CDC 2a651s Master Test By CDCmaster

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  • 1/298 Questions

    To which flight is the engine management section assigned?

    • Programs and resources
    • Maintenance Operations
    • Maintenance Training
    • Quality Assurance
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About This Quiz

The CDC 2A651s Master test by CDCmaster evaluates knowledge critical for Air Force maintenance roles. It covers maintenance group functions, engine management, and career progression within Air Force specialty codes, emphasizing operational readiness and skill application.

CDC 2a651s Master Test By CDCmaster - Quiz

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  • 2. 

    What will be your title once you obtain the 7-skill level?

    • Craftsman

    • Apprentice

    • Journeyman

    • Superintendent

    Correct Answer
    A. Craftsman
    Explanation
    The title "Craftsman" is appropriate for someone who has obtained the 7-skill level. This title suggests a high level of expertise and mastery in a particular craft or trade. It implies that the individual has gained significant experience and skill through years of practice and training. The term "Craftsman" also conveys a sense of professionalism and dedication to their craft. Overall, this title accurately reflects the achievement and proficiency of someone at the 7-skill level.

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  • 3. 

    What type of training is provided to help you learn the knowledge portion of your job?

    • On-the-job training

    • Task qualification training

    • Career development course

    • Noncommissioned Officer Academy (NCOA)

    Correct Answer
    A. Career development course
    Explanation
    A career development course is a type of training that helps individuals learn the knowledge portion of their job. This type of training is specifically designed to enhance the skills and knowledge required for career advancement and growth. It is usually offered to employees who want to develop their careers further and gain a deeper understanding of their job responsibilities. This training may cover various topics such as leadership, technical skills, communication, and problem-solving, among others. Participating in a career development course can provide individuals with the necessary tools and knowledge to excel in their current job and prepare them for future career opportunities.

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  • 4. 

    How many months must you have in the Air Force before you may attend the Airman Leadership Scholl (ALS)?

    • 24

    • 36

    • 48

    • 60

    Correct Answer
    A. 48
    Explanation
    In order to attend the Airman Leadership School (ALS), one must have completed 48 months in the Air Force. This indicates that a certain level of experience and time in service is required before being eligible for this leadership training program.

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  • 5. 

    Which Air Force instruction defines quality maintenance and requires maintenance personnel to display integrity and comply with all written guidance?

    • 00-5-1

    • 00-20-1

    • 21-101

    • 36-2108

    Correct Answer
    A. 21-101
    Explanation
    Air Force instruction 21-101 defines quality maintenance and mandates that maintenance personnel demonstrate integrity and adhere to all written guidance.

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  • 6. 

    Prior to starting any maintenance on the aircraft, what can you do to ensure that it is safe to proceed?

    • Lock and pin the work stands

    • Check the intake for foreign object damage (FOD)

    • Review the Air Force Technical Order (AFTO) Form 781K

    • Check with other personnel working inside or outside the aircraft

    Correct Answer
    A. Check with other personnel working inside or outside the aircraft
    Explanation
    To ensure the safety of proceeding with maintenance on the aircraft, it is important to check with other personnel working inside or outside the aircraft. This is because they may have valuable information or observations regarding the condition of the aircraft or any potential hazards that need to be addressed before starting maintenance. Collaborating with other personnel helps to ensure that all necessary precautions are taken and that the maintenance can be carried out safely.

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  • 7. 

    In order to avoid the engine exhaust blast, what is the minimum distance to the rear of the aircraft?

    • 100 feet

    • 200 feet

    • 300 feet

    • 400 feet

    Correct Answer
    A. 200 feet
    Explanation
    The minimum distance to the rear of the aircraft to avoid the engine exhaust blast is 200 feet. This distance is necessary to ensure the safety of personnel and equipment from the high temperatures and strong force of the exhaust gases. Being closer than 200 feet can pose a risk of injury or damage due to the intense heat and pressure generated by the aircraft's engines.

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  • 8. 

