2F071 CDC Review Exam Style

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1/249 Questions

What is the lifting force of a liquid called?
- Laminar.
- Interface.
- Buoyance.
- Dynamic pressure.

About This Quiz

The 2F071 CDC Review Exam Style quiz assesses knowledge essential for Air Force technical operations. It covers procedures for handling equipment, calibration, fuel resupply, and technical order management, crucial for operational efficiency and safety in military environments.

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2.

The uniform movement of electrons in a specific direction is called
- Electrical potential.
- Free electrons.
- Electric current.
- Ionization.
Correct Answer

A. Electric current.

Explanation

The uniform movement of electrons in a specific direction is called electric current. When there is a flow of electrons in a conductor, it creates a continuous flow of charge, which we refer to as electric current. This movement of electrons is responsible for the transfer of energy and is essential for the functioning of electrical devices.

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3.

What term is used to define the process that takes place when water forms into droplets after passing through filter elements?
- Separation.
- Integration.
- Coalescing.
- Commingling.
Correct Answer

A. Coalescing.

Explanation

Coalescing is the term used to define the process of water forming into droplets after passing through filter elements. Coalescing refers to the merging or combining of smaller droplets into larger ones. In the context of filtration, coalescing is an important process as it helps to separate and remove contaminants from the water, allowing for cleaner and purer water to be obtained.

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4.

When posting changes to publications, when, if ever, are “List of Effective Pages” checks mandatory?
- Never.
- As directed by MAJCOM.
- At the discretion of the TO manager.
- When changes and revisions are posted to paper TOs are posted.
Correct Answer

A. When changes and revisions are posted to paper TOs are posted.
5.

When investigating fuel gains and losses, you determine an excessive variance was caused by a pipeline rupture. This variance should fall into what category?
- Major disaster.
- Combat losses.
- Peacetime losses.
- Determinable losses.
Correct Answer

A. Peacetime losses.

Explanation

The excessive variance caused by a pipeline rupture would fall into the category of "Peacetime losses." This is because the incident occurred during a time of peace and not during a major disaster or combat situation. Determinable losses refer to losses that can be identified and accounted for, but in this case, the cause of the variance is already known - the pipeline rupture.

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6.

If your base has experienced cold weather problems or anticipates cold weather problems, you should perform a cloud point test on all DF–2 that is received during
- January through April.
- October through December.
- October through March.
- November through January.
Correct Answer

A. October through March.

Explanation

The correct answer is October through March. This is because the question states that if the base has experienced or anticipates cold weather problems, a cloud point test should be performed on all DF-2 received during a specific time period. The time period mentioned is October through March, which encompasses the winter months when cold weather problems are more likely to occur. Therefore, performing a cloud point test during this time period would help identify any potential issues with the DF-2 fuel.

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7.

On what grades of fuel can the R–22 be designed to operate? a. . b. . c. . d. .
- MOGAS
- MOGAS and jet fuel
- Diesel fuel
- Diesel fuel and jet fuel
Correct Answer

A. Diesel fuel and jet fuel

Explanation

The R-22 can be designed to operate on diesel fuel and jet fuel. This means that it is compatible with both types of fuel and can function using either one.

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8.

Which best describes immiscible liquids?
- They mix well together.
- One liquid will float on the other.
- They will become an intrained solution.
- They will repel each other and react violently.
Correct Answer

A. One liquid will float on the other.

Explanation

Immiscible liquids are liquids that do not mix together and form separate layers when combined. One liquid will float on top of the other because they have different densities and do not form a homogeneous mixture. This is the best description of immiscible liquids.

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9.

Which type of measurement may be used to express pressure?
- Kilograms.
- Pounds.
- Tons.
- Pounds per square inch.
Correct Answer

A. Pounds per square inch.

Explanation

Pounds per square inch (psi) is a unit of measurement commonly used to express pressure. Pressure is defined as the force applied per unit area, and psi represents the amount of force exerted on one square inch of area. Kilograms, pounds, and tons are units of weight, not pressure. Therefore, psi is the correct answer as it specifically measures pressure.

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10.

