2f071 CDC Review Exam Style

100 Questions

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2f071 Quizzes & Trivia

Review of 2F071 CDC URE presented in Exam-Style


Questions and Answers
  • 1. 
    What cleaning agent should be used to clean the probe on the conductivity meter?
    • A. 

      Isopropyl alcohol.

    • B. 

      Petroleum ether.

    • C. 

      Turbine fuel.

    • D. 

      Acetone.

  • 2. 
    When should a refractometer used for fuel system icing inhibitor (FSII) tests be calibrated?
    • A. 

      Prior to first use.

    • B. 

      Weekly, and prior to first use.

    • C. 

      Daily, or when changing test water.

    • D. 

      Monthly, or when changing test water.

  • 3. 
    What is the simplest and most expedient method of fuel resupply?
    • A. 

      ABFDS

    • B. 

      Ocean tanker

    • C. 

      Aircraft systems

    • D. 

      The same source of supply used by the host airfield

  • 4. 
    When posting changes and supplements to publications, within what maximum number of days of receipt should you file technical order (TO) changes and supplements?
    • A. 

      1.

    • B. 

      5.

    • C. 

      7.

    • D. 

      10.

  • 5. 
    What is a major difference between a gas and a liquid?
    • A. 

      A liquid is far less compressible than a gas.

    • B. 

      A gas is far less compressible than a liquid.

    • C. 

      A liquid is more combustible than a gas.

    • D. 

      A gas is more combustible than a liquid.

  • 6. 
    What is the lifting force of a liquid called?
    • A. 

      Laminar.

    • B. 

      Interface.

    • C. 

      Buoyance.

    • D. 

      Dynamic pressure.

  • 7. 
    Which best describes immiscible liquids?
    • A. 

      They mix well together.

    • B. 

      One liquid will float on the other.

    • C. 

      They will become an intrained solution.

    • D. 

      They will repel each other and react violently.

  • 8. 
    Which unit of measurement would indicate velocity of flow?
    • A. 

      Feet per second

    • B. 

      Gallons per minute.

    • C. 

      Cubic feet per second.

    • D. 

      Cubic gallons per minute.

  • 9. 
    Which physical factor affects the behavior of liquids in both rest and motion?
    • A. 

      Friction, applied forces, and gravity.

    • B. 

      Friction, inertia, and atmospheric pressure.

    • C. 

      Gravity, atmospheric pressure, and inertia.

    • D. 

      Gravity, atmospheric pressure, and applied forces.

  • 10. 
    What determines the intensity of the excess pressure in a water-hammer wave?
    • A. 

      The size of the pipe.

    • B. 

      The specific gravity of the fuel.

    • C. 

      The change in gallons per minute.

    • D. 

      The amount of extinguished velocity.

  • 11. 
    Which type of measurement may be used to express pressure?
    • A. 

      Kilograms.

    • B. 

      Pounds.

    • C. 

      Tons.

    • D. 

      Pounds per square inch.

  • 12. 
    The standard measure for atmospheric pressure is equal to how many pounds per square inch?
    • A. 

      13.1 psi.

    • B. 

      14.7 psi.

    • C. 

      15.2 psi.

    • D. 

      17.9 psi.

  • 13. 
    What type of pressure reading is also referred to as overpressure?
    • A. 

      Zero pressure.

    • B. 

      Gauge pressure.

    • C. 

      Absolute pressure.

    • D. 

      Atmospheric pressure.

  • 14. 
    What term is used to describe the total pressure acting as a gas?
    • A. 

      Overpressure.

    • B. 

      Gauge pressure.

    • C. 

      Absolute pressure.

    • D. 

      Atmospheric pressure.

  • 15. 
    Which temperature scale is commonly used for scientific measurements?
    • A. 

      Kelvin scale.

    • B. 

      Rankine scale.

    • C. 

      Réaumur scale.

    • D. 

      Fahrenheit scale.

  • 16. 
    Which gas law declares that cooling a gas decreases its volume?
    • A. 

      Boyle’s law.