    Foreign object damage (FOD) is normally caused by

    • People

    • Animals

    • Weather

    • Mechanical failure

    Correct Answer
    A. People
    Explanation
    Foreign object damage (FOD) is typically caused by people. This refers to any damage or impairment to an object, such as an aircraft or engine, caused by foreign objects. These objects can be anything from tools and equipment left behind by maintenance personnel to debris and litter on runways or taxiways. Human error, negligence, or lack of proper maintenance procedures can lead to the presence of foreign objects, which can in turn cause damage to equipment. Therefore, people are the most common cause of FOD incidents.

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  • 9. 

    Who has overall responsibility for the foreign object damage (FOD) program?

    • Quality Assurance

    • Production supervisor

    • Squadron commander

    • Vice Wing commander

    Correct Answer
    A. Vice Wing commander
    Explanation
    The Vice Wing commander has overall responsibility for the foreign object damage (FOD) program. This means that they are in charge of ensuring that proper procedures are in place to prevent foreign objects from causing damage to equipment, aircraft, or personnel. They are responsible for implementing and enforcing FOD prevention measures, conducting inspections, and addressing any issues or incidents related to FOD. As the second-in-command of the Wing, the Vice Wing commander has the authority and accountability to oversee the FOD program and ensure its effectiveness.

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  • 10. 

    Toxic materials are easiest to get into the body and cause rapid toxic reactions when they are in the form of

    • Aerosols

    • Liquids

    • Solids

    • Gases

    Correct Answer
    A. Gases
    Explanation
    Gases are the easiest form of toxic materials to get into the body and cause rapid toxic reactions because they can be easily inhaled. Unlike solids, liquids, or aerosols, gases can quickly enter the respiratory system and be absorbed into the bloodstream, allowing them to reach various organs and tissues rapidly. This fast absorption and distribution increase the likelihood of toxic reactions occurring quickly.

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  • 11. 

    Who is responsible for providing you with training on how to wear, use, and maintain personal protective equipment?

    • Safety

    • Hospital

    • Supervisor

    • Environmental

    Correct Answer
    A. Supervisor
    Explanation
    The supervisor is responsible for providing training on how to wear, use, and maintain personal protective equipment. They are in a position of authority and have the knowledge and expertise to ensure that employees are properly trained in the correct procedures. The supervisor is also responsible for enforcing safety protocols and ensuring that employees are following them correctly. Therefore, it is the supervisor's responsibility to provide training on personal protective equipment.

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  • 12. 

    What would you normally use to clean and sanitize respirators?

    • Alcohol

    • Pine oil

    • Mild soap

    • Fleur-de-lis

    Correct Answer
    A. Mild soap
    Explanation
    Mild soap is commonly used to clean and sanitize respirators. It is a gentle and effective cleaning agent that can remove dirt, oils, and other contaminants from the respirator's surface. Mild soap is also safe to use on most types of respirators without causing damage or compromising their functionality. It is important to clean and sanitize respirators regularly to maintain their effectiveness and prevent the buildup of bacteria or viruses. Alcohol and pine oil may be too harsh for certain respirator materials, while fleur-de-lis is not a cleaning agent and therefore not suitable for this purpose.

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  • 13. 

    Hazardous waste storage areas must prevent

    • Explosions

    • Unauthorized entry

    • Overflow of materials

    • Mixing of unlike materials

    Correct Answer
    A. Unauthorized entry
    Explanation
    Hazardous waste storage areas must prevent unauthorized entry to ensure the safety of individuals and the environment. Unauthorized entry can lead to accidents, theft, or intentional harm, which can result in the release of hazardous materials and pose a risk to human health and the surrounding ecosystem. Therefore, implementing measures to restrict access to these areas is crucial in maintaining a secure and controlled environment for the storage and handling of hazardous waste.

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  • 14. 

    Containers holding hazardous waste must be clearly marked to show the contents and

    • Flash point

    • Classification

    • Shipping name

    • Date the waste began to accumulate

    Correct Answer
    A. Date the waste began to accumulate
    Explanation
    Containers holding hazardous waste must be clearly marked to show the contents and the date the waste began to accumulate. This is important for proper management and disposal of the waste. The date of accumulation helps in determining the age of the waste, which is crucial for compliance with regulations regarding storage and disposal time limits. It also helps in tracking the waste and ensuring that it is properly managed and disposed of in a timely manner to prevent any potential hazards or environmental contamination.

