2F071 CDC Review Exam Style

Reviewed by Editorial Team
The ProProfs editorial team is comprised of experienced subject matter experts. They've collectively created over 10,000 quizzes and lessons, serving over 100 million users. Our team includes in-house content moderators and subject matter experts, as well as a global network of rigorously trained contributors. All adhere to our comprehensive editorial guidelines, ensuring the delivery of high-quality content.
Learn about Our Editorial Process
| By Brandon_tate_198
B
Brandon_tate_198
Community Contributor
Quizzes Created: 5 | Total Attempts: 731
| Attempts: 272 | Questions: 200
Please wait...
Question 1 / 200
0 %
0/100
Score 0/100
1. When posting changes to publications, when, if ever, are "List of Effective Pages" checks mandatory?

Explanation

not-available-via-ai

Submit
Please wait...
About This Quiz
2F071 CDC Review Exam Style - Quiz

The 2F071 CDC Review Exam Style quiz assesses knowledge essential for Air Force technical operations. It covers procedures for handling equipment, calibration, fuel resupply, and technical order management,... see morecrucial for operational efficiency and safety in military environments. see less

2. When investigating fuel gains and losses, you determine an excessive variance was caused by a pipeline rupture. This variance should fall into what category?

Explanation

The excessive variance caused by a pipeline rupture would fall into the category of "Peacetime losses." This is because the incident occurred during a time of peace and not during a major disaster or combat situation. Determinable losses refer to losses that can be identified and accounted for, but in this case, the cause of the variance is already known - the pipeline rupture.

Submit
3. If your base has experienced cold weather problems or anticipates cold weather problems, you should perform a cloud point test on all DF–2 that is received during

Explanation

The correct answer is October through March. This is because the question states that if the base has experienced or anticipates cold weather problems, a cloud point test should be performed on all DF-2 received during a specific time period. The time period mentioned is October through March, which encompasses the winter months when cold weather problems are more likely to occur. Therefore, performing a cloud point test during this time period would help identify any potential issues with the DF-2 fuel.

Submit
4. On what grades of fuel can the R–22 be designed to operate? a. . b. . c. . d. .

Explanation

The R-22 can be designed to operate on diesel fuel and jet fuel. This means that it is compatible with both types of fuel and can function using either one.

Submit
5. What is the lifting force of a liquid called?

Explanation

Buoyancy refers to the upward force exerted on an object submerged in a fluid, such as a liquid. This force is equal to the weight of the fluid displaced by the object. It is the lifting force experienced by an object in a liquid, allowing it to float or be partially submerged. Laminar, interface, and dynamic pressure are not directly related to the lifting force of a liquid.

Submit
6. The uniform movement of electrons in a specific direction is called

Explanation

The uniform movement of electrons in a specific direction is called electric current. When there is a flow of electrons in a conductor, it creates a continuous flow of charge, which we refer to as electric current. This movement of electrons is responsible for the transfer of energy and is essential for the functioning of electrical devices.

Submit
7. What term is used to define the process that takes place when water forms into droplets after passing through filter elements?

Explanation

Coalescing is the term used to define the process of water forming into droplets after passing through filter elements. Coalescing refers to the merging or combining of smaller droplets into larger ones. In the context of filtration, coalescing is an important process as it helps to separate and remove contaminants from the water, allowing for cleaner and purer water to be obtained.

Submit
8. What action, if any, should be taken if a commercial delivery operator does not provide a Department of Defense (DD) Form 250 with a liquid oxygen (LOX) shipment?

Explanation

If a commercial delivery operator does not provide a Department of Defense (DD) Form 250 with a liquid oxygen (LOX) shipment, the correct action to take is to inform the FSC (Fuel Support Center) and await further guidance. This is because the DD Form 250 is a required document for tracking and verifying shipments, and its absence could indicate a potential issue or error in the delivery process. By informing the FSC, the appropriate authorities can be notified and necessary steps can be taken to address the situation and provide guidance on how to proceed.

Submit
9. When configuring the automated data collection (ADC) system, what maximum number of dial retries can you configure the user interface terminal's (UIT) to attempt?

Explanation

The automated data collection (ADC) system allows the user interface terminal (UIT) to attempt a maximum number of dial retries when configuring. Among the given options, the highest number of retries that can be configured is 99.

Submit
10. What agency serves as the link between the Defense Energy Support Center (DESC) and its customers?

Explanation

DESC regions serve as the link between the Defense Energy Support Center (DESC) and its customers. The DESC regions act as intermediaries, facilitating communication and coordination between DESC and its customers. They ensure that the energy needs of the customers are met efficiently and effectively. This link is crucial for the smooth functioning of DESC and the provision of energy support to the defense sector.

Submit
11. At no time will money that is collected for cash sales of aviation products be safeguarded by

Explanation

Off-duty personnel refers to employees who are not currently working or on duty. Since they are not actively working, it would not be their responsibility to safeguard the money collected for cash sales of aviation products. Therefore, off-duty personnel should not be entrusted with this task.

Submit
12. How long should the fuel and water mixture in the separatory funnel be shaken when performing a fuel system icing inhibitor (FSII) test?

Explanation

The fuel and water mixture in the separatory funnel should be shaken for 5 minutes when performing a fuel system icing inhibitor (FSII) test. This duration ensures a thorough mixing of the fuel and water, allowing any potential separation to be observed accurately. Shaking for a longer period of time helps to ensure that the test results are reliable and consistent.

Submit
13. Hearing protection is required within how many feet of an R–14 operation?

Explanation

Hearing protection is required within 50 feet of an R-14 operation. This suggests that the noise level produced by an R-14 operation is high enough to potentially cause damage to a person's hearing within a 50-foot radius. Therefore, to prevent any harm to individuals in the vicinity, it is necessary to wear hearing protection within this distance.

Submit
14. Which best describes immiscible liquids?

Explanation

Immiscible liquids are liquids that do not mix together and form separate layers when combined. One liquid will float on top of the other because they have different densities and do not form a homogeneous mixture. This is the best description of immiscible liquids.

Submit
15. Which type of measurement may be used to express pressure?

Explanation

Pounds per square inch (psi) is a unit of measurement commonly used to express pressure. Pressure is defined as the force applied per unit area, and psi represents the amount of force exerted on one square inch of area. Kilograms, pounds, and tons are units of weight, not pressure. Therefore, psi is the correct answer as it specifically measures pressure.

Submit
16. According to the electron theory, atoms are composed of

Explanation

The electron theory states that atoms are composed of protons, neutrons, and electrons. Protons are positively charged particles found in the nucleus of an atom, neutrons are neutral particles also found in the nucleus, and electrons are negatively charged particles that orbit around the nucleus. This theory provides a basic understanding of the fundamental particles that make up an atom.

Submit
17. Which shell of the valence electrons determines whether a material is a good or a poor conductor of electricity?

Explanation

The outermost shell of valence electrons determines whether a material is a good or a poor conductor of electricity because it is responsible for the material's chemical properties and its ability to form bonds with other atoms. The outermost shell is also involved in the flow of electrons, which is essential for conducting electricity. Therefore, the number and arrangement of electrons in the outermost shell greatly influence the material's conductivity.

Submit
18. When personnel are servicing aircraft with the type IV hydrant system, who is responsible for positioning the aircraft on the hot pad?

Explanation

The hot refueling supervisor is responsible for positioning the aircraft on the hot pad when personnel are servicing aircraft with the type IV hydrant system. This role is specifically assigned to the supervisor, who oversees the hot refueling process and ensures that all safety protocols are followed.

Submit
19. How often should hot refueling personnel undergo certification for hot refueling operations?

Explanation

Hot refueling personnel should undergo certification for hot refueling operations annually. This means that they need to renew their certification once every year. This ensures that they stay up-to-date with the latest safety protocols and procedures related to hot refueling operations. Regular certification helps to maintain the competency and proficiency of the personnel, ensuring that they can perform their duties safely and efficiently.

Submit
20. During multiple source refueling, what action, if any, should be taken if backflow is detected?

Explanation

If backflow is detected during multiple source refueling, it is important to stop the operation immediately. Backflow can occur when fuel is being transferred from one source to another and it starts flowing back into the original source. This can be dangerous as it can lead to fuel spillage, contamination, or even fire. Stopping the operation immediately helps prevent any further backflow and ensures the safety of the refueling process.

Submit
21. Where is the correct place to take the reading for the American Petroleum Institute (API) gravity test?

Explanation

The correct place to take the reading for the American Petroleum Institute (API) gravity test is the horizontal plane surface of the liquid. This is because the API gravity test measures the density or specific gravity of petroleum liquids, and taking the reading at the horizontal plane surface ensures an accurate measurement of the liquid's density.

Submit
22. With what type of fuel is the flow reducer ring not used when you are performing the bottle method test?

Explanation

The flow reducer ring is not used with JP-5 fuel when performing the bottle method test.

Submit
23. What is the maximum amount of time that can pass between the time a sample is obtained and the time a conductivity reading is taken?

Explanation

The maximum amount of time that can pass between the time a sample is obtained and the time a conductivity reading is taken is 24 hours. This is because conductivity readings are influenced by various factors such as temperature and contamination, and these factors can change over time. Therefore, it is recommended to take conductivity readings as soon as possible after obtaining the sample to ensure accurate results.

Submit
24. What form should be completed for awarding skill levels when all upgrade training (UGT) requirements have been met?

Explanation

The correct form that should be completed for awarding skill levels when all upgrade training (UGT) requirements have been met is AF Form 2096.

Submit
25. All of the following conditions require replacement of filter elements on the R–19 filter separator unit except

Explanation

The correct answer is a reading of 16 pounds per square inch, differential (psid) on the differential pressure (DP) gauge. This is because a reading of 16 psid on the DP gauge does not indicate a need for replacement of filter elements. The other conditions mentioned - a reading of 22 psid on the DP gauge, elements that have been in use for 36 months, and questionable filter separator vessel performance - all indicate a need for replacement of filter elements.

Submit
26. What is the simplest and most expedient method of fuel resupply?

Explanation

The simplest and most expedient method of fuel resupply is using the same source of supply used by the host airfield. This means that instead of relying on additional resources such as ABFDS (Advanced Bulk Fuel Delivery System), ocean tankers, or aircraft systems, the fuel can be obtained directly from the existing supply at the airfield. This method is likely to be the easiest and quickest way to refuel, as it eliminates the need for additional transportation or transfer of fuel.

Submit
27. Which of the following may direct shipment of a vehicle with less than 50 percent life expectancy to satisfy mission requirements?

Explanation

MAJCOM stands for Major Command, which is a level of command in the United States Air Force. The MAJCOM has the authority to direct the shipment of a vehicle with less than 50 percent life expectancy to satisfy mission requirements. The LRS commander, Wing commander, and HQ USAF do not have the same level of authority as the MAJCOM in making such decisions.

Submit
28. On the type IV hydrant system, how is fuel prevented from spilling onto the hot pad if a hose separates from the nozzle during a hot refueling operation?

Explanation

During a hot refueling operation, if a hose separates from the nozzle on a type IV hydrant system, a dry break coupler inside the hose closes automatically. This mechanism prevents fuel from spilling onto the hot pad. The dry break coupler is designed to quickly and securely disconnect the hose from the nozzle, sealing off the flow of fuel to prevent any leakage or spillage. This safety feature ensures that the fueling process is halted immediately, reducing the risk of fire or other hazards.