    • B. 

      Charles’ law.

    • C. 

      Dalton’s law.

    • D. 

      Gay-Lussac’s law.

  • 17. 
    Two or more atoms combined is called a
    • A. 

      A compound.

    • B. 

      An element.

    • C. 

      A molecule.

    • D. 

      A mixture.

  • 18. 
    According to the electron theory, atoms are composed of
    • A. 

      Protons, neutrons, and electrons.

    • B. 

      Neutrons, elements, and protons.

    • C. 

      Electrons, molecules, and elements.

    • D. 

      Electrons, neutrons, and matter.

  • 19. 
    How do the charges of protons and electrons differ?
    • A. 

      Protons have positive charges, and electrons have neutral charges.

    • B. 

      Protons have neutral charges, and electrons have positive charges.

    • C. 

      Protons have negative charges, and electrons have positive charges.

    • D. 

      Protons have positive charges, and electrons have negative charges.

  • 20. 
    The uniform movement of electrons in a specific direction is called
    • A. 

      Electrical potential.

    • B. 

      Free electrons.

    • C. 

      Electric current.

    • D. 

      Ionization.

  • 21. 
    Which shell of the valence electrons determines whether a material is a good or a poor conductor of electricity?
    • A. 

      The outermost shell.

    • B. 

      The middle shell.

    • C. 

      The second shell.

    • D. 

      The first shell.

  • 22. 
    Which statement best describes a positive ion?
    • A. 

      An atom that lost a proton and has more electrons.

    • B. 

      An atom that lost an electron and has more protons.

    • C. 

      An atom that has an equal number of electrons and protons.

    • D. 

      An atom that cannot throw off any protons.

  • 23. 
    What effect of current causes an electric motor to produce mechanical energy?
    • A. 

      Heat.

    • B. 

      Magnetism.

    • C. 

      Chemical.

    • D. 

      Reactance.

  • 24. 
    What is the unit of measurement for electrical power?
    • A. 

      Watts.

    • B. 

      Volts.

    • C. 

      Amps.

    • D. 

      Ohms.

  • 25. 
    A 3-horsepower motor consumes how much power?
    • A. 

      755 W.

    • B. 

      1,534 W.

    • C. 

      2,023 W.

    • D. 

      2,238 W.

  • 26. 
    A magnet that is magnetized by induction from an external source is called
    • A. 

      A natural magnet.

    • B. 

      An electromagnet.

    • C. 

      An artificial magnet.

    • D. 

      An electromechanical magnet.

  • 27. 
    When do the magnetic lines of force in a magnet cross?
    • A. 

      When the north pole of a magnet is placed near the north pole of another magnet.

    • B. 

      When the south pole of a magnet is placed near the north pole of another magnet.

    • C. 

      When a permanent magnet and a temporary magnet are put together.

    • D. 

      Magnetic lines of force never cross each other.

  • 28. 
    What are the two most common methods of producing voltage?
    • A. 

      Magnetic and heat.

    • B. 

      Chemical and heat.

    • C. 

      Chemical and mechanical.

    • D. 

      Magnetic and mechanical.

  • 29. 
    What type of current flow is the result of voltages produced by batteries and thermocouples?
    • A. 

      Open current.

    • B. 

      Direct current.

    • C. 

      Latent current.

    • D. 

      Alternating current.

  • 30. 
    What type(s) of current flow cannot be transformed from a higher voltage to a lower voltage?
    • A. 

      Latent current.

    • B. 

      Direct current.

    • C. 

      Latent and open current.

    • D. 

      Alternating and direct current.

  • 31. 
    What are the three things needed to produce voltage by the principle of electromagnetic induction?
    • A. 

      Coil, core, and current.

    • B. 

      Magnet, housing, and prime mover.

    • C. 

      Coil, conductors, and relative motion.

    • D. 

      Magnetic field, conductor, and relative motion.

  • 32. 
    What type of material is used to construct the fuel tank on the R–11?
    • A. 

      Titanium.

    • B. 

      Stainless steel.

    • C. 