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  • 15. 

    A specialized function of the supply mission is

    • Repair

    • Service

    • Disposal

    • Retrieval

    Correct Answer
    A. Disposal
    Explanation
    The specialized function of the supply mission that is being described here is disposal. This means that one of the main tasks of the supply mission is to properly get rid of or dispose of certain items or materials. This could involve safely discarding waste, disposing of hazardous materials, or managing the proper disposal of unwanted or expired supplies.

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  • 16. 

    Which supply document provides a means for organizations to review all document numbers processed during the day by the Standard Base Supply System (SBSS)?

    • Priority Monitor Report (D18)

    • Daily Document Register (D04)

    • Due-out Validation Listing (M30)

    • Repair Cycle Asset Management Listing (D23)

    Correct Answer
    A. Daily Document Register (D04)
    Explanation
    The Daily Document Register (D04) provides a means for organizations to review all document numbers processed during the day by the Standard Base Supply System (SBSS). This register allows organizations to keep track of all the documents processed, ensuring that no document numbers are missed or overlooked. It serves as a comprehensive record of all the documents processed and can be used for auditing and accountability purposes. The other options mentioned, such as the Priority Monitor Report (D18), Due-out Validation Listing (M30), and Repair Cycle Asset Management Listing (D23), do not specifically provide a means to review all document numbers processed during the day.

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  • 17. 

    Base Supply must deliver numerous parts to numerous organizations on a priority basis because of the differences in each organization's 

    • Type of aircraft

    • Contract

    • Mission

    • Location

    Correct Answer
    A. Mission
    Explanation
    Base Supply must deliver numerous parts to numerous organizations on a priority basis because of the differences in each organization's mission. The mission of an organization determines the specific requirements and needs of that organization, including the types of parts and supplies needed. Therefore, delivering parts based on the mission ensures that each organization receives the necessary resources to carry out their specific tasks and objectives effectively.

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  • 18. 

    What does a completed Air Force Technical Order (AFTO) Form 350 serve to identify?

    • Origin of an item

    • Why the item broke

    • How long the item will take to repair

    • The responsibility reparable processing center

    Correct Answer
    A. Origin of an item
    Explanation
    A completed Air Force Technical Order (AFTO) Form 350 serves to identify the origin of an item. This form is used to document and track the history of an item, including its source or manufacturer. It helps in maintaining a record of the item's origin, which can be useful for various purposes such as quality control, warranty claims, or identifying potential issues related to specific suppliers or manufacturers.

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  • 19. 

    When a bench stock item has a type I shelf-life it means the item

    • Has an assigned shelf-life period that may be extended

    • Should be returned to supply after expiration date

    • Has a definite nonextendible period of shelf-life

    • Should be inspected or tested

    Correct Answer
    A. Has a definite nonextendible period of shelf-life
    Explanation
    A bench stock item with a type I shelf-life has a definite nonextendible period of shelf-life. This means that the item has a specific period of time in which it can be used or stored before it expires. This expiration date cannot be extended, and once the item reaches its shelf-life limit, it should no longer be used or stored.

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  • 20. 

    A Category I deficiency report (DR) is used to report a deficiency

    • That is required for tracking by agreement of the single manager

    • Found during an initial acceptance inspection (critical or major defects only)

    • That, if uncorrected, will cause major loss or damage to equipment or a system

    • That identifies a potential enhancement (applies to enhancements noted during the acquisition cycle)

    Correct Answer
    A. That, if uncorrected, will cause major loss or damage to equipment or a system
    Explanation
    A Category I deficiency report is used to report a deficiency that, if left uncorrected, has the potential to cause significant loss or damage to equipment or a system. This report is specifically for critical or major defects identified during an initial acceptance inspection. It is important to track and address these deficiencies to prevent any major consequences or harm to the equipment or system.

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  • 21. 

    Within how many hours must Category I deficiency reports (DR) be forwarded to the originating point?