According to the electron theory, atoms are composed of
- Protons, neutrons, and electrons.
- Neutrons, elements, and protons.
- Electrons, molecules, and elements.
- Electrons, neutrons, and matter.
Correct Answer

A. Protons, neutrons, and electrons.

Explanation

The electron theory states that atoms are composed of protons, neutrons, and electrons. Protons are positively charged particles found in the nucleus of an atom, neutrons are neutral particles also found in the nucleus, and electrons are negatively charged particles that orbit around the nucleus. This theory provides a basic understanding of the fundamental particles that make up an atom.

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11.

Which shell of the valence electrons determines whether a material is a good or a poor conductor of electricity?
- The outermost shell.
- The middle shell.
- The second shell.
- The first shell.
Correct Answer

A. The outermost shell.

Explanation

The outermost shell of valence electrons determines whether a material is a good or a poor conductor of electricity because it is responsible for the material's chemical properties and its ability to form bonds with other atoms. The outermost shell is also involved in the flow of electrons, which is essential for conducting electricity. Therefore, the number and arrangement of electrons in the outermost shell greatly influence the material's conductivity.

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12.

What action, if any, should be taken if a commercial delivery operator does not provide a Department of Defense (DD) Form 250 with a liquid oxygen (LOX) shipment?
- No action is required.
- Notify the FMT and obtain an odor sample.
- Contact AFPET for disposition instructions.
- Inform the FSC and await further guidance.
Correct Answer

A. Inform the FSC and await further guidance.

Explanation

If a commercial delivery operator does not provide a Department of Defense (DD) Form 250 with a liquid oxygen (LOX) shipment, the correct action to take is to inform the FSC (Fuel Support Center) and await further guidance. This is because the DD Form 250 is a required document for tracking and verifying shipments, and its absence could indicate a potential issue or error in the delivery process. By informing the FSC, the appropriate authorities can be notified and necessary steps can be taken to address the situation and provide guidance on how to proceed.

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13.

When configuring the automated data collection (ADC) system, what maximum number of dial retries can you configure the user interface terminal’s (UIT) to attempt?
- 30.
- 49.
- 60.
- 99.
Correct Answer

A. 99.

Explanation

The automated data collection (ADC) system allows the user interface terminal (UIT) to attempt a maximum number of dial retries when configuring. Among the given options, the highest number of retries that can be configured is 99.

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14.

What agency serves as the link between the Defense Energy Support Center (DESC) and its customers?
- BFMO.
- AFPET.
- HQ USAF.
- DESC regions.
Correct Answer

A. DESC regions.

Explanation

DESC regions serve as the link between the Defense Energy Support Center (DESC) and its customers. The DESC regions act as intermediaries, facilitating communication and coordination between DESC and its customers. They ensure that the energy needs of the customers are met efficiently and effectively. This link is crucial for the smooth functioning of DESC and the provision of energy support to the defense sector.

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15.

At no time will money that is collected for cash sales of aviation products be safeguarded by
- FSC personnel.
- Shift supervisors.
- Off-duty personnel.
- Operations expeditors.
Correct Answer

A. Off-duty personnel.

Explanation

Off-duty personnel refers to employees who are not currently working or on duty. Since they are not actively working, it would not be their responsibility to safeguard the money collected for cash sales of aviation products. Therefore, off-duty personnel should not be entrusted with this task.

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16.

How long should the fuel and water mixture in the separatory funnel be shaken when performing a fuel system icing inhibitor (FSII) test?
- Until you get a good separation.
- 1 minute.
- 3 minute.
- 5 minute.
Correct Answer

A. 5 minute.

Explanation

The fuel and water mixture in the separatory funnel should be shaken for 5 minutes when performing a fuel system icing inhibitor (FSII) test. This duration ensures a thorough mixing of the fuel and water, allowing any potential separation to be observed accurately. Shaking for a longer period of time helps to ensure that the test results are reliable and consistent.

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17.

Hearing protection is required within how many feet of an R–14 operation?
- 10 ft
- 20 ft
- 50 ft
- 100 ft
Correct Answer

A. 50 ft

Explanation

Hearing protection is required within 50 feet of an R-14 operation. This suggests that the noise level produced by an R-14 operation is high enough to potentially cause damage to a person's hearing within a 50-foot radius. Therefore, to prevent any harm to individuals in the vicinity, it is necessary to wear hearing protection within this distance.