      Sheet aluminum alloy.

    • D. 

      Steel-reinforced carbon fiber.

  • 33. 
    Which is not a type of positive displacement pump?
    • A. 

      Gear.

    • B. 

      Piston.

    • C. 

      Rotary.

    • D. 

      Centrifugal.

  • 34. 
    What term is used to define the process that takes place when water forms into droplets after passing through filter elements?
    • A. 

      Separation.

    • B. 

      Integration.

    • C. 

      Coalescing.

    • D. 

      Commingling.

  • 35. 
    What filter separator component prevents pressure surges from damaging dispensing pressure control systems?
    • A. 

      Air eliminator.

    • B. 

      Water slug valve.

    • C. 

      Float control valve.

    • D. 

      Mainline control valve.

  • 36. 
    What type of meter is used on most fuel dispensing systems?
    • A. 

      Tri-rotor, positive displacement.

    • B. 

      Bi-rotor, positive displacement.

    • C. 

      Single-stage, bi-directional.

    • D. 

      Dual-stage, bi-directional.

  • 37. 
    What item protects fuel dispensing system electrical components against overload?
    • A. 

      Automatic reset-type circuit breakers.

    • B. 

      Manual reset-type circuit breakers.

    • C. 

      Twenty-five amp Bosch-type fuse.

    • D. 

      Ten amp ATO fuse.

  • 38. 
    What type of lubricant is used to lubricate the power takeoff (PTO) on a fuel dispensing system?
    • A. 

      Thirty-weight motor oil.

    • B. 

      Ninety-weight gear oil.

    • C. 

      Synthetic gear lube.

    • D. 

      Silicone grease.

  • 39. 
    What component found on R–11s and R–12s prevents the auxiliary throttle from operating unless the power takeoff (PTO) is engaged?
    • A. 

      PTO interlock system.

    • B. 

      Throttle interlock system.

    • C. 

      Emergency shutdown switch.

    • D. 

      Emergency engine kill switch.

  • 40. 
    What fuel dispensing system component controls system fuel pressure?
    • A. 

      Bypass system.

    • B. 

      Mainline system.

    • C. 

      Hose reel control.

    • D. 

      Deadman control.

  • 41. 
    During bottom loading operations, what occurs when the signal to the bottom loading optic probe is lost?
    • A. 

      The bottom loading valve modulates to prevent deadheading.

    • B. 

      The electronic control module cuts power to the fillstand pump.

    • C. 

      The bottom loading valve cuts power to the electronic control module.

    • D. 

      The electronic control module cuts power to the bottom loading electric air solenoid.

  • 42. 
    When should Bourdon gauges be calibrated?
    • A. 

      Quarterly.

    • B. 

      Semiannually.

    • C. 

      Annually.

    • D. 

      Biennially.

  • 43. 
    What may a filter separator differential pressure reading below 3 pounds per square inch (psi) indicate?
    • A. 

      Clean coalescer elements.

    • B. 

      Damaged coalescer screens.

    • C. 

      Clogged or dirty coalescers.

    • D. 

      A defective O-ring or ruptured coalescers.

  • 44. 
    When performing meter calibrations, what is the acceptable difference between the master meter and the meter being calibrated?
    • A. 

      ½ gallon for each 100 gallons passing through the meter.

    • B. 

      ½ gallon for each 500 gallons passing through the meter.

    • C. 

      1 gallon for each 100 gallons passing through the meter.

    • D. 

      1 gallon for each 500 gallons passing through the meter.

  • 45. 
    Initial tool listings for individual tool kits (ITK) and composite tool kits (CTK) include all of the following except
    • A. 

      Nomenclature.

    • B. 

      Quantity on hand.

    • C. 

      Quantity authorized.

    • D. 

      Tool national stock number (NSN).

  • 46. 
    How often should joint inventories for all individual tool kits (ITK) be accomplished?
    • A. 

      Monthly.

    • B. 

      Quarterly.

    • C. 

      Semiannually.

    • D. 

      Annually.