Submit
29. When documenting a cryogenic product receipt on the Air Force Form 1231, from which of the following documents is the contract number obtained?

Explanation

The contract number for documenting a cryogenic product receipt on the Air Force Form 1231 is obtained from the DD Form 250.

Submit
30. What environmental regulation establishes "cradle to grave" control of hazardous substances?

Explanation

The correct answer is the Resource Conservation and Recovery Act (RCRA). This environmental regulation establishes "cradle to grave" control of hazardous substances, meaning it regulates the entire lifecycle of these substances, from their creation ("cradle") to their disposal ("grave"). The RCRA sets standards for the management, treatment, storage, and disposal of hazardous waste to protect human health and the environment. It also requires proper labeling, record-keeping, and reporting for hazardous substances.

Submit
31. When you are performing fuels controller duties, how often should you reconcile with the Fuels Enterprise Server (FES) and clear rejects?

Explanation

When performing fuels controller duties, it is important to reconcile with the Fuels Enterprise Server (FES) and clear rejects on a daily basis. This ensures that any discrepancies or errors in the fuel data are identified and resolved promptly, maintaining the accuracy and integrity of the fuel records. Regular reconciliation and clearing of rejects also help in preventing any potential issues or delays in fuel management processes. Therefore, daily reconciliation is necessary to ensure efficient fuel control operations.

Submit
32. When encoding a vehicle identification link (VIL) key for a rental vehicle, what information should be entered in the vehicle identification field?

Explanation

The vehicle identification field should contain the vehicle license plate number when encoding a Vehicle Identification Link (VIL) key for a rental vehicle.

Submit
33. Who is responsible for administering the Caution Tag program?

Explanation

The NCOIC Fuels Laboratory is responsible for administering the Caution Tag program.

Submit
34. On which grades of fuel can the engine on the R–14 ATHRS operate?

Explanation

The engine on the R-14 ATHRS can operate on both diesel fuel and jet fuel. This means that it is designed to run on a combination of these two types of fuel, allowing for versatility in its use. It is not compatible with gasoline, as indicated by the exclusion of this option.

Submit
35. The ABFDS can carry what maximum number of gals. per sortie?

Explanation

The ABFDS can carry a maximum of 30,000 gallons per sortie.

Submit
36. The standard measure for atmospheric pressure is equal to how many pounds per square inch?

Explanation

The standard measure for atmospheric pressure is equal to 14.7 pounds per square inch (psi). Atmospheric pressure refers to the force exerted by the weight of the air in the Earth's atmosphere. This measurement is commonly used in various fields such as meteorology, aviation, and scuba diving to understand and predict weather patterns, calculate aircraft performance, and determine diving depths, respectively.

Submit
37. Which statement best describes a positive ion?

Explanation

A positive ion is formed when an atom loses one or more electrons. This results in an imbalance between the number of protons and electrons, with the atom having more protons than electrons. Therefore, the statement "An atom that lost an electron and has more protons" best describes a positive ion.

Submit
38. What filter separator component prevents pressure surges from damaging dispensing pressure control systems?

Explanation

An air eliminator is a filter separator component that prevents pressure surges from damaging dispensing pressure control systems. It removes air bubbles or pockets from the system, ensuring a consistent and stable pressure. This helps to prevent any sudden increases or decreases in pressure that could potentially damage the system.

Submit
39. What type of lubricant is used to lubricate the power takeoff (PTO) on a fuel dispensing system?

Explanation

Ninety-weight gear oil is the correct answer for lubricating the power takeoff (PTO) on a fuel dispensing system. Gear oil is specifically designed to provide lubrication and protection for gears, and the higher weight of ninety ensures that it can handle the heavy load and high temperatures of the PTO. This type of lubricant is commonly used in automotive and industrial applications where heavy-duty gear lubrication is required.

Submit
40. What symbol should you enter on the Air Force Technical Order (AFTO) Form 244/245 if a routine inspection on a cryotainer goes overdue?

Explanation

If a routine inspection on a cryotainer goes overdue, the symbol that should be entered on the Air Force Technical Order (AFTO) Form 244/245 is a red dash. The red dash symbol indicates that the inspection was not completed within the specified timeframe. This helps to alert maintenance personnel that the cryotainer requires immediate attention and should be inspected as soon as possible.

Submit
41. Who may approve deviations from hot refueling policies when combat or emergency situations require the use of hot refueling?

Explanation

The MAJCOM commander may approve deviations from hot refueling policies when combat or emergency situations require the use of hot refueling. This individual has the authority and responsibility to make decisions regarding operational procedures, including deviations from standard policies, in order to ensure the safety and effectiveness of military operations.

Submit
42. How often should dikes be checked for deterioration?

Explanation

Dikes should be checked for deterioration on a weekly basis to ensure their structural integrity and prevent any potential failures or breaches. Regular inspections allow for early detection of any signs of deterioration, such as cracks, erosion, or seepage, which can be promptly addressed and repaired. Weekly checks also help to maintain the overall stability and effectiveness of the dikes, reducing the risk of flooding and protecting the surrounding areas.

Submit
43. When determining authorizations for cash sales, you know that cash sales are only authorized when

Explanation

The correct answer is "sales support by equipment and/or personnel do not interfere with military operations." This means that cash sales can only be authorized if the support provided by equipment and/or personnel does not disrupt or hinder military operations. In other words, the sales should not interfere with the functioning or effectiveness of the military in any way.

Submit
44. When encoding vehicle identification link (VIL) keys, how long should you maintain copies of a vehicle identification link (VIL) key requests in the defense fuel supply point (DSFP) document control file?

Explanation

The correct answer is 36 months. This means that copies of vehicle identification link (VIL) key requests should be maintained in the defense fuel supply point (DSFP) document control file for a period of 36 months. This is likely to ensure that there is a record of the requests for a significant amount of time, allowing for future reference or auditing purposes.

Submit
45. How often should a liquid oxygen (LOX) generating plant be tested for odor and purity if a LOX production run will exceed 24 hours?

Explanation

The correct answer is Every 24 hours. In a liquid oxygen generating plant, it is important to test for odor and purity regularly to ensure the safety and quality of the produced liquid oxygen. However, since the production run exceeds 24 hours, testing every 3, 6, or 12 hours would be excessive and unnecessary. Testing every 24 hours strikes a balance between ensuring the oxygen is free from odor and impurities while also being practical and efficient for the production process.

Submit
46. At least how many days before the due date must flight physicals and physiological training for Forward Area Refueling Point (FARP) and Aerial Bulk Fuel Delivery System (ABFDS) trained personnel be scheduled?

Explanation

Flight physicals and physiological training for Forward Area Refueling Point (FARP) and Aerial Bulk Fuel Delivery System (ABFDS) trained personnel must be scheduled at least 45 days before the due date.

Submit
47. All of the following items should be accomplished prior to shipping the R–22 except

Explanation

Prior to shipping the R-22, it is important to thoroughly clean the unit, drain all fuel from the piping, and disconnect and drain all hose assemblies. However, placing the unit in the low mobility position is not necessary before shipping it.

Submit
48. Which of the following steps is not accomplished when preparing the PMU–27M for air shipment?

Explanation

When preparing the PMU-27M for air shipment, all of the mentioned steps are accomplished except for removing the filter separator elements.

Submit
49. Each R–20 multi-aircraft servicing platform is equipped with how many feet of communication wire?

Explanation

The correct answer is 1,500 feet. Each R-20 multi-aircraft servicing platform is equipped with 1,500 feet of communication wire. This wire is used for communication purposes between the platform and the aircraft being serviced.

Submit
50. When do the magnetic lines of force in a magnet cross?

Explanation

Magnetic lines of force never cross each other because they represent the direction of the magnetic field. If the lines were to cross, it would mean that the magnetic field would have to have two different directions at the same point, which is not possible. The lines always follow a continuous path from the north pole to the south pole of a magnet, or from a magnet to a magnetic material.

Submit
51. What causes the automatic bypass valve on the type III hydrant system to open and let fuel bypass the filter separator when receiving fuel by cross-country pipeline?

Explanation

The automatic bypass valve on the type III hydrant system opens and lets fuel bypass the filter separator when there is a differential pressure of 20 psi sensed across the receiving filter separator. This means that when the pressure difference between the incoming and outgoing fuel exceeds 20 psi, the valve opens to allow the fuel to bypass the filter separator. This is necessary to prevent the filter from becoming overloaded and causing a drop in fuel flow rate.

Submit
52. When performing a semiannual inspection of fillstand bonding receptacles for proper tension, you obtain a pull measurement of five pounds. This indicates a

Explanation

A pull measurement of five pounds during a semiannual inspection of fillstand bonding receptacles indicates a weak or damaged bonding receptacle. The pull measurement refers to the amount of force required to detach the bond plug from the receptacle. In this case, the low pull measurement suggests that the bonding receptacle is not securely holding the bond plug, which could be due to weakness or damage in the receptacle itself.

Submit
53. When preparing to issue liquid nitrogen (LIN), what action, if any, should you take if a receiving tank's Air Force Technical Order (AFTO) Forms 244/245 lists an open Red X condition?

Explanation

If a receiving tank's AFTO Forms 244/245 lists an open Red X condition, it means that there is a known issue or malfunction with the tank. In such a case, it is not advisable to fill the tank with liquid nitrogen as it may exacerbate the problem or cause further damage. Therefore, the correct course of action is to not fill the receiving tank.

Submit
54. Concurrent servicing operations supporting sortie generation operations (CSO/SGO) are authorized on all following aircraft except the

Explanation

Concurrent servicing operations supporting sortie generation operations (CSO/SGO) are authorized on all aircraft except the F-117. This means that CSO/SGO activities can be performed on the A-10, F-15, and F-22 aircraft. However, the F-117 is not authorized for CSO/SGO operations.

Submit
55. Who is responsible for reviewing aircraft flying schedules and organizing work shifts to meet fuel support requirements?

Explanation

The Fuels Operations Superintendent is responsible for reviewing aircraft flying schedules and organizing work shifts to meet fuel support requirements. This role oversees the operations and distribution of fuel, ensuring that the necessary fuel is available for aircraft as per their schedules. They are in charge of coordinating and managing the fueling process, including assigning tasks and shifts to meet the fueling needs efficiently.

Submit
56. How often should the Aqua Glo water detector be calibrated?

Explanation

The Aqua Glo water detector should be calibrated daily to ensure accurate and reliable readings. Regular calibration is necessary to maintain the device's sensitivity and effectiveness in detecting water leaks or moisture. By calibrating it daily, any potential issues or inaccuracies can be identified and addressed promptly, minimizing the risk of false alarms or undetected water damage.

Submit
57. During bottom loading operations, what occurs when the signal to the bottom loading optic probe is lost?

Explanation

When the signal to the bottom loading optic probe is lost, the electronic control module cuts power to the bottom loading electric air solenoid. This means that the solenoid will no longer receive power and will not be able to operate. This is likely done as a safety measure to prevent any potential issues or accidents that could occur if the solenoid continues to operate without proper signal input.

Submit
58. When should Bourdon gauges be calibrated?

Explanation

Bourdon gauges should be calibrated annually. Calibration is the process of comparing the measurements of a device to a known standard to ensure accuracy. By calibrating Bourdon gauges once a year, any potential inaccuracies or drift in the measurements can be identified and corrected. Regular calibration helps maintain the reliability and precision of the gauges, ensuring that they provide accurate readings for pressure measurements.