    • 8

    • 12

    • 24

    • 72

    Correct Answer
    A. 24
    Explanation
    Category I deficiency reports (DR) must be forwarded to the originating point within 24 hours. This means that any major issues or deficiencies that are classified as Category I must be reported and addressed within a 24-hour timeframe. This allows for prompt action to be taken in order to rectify the deficiency and ensure the safety and efficiency of operations.

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  • 22. 

    When should new equipment account custodians receive training?

    • Before signing for the account

    • Within 10 days of signing for the account

    • Within 15 days of signing for the account

    • Within 30 days of signing for the account

    Correct Answer
    A. Before signing for the account
    Explanation
    New equipment account custodians should receive training before signing for the account to ensure that they are familiar with the equipment and its proper use. This training will help them understand their responsibilities as custodians and ensure that they can effectively manage and maintain the equipment. It is important for custodians to have this training before taking on the responsibility of caring for the equipment to minimize the risk of damage or misuse.

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  • 23. 

    Which technical order (TO) describes the Air Force TO system?

    • 00-5-1

    • 00-5-2

    • 00-20-1

    • 00-20-2

    Correct Answer
    A. 00-5-1
    Explanation
    The technical order (TO) that describes the Air Force TO system is 00-5-1.

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  • 24. 

    Which type of technical manual is divided into tasks that cover a particular maintenance action?

    • General Equipment

    • General System

    • Fault Isolation

    • Job Guide

    Correct Answer
    A. Job Guide
    Explanation
    A Job Guide is a type of technical manual that is divided into tasks that cover a particular maintenance action. It provides step-by-step instructions and guidance on how to perform specific maintenance tasks on a piece of equipment or system. This manual is designed to assist technicians in carrying out their maintenance duties effectively and efficiently. It helps them understand the sequence of tasks required to complete a specific maintenance action and ensures that they follow the correct procedures.

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  • 25. 

    Who originates technical orders?

    • Section supervisor

    • Contracting squadron

    • Equipment manufacturer

    • Maintenance group commander

    Correct Answer
    A. Equipment manufacturer
    Explanation
    The equipment manufacturer is responsible for originating technical orders. They have the knowledge and expertise to create detailed instructions and procedures for the proper use and maintenance of their equipment. These technical orders provide essential guidance to users and maintenance personnel, ensuring that the equipment is operated safely and efficiently. The manufacturer's involvement in creating technical orders also allows them to address any updates or modifications to the equipment, ensuring that users have the most up-to-date information.

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  • 26. 

    In the reliability centered maintenance (RCM) approach, which preventative maintenance task is a scheduled inspection to detect a potential failure condition?

    • Hard time

    • Lubrication

    • On condition

    • Failure finding

    Correct Answer
    A. On condition
    Explanation
    In the reliability centered maintenance (RCM) approach, the preventative maintenance task that involves a scheduled inspection to detect a potential failure condition is known as "On condition." This means that the inspection is conducted based on the condition of the equipment or system, rather than a fixed schedule. By regularly assessing the condition of the equipment, potential failure conditions can be detected early, allowing for timely repairs or replacements to prevent major breakdowns or disruptions.

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  • 27. 

    Depot level support includes depot field teams (DFT) and

    • Contract field teams (CFT)

    • Base jet engine run crews

    • Oil analysis teams

    • Slide engineers

    Correct Answer
    A. Contract field teams (CFT)
    Explanation
    Depot level support refers to the maintenance and repair activities carried out at a depot or central facility. This support includes various teams such as depot field teams (DFT), contract field teams (CFT), base jet engine run crews, oil analysis teams, and slide engineers. Among these options, contract field teams (CFT) are specifically mentioned as part of depot level support. These teams are likely hired through contractual agreements to provide additional maintenance and repair services at the depot level.

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  • 28. 

    You should record the removal and replacement of engine accessories on the following Air Force technical order (AFTO) Forms

    • 25

    • 44

    • 95

    • 349

    Correct Answer
    A. 95
  • 29. 

    Which is not a Lead the Fleet/Pacer program objective?