  • 47. 
    What type of time compliance technical order (TCTO) is issued for safety conditions which, if left uncorrected, could result in fatality or serious injury to personnel or extensive damage to or destruction of valuable property?
    • A. 

      Urgent action.

    • B. 

      Routine action.

    • C. 

      Scheduled action.

    • D. 

      Immediate action.

  • 48. 
    Urgent action time compliance technical orders (TCTO) require compliance within what maximum amount of days?
    • A. 

      10 days.

    • B. 

      20 days.

    • C. 

      30 days.

    • D. 

      60 days.

  • 49. 
    Which publication is a memorandum issued by commercial manufacturers advising maintainers of minor defects with a product?
    • A. 

      TCTO.

    • B. 

      Service bulletin.

    • C. 

      Technical manual.

    • D. 

      Manufacturer’s recall.

  • 50. 
    What type of publication is issued when a commercial manufacturer discovers dangerous or unsafe conditions with a product?
    • A. 

      Service bulletin.

    • B. 

      Urgent action TCTO.

    • C. 

      Manufacturer’s recall.

    • D. 

      Immediate action TCTO.

  • 51. 
    What type of inspection is performed to determine the condition of a vehicle or piece of equipment?
    • A. 

      Annual inspection.

    • B. 

      Special inspection.

    • C. 

      Limited technical inspection.

    • D. 

      Preventative maintenance and inspection.

  • 52. 
    Within what maximum amount of days of receipt will all new and used vehicles and equipment be inspected by the Air Force activity which receives it?
    • A. 

      30.

    • B. 

      45.

    • C. 

      60.

    • D. 

      90.

  • 53. 
    What form is used to record limited technical inspections (LTI) on used vehicles?
    • A. 

      AF Form 1800.

    • B. 

      AF Form 1807.

    • C. 

      AFTO Form 91.

    • D. 

      AFTO Form 92.

  • 54. 
    Which of the following may direct shipment of a vehicle with less than 50 percent life expectancy to satisfy mission requirements?
    • A. 

      LRS commander.

    • B. 

      Wing commander.

    • C. 

      MAJCOM.

    • D. 

      HQ USAF.

  • 55. 
    Which hose is exempt from annual hydrostatic hose testing requirements?
    • A. 

      Hoses for FAM carts.

    • B. 

      Hoses used for hot/rapid defueling.

    • C. 

      Hoses used for hot refueling E–4B aircraft.

    • D. 

      Hoses used for concurrent servicing operations supporting sortie generation operations.

  • 56. 
    How often should a filter separator vessel be cleaned?
    • A. 

      Every year, or when high concentrations of water detected.

    • B. 

      Every two years, or when sediment levels exceed tolerances.

    • C. 

      Every three years, or when coalescer elements are changed.

    • D. 

      Every five years, or when fiber sample fails.

  • 57. 
    What size mesh screen is used in the type III hydrant system receiving strainer?
    • A. 

      20.

    • B. 

      40.

    • C. 

      60.

    • D. 

      80.

  • 58. 
    On the type III hydrant system, which function of the filter separator control valve prevents the elements from bursting and allowing contaminated fuel downstream?
    • A. 

      Check valve.

    • B. 

      Flow control.

    • C. 

      Water slug shutoff.

    • D. 

      Differential pressure shutoff.

  • 59. 
    What causes the automatic bypass valve on the type III hydrant system to open and let fuel bypass the filter separator when receiving fuel by cross-country pipeline?
    • A. 

      Differential pressure of 20 psi sensed across the receiving filter separator.

    • B. 

      Differential pressure of 30 psi sensed by the differential pressure switch.

    • C. 

      System pressure that exceeds the maximum vessel operating pressure.

    • D. 

      System pressure that routes flow around the vessel when manual valves are used.

  • 60. 
    On the type III hydrant system, where is the ball float assembly for the high-level shutoff valve located on an aboveground operating storage tank?
    • A. 

      On the top of the tank in the float well.

    • B. 

      On the top of the tank in the gauging well.

    • C. 

      On the interior of the tank at the required shut-off height.