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18.

What is the simplest and most expedient method of fuel resupply?
- ABFDS
- Ocean tanker
- Aircraft systems
- The same source of supply used by the host airfield
Correct Answer

A. The same source of supply used by the host airfield

Explanation

The simplest and most expedient method of fuel resupply is using the same source of supply used by the host airfield. This means that instead of relying on additional resources such as ABFDS (Advanced Bulk Fuel Delivery System), ocean tankers, or aircraft systems, the fuel can be obtained directly from the existing supply at the airfield. This method is likely to be the easiest and quickest way to refuel, as it eliminates the need for additional transportation or transfer of fuel.

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19.

When personnel are servicing aircraft with the type IV hydrant system, who is responsible for positioning the aircraft on the hot pad?
- Fuels operator.
- Fuels operations supervisor.
- Hot refueling crewman
- Hot refueling supervisor
Correct Answer

A. Hot refueling supervisor

Explanation

The hot refueling supervisor is responsible for positioning the aircraft on the hot pad when personnel are servicing aircraft with the type IV hydrant system. This role is specifically assigned to the supervisor, who oversees the hot refueling process and ensures that all safety protocols are followed.

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20.

How often should hot refueling personnel undergo certification for hot refueling operations?
- Monthly.
- Quarterly.
- Semiannually.
- Annually.
Correct Answer

A. Annually.

Explanation

Hot refueling personnel should undergo certification for hot refueling operations annually. This means that they need to renew their certification once every year. This ensures that they stay up-to-date with the latest safety protocols and procedures related to hot refueling operations. Regular certification helps to maintain the competency and proficiency of the personnel, ensuring that they can perform their duties safely and efficiently.

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21.

During multiple source refueling, what action, if any, should be taken if backflow is detected?
- No action is required.
- Increase engine RPMs.
- Decrease the engine RPMs.
- Stop the operation immediately.
Correct Answer

A. Stop the operation immediately.

Explanation

If backflow is detected during multiple source refueling, it is important to stop the operation immediately. Backflow can occur when fuel is being transferred from one source to another and it starts flowing back into the original source. This can be dangerous as it can lead to fuel spillage, contamination, or even fire. Stopping the operation immediately helps prevent any further backflow and ensures the safety of the refueling process.

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22.

Where is the correct place to take the reading for the American Petroleum Institute (API) gravity test?
- Horizontal plane surface of the liquid.
- Bottom of the hydrometer.
- Top of the hydrometer.
- Top of the cylinder.
Correct Answer

A. Horizontal plane surface of the liquid.

Explanation

The correct place to take the reading for the American Petroleum Institute (API) gravity test is the horizontal plane surface of the liquid. This is because the API gravity test measures the density or specific gravity of petroleum liquids, and taking the reading at the horizontal plane surface ensures an accurate measurement of the liquid's density.

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23.

With what type of fuel is the flow reducer ring not used when you are performing the bottle method test?
- JP–8.
- JP–7.
- JP–5.
- JP–4.
Correct Answer

A. JP–5.

Explanation

The flow reducer ring is not used with JP-5 fuel when performing the bottle method test.

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24.

What is the maximum amount of time that can pass between the time a sample is obtained and the time a conductivity reading is taken?
- 1 hour.
- 6 hour.
- 12 hour.
- 24 hour.
Correct Answer

A. 24 hour.

Explanation

The maximum amount of time that can pass between the time a sample is obtained and the time a conductivity reading is taken is 24 hours. This is because conductivity readings are influenced by various factors such as temperature and contamination, and these factors can change over time. Therefore, it is recommended to take conductivity readings as soon as possible after obtaining the sample to ensure accurate results.

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25.

What form should be completed for awarding skill levels when all upgrade training (UGT) requirements have been met?
- AF Form 623
- AF Form 797
- AF Form 1098
- AF Form 2096
Correct Answer

A. AF Form 2096

Explanation

The correct form that should be completed for awarding skill levels when all upgrade training (UGT) requirements have been