a type of cancer that affects plasma cells in the bone marrow, leading to the overproduction of these abnormal proteins. The presence of Bence Jones proteins can be detected through urine tests and is a characteristic feature of multiple myeloma. Wilson's disease, inflammation, and Down's syndrome are not specifically associated with the presence of Bence Jones proteins.

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  • 46. 

    What is the function of transferrin?

    • Transports hemoglobin in the plasma

    • Transports copper in the plamsa

    • Transports iron in the plasma

    • Helps bind free hemoglobin

    Correct Answer
    A. Transports iron in the plasma
    Explanation
    Transferrin is a protein responsible for transporting iron in the plasma. Iron is an essential element for many biological processes, including oxygen transport and energy production. Transferrin binds to iron and carries it through the bloodstream to cells that require it. Once inside the cells, iron is released from transferrin and used for various biochemical reactions. Therefore, the function of transferrin is to facilitate the transport of iron throughout the body.

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  • 47. 

    Which of the following is in the metal component of ceruloplasium?

    • Copper

    • Zinc

    • Iron

    • Selenium

    Correct Answer
    A. Copper
    Explanation
    Ceruloplasmin is a copper-containing protein found in the blood. It plays a crucial role in iron metabolism and antioxidant defense. Copper is an essential component of ceruloplasmin, and it is responsible for its enzymatic activity. Therefore, copper is the correct answer as it is a part of the metal component of ceruloplasmin.

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  • 48. 

    What is the first test usually ordered in the evaluation of male fertility?

    • Semen analysis

    • Testosterone

    • Prostate specific antigen

    • Anti-sperm antibodies

    Correct Answer
    A. Semen analysis
    Explanation
    This question was in a debate for a bit but the general classmate consensus was semen analysis, since this is a very easy test. Testosterone can be ordered not just for fertility, but also other testosterone complications.

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  • 49. 

    What tumor marker is routinely used to monitor patients with prostate cancer??

    • Prostate-specific antigen

    • Acid phosphatase

    • Alkaline phosphatase

    • Human chorionic gonadotropin

    Correct Answer
    A. Prostate-specific antigen
    Explanation
    Prostate-specific antigen (PSA) is a tumor marker that is routinely used to monitor patients with prostate cancer. PSA is a protein produced by the cells of the prostate gland, and its levels in the blood can be elevated in patients with prostate cancer. Monitoring PSA levels can help assess the effectiveness of treatment, detect recurrence of the cancer, and determine the need for further interventions. Therefore, PSA is an important marker in the management and follow-up of patients with prostate cancer.

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Quiz Review Timeline (Updated): Jan 15, 2025 +

Our quizzes are rigorously reviewed, monitored and continuously updated by our expert board to maintain accuracy, relevance, and timeliness.

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  • Jan 15, 2025
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • Nov 14, 2012
    Quiz Created by
    Amyeickmeyer
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