    • D. 

      On the exterior of the tank at the required shut-off height.

  • 61. 
    What happens if the tank outlet manual valve on the type III hydrant system is open during an emergency stop situation?
    • A. 

      A horn will sound.

    • B. 

      The upstream butterfly valve closes.

    • C. 

      The downstream butterfly valve closes.

    • D. 

      The tank outlet valve will close automatically.

  • 62. 
    What happens when the type III hydrant system product recovery tank is 70 percent full?
    • A. 

      Float assembly closes the inlet valve.

    • B. 

      Switch assembly automatically turns the pump on.

    • C. 

      Float assembly closes the high-level shut-off valve.

    • D. 

      Switch assembly senses an emergency condition and shuts down the system.

  • 63. 
    At what liquid level does the type III hydrant system product recovery tank overfill valve close?
    • A. 

      75 percent full.

    • B. 

      80 percent full.

    • C. 

      85 percent full.

    • D. 

      90 percent full.

  • 64. 
    Where do the type III hydrant system pressure indicating transmitters sense pressure?
    • A. 

      Issue line and atmosphere.

    • B. 

      Issue line and downstream venturi.

    • C. 

      Return line and atmosphere.

    • D. 

      Return line and downstream venturi.

  • 65. 
    How many differential pressure transmitters (DPT) are installed on the issue line of a type III hydrant system that has a refueling capability of more than 2,400 gallons per minutes (gpm)?
    • A. 

      2.

    • B. 

      4.

    • C. 

      6.

    • D. 

      8.

  • 66. 
    What major command (MAJCOM) developed the type IV pressurized hot fueling system?
    • A. 

      Pacific Air Force (PACAF).

    • B. 

      Air Combat Command (ACC).

    • C. 

      Air Mobility Command (AMC).

    • D. 

      United States Air Force in Europe (USAFE).

  • 67. 
    What is the rated capacity of the pumps on the type IV pressurized hot refueling system?
    • A. 

      300 gpm.

    • B. 

      600 gpm.

    • C. 

      900 gpm.

    • D. 

      1,200 gpm.

  • 68. 
    On the type IV hydrant system, how many aircraft can be hot refueled simultaneously in about 8 to 12 minutes, depending on the type of aircraft?
    • A. 

      2.

    • B. 

      3.

    • C. 

      4.

    • D. 

      6.

  • 69. 
    How many tanks are used with the type IV hydrant system, and what is the capacity of each?
    • A. 

      Two; 10,000 gallons.

    • B. 

      Four; 10,000 gallons.

    • C. 

      Two; 50,000 gallons.

    • D. 

      Four; 50,000 gallons.

  • 70. 
    On the type IV hydrant system, how is fuel prevented from spilling onto the hot pad if a hose separates from the nozzle during a hot refueling operation?
    • A. 

      A dry break coupler inside the hose closes automatically.

    • B. 

      The flow switch senses a sudden surge in fuel flow, and shuts down the pumps.

    • C. 

      The pressure switch senses a sudden drop in pressure, and shuts down the pumps.

    • D. 

      The fusible link melts and falls out, causing the spring-loaded butterfly part of the valve to close.

  • 71. 
    When personnel are servicing aircraft with the type IV hydrant system, who is responsible for positioning the aircraft on the hot pad?
    • A. 

      Fuels operator.

    • B. 

      Fuels operations supervisor.

    • C. 

      Hot refueling crewman

    • D. 

      Hot refueling supervisor

  • 72. 
    How is the fueling control valve opened to perform hot refueling operations?
    • A. 

      By a flow switch located before the control pit.

    • B. 

      By air pressure from the deadman control valve.

    • C. 

      By fuel pressure from the deadman control valve.

    • D. 

      By a pressure switch located before the control pit.

  • 73. 
    Since manning is not required for the type V hydrant system, how often must inspections be performed when it is operating?
    • A. 

      Every hour.

    • B. 

      Every 2 hours.

    • C. 

      Every 3 hours.

    • D. 

      Every 4 hours.