    • Reducing customer wait time for serviceable assets

    • Accurately update scheduled maintenance requirements

    • Evaluate the engine controls and accessories to include engine monitoring systems

    • Detect any unique durability problems that might force special scheduled inspections

    Correct Answer
    A. Reducing customer wait time for serviceable assets
    Explanation
    The Lead the Fleet/Pacer program objectives include accurately updating scheduled maintenance requirements, evaluating engine controls and accessories, and detecting unique durability problems. However, reducing customer wait time for serviceable assets is not specifically mentioned as an objective of the program.

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  • 30. 

    Carrying a hand tool in your pocket is potentially hazardous because it could cause

    • Injury to you

    • Torn clothing

    • Electrical shock

    • Damage to the tool

    Correct Answer
    A. Injury to you
    Explanation
    Carrying a hand tool in your pocket is potentially hazardous because it could cause injury to you. This is because having a tool in your pocket increases the risk of accidental contact with the tool, leading to cuts, punctures, or other injuries. Additionally, the weight and shape of the tool can cause discomfort or restrict movement, increasing the likelihood of accidents or falls. Therefore, it is important to always carry hand tools in a proper tool belt or bag to ensure safety.

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  • 31. 

    What would you use to hold your tools when you tools when you cannot locate your toolbox within arm's reach?

    • Foreign object damage (FOD) bag

    • Ziploc bag

    • Parts bag

    • Tool bag

    Correct Answer
    A. Tool bag
    Explanation
    A tool bag would be the most suitable option to hold your tools when you cannot locate your toolbox within arm's reach. A tool bag is specifically designed to carry and organize tools, making it convenient to have all necessary tools in one place. It allows for easy transportation and ensures that the tools are protected and easily accessible when needed.

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  • 32. 

    If you must torque a sequence of three or more bolts,

    • Use maximum torque

    • Torque from left to right

    • Use a staggered sequence

    • Overtorque, loosen, and retorque

    Correct Answer
    A. Use a staggered sequence
    Explanation
    When torquing a sequence of three or more bolts, it is recommended to use a staggered sequence. This means that instead of tightening the bolts in a consecutive or linear manner, they should be tightened in a crisscross or alternating pattern. This helps to ensure even distribution of torque and prevents uneven stress or strain on the bolts and the object being fastened. Using a staggered sequence helps to maintain the integrity and stability of the connection.

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  • 33. 

    What type of rule should you use for measuring an inside diameter?

    • 6-inch steel

    • Slide caliper

    • Narrow

    • Hook

    Correct Answer
    A. Slide caliper
    Explanation
    A slide caliper is the correct tool to use for measuring an inside diameter. Slide calipers have two jaws, one of which can be inserted into the inside diameter of an object to measure its width accurately. The other options mentioned, such as 6-inch steel, narrow, and hook, are not suitable for measuring inside diameter.

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  • 34. 

    If you were tasked to measure the clearance between two surfaces, what type of gauge would you use?

    • Steel-rule

    • Micrometer

    • Dial-indicator

    • Thickness gauge

    Correct Answer
    A. Thickness gauge
    Explanation
    A thickness gauge is the most appropriate tool for measuring the clearance between two surfaces. This type of gauge is specifically designed to measure the thickness of materials and can provide accurate measurements for small gaps or clearances. The other options, such as a steel-rule, micrometer, and dial indicator, are not specifically designed for measuring clearances and may not provide the same level of accuracy or precision as a thickness gauge.

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  • 35. 

    The longest calibrated movement between the spindle and anvil of an outside micrometer is

    • 1 inches

    • 2 inches

    • 3 inches

    • 4 inches

    Correct Answer
    A. 1 inches
    Explanation
    The longest calibrated movement between the spindle and anvil of an outside micrometer is 1 inch. This means that the micrometer can measure objects up to 1 inch in length accurately. The spindle and anvil are the two components of the micrometer that come together to measure the length of an object. By adjusting the position of the spindle, the micrometer can measure different lengths with precision. In this case, the micrometer has a maximum calibrated movement of 1 inch, indicating its ability to measure objects up to that length accurately.

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  • 36. 

    What feature is common to all dial indicators?