Submit
59. All of the following conditions would prevent a remote terminal workstation (RTW) from receiving data except

Explanation

The remote terminal workstation being turned on would not prevent it from receiving data. The other options mention conditions that would actually prevent the remote terminal workstation from receiving data, such as the remote terminal unit being turned off or having an inoperative modem. However, if the remote terminal workstation is turned on, it should be able to receive data unless there are other issues with the modem or connectivity.

Submit
60. At a minimum, how often should underground storage tanks be monitored to detect releases?

Explanation

Underground storage tanks should be monitored every 30 days to detect releases. Regular monitoring is essential to identify any leaks or spills that may occur, ensuring prompt action can be taken to prevent environmental contamination and potential hazards. Monitoring at shorter intervals allows for early detection and timely response, minimizing the risks associated with underground storage tanks.

Submit
61. When determining authorizations for sales to non-DOD aircraft, you know that "T" Department of Defense address activity codes (DODAAC) are assigned to non-DOD organizations by

Explanation

The correct answer is DESC because DESC (Defense Logistics Agency's Defense Energy Support Center) is responsible for assigning Department of Defense address activity codes (DODAAC) to non-DOD organizations.

Submit
62. Who is responsible for enforcing radio transmission discipline over the radio net?

Explanation

The correct answer is Fuels controller. The fuels controller is responsible for enforcing radio transmission discipline over the radio net. This means that they ensure that proper protocols and procedures are followed during radio communication, maintaining order and efficiency in the transmission of information.

Submit
63. How often should cryotainers be sampled for purity, odor and minor constituents?

Explanation

Cryotainers should be sampled for purity, odor, and minor constituents every 90 days. This frequency allows for regular monitoring of the cryotainer's contents to ensure that they meet the required standards. Sampling at this interval helps to identify any potential issues or changes in the purity, odor, or minor constituents of the cryotainer, allowing for timely corrective actions to be taken if necessary.

Submit
64. How often should government purchase card (GPC) cardholders reconcile their statement of account?

Explanation

Government Purchase Card (GPC) cardholders should reconcile their statement of account on a monthly basis. This means that they should compare their GPC transactions with their monthly statement to ensure accuracy and identify any discrepancies. Reconciling monthly allows for timely identification and resolution of any issues, helps maintain financial accountability, and ensures that the GPC program operates efficiently.

Submit
65. To aid in priming, the PMU–27M is equipped with a priming

Explanation

The PMU-27M is equipped with a priming valve to aid in priming. This valve allows for the controlled release of fluid or air to help initiate the pumping process. By using the valve, the operator can easily start the flow of fluid through the system, ensuring efficient and effective priming. The valve acts as a gatekeeper, allowing the operator to control the flow and prevent any potential damage or issues that may arise during priming.

Submit
66. Fuels personnel identify the tank vent valve by using a locally manufactured

Explanation

The correct answer is round aluminum disc. Fuels personnel identify the tank vent valve by using a round aluminum disc. This disc is likely to be durable and resistant to corrosion, making it suitable for outdoor use. It is also easy to spot and identify due to its distinctive shape and material. The round aluminum disc may be engraved or labeled with specific markings or instructions related to the tank vent valve, allowing personnel to easily locate and operate it when needed.

Submit
67. How do the charges of protons and electrons differ?

Explanation

Protons and electrons have opposite charges. Protons have a positive charge, while electrons have a negative charge. This is a fundamental concept in atomic structure and is essential to understanding how atoms interact with each other. The attraction between the positive protons in the nucleus and the negative electrons in the electron cloud holds the atom together.

Submit
68. What type of meter is used on most fuel dispensing systems?

Explanation

Bi-rotor, positive displacement meters are commonly used on most fuel dispensing systems. These meters work by using two rotating rotors that trap and measure a fixed volume of fuel with each rotation. The positive displacement design ensures accurate measurement of fuel flow, making it suitable for dispensing systems where precision is crucial.

Submit
69. What happens if the tank outlet manual valve on the type III hydrant system is open during an emergency stop situation?

Explanation

If the tank outlet manual valve on the type III hydrant system is open during an emergency stop situation, a horn will sound. This is likely a safety feature to alert individuals that there is an issue with the valve being open during an emergency stop. It serves as a warning signal to indicate that the valve needs to be closed immediately to prevent any further complications or hazards.

Submit
70. When performing a monthly inspection on emergency switches, check to ensure

Explanation

During a monthly inspection of emergency switches, it is important to check for proper operation while the system control panel/operation circuit is energized. This ensures that the switches are functioning correctly in real-time conditions when they may be needed in an emergency. Checking for proper operation while the system is energized allows for any potential issues or malfunctions to be identified and addressed promptly, ensuring the switches are reliable and can be relied upon in case of an emergency.

Submit
71. When documenting a cryogenic product issue to a liquid oxygen (LOX) cart on the Air Force Technical Order (AFTO) Form 134, what information should be entered block 4?

Explanation

In block 4 of the AFTO Form 134, the information that should be entered is the initials of the individual who filled the cart. This is important for tracking and accountability purposes, as it allows for identification of the person responsible for filling the cart. It helps in ensuring that the cryogenic product issue is properly documented and any issues or discrepancies can be traced back to the individual who performed the task.

Submit
72. When you are generating queries in Business Systems Modernization-Energy (BSM-E), the query should consist of at least one field, comparison and

Explanation

In Business Systems Modernization-Energy (BSM-E), when generating queries, it is necessary for the query to include at least one field, a comparison, and a value. The value represents the specific information or data that is being searched for or compared against in the query. This ensures that the query is specific and targeted, allowing for more accurate and relevant results to be obtained.

Submit
73. When making a cash sale, what others forms of currency besides United States currency are acceptable for cash sale payments?

Explanation

The correct answer is "None" because when making a cash sale, only United States currency is acceptable for cash sale payments. No other forms of currency, whether it be European, international, or North American currency, are accepted.

Submit
74. When investigating fuel gains and losses, you know that variances in inventory levels may be caused by all of the following conditions except

Explanation

When investigating fuel gains and losses, variances in inventory levels can be caused by factors such as temperature, mode of delivery, and volume of the product. However, tank size is not a condition that directly affects the inventory levels. The size of the tank may determine the maximum capacity or storage capacity, but it does not directly cause variances in inventory levels.

Submit
75. When performing fuels controller duties, in the event of an emergency, you must notify each element in the Fuels management flight, the squadron commander and the

Explanation

When performing fuels controller duties, it is important to notify the appropriate authorities in the event of an emergency. In this case, the correct answer is the wing command post. The wing command post is responsible for coordinating and managing emergency situations within the wing. They have the authority and resources to respond effectively to emergencies and ensure the safety of personnel and assets. Notifying the wing command post ensures that the emergency situation is promptly addressed and appropriate actions are taken.

Submit
76. To obtain meaningful results with the bottle method test, the vacuum must read in excess of

Explanation

The bottle method test is a method used to measure the permeability of a material. In this test, a vacuum is applied to a bottle containing the material, and the rate at which the vacuum decreases is measured. To obtain meaningful results, the vacuum must read in excess of 20 inches of mercury. This means that the vacuum pressure should be higher than 20 inches of mercury to ensure accurate measurements.

Submit
77. How often are the printed standards for the Aeronautical Engine Laboratory (AEL) test replaced?

Explanation

The printed standards for the Aeronautical Engine Laboratory (AEL) test are replaced annually. This means that the standards are updated and renewed once a year.

Submit
78. What is the preferable time after obtaining a sample to take a conductivity reading?

Explanation

The preferable time after obtaining a sample to take a conductivity reading is 2 minutes. Conductivity is a measure of the ability of a solution to conduct an electric current, which is influenced by the concentration of ions in the solution. By waiting for 2 minutes after obtaining the sample, any potential changes in the conductivity due to the sample settling or any chemical reactions can stabilize, providing a more accurate reading. This time allows for the sample to reach equilibrium and ensures that the conductivity measurement is reliable.

Submit
79. Personnel attending Aerial Bulk Fuel Delivery System (ABFDS) or Forward Area Refueling Point (FARP) training must have a minimum of how many months retainability?

Explanation

Personnel attending Aerial Bulk Fuel Delivery System (ABFDS) or Forward Area Refueling Point (FARP) training must have a minimum of 24 months retainability. This means that individuals must commit to serving in their current position for at least 24 months after completing the training. This requirement ensures that the training investment is maximized and that personnel have sufficient time to apply their newly acquired skills and knowledge in their roles.

Submit
80. How often should all fuels personnel complete task qualification training?

Explanation

All fuels personnel should complete task qualification training every 12 months. This ensures that they stay updated on the latest procedures and safety protocols related to handling and managing fuels. Regular training helps to maintain their skills and knowledge, ensuring that they can perform their duties effectively and safely. By completing training annually, all fuels personnel can stay current and competent in their roles, minimizing the risk of accidents or errors in their work.

Submit
81. What type of meter, if any, is installed on the TPI–4T–4A portable additive injector?

Explanation

The correct answer is None. This means that there is no type of meter installed on the TPI-4T-4A portable additive injector.

Submit
82. When, if ever, is it necessary to prime the PMU–27M?

Explanation

The correct answer is "Any time the system has been purged of fuel". Priming the PMU-27M is necessary whenever the system has been purged of fuel. Priming is the process of filling the fuel lines and components with fuel to ensure proper fuel flow and prevent air bubbles from entering the system. Therefore, after the system has been purged of fuel, it is important to prime the PMU-27M to ensure its proper functioning.

Submit
83. What size sealing clamp should be used to repair a 5 in. hole in a fuel bladder?

Explanation

The correct answer is 7 ½ in. This size sealing clamp should be used to repair a 5 in. hole in a fuel bladder. The sealing clamp needs to be larger than the hole in order to effectively seal it. A 7 ½ in. clamp will provide enough coverage to ensure a secure and tight seal, preventing any fuel leakage.

Submit
84. What are the two positions of the throttle switch located on the R–18 pumping unit's handheld remote?

Explanation

The correct answer is RUN and IDLE. The throttle switch on the R-18 pumping unit's handheld remote has two positions, which are RUN and IDLE.

Submit
85. A temporary movement of a MRSP kit from home station to another location for a period of less than 30 days is referred to as a

Explanation

A temporary movement of a MRSP kit from home station to another location for a period of less than 30 days is referred to as a deployment. This term implies that the MRSP kit is being sent to a different location for a short-term mission or operation, and will likely return to its home station after the designated period.

Submit
86. What cleaning agent should be used to clean the probe on the conductivity meter?

Explanation

Isopropyl alcohol is the correct cleaning agent to use for cleaning the probe on the conductivity meter. Isopropyl alcohol is a commonly used solvent that is effective in removing dirt, oils, and other contaminants from surfaces. It evaporates quickly and leaves no residue, making it ideal for cleaning sensitive electronic equipment like conductivity meters. Petroleum ether and turbine fuel are not suitable for cleaning the probe as they are flammable and can leave residue. Acetone, although a solvent, can damage the probe and should not be used for cleaning.

Submit
87. What determines the intensity of the excess pressure in a water-hammer wave?

Explanation

The intensity of the excess pressure in a water-hammer wave is determined by the amount of extinguished velocity. When there is a sudden change in the flow rate of water in a pipe, it creates a water-hammer effect, causing pressure waves to propagate through the pipe. The intensity of these pressure waves depends on the velocity of the water that is suddenly brought to rest or extinguished. The higher the velocity of the water, the greater the intensity of the pressure wave.