  • 74. 
    On the type V hydrant system, what size are the stainless steel pantographs that are installed inside the hardened shelters?
    • A. 

      3 inches.

    • B. 

      6 inches.

    • C. 

      9 inches.

    • D. 

      12 inches.

  • 75. 
    On the type V hydrant system, the deadman control valve is operated
    • A. 

      Electrically.

    • B. 

      Mechanically.

    • C. 

      By air pressure.

    • D. 

      By fuel pressure.

  • 76. 
    When performing a monthly inspection on emergency switches, check to ensure
    • A. 

      The switches are not damaged.

    • B. 

      Proper lubrication of the switches.

    • C. 

      The switches are mechanically functional.

    • D. 

      Proper operation while the system control panel/operation circuit is energized .

  • 77. 
    When performing a semiannual inspection of fillstand bonding receptacles for proper tension, you obtain a pull measurement of five pounds. This indicates a
    • A. 

      Corroded bond plug.

    • B. 

      Corroded bonding receptacle.

    • C. 

      Weak or damaged bond plug.

    • D. 

      Weak or damaged bonding receptacle.

  • 78. 
    When performing a hydrant flushing operation, ensure enough fuel velocity is generated to remove water and sediment by flushing the system
    • A. 

      Every 90 days.

    • B. 

      With all issue pumps operating.

    • C. 

      With at least two issue pumps operating.

    • D. 

      At 50 percent of the rated system capacity.

  • 79. 
    All of the following conditions would prevent a remote terminal workstation (RTW) from receiving data except
    • A. 

      The remote terminal unit being turned off.

    • B. 

      An inoperative remote terminal unit modem .

    • C. 

      The remote terminal workstation being turned on.

    • D. 

      An inoperative remote terminal workstation modem.

  • 80. 
    When preparing to perform an annual inspection, review all of the following forms for annotated discrepancies except
    • A. 

      AFTO Form 95.

    • B. 

      AFTO Form 134.

    • C. 

      AFTO Form 244.

    • D. 

      AFTO Form 245.

  • 81. 
    Which condition would require you to clean a cryotainer filter?
    • A. 

      A decrease in liquid flow.

    • B. 

      A negative odor test result.

    • C. 

      A negative particulate test result.

    • D. 

      A decrease in the annular space micron reading.

  • 82. 
    What symbol should you enter on the Air Force Technical Order (AFTO) Form 244/245 if a routine inspection on a cryotainer goes overdue?
    • A. 

      Red X.

    • B. 

      Red dash.

    • C. 

      Red cross.

    • D. 

      Red diagonal.

  • 83. 
    When documenting a significant maintenance action on an Air Force Technical Order (AFTO) Form 95, what information should you enter in block 1?
    • A. 

      The appropriate page number.

    • B. 

      The serial number of the item.

    • C. 

      The name of the equipment manufacturer.

    • D. 

      The mission, design, series (MDS) of the equipment.

  • 84. 
    What action, if any, should be taken if a commercial delivery operator does not provide a Department of Defense (DD) Form 250 with a liquid oxygen (LOX) shipment?
    • A. 

      No action is required.

    • B. 

      Notify the FMT and obtain an odor sample.

    • C. 

      Contact AFPET for disposition instructions.

    • D. 

      Inform the FSC and await further guidance.

  • 85. 
    When preparing to issue liquid oxygen (LOX), what action, if any, should be taken if a review of a receiving tank’s Air Force Technical Order (AFTO) Form 134 finds that the form is not properly filled out?
    • A. 

      No action is required.

    • B. 

      Do not service the receiving tank.

    • C. 

      Contact the FSC and await further instructions.

    • D. 

      Inform aircraft maintenance of the discrepancy.

  • 86. 
    When preparing to issue liquid nitrogen (LIN), what action, if any, should you take if a receiving tank’s Air Force Technical Order (AFTO) Forms 244/245 lists an open Red X condition?
    • A. 

      No action is required.

    • B. 

      Do not fill the receiving tank.

    • C. 