    • Construction of indicator

    • Construction of indicating hand

    • Ability to amplify movement greatly

    • Ability to amplify movement slightly

    Correct Answer
    A. Ability to amplify movement greatly
    Explanation
    All dial indicators have the ability to amplify movement greatly. This means that even a small movement or change in the measured quantity can be easily detected and displayed on the dial of the indicator. This feature is important in precision measurement applications where even the slightest change needs to be accurately measured and recorded. By amplifying the movement, dial indicators provide a clear and magnified indication of the measured quantity, allowing for precise measurements to be taken.

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  • 37. 

    What is the purpose of a borescope inspection on an assembled engine?

    • Replace a teardown inspection

    • Visually inspect internal sections

    • Detect major damage inside the engine

    • Determine how much maintenance is required during a periodic inspection

    Correct Answer
    A. Visually inspect internal sections
    Explanation
    A borescope inspection on an assembled engine is conducted to visually inspect the internal sections of the engine. This allows for a thorough examination of the engine's components and helps to identify any potential issues or damage that may not be visible from the outside. By using a borescope, technicians can assess the condition of the engine without the need for disassembly, saving time and resources. This inspection helps to ensure the engine's performance and reliability by detecting any hidden problems that may require maintenance or repairs.

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  • 38. 

    Light is transmitted to the tip of a borescope by

    • The fiber optics

    • An optical illusion bundle

    • A grounded extension cord

    • A directly magnified light source

    Correct Answer
    A. The fiber optics
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "the fiber optics" because fiber optics is a technology that uses thin strands of glass or plastic to transmit light signals. In the context of a borescope, which is a flexible tube used to view hard-to-reach areas, fiber optics is commonly used to transmit light from a source to the tip of the borescope. This allows the user to illuminate the area being viewed and obtain a clear image.

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  • 39. 

    When operating a borescope, what part of the borescope illuminates the interior of the area you're inspecting?

    • Control unit

    • Light guide tube

    • Distal tip light guides

    • Bending section lever

    Correct Answer
    A. Distal tip light guides
    Explanation
    The distal tip light guides of a borescope are responsible for illuminating the interior of the area being inspected. These light guides are located at the tip of the borescope and emit light to provide visibility in dark or hard-to-reach areas. By directing the light towards the inspection area, the distal tip light guides allow the operator to clearly see and assess the condition of the object or space being examined.

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  • 40. 

    Which factor is not considered for borescope operation certification?

    • Experience

    • Maturity

    • Age

    • Rank

    Correct Answer
    A. Age
    Explanation
    Age is not considered for borescope operation certification because the ability to operate a borescope effectively is not necessarily dependent on a person's age. Instead, factors such as experience, maturity, and rank are more relevant in determining the certification for borescope operation. Age alone does not guarantee the necessary skills and knowledge required for this certification.

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  • 41. 

    Which type of borescope misuse causes a poor field of view (black spots)?

    • Setting the light source selector switch high

    • Operation of the blending section with the brake on

    • Inserting tools in the working channel with the brake on

    • Application of lateral (pinching) pressure to the fiber bundle

    Correct Answer
    A. Application of lateral (pinching) pressure to the fiber bundle
    Explanation
    Applying lateral pressure to the fiber bundle can cause the fibers to become misaligned or damaged, resulting in a poor field of view with black spots.

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  • 42. 

    The grip length of a bolt should be a few thousandths of an inch shorter than the material it is holding to

    • Allow for the installation of a washer

    • Keep the nut from backing loose

    • Allow for expansion of the metal

    • Avoid bottoming out the nut

    Correct Answer
    A. Avoid bottoming out the nut
    Explanation
    The grip length of a bolt should be a few thousandths of an inch shorter than the material it is holding to avoid bottoming out the nut. This means that the bolt should not extend too far into the material, as it could cause the nut to reach the end of the bolt before it is fully tightened. By having a slightly shorter grip length, it ensures that the nut will have enough threads to securely fasten onto the bolt without the risk of bottoming out, which could result in a loose connection.

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  • 43. 

    When installing a self-taping screw, the hole must be

    • Slightly smaller than the screw

    • The same size as the screw shank

    • Slightly deeper than the length of the shank

    • Slightly shallower than the length of the screw

    Correct Answer
    A. Slightly smaller than the screw
    Explanation
    When installing a self-tapping screw, the hole must be slightly smaller than the screw. This is because the screw needs to grip the material tightly in order to create a secure connection. If the hole is the same size as the screw or slightly larger, the screw may not have enough grip and could become loose over time. Additionally, if the hole is slightly deeper than the length of the shank or slightly shallower than the length of the screw, it may not provide enough support for the screw and could result in a weak connection.

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  • 44. 

    To prevent damage to the soft metal surfaces where a lock washer is required, what should you use?

    • Plain washer underneath the lock washer

    • Soft lock washer

    • Special washer

    • Crush washer

    Correct Answer
    A. Plain washer underneath the lock washer
    Explanation
    To prevent damage to the soft metal surfaces, a plain washer should be used underneath the lock washer. This is because the plain washer provides a flat surface that distributes the pressure evenly, preventing the lock washer from digging into the soft metal and causing damage. By using a plain washer underneath the lock washer, the soft metal surfaces are protected and the lock washer can effectively perform its function of preventing loosening of the fastener.

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  • 45. 

    When lock wiring, how  many twists per inch are required to produce the proper stiffness

    • 6 to 8

    • 8 to 10

    • 10 to 12

    • 12 to 14

    Correct Answer
    A. 8 to 10
    Explanation
    When lock wiring, the proper stiffness is achieved by twisting the wire a certain number of times per inch. In this case, the correct answer is 8 to 10 twists per inch. This range ensures that the wire is securely tightened and provides the necessary stiffness to prevent loosening or movement of the locked components.

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  • 46. 

    Why is it necessary to carefully remove support clamps when disconnecting tubes?

    • Allows for ease of removal

    • Aids in further inspections

    • Prevents nicking and scratching

    • Prevents possible static electricity

    Correct Answer
    A. Prevents nicking and scratching
    Explanation
    It is necessary to carefully remove support clamps when disconnecting tubes because doing so prevents nicking and scratching. If the clamps are not removed carefully, they can cause damage to the tubes, leading to leaks or other issues. By taking the time to remove the clamps properly, the tubes can be safely disconnected without any damage or harm.

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  • 47. 

    Why should dust caps be installed over tube ends rather than inside them?

    • Provides a tighter fit

    • Prevents nicking of inner tube surface

    • Avoids possibility of leaving caps installed

    • Provides less contact with corrosive lubricants

    Correct Answer
    A. Avoids possibility of leaving caps installed
    Explanation
    Installing dust caps over tube ends instead of inside them avoids the possibility of leaving the caps installed. If the caps are installed inside the tube ends, there is a chance that they may not be removed before the tube is used, which can lead to issues such as restricted flow or damage to the inner tube surface. By installing the caps over the tube ends, it ensures that they are easily visible and can be removed before the tube is put into use.

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  • 48. 

    When you receive an engine in your shop, you should check the applicable forms and then

    • Look for leaks

    • Change the oil filter

    • Inspect for missing parts

    • Check the compressor inlet

    Correct Answer
    A. Check the compressor inlet
    Explanation
    Upon receiving an engine in the shop, it is important to check the applicable forms first to ensure that all necessary documentation and procedures are followed. After that, one should proceed to inspect the compressor inlet. This step is crucial as it allows for the identification of any potential issues or damage that may affect the engine's performance. By checking the compressor inlet, one can ensure that the engine is in proper working condition and address any leaks or missing parts that may be present.

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  • 49. 

    When disassembling the oil filter, why should you always use a clean container?

    • Because the oil can be reused

    • To prevent false contaminant indications

    • So a reliable Oil Analysis Program sample can be obtained

    • The oil is recycled and must be kept clean

    Correct Answer
    A. To prevent false contaminant indications
    Explanation
    Using a clean container when disassembling the oil filter prevents false contaminant indications. If the container is not clean, any contaminants present in the container could mix with the oil from the filter, giving the false impression that the oil is contaminated. By using a clean container, the integrity of the oil sample is maintained, ensuring accurate analysis and preventing false readings.

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  • Current Version
  • Jul 12, 2023
    Quiz Edited by
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  • Aug 19, 2015
    Quiz Created by
    CDCmaster

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