Submit
88. Which temperature scale is commonly used for scientific measurements?

Explanation

The Kelvin scale is commonly used for scientific measurements because it is an absolute temperature scale that starts at absolute zero, the point at which all molecular motion ceases. This makes it ideal for scientific calculations and experiments, as it provides a consistent and standardized reference point. In contrast, the Rankine scale is rarely used outside of certain engineering applications, the Réaumur scale is mostly used in some European countries, and the Fahrenheit scale is commonly used in the United States but not as widely accepted in scientific settings.

Submit
89. What is the unit of measurement for electrical power?

Explanation

The unit of measurement for electrical power is watts. Watts measure the rate at which energy is transferred or used, representing the amount of work done per unit of time. Volts measure electrical potential difference, amps measure electrical current, and ohms measure electrical resistance. However, none of these units directly measure power. Only watts are specifically used to quantify electrical power.

Submit
90. A 3-horsepower motor consumes how much power?

Explanation

A 3-horsepower motor consumes 2,238 watts of power. Horsepower is a unit of power commonly used in the United States, and 1 horsepower is equal to approximately 746 watts. Therefore, to convert 3 horsepower to watts, we multiply 3 by 746, which gives us 2,238 watts.

Submit
91. What type of current flow is the result of voltages produced by batteries and thermocouples?

Explanation

The correct answer is direct current. Direct current is the type of current flow that is the result of voltages produced by batteries and thermocouples. Direct current flows in only one direction and is commonly used in electronic devices and power transmission systems. Unlike alternating current, which periodically changes direction, direct current provides a steady flow of electric charge.

Submit
92. What may a filter separator differential pressure reading below 3 pounds per square inch (psi) indicate?

Explanation

A filter separator differential pressure reading below 3 psi may indicate a defective O-ring or ruptured coalescers. This is because a low pressure reading suggests that there is a loss of pressure across the coalescer elements, which could be caused by a faulty O-ring or ruptured coalescers. This can result in reduced efficiency of the coalescers and potential contamination of the separated fluids.

Submit
93. How many tanks are used with the type IV hydrant system, and what is the capacity of each?

Explanation

The correct answer is four; 50,000 gallons. This means that the type IV hydrant system uses four tanks, and each tank has a capacity of 50,000 gallons.

Submit
94. Who must establish procedures for the collection, safekeeping, and deposit of funds received for cash sales of aviation fuels?

Explanation

The FMT, or Financial Management Technician, must establish procedures for the collection, safekeeping, and deposit of funds received for cash sales of aviation fuels. As a financial management professional, it is their responsibility to ensure that proper protocols are in place to handle and account for the funds collected from cash sales. This includes establishing guidelines for the collection process, ensuring the safekeeping of the funds, and depositing them in the appropriate accounts. The FMT plays a crucial role in maintaining the financial integrity of the organization and ensuring compliance with financial regulations and procedures.

Submit
95. When entering an order into the Paperless Ordering and Receipt Tracking Screens (PORTS) system, what agencies receive fuel request e-mails from after you have placed the ground products order?

Explanation

When entering an order into the PORTS system, fuel request e-mails are received by the vendor and DESC (Defense Energy Support Center). The vendor is responsible for fulfilling the order and providing the requested fuel, while DESC is the agency that manages and coordinates fuel supply for the Department of Defense.

Submit
96. What temperature is used to dry filters prior to performing the bottle method test?

Explanation

The correct answer is 90°C. This temperature is used to dry filters prior to performing the bottle method test. Drying the filters at this temperature ensures that any moisture or impurities are removed, allowing for accurate and reliable test results. Higher temperatures may cause the filters to become damaged or alter their properties, while lower temperatures may not effectively remove all moisture. Therefore, 90°C is the optimal temperature for drying filters in preparation for the bottle method test.

Submit
97. When performing offload operations with the FORCE system, the deadman switch on the R–18 pumping unit should be placed in what position?

Explanation

The correct answer is "NO DEADMAN" because the question is asking about the position of the deadman switch on the R-18 pumping unit during offload operations. Since the deadman switch is not required during offload operations, it should be in the "NO DEADMAN" position.

Submit
98. Which unit of measurement would indicate velocity of flow?

Explanation

Feet per second is the correct answer because it is a unit of measurement commonly used to indicate the velocity of flow. Velocity is a measure of the rate at which something moves in a particular direction, and in the context of flow, it represents how fast a fluid is moving through a given space. Feet per second specifically measures the distance traveled in feet per unit of time, indicating the speed of the flow. The other options, gallons per minute and cubic feet per second, are not appropriate units for measuring velocity as they represent volume per unit of time rather than distance per unit of time. Cubic gallons per minute is not a recognized unit of measurement.

Submit
99. Which physical factor affects the behavior of liquids in both rest and motion?

Explanation

The behavior of liquids in both rest and motion is affected by gravity, atmospheric pressure, and applied forces. Gravity causes liquids to flow downwards, atmospheric pressure affects the pressure within the liquid, and applied forces can change the direction or speed of the liquid's motion.

Submit
100. Two or more atoms combined is called a

Explanation

When two or more atoms combine, they form a molecule. A molecule is the smallest unit of a compound that retains the chemical properties of that compound. It consists of two or more atoms held together by chemical bonds. In contrast, an element refers to a pure substance made up of only one type of atom. A compound, on the other hand, is a substance composed of two or more different elements chemically bonded together. Lastly, a mixture is a combination of two or more substances that are physically mixed together but not chemically bonded.

Submit
101. Which is not a type of positive displacement pump?

Explanation

Centrifugal pumps are not a type of positive displacement pump. Unlike positive displacement pumps, which displace a fixed amount of fluid with each stroke or rotation, centrifugal pumps work by using centrifugal force to move the fluid. They are commonly used for high flow rate applications, but they do not have the same ability to accurately control or measure the fluid being pumped as positive displacement pumps do. Therefore, the correct answer is Centrifugal.

Submit
102. What size mesh screen is used in the type III hydrant system receiving strainer?

Explanation

The correct answer is 60. In a type III hydrant system receiving strainer, a mesh screen with a size of 60 is used. This size is specifically chosen to effectively filter out debris and prevent it from entering the system. A smaller mesh size would restrict the flow of water, while a larger size would allow larger debris to pass through, potentially causing damage or clogging the system. Therefore, a mesh screen size of 60 is the most suitable choice for the type III hydrant system receiving strainer.

Submit
103. What major command (MAJCOM) developed the type IV pressurized hot fueling system?

Explanation

The correct answer is United States Air Force in Europe (USAFE). The type IV pressurized hot fueling system was developed by the USAFE.

Submit
104. When performing a hydrant flushing operation, ensure enough fuel velocity is generated to remove water and sediment by flushing the system

Explanation

When performing a hydrant flushing operation, it is important to ensure that enough fuel velocity is generated to remove water and sediment by flushing the system. This can be achieved by operating all issue pumps. By having all issue pumps operating, there will be a higher flow rate and pressure, which will effectively flush out the water and sediment from the system.

Submit
105. When preparing to issue liquid oxygen (LOX), what action, if any, should be taken if a review of a receiving tank's Air Force Technical Order (AFTO) Form 134 finds that the form is not properly filled out?

Explanation

If a review of a receiving tank's Air Force Technical Order (AFTO) Form 134 finds that the form is not properly filled out, the correct action to take is to not service the receiving tank. This is because a properly filled out AFTO Form 134 is necessary to ensure the safe handling and storage of liquid oxygen (LOX). By not servicing the tank, potential risks and hazards associated with improperly filled out forms can be avoided. It is important to follow proper procedures and protocols to maintain safety standards.

Submit
106. Who should you notify if, while performing fuels expediter duties, you use the spill response kit?

Explanation

While performing fuels expediter duties, if you use the spill response kit, you should notify the Fuels Environmental coordinator. This is because the Fuels Environmental coordinator is responsible for overseeing and managing environmental aspects related to fuel operations, including spill response and prevention. They have the knowledge and expertise to handle and mitigate any environmental impact caused by fuel spills. The NCOIC fuels distribution is responsible for overseeing the overall distribution of fuels, the FOD prevention monitor is responsible for ensuring foreign object debris prevention, and the FSC (Fuel Service Center) is responsible for providing fuel services. However, in this scenario, the Fuels Environmental coordinator is the most appropriate person to notify.

Submit
107. What agency should the fuels management team (FMT) consult with on all matters regarding the provision of or changes to personal protective equipment (PPE) for workers?

Explanation

The fuels management team (FMT) should consult with the base bioenvironmental engineer on all matters regarding the provision of or changes to personal protective equipment (PPE) for workers. The base bioenvironmental engineer is responsible for assessing and managing workplace hazards, including the selection and use of PPE. They have the expertise and knowledge to ensure that the appropriate PPE is provided to workers to protect them from potential hazards in their work environment.

Submit
108. When you are reconciling accounts, what is the allowable tolerance for motor (automotive) gasoline (MOGAS)?

Explanation

When reconciling accounts, the allowable tolerance for motor (automotive) gasoline (MOGAS) is .005. This means that a difference of up to .005 in the recorded amount of MOGAS is considered acceptable and does not require further investigation or adjustment.

Submit
109. The amount of bulk petroleum war reserve requirement (BPWRR) a defense fuel supply point (DFSP) is authorized to store is referred to as

Explanation

The correct answer is "bulk petroleum war reserve stock." This refers to the amount of bulk petroleum that a defense fuel supply point (DFSP) is authorized to store as part of its war reserve requirement. This stock is specifically designated for use during times of war or other emergencies.

Submit
110. The FFU–15E filter separator is equipped with how many filter elements?

Explanation

The FFU-15E filter separator is equipped with 6 filter elements.

Submit
111. When performing fuel servicing operations with the R–18 pumping unit, the throttle control should manually be set to what rpm setting?

Explanation

The correct answer is 2,250 rpm. This is the recommended rpm setting for the throttle control when performing fuel servicing operations with the R-18 pumping unit. This setting ensures that the unit is running at an optimal speed for efficient fuel servicing.

Submit
112. Accountability for a transferred MRSP kit temporary rests with the

Explanation

The correct answer is the Expeditionary LRS at the forward location. When a MRSP (Mobile Redistribution and Storage Point) kit is transferred, it becomes the responsibility of the Expeditionary LRS at the forward location. They are accountable for the kit until it is further transferred or used by the using organization. The using organization, accountable officer, and home unit LRS customer service element do not have temporary accountability for the transferred MRSP kit.

Submit
113. What pressure should the surge suppressor gauge on the R–20 multi-aircraft servicing unit indicate when the fueling system is not operating?

Explanation

The surge suppressor gauge on the R-20 multi-aircraft servicing unit should indicate a pressure of 90 psi when the fueling system is not operating. This pressure is likely the optimal level for maintaining the stability and safety of the system while it is not in use. It ensures that there is enough pressure to prevent any potential surges or fluctuations in the system, while also not exceeding the maximum pressure capacity of the unit.

Submit
114. What type(s) of current flow cannot be transformed from a higher voltage to a lower voltage?

Explanation

Direct current (DC) cannot be transformed from a higher voltage to a lower voltage. This is because DC flows in only one direction and does not alternate like alternating current (AC). Transformers are designed to work with AC, as they utilize the changing magnetic field to induce a voltage in the secondary coil. However, DC does not have this changing magnetic field, making it impossible to transform from a higher voltage to a lower voltage using a transformer.

Submit
115. How often should a filter separator vessel be cleaned?

Explanation

A filter separator vessel should be cleaned every three years, or when the coalescer elements are changed. This is because the coalescer elements are responsible for removing water and other contaminants from the fluid passing through the vessel. Over time, these elements can become clogged or less effective, reducing the efficiency of the vessel. Therefore, it is necessary to clean the vessel and replace the coalescer elements periodically to maintain optimal performance.

Submit
116. When documenting a cryogenic product issue to a liquid oxygen (LOX) cart on the Air Force Technical Order (AFTO) Form 134, how should odor test results be annotated in block 2?

Explanation

When documenting a cryogenic product issue to a liquid oxygen (LOX) cart on the Air Force Technical Order (AFTO) Form 134, odor test results should be annotated as either "FAIL" or "PASS" in column D. This column is specifically used for recording the results of the odor test. The options provided in the other columns (A, B, and C) are not relevant to documenting the odor test results.

Submit
117. The Tank Group window in FuelsManager allows operators to create tabular lists of up to how many tanks?

Explanation

The Tank Group window in FuelsManager allows operators to create tabular lists of up to 20 tanks. This means that the operators can organize and manage a maximum of 20 tanks in a single tabular list within the FuelsManager system.

Submit
118. The Inventory Management Plan (IMP) is published

Explanation

The given answer, "annually," suggests that the Inventory Management Plan (IMP) is published once every year. This implies that the plan is updated and released on a yearly basis, allowing for regular evaluation and adjustment of inventory management strategies. Publishing the IMP annually ensures that the plan remains relevant and up-to-date, considering any changes in market demands, supply chain dynamics, or internal business factors.

Submit
119. During a flash point test, apply the flame to the vapor cup for

Explanation

In a flash point test, the flame should be applied to the vapor cup for 1 second. This duration allows enough time for the flammable vapors to ignite and produce a flash. Applying the flame for a shorter duration may not generate a flash, while applying it for a longer duration may result in a sustained flame rather than a flash. Therefore, 1 second is the appropriate duration for this test.

Submit
120. If an active duty airman cannot complete a core task due to nonavailability of equipment at the installation, submit a core task waiver request to the

Explanation

If an active duty airman cannot complete a core task due to nonavailability of equipment at the installation, they should submit a core task waiver request to the parent MAJCOM. This is because the parent MAJCOM has the authority to grant waivers for core tasks when the necessary equipment is not available at the installation. The squadron training manager, LRS commander, and Air Staff do not have the same level of authority to grant these waivers.

Submit
121. What type of fabric are fuel bladders made of?

Explanation

Fuel bladders are typically made of single ply nylon fabric. This type of fabric is chosen for its durability, flexibility, and resistance to fuel and chemical permeation. Single ply nylon is strong enough to withstand the pressure and weight of the fuel, while also being lightweight and easy to handle. It is also resistant to punctures and abrasions, ensuring the integrity of the fuel bladder. The use of single ply nylon fabric in fuel bladders is a common practice in the industry due to its reliability and effectiveness.

Submit
122. With which of the following alternate fuels should special precautions be taken due to its high volatility?

Explanation

Jet B should be handled with special precautions due to its high volatility. Jet B is a highly flammable fuel and has a lower flash point compared to other jet fuels. It has a higher risk of ignition and combustion, making it necessary to take extra safety measures during handling, storage, and transportation. Precautions such as proper grounding, ventilation, and avoiding open flames or sparks are necessary to prevent accidents or fires.

Submit
123. How often should a water slug valve test be performed on the Fuel Filter Unit (FFU)–15E?

Explanation

A water slug valve test should be performed on the Fuel Filter Unit (FFU)-15E on a monthly basis. This test is necessary to ensure the proper functioning of the valve and to prevent any potential issues or malfunctions. Performing the test on a monthly basis allows for regular maintenance and monitoring of the FFU-15E, ensuring its efficiency and effectiveness in filtering fuel.

Submit
124. When should a refractometer used for fuel system icing inhibitor (FSII) tests be calibrated?

Explanation

A refractometer is a device used to measure the refractive index of a substance, in this case, the fuel system icing inhibitor (FSII). The refractive index of the FSII can change over time or when the test water is changed. Therefore, to ensure accurate and reliable results, the refractometer should be calibrated daily or whenever the test water is changed. This regular calibration helps to maintain the accuracy of the measurements and ensures that the FSII is functioning properly.

Submit
125. What is a major difference between a gas and a liquid?

Explanation

Liquids are far less compressible than gases because the particles in a liquid are already close together and have stronger intermolecular forces compared to the particles in a gas. This makes it difficult to compress a liquid, as the particles are already packed tightly. In contrast, gases have particles that are more spread out and have weaker intermolecular forces, allowing them to be easily compressed.

Submit
126. Which hose is exempt from annual hydrostatic hose testing requirements?

Explanation

Hoses used for hot refueling E–4B aircraft are exempt from annual hydrostatic hose testing requirements.

Submit
127. On the type V hydrant system, what size are the stainless steel pantographs that are installed inside the hardened shelters?

Explanation

The stainless steel pantographs that are installed inside the hardened shelters on the type V hydrant system are 3 inches in size.

Submit
128. Which condition would require you to clean a cryotainer filter?

Explanation

Cleaning a cryotainer filter would be necessary if there is a decrease in liquid flow. This is because a decrease in liquid flow could indicate that the filter is clogged or obstructed, preventing the proper flow of liquid through the cryotainer. By cleaning the filter, any accumulated debris or particles can be removed, allowing for improved liquid flow and ensuring the cryotainer functions effectively.

Submit
129. During concurrent servicing of cargo or passenger aircraft, deplaning personnel should not come closer than how many feet from any aircraft fuel vent outlet?

Explanation

During concurrent servicing of aircraft, deplaning personnel should maintain a distance of at least 25 feet from any aircraft fuel vent outlet. This is important to ensure the safety of both the personnel and the aircraft, as fuel vent outlets can release flammable gases. By keeping a safe distance, the risk of accidental ignition or fuel leakage is minimized, reducing the potential for accidents or fires.

Submit
130. When preparing the R–20 filter separator unit for shipment, drain all of the following components except the

Explanation

When preparing the R-20 filter separator unit for shipment, it is necessary to drain all of the components except for the surge suppressors. Surge suppressors are devices that protect electrical equipment from voltage spikes and surges. They are typically filled with a dielectric material that absorbs excess voltage and redirects it safely to the ground. Draining the surge suppressors could potentially damage them or render them ineffective in protecting the equipment during transportation. Therefore, it is important to leave the surge suppressors as they are when preparing the unit for shipment.

Submit
131. What type of material is used to construct the fuel tank on the R–11?

Explanation

The correct answer is sheet aluminum alloy. This material is commonly used in the construction of fuel tanks due to its lightweight and corrosion-resistant properties. It is also relatively easy to fabricate and has good structural integrity. Stainless steel is another option, but it is heavier and more expensive. Titanium and steel-reinforced carbon fiber are not commonly used for fuel tanks in this context.

Submit
132. What type of time compliance technical order (TCTO) is issued for safety conditions which, if left uncorrected, could result in fatality or serious injury to personnel or extensive damage to or destruction of valuable property?

Explanation

Immediate action is the correct answer because it refers to a type of Time Compliance Technical Order (TCTO) that is issued for safety conditions that, if not corrected, could lead to fatal or serious injuries to personnel or significant damage to valuable property. This type of TCTO requires immediate attention and action to prevent any potential harm or damage.

Submit
133. What happens when the type III hydrant system product recovery tank is 70 percent full?

Explanation

When the type III hydrant system product recovery tank is 70 percent full, the float assembly closes the inlet valve to prevent further filling of the tank. At the same time, the switch assembly automatically turns the pump on to start the process of transferring the contents of the tank to another location. This ensures that the tank does not overflow and allows for the efficient management of the tank's contents.

Submit
134. When documenting a significant maintenance action on an Air Force Technical Order (AFTO) Form 95, what information should you enter in block 1?

Explanation

When documenting a significant maintenance action on an Air Force Technical Order (AFTO) Form 95, you should enter the mission, design, series (MDS) of the equipment in block 1. This information is important for accurately identifying and categorizing the equipment for maintenance purposes. It helps in tracking and referencing the maintenance action taken on the specific equipment.

Submit
135. What maximum number of base stations may be configured to operate with the automated data collection (ADC) system?

Explanation

The maximum number of base stations that may be configured to operate with the automated data collection (ADC) system is 10. This means that the system can support up to 10 base stations for data collection purposes.

Submit
136. Who may authorize bases to use computer products in lieu of AF Forms 2419 and 2420?

Explanation

Parent MAJCOM may authorize bases to use computer products in lieu of AF Forms 2419 and 2420. This means that the higher-level command within the Air Force can grant permission to bases to use computer products instead of the specified forms. The decision to allow this alternative method would be made by the Parent MAJCOM, which has the authority to authorize such changes.

Submit
137. Who is responsible for establishing minimum essential levels (MEL) for assigned equipment and facilities?

Explanation

The FMT (Functional Manager Team) is responsible for establishing minimum essential levels (MEL) for assigned equipment and facilities. The FMT consists of subject matter experts who have the knowledge and expertise to determine the minimum requirements needed for the equipment and facilities to function effectively. They analyze factors such as usage, maintenance needs, and operational requirements to establish the MEL. The FMT plays a crucial role in ensuring that the equipment and facilities are maintained at the minimum acceptable levels to support operational readiness.

Submit
138. When performing fuel servicing operations with the R–20 multi-aircraft servicing platform, the deadman switch on the hand-held remote should be pressed and released at intervals no greater than how many minutes?

Explanation

The deadman switch on the hand-held remote of the R-20 multi-aircraft servicing platform should be pressed and released at intervals no greater than 2 minutes. This is important to ensure the safety of fuel servicing operations. Pressing and releasing the deadman switch at regular intervals helps to prevent accidents or incidents that may occur if the switch is left unattended for extended periods of time. It allows the operator to maintain control and monitor the fuel servicing process effectively.

Submit
139. What effect of current causes an electric motor to produce mechanical energy?

Explanation

When an electric current flows through a wire, it creates a magnetic field around the wire. In an electric motor, this magnetic field interacts with the magnetic field of a permanent magnet, causing a force that rotates the motor's shaft. This rotation converts electrical energy into mechanical energy, allowing the motor to perform its intended function. Therefore, the effect of current that causes an electric motor to produce mechanical energy is magnetism.

Submit
140. What are the three things needed to produce voltage by the principle of electromagnetic induction?

Explanation

According to the principle of electromagnetic induction, voltage is produced when there is a change in magnetic field strength, a conductor is present, and there is relative motion between the magnetic field and the conductor. This is known as Faraday's Law of electromagnetic induction. The options "Coil, core, and current", "Magnet, housing, and prime mover", and "Coil, conductors, and relative motion" do not accurately represent the three things needed to produce voltage by the principle of electromagnetic induction.

Submit
141. When performing meter calibrations, what is the acceptable difference between the master meter and the meter being calibrated?

Explanation

The acceptable difference between the master meter and the meter being calibrated is ½ gallon for each 100 gallons passing through the meter.

Submit
142. When, if ever, is a particulate test on a liquid oxygen (LOX) cart required?

Explanation

A particulate test on a liquid oxygen (LOX) cart is required when there is a suspicion of particulate contamination. This means that if there are any signs or indications that the LOX cart may have been contaminated with particles, such as debris or foreign substances, then a particulate test must be conducted. This is important to ensure the purity and safety of the liquid oxygen, as particulate contamination can potentially cause damage or malfunction in oxygen systems. Regular testing and monitoring are essential to maintain the quality of the LOX cart and prevent any potential hazards.

Submit
143. Which Air Force Petroleum Agency (AFPET) division performs contracting support for all AFPET contracted and cost recovery programs?

Explanation

The Resource Management Division performs contracting support for all AFPET contracted and cost recovery programs. This division is responsible for managing and allocating resources efficiently, including the contracting process. They ensure that all contracted and cost recovery programs are properly supported and managed.

Submit
144. When should Defense Energy Support Center (DESC) receive the non-Department of Defense (DOD) sales report and supporting documents?

Explanation

DESC should receive the non-Department of Defense (DOD) sales report and supporting documents within 5 working days after the end of the month. This means that they have a maximum of 5 business days to receive the report and documents after the month has ended. This allows DESC to have timely access to the necessary information for their records and analysis.

Submit
145. How often should correlation samples be submitted to the area laboratory to check the accuracy of tests performed at base level?

Explanation

Correlation samples should be submitted to the area laboratory every 90 days to check the accuracy of tests performed at the base level. This frequency allows for regular monitoring and ensures that any discrepancies or errors in the testing process can be identified and corrected in a timely manner. Submitting samples too frequently may be unnecessary and time-consuming, while submitting them less frequently may increase the risk of inaccurate results going undetected for longer periods. Therefore, every 90 days strikes a balance between regular monitoring and practicality.

Submit
146. When testing for fiber particles after an element change, how much fuel must be flush through a filter separator?

Explanation

After an element change, it is necessary to flush a large amount of fuel through a filter separator to test for fiber particles. The correct answer is 2,000 gallons, which indicates that a significant volume of fuel needs to be passed through the separator to ensure that any potential fiber particles are thoroughly removed.

Submit
147. When entering sample information in Business Systems Modernization-Energy (BSM-E), what information should you record in the SAMPLE block?

Explanation

In the SAMPLE block of Business Systems Modernization-Energy (BSM-E), the information that should be recorded is the next sequential sample number. This number helps in keeping track of the order in which the samples are taken and analyzed. It allows for easy identification and organization of the samples, ensuring that no sample is missed or duplicated.

Submit
148. Fuel bladders can withstand temperatures from

Explanation

Fuel bladders are designed to withstand a wide range of temperatures, from extremely cold to very hot. The correct answer is -40° F to 160° F, which means that the fuel bladders can endure temperatures as low as -40° F and as high as 160° F without being damaged. This temperature range ensures that the fuel bladders can be used in various climates and environments, providing a reliable and durable solution for storing and transporting fuel.

Submit
149. What does a steady red light on the battery status LED of the R–20 multi-aircraft servicing platform indicate?

Explanation

A steady red light on the battery status LED of the R-20 multi-aircraft servicing platform indicates that the battery is disconnected.

Submit
150. How many fillstand assemblies are included in the FORCE system?

Explanation

The correct answer is 2 because the question asks for the number of fillstand assemblies included in the FORCE system. The options provided are numbers, and the answer that matches the question is 2.

Submit
151. When selecting a site for bladder operations, the site should have less than what degree of slope?

Explanation

For bladder operations, it is important to select a site with a slope of less than 3°. This is because a steeper slope can make the operation more challenging and increase the risk of complications. A slope greater than 3° can make it difficult to maintain the necessary positioning and stability during the procedure. Therefore, a site with a slope of 3° or less is preferred to ensure a successful and safe bladder operation.

Submit
152. What form is used to annotate fuel bladder inspections?

Explanation

The correct answer is "A locally developed form." This means that there is no specific standardized form used to annotate fuel bladder inspections. Instead, each organization or unit may have their own custom form that they use for this purpose. This allows for flexibility and customization to meet the specific needs and requirements of the organization conducting the inspections.

Submit
153. What component found on R–11s and R–12s prevents the auxiliary throttle from operating unless the power takeoff (PTO) is engaged?

Explanation

The throttle interlock system is a component found on R-11s and R-12s that prevents the auxiliary throttle from operating unless the power takeoff (PTO) is engaged. This system ensures that the auxiliary throttle can only be used when the PTO is active, providing an additional safety measure to prevent accidental or unauthorized use of the throttle.

Submit
154. What type of inspection is performed to determine the condition of a vehicle or piece of equipment?

Explanation

A limited technical inspection is performed to determine the condition of a vehicle or piece of equipment. This type of inspection focuses on specific components or systems of the vehicle or equipment, rather than conducting a comprehensive evaluation. It is typically conducted to identify any potential issues or defects that may require immediate attention or further investigation. Unlike an annual inspection or preventative maintenance and inspection, a limited technical inspection is more targeted and specific in nature. A special inspection, on the other hand, is typically conducted for unique or specific circumstances, and may not be applicable in this context.

Submit
155. On the type III hydrant system, where is the ball float assembly for the high-level shutoff valve located on an aboveground operating storage tank?

Explanation

The ball float assembly for the high-level shutoff valve is located on the exterior of the tank at the required shut-off height. This means that it is positioned outside of the tank, at the specific height where the valve needs to be closed to prevent the tank from overflowing. Placing the assembly on the exterior allows for easy access and maintenance without the need to enter the tank.

Submit
156. How is the fueling control valve opened to perform hot refueling operations?

Explanation

The fueling control valve is opened to perform hot refueling operations by air pressure from the deadman control valve. This means that the valve is activated and opened when air pressure is applied from the deadman control valve, allowing fuel to flow through the valve for refueling. The other options, such as a flow switch, fuel pressure, or a pressure switch, are not the correct methods for opening the fueling control valve in hot refueling operations.

Submit
157. Since manning is not required for the type V hydrant system, how often must inspections be performed when it is operating?

Explanation

In a type V hydrant system, manning is not required, meaning there is no need for human presence or monitoring. Therefore, inspections must be performed periodically to ensure the system is operating correctly. The correct answer is every 3 hours, indicating that inspections should be conducted at this frequency to maintain the system's functionality and address any potential issues in a timely manner.

Submit
158. On the type V hydrant system, the deadman control valve is operated

Explanation

The correct answer is by fuel pressure. In a type V hydrant system, the deadman control valve is operated using fuel pressure. This means that the valve is controlled and activated by the pressure of the fuel flowing through the system. It is not operated electrically, mechanically, or by air pressure.

Submit
159. When preparing to perform an annual inspection, review all of the following forms for annotated discrepancies except

Explanation

When preparing for an annual inspection, it is important to review all the forms for annotated discrepancies except for AFTO Form 134. This means that AFTO Form 134 does not need to be checked for any discrepancies during the inspection. The other forms mentioned (AFTO Form 95, AFTO Form 244, and AFTO Form 245) should be reviewed for any annotated discrepancies before the inspection.

Submit
160. Which aircraft does not require a hot brake check before entering the hot refueling pad?

Explanation

The F-15 is the correct answer because it does not require a hot brake check before entering the hot refueling pad. A hot brake check is a safety procedure performed to ensure that the brakes are not overheated before refueling. However, the F-15 has a unique brake system that allows it to bypass the need for a hot brake check, making it the only aircraft among the options listed that does not require this procedure.

Submit
161. When you are maintaining and updating statuses in Business Systems Modernization- Energy (BSM-E) which status board should you use to document transfers?

Explanation

When maintaining and updating statuses in Business Systems Modernization-Energy (BSM-E), the "Move" status board should be used to document transfers. This suggests that the "Move" status board is specifically designed for recording and tracking the movement of items or resources within the business system. Since the question is asking about documenting transfers, it implies that the "Move" status board is the appropriate choice for this purpose.

Submit
162. When you are inputting a transaction in the Business Systems Modernization-Energy (BSM-E) log sheet, what information should you enter in the Defuel field when entering a defuel request?

Explanation

In the Defuel field, you should enter "Y" in place of the defaulted "N". This indicates that a defuel request is being made.

Submit
163. Which recoverable and waste (R&W) petroleum product category covers motor crankcase oils and reciprocating aircraft engine oils?

Explanation

Category 3 of recoverable and waste (R&W) petroleum products covers motor crankcase oils and reciprocating aircraft engine oils. This category specifically includes lubricants used in internal combustion engines, such as those found in cars and aircraft engines. These oils can be recovered and recycled through proper disposal methods, ensuring that they do not harm the environment and can be reused in other applications.

Submit
164. How much fuel is passed through the test pad to obtain an Aeronautical Engine Laboratory (AEL) sample?

Explanation

The correct answer is 300 milliliters. This is the amount of fuel that is passed through the test pad to obtain an Aeronautical Engine Laboratory (AEL) sample. This suggests that only a small quantity of fuel is required for the test, indicating that the AEL sample does not require a large amount of fuel to be tested.

Submit
165. What is the normal range of use limits for fuel system icing inhibitor (FSII) in turbine fuel?

Explanation

The normal range of use limits for fuel system icing inhibitor (FSII) in turbine fuel is 0.07 to 0.20 percent.

Submit
166. The PMU–27M may be connected to what maximum number of 500-gal. sealed drums?

Explanation

The PMU-27M can be connected to a maximum of four 500-gallon sealed drums.

Submit
167. What component on the R–18 pumping unit will illuminate to indicate a serious problem with the engine?

Explanation

The stop light on the R-18 pumping unit will illuminate to indicate a serious problem with the engine.

Submit
168. What is the first factor that the senior ranking deployed fuels member must consider when selecting a site for fuels operations?

Explanation

The first factor that the senior ranking deployed fuels member must consider when selecting a site for fuels operations is safety. This is important because ensuring the safety of personnel and equipment is crucial in any operation. By prioritizing safety, the member can minimize the risk of accidents, injuries, and potential damage to the site or surrounding areas. This includes assessing factors such as potential hazards, emergency response capabilities, and compliance with safety regulations.

Submit
169. On the type III hydrant system, which function of the filter separator control valve prevents the elements from bursting and allowing contaminated fuel downstream?

Explanation

The differential pressure shutoff function of the filter separator control valve prevents the elements from bursting and allowing contaminated fuel downstream. This means that when there is a significant difference in pressure between the upstream and downstream sides of the valve, it automatically shuts off to prevent any damage or contamination. This ensures the safety and integrity of the system by preventing any potential hazards or issues caused by bursts or contaminated fuel.

Submit
170. When conducting internal inspections, within what maximum number of days should an element be inspected if it receives unsatisfactory rating?

Explanation

An element should be inspected within 45 days if it receives an unsatisfactory rating during internal inspections. This suggests that there is a need for prompt action and evaluation to address any issues or deficiencies identified. Waiting longer than 45 days may result in further deterioration or escalation of the problem, potentially impacting the overall performance or quality of the element.

Submit
171. 17. (205) Who is responsible for maintaining the fuels account as outlined in Air Force Manual (AFMAN) 23–110, Volume 2, Part 2?

Explanation

The correct answer is FSC. FSC stands for Fuels Service Center, which is responsible for maintaining the fuels account as outlined in Air Force Manual (AFMAN) 23-110, Volume 2, Part 2. The Fuels Service Center is responsible for managing and tracking fuel usage, inventory, and accounting for the Air Force. They ensure that proper procedures are followed for fuel storage, distribution, and accounting to support Air Force operations effectively.

Submit
172. When you are submitting an 1884 inventory report, the report should reflect product quantities as of

Explanation

The correct answer is ".0800 local each Friday." This means that the inventory report should reflect product quantities as of 0800 local time every Friday. This ensures consistency and accuracy in the reporting process, as it specifies a specific time and day for the inventory count. Using local time is important because it aligns with the local business operations and avoids any confusion that might arise from using different time zones.

Submit
173. Which of the following agencies can initiate a Reporting Emergency Petroleum, Oils and Lubricants (REPOL)?

Explanation

The Joint Staff is the correct agency that can initiate a Reporting Emergency Petroleum, Oils and Lubricants (REPOL). The Joint Staff is responsible for coordinating military operations and providing advice and support to the Chairman of the Joint Chiefs of Staff. They have the authority to initiate REPOL, which involves reporting and managing emergency petroleum, oils, and lubricants in military operations. The other options, DESC, AFPET, and MAJCOM, do not have the same level of authority or responsibility in initiating REPOL.

Submit
174. When maintaining Defense Energy Support Center (DESC) files, upon successful completion of end-of year closeout actions, how long should you retain the twelve monthly electronic backup disks as the fiscal year backup?

Explanation

Upon successful completion of end-of-year closeout actions, the Defense Energy Support Center (DESC) should retain the twelve monthly electronic backup disks as the fiscal year backup for 6 years and 3 months. This duration ensures that the backup files are available for reference and retrieval in case of any audit or legal requirements.

Submit
175. Who is responsible for establishing a fuels mobility support element at locations storing or using mobility support equipment?

Explanation

The Fuels management team is responsible for establishing a fuels mobility support element at locations storing or using mobility support equipment. This team is specifically tasked with managing and coordinating all aspects of fuel operations, including the establishment of support elements to ensure smooth and efficient fuel mobility. They oversee the planning, organization, and execution of fuel operations, and are responsible for ensuring that all necessary equipment and resources are available at the locations where fuel is stored or used.

Submit
176. At what flow rate does adjustable pilot valve on the R–14 limit high flow?

Explanation

The adjustable pilot valve on the R-14 limits high flow at a rate of 600 gpm. This means that when the flow rate reaches or exceeds 600 gpm, the pilot valve will activate and restrict the flow to prevent it from going any higher.

Submit
177. What is the total flow rate of the ABFDS?

Explanation

The total flow rate of the ABFDS is 600 gpm.

Submit
178. How many feet of connecting hose does the ABFDS contain?

Explanation

The ABFDS contains 186 feet of connecting hose.

Submit
179. The R–22 trailer mounted transfer pump has the capability of transferring a maximum of how many gals. of fuel per day?

Explanation

The R-22 trailer mounted transfer pump has the capability of transferring a maximum of 500,000 gallons of fuel per day.

Submit
180. What term is used to describe the total pressure acting as a gas?

Explanation

Absolute pressure is the term used to describe the total pressure acting as a gas. It is the sum of the atmospheric pressure and the gauge pressure, which measures the pressure above or below atmospheric pressure. Absolute pressure is important in many applications, such as in engineering and physics, where precise measurements of pressure are required. It is typically measured in units such as pascals or pounds per square inch (psi).

Submit
181. What item protects fuel dispensing system electrical components against overload?

Explanation

Automatic reset-type circuit breakers protect fuel dispensing system electrical components against overload. These circuit breakers automatically trip and disconnect the circuit when the current exceeds a certain limit, preventing damage to the electrical components. Once the overload is removed, the circuit breakers reset themselves and restore power to the system. This feature ensures the continuous and safe operation of the fuel dispensing system by preventing electrical components from overheating or getting damaged due to excessive current flow.

Submit
182. Initial tool listings for individual tool kits (ITK) and composite tool kits (CTK) include all of the following except

Explanation

The initial tool listings for individual tool kits (ITK) and composite tool kits (CTK) include the nomenclature, quantity authorized, and tool national stock number (NSN). However, the quantity on hand is not included in the initial tool listings. This means that the listings provide information about the tools that are authorized and their NSN, but do not indicate the actual quantity of each tool that is currently available.

Submit
183. What type of publication is issued when a commercial manufacturer discovers dangerous or unsafe conditions with a product?

Explanation

A manufacturer's recall is issued when a commercial manufacturer discovers dangerous or unsafe conditions with a product. This is done to alert consumers and request them to return the product for repair or replacement. A manufacturer's recall is a formal announcement made by the manufacturer to ensure the safety of the consumers and to address any potential risks associated with the product. It is an important measure taken by the manufacturer to rectify any issues and prevent harm to the users of the product.

Submit
184. When posting changes and supplements to publications, within what maximum number of days of receipt should you file technical order (TO) changes and supplements?

Explanation

You should file technical order (TO) changes and supplements within 5 days of receipt. This ensures that any necessary updates or modifications are implemented in a timely manner, minimizing the risk of outdated or incorrect information being used. Filing the changes and supplements promptly also helps to maintain the accuracy and effectiveness of the publications.

Submit
185. A magnet that is magnetized by induction from an external source is called

Explanation

A magnet that is magnetized by induction from an external source is called an artificial magnet. This is because it is not naturally occurring and requires an external source to magnetize it. Natural magnets, on the other hand, are found in nature and do not require any external source for magnetization. Electromagnets are magnets that are created by passing an electric current through a coil of wire, while electromechanical magnets combine the principles of both electricity and mechanics to generate a magnetic field. However, in this scenario, the magnet is magnetized by induction, making it an artificial magnet.

Submit
186. What are the two most common methods of producing voltage?

Explanation

The correct answer is chemical and mechanical. Chemical methods, such as batteries, generate voltage through chemical reactions. Mechanical methods, such as generators, produce voltage through the conversion of mechanical energy into electrical energy. Both of these methods are commonly used to produce voltage in various applications.

Submit
187. What is the rated capacity of the pumps on the type IV pressurized hot refueling system?

Explanation

The rated capacity of the pumps on the type IV pressurized hot refueling system is 600 gpm.

Submit
188. Providing supply and equipment budget forecasts through the fuels management team (FMT) to the squadron commander is the responsibility of the

Explanation

The Fuels Material Control Supervisor is responsible for providing supply and equipment budget forecasts through the Fuels Management Team (FMT) to the squadron commander. They are in charge of managing and controlling the inventory of fuels and ensuring that the necessary supplies and equipment are available for operations. This role requires expertise in fuel management and budgeting, making the Fuels Material Control Supervisor the most suitable choice for this responsibility.

Submit
189. Maintaining a current listing of all personnel with special experience identifiers (SEI) is the responsibility of the

Explanation

The fuels mobility supervisor is responsible for maintaining a current listing of all personnel with special experience identifiers (SEI). This role involves tracking and updating the SEI information of personnel within the organization. The fuels mobility supervisor is specifically tasked with overseeing the movement and deployment of fuels personnel, making them the most appropriate person to be responsible for maintaining the SEI listing.

Submit
190. The fuels training supervisor should review all training records

Explanation

The fuels training supervisor should review all training records semiannually to ensure that employees are receiving the necessary training and to identify any gaps or areas for improvement. Reviewing the records on a regular basis allows the supervisor to stay updated on the training progress and address any issues in a timely manner. By reviewing the records semiannually, the supervisor can maintain a balance between staying informed and not overwhelming themselves with too frequent reviews.

Submit
191. What is the primary purpose of the R–14 ATHRS?

Explanation

The primary purpose of the R-14 ATHRS is to service aircraft where permanent systems are not available. This suggests that the R-14 ATHRS is a portable or temporary system that can be used to provide necessary services to aircraft when permanent infrastructure is not in place. This could include fueling the aircraft, performing maintenance tasks, or providing other necessary services. It is designed to be a flexible and portable solution for aircraft servicing in situations where permanent systems are not accessible.

Submit
192. What grade of fuel should be used to flush the R–14 prior to air shipment?

Explanation

JP-5 fuel should be used to flush the R-14 prior to air shipment. This is because JP-5 is a high flashpoint fuel that is commonly used in military aircraft. It has a lower volatility compared to JP-4 and JPTS, making it safer for transportation. JP-8 is also a suitable option, but JP-5 is specifically mentioned as the correct answer.

Submit
193. Urgent action time compliance technical orders (TCTO) require compliance within what maximum amount of days?

Explanation

Urgent action time compliance technical orders (TCTO) are directives that require immediate action to address a critical issue. These orders are time-sensitive and must be followed within a specific timeframe to ensure safety and prevent any potential risks. In this case, the correct answer is 10 days, indicating that compliance with the TCTO must be completed within this maximum amount of time.

Submit
194. How many differential pressure transmitters (DPT) are installed on the issue line of a type III hydrant system that has a refueling capability of more than 2,400 gallons per minutes (gpm)?

Explanation

Based on the information provided, the correct answer is 4. The question asks about the number of differential pressure transmitters (DPT) installed on the issue line of a type III hydrant system with a refueling capability of over 2,400 gallons per minute. The answer of 4 implies that there are four DPTs installed on the issue line to monitor and measure the differential pressure.

Submit
195. When maintaining Defense Energy Support Center (DESC) files, at a minimum, the defense fuel supply point (DFSP) inventory transaction documents and official records you store locally should consist of the current fiscal year documents plus documents from how many previous fiscal years?

Explanation

When maintaining Defense Energy Support Center (DESC) files, it is necessary to store the current fiscal year documents plus documents from the previous two fiscal years. This ensures that there is a record of inventory transaction documents and official records for a total of three fiscal years. Storing documents from more previous fiscal years may not be required or necessary for the DESC files.

Submit
196. What size graduated cylinder is used to perform the American Petroleum Institute (API) gravity test?

Explanation

The American Petroleum Institute (API) gravity test is a method used to measure the density or specific gravity of crude oil and petroleum products. It is typically performed using a 1,000 ml graduated cylinder. This size is chosen because it allows for accurate measurements of the volume of the liquid being tested, ensuring reliable results for the API gravity calculation. A larger or smaller cylinder may not provide the necessary precision for this test.

Submit
197. What maximum ramp angle can the R–14 negotiate in the high mobility position?

Explanation

The R-14 can negotiate a maximum ramp angle of 20° in the high mobility position. This means that the vehicle is capable of climbing slopes or ramps with an incline of up to 20° without losing stability or traction. This high mobility position allows the R-14 to navigate challenging terrains and obstacles, making it suitable for off-road or rugged environments.

Submit
198. When setting up the R–22, prime the centrifugal pump with approximately how many gallons of fuel?

Explanation

When setting up the R-22, it is necessary to prime the centrifugal pump with approximately 10 gallons of fuel.

Submit
199. When selecting a fuel site, what factor will drive span of control decisions?

Explanation

Force protection is the factor that will drive span of control decisions when selecting a fuel site. Force protection refers to measures taken to safeguard personnel, equipment, and resources from hostile actions or potential threats. In the context of selecting a fuel site, force protection considerations would involve assessing the level of security and protection that can be provided at a particular site to ensure the safety of personnel and assets. This factor would influence the decision-making process and determine the span of control required to effectively manage and protect the fuel site.

Submit
200. All of the following are important considerations when planning for cryogenics support except

Explanation

When planning for cryogenics support, it is important to consider various factors such as required tankage, product requirements, and sufficient product availability. These factors help ensure that the necessary equipment and resources are in place to support the cryogenic operations effectively. However, the resupply method is not directly related to the planning process as it pertains to the logistics of obtaining additional cryogenic products when needed.

Submit
View My Results

Quiz Review Timeline (Updated): Mar 18, 2023 +

Our quizzes are rigorously reviewed, monitored and continuously updated by our expert board to maintain accuracy, relevance, and timeliness.

  • Current Version
  • Mar 18, 2023
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • Dec 29, 2012
    Quiz Created by
    Brandon_tate_198
Cancel
  • All
    All (200)
  • Unanswered
    Unanswered ()
  • Answered
    Answered ()
When posting changes to publications, when, if ever, are "List of...
When investigating fuel gains and losses, you determine an excessive...
If your base has experienced cold weather problems or anticipates cold...
On what grades of fuel can the R–22 be designed to operate?...
What is the lifting force of a liquid called?
The uniform movement of electrons in a specific direction is called
What term is used to define the process that takes place when water...
What action, if any, should be taken if a commercial delivery operator...
When configuring the automated data collection (ADC) system, what...
What agency serves as the link between the Defense Energy Support...
At no time will money that is collected for cash sales of aviation...
How long should the fuel and water mixture in the separatory funnel be...
Hearing protection is required within how many feet of an R–14...
Which best describes immiscible liquids?
Which type of measurement may be used to express pressure?
According to the electron theory, atoms are composed of
Which shell of the valence electrons determines whether a material is...
When personnel are servicing aircraft with the type IV hydrant system,...
How often should hot refueling personnel undergo certification for hot...
During multiple source refueling, what action, if any, should be taken...
Where is the correct place to take the reading for the American...
With what type of fuel is the flow reducer ring not used when you are...
What is the maximum amount of time that can pass between the time a...
What form should be completed for awarding skill levels when all...
All of the following conditions require replacement of filter elements...
What is the simplest and most expedient method of fuel resupply?
Which of the following may direct shipment of a vehicle with less than...
On the type IV hydrant system, how is fuel prevented from spilling...
When documenting a cryogenic product receipt on the Air Force Form...
What environmental regulation establishes "cradle to grave" control of...
When you are performing fuels controller duties, how often should you...
When encoding a vehicle identification link (VIL) key for a rental...
Who is responsible for administering the Caution Tag program?
On which grades of fuel can the engine on the R–14 ATHRS...
The ABFDS can carry what maximum number of gals. per sortie?
The standard measure for atmospheric pressure is equal to how many...
Which statement best describes a positive ion?
What filter separator component prevents pressure surges from damaging...
What type of lubricant is used to lubricate the power takeoff (PTO) on...
What symbol should you enter on the Air Force Technical Order (AFTO)...
Who may approve deviations from hot refueling policies when combat or...
How often should dikes be checked for deterioration?
When determining authorizations for cash sales, you know that cash...
When encoding vehicle identification link (VIL) keys, how long should...
How often should a liquid oxygen (LOX) generating plant be tested for...
At least how many days before the due date must flight physicals and...
All of the following items should be accomplished prior to shipping...
Which of the following steps is not accomplished when preparing the...
Each R–20 multi-aircraft servicing platform is equipped with how...
When do the magnetic lines of force in a magnet cross?
What causes the automatic bypass valve on the type III hydrant system...
When performing a semiannual inspection of fillstand bonding...
When preparing to issue liquid nitrogen (LIN), what action, if any,...
Concurrent servicing operations supporting sortie generation...
Who is responsible for reviewing aircraft flying schedules and...
How often should the Aqua Glo water detector be calibrated?
During bottom loading operations, what occurs when the signal to the...
When should Bourdon gauges be calibrated?
All of the following conditions would prevent a remote terminal...
At a minimum, how often should underground storage tanks be monitored...
When determining authorizations for sales to non-DOD aircraft, you...
Who is responsible for enforcing radio transmission discipline over...
How often should cryotainers be sampled for purity, odor and minor...
How often should government purchase card (GPC) cardholders reconcile...
To aid in priming, the PMU–27M is equipped with a priming
Fuels personnel identify the tank vent valve by using a locally...
How do the charges of protons and electrons differ?
What type of meter is used on most fuel dispensing systems?
What happens if the tank outlet manual valve on the type III hydrant...
When performing a monthly inspection on emergency switches, check to...
When documenting a cryogenic product issue to a liquid oxygen (LOX)...
When you are generating queries in Business Systems...
When making a cash sale, what others forms of currency besides United...
When investigating fuel gains and losses, you know that variances in...
When performing fuels controller duties, in the event of an emergency,...
To obtain meaningful results with the bottle method test, the vacuum...
How often are the printed standards for the Aeronautical Engine...
What is the preferable time after obtaining a sample to take a...
Personnel attending Aerial Bulk Fuel Delivery System (ABFDS) or...
How often should all fuels personnel complete task qualification...
What type of meter, if any, is installed on the TPI–4T–4A...
When, if ever, is it necessary to prime the PMU–27M?
What size sealing clamp should be used to repair a 5 in. hole in a...
What are the two positions of the throttle switch located on the...
A temporary movement of a MRSP kit from home station to another...
What cleaning agent should be used to clean the probe on the...
What determines the intensity of the excess pressure in a water-hammer...
Which temperature scale is commonly used for scientific measurements?
What is the unit of measurement for electrical power?
A 3-horsepower motor consumes how much power?
What type of current flow is the result of voltages produced by...
What may a filter separator differential pressure reading below 3...
How many tanks are used with the type IV hydrant system, and what is...
Who must establish procedures for the collection, safekeeping, and...
When entering an order into the Paperless Ordering and Receipt...
What temperature is used to dry filters prior to performing the bottle...
When performing offload operations with the FORCE system, the deadman...
Which unit of measurement would indicate velocity of flow?
Which physical factor affects the behavior of liquids in both rest and...
Two or more atoms combined is called a
Which is not a type of positive displacement pump?
What size mesh screen is used in the type III hydrant system receiving...
What major command (MAJCOM) developed the type IV pressurized hot...
When performing a hydrant flushing operation, ensure enough fuel...
When preparing to issue liquid oxygen (LOX), what action, if any,...
Who should you notify if, while performing fuels expediter duties, you...
What agency should the fuels management team (FMT) consult with on all...
When you are reconciling accounts, what is the allowable tolerance for...
The amount of bulk petroleum war reserve requirement (BPWRR) a defense...
The FFU–15E filter separator is equipped with how many filter...
When performing fuel servicing operations with the R–18 pumping...
Accountability for a transferred MRSP kit temporary rests with the
What pressure should the surge suppressor gauge on the R–20...
What type(s) of current flow cannot be transformed from a higher...
How often should a filter separator vessel be cleaned?
When documenting a cryogenic product issue to a liquid oxygen (LOX)...
The Tank Group window in FuelsManager allows operators to create...
The Inventory Management Plan (IMP) is published
During a flash point test, apply the flame to the vapor cup for
If an active duty airman cannot complete a core task due to...
What type of fabric are fuel bladders made of?
With which of the following alternate fuels should special precautions...
How often should a water slug valve test be performed on the Fuel...
When should a refractometer used for fuel system icing inhibitor...
What is a major difference between a gas and a liquid?
Which hose is exempt from annual hydrostatic hose testing...
On the type V hydrant system, what size are the stainless steel...
Which condition would require you to clean a cryotainer filter?
During concurrent servicing of cargo or passenger aircraft, deplaning...
When preparing the R–20 filter separator unit for shipment,...
What type of material is used to construct the fuel tank on the...
What type of time compliance technical order (TCTO) is issued for...
What happens when the type III hydrant system product recovery tank is...
When documenting a significant maintenance action on an Air Force...
What maximum number of base stations may be configured to operate with...
Who may authorize bases to use computer products in lieu of AF Forms...
Who is responsible for establishing minimum essential levels (MEL) for...
When performing fuel servicing operations with the R–20...
What effect of current causes an electric motor to produce mechanical...
What are the three things needed to produce voltage by the principle...
When performing meter calibrations, what is the acceptable difference...
When, if ever, is a particulate test on a liquid oxygen (LOX) cart...
Which Air Force Petroleum Agency (AFPET) division performs contracting...
When should Defense Energy Support Center (DESC) receive the...
How often should correlation samples be submitted to the area...
When testing for fiber particles after an element change, how much...
When entering sample information in Business Systems...
Fuel bladders can withstand temperatures from
What does a steady red light on the battery status LED of the...
How many fillstand assemblies are included in the FORCE system?
When selecting a site for bladder operations, the site should have...
What form is used to annotate fuel bladder inspections?
What component found on R–11s and R–12s prevents the...
What type of inspection is performed to determine the condition of a...
On the type III hydrant system, where is the ball float assembly for...
How is the fueling control valve opened to perform hot refueling...
Since manning is not required for the type V hydrant system, how often...
On the type V hydrant system, the deadman control valve is operated
When preparing to perform an annual inspection, review all of the...
Which aircraft does not require a hot brake check before entering the...
When you are maintaining and updating statuses in Business Systems...
When you are inputting a transaction in the Business Systems...
Which recoverable and waste (R&W) petroleum product category...
How much fuel is passed through the test pad to obtain an Aeronautical...
What is the normal range of use limits for fuel system icing inhibitor...
The PMU–27M may be connected to what maximum number of 500-gal....
What component on the R–18 pumping unit will illuminate to...
What is the first factor that the senior ranking deployed fuels member...
On the type III hydrant system, which function of the filter separator...
When conducting internal inspections, within what maximum number of...
17. (205) Who is responsible for maintaining the fuels account as...
When you are submitting an 1884 inventory report, the report should...
Which of the following agencies can initiate a Reporting Emergency...
When maintaining Defense Energy Support Center (DESC) files, upon...
Who is responsible for establishing a fuels mobility support element...
At what flow rate does adjustable pilot valve on the R–14 limit...
What is the total flow rate of the ABFDS?
How many feet of connecting hose does the ABFDS contain?
The R–22 trailer mounted transfer pump has the capability of...
What term is used to describe the total pressure acting as a gas?
What item protects fuel dispensing system electrical components...
Initial tool listings for individual tool kits (ITK) and composite...
What type of publication is issued when a commercial manufacturer...
When posting changes and supplements to publications, within what...
A magnet that is magnetized by induction from an external source is...
What are the two most common methods of producing voltage?
What is the rated capacity of the pumps on the type IV pressurized hot...
Providing supply and equipment budget forecasts through the fuels...
Maintaining a current listing of all personnel with special experience...
The fuels training supervisor should review all training records
What is the primary purpose of the R–14 ATHRS?
What grade of fuel should be used to flush the R–14 prior to air...
Urgent action time compliance technical orders (TCTO) require...
How many differential pressure transmitters (DPT) are installed on the...
When maintaining Defense Energy Support Center (DESC) files, at a...
What size graduated cylinder is used to perform the American Petroleum...
What maximum ramp angle can the R–14 negotiate in the high...
When setting up the R–22, prime the centrifugal pump with...
When selecting a fuel site, what factor will drive span of control...
All of the following are important considerations when planning for...
Alert!

Advertisement