      Inform the FMT and await further instructions.

    • D. 

      Notify the FSC and request line expediter assistance.

  • 87. 
    When documenting a cryogenic product issue to a liquid oxygen (LOX) cart on the Air Force Technical Order (AFTO) Form 134, what information should be entered block 4?
    • A. 

      The date the cart was filled.

    • B. 

      The quantity issued to the cart.

    • C. 

      The tank number of the issuing cryotainer.

    • D. 

      The initials of the individual that filled the cart.

  • 88. 
    When documenting a cryogenic product issue to a liquid oxygen (LOX) cart on the Air Force Technical Order (AFTO) Form 134, how should odor test results be annotated in block 2?
    • A. 

      As either “+” or “-” in column A.

    • B. 

      As either “PASS” of “FAIL” in column B.

    • C. 

      As either “GO” or “NO GO” in column C.

    • D. 

      As either “FAIL” of “PASS” in column D.

  • 89. 
    When documenting a cryogenic product receipt on the Air Force Form 1231, from which of the following documents is the contract number obtained?
    • A. 

      DD Form 250.

    • B. 

      DD Form 250–1.

    • C. 

      DD Form 1348.

    • D. 

      DD Form 1348–1.

  • 90. 
    When, if ever, is a particulate test on a liquid oxygen (LOX) cart required?
    • A. 

      Never.

    • B. 

      Once every 90 days.

    • C. 

      After a LOX cart has been filled.

    • D. 

      When particulate contamination is suspected.

  • 91. 
    How often should hot refueling personnel undergo certification for hot refueling operations?
    • A. 

      Monthly.

    • B. 

      Quarterly.

    • C. 

      Semiannually.

    • D. 

      Annually.

  • 92. 
    Who may approve deviations from hot refueling policies when combat or emergency situations require the use of hot refueling?
    • A. 

      FMFC.

    • B. 

      HQ USAF/A4.

    • C. 

      MAJCOM commander.

    • D. 

      Air Force Petroleum Agency.

  • 93. 
    Which aircraft does not require a hot brake check before entering the hot refueling pad?
    • A. 

      B–1.

    • B. 

      F–15.

    • C. 

      F–16.

    • D. 

      F–22.

  • 94. 
    During concurrent servicing of cargo or passenger aircraft, deplaning personnel should not come closer than how many feet from any aircraft fuel vent outlet?
    • A. 

      10 feet.

    • B. 

      20 feet.

    • C. 

      25 feet.

    • D. 

      50 feet.

  • 95. 
    During multiple source refueling, what action, if any, should be taken if backflow is detected?
    • A. 

      No action is required.

    • B. 

      Increase engine RPMs.

    • C. 

      Decrease the engine RPMs.

    • D. 

      Stop the operation immediately.

  • 96. 
    Concurrent servicing operations supporting sortie generation operations (CSO/SGO) are authorized on all following aircraft except the
    • A. 

      A–10.

    • B. 

      F–15.

    • C. 

      F–22.

    • D. 

      F–117.

  • 97. 
    What maximum number of base stations may be configured to operate with the automated data collection (ADC) system?
    • A. 

      5.

    • B. 

      6.

    • C. 

      10.

    • D. 

      12.

  • 98. 
    When configuring the automated data collection (ADC) system, what maximum number of dial retries can you configure the user interface terminal’s (UIT) to attempt?
    • A. 

      30.

    • B. 

      49.

    • C. 

      60.

    • D. 

      99.

  • 99. 
    Who should you notify if, while performing fuels expediter duties, you use the spill response kit?
    • A. 

      Fuels Environmental coordinator.

    • B. 

      NCOIC fuels distribution.

    • C. 

      FOD prevention monitor.

    • D. 

      FSC.

  • 100. 
    When posting changes to publications, when, if ever, are “List of Effective Pages” checks mandatory?
    • A. 

      Never.

    • B. 

      As directed by MAJCOM.

    • C. 

      At the discretion of the TO manager.

    • D. 

      When changes and revisions are posted to paper TOs are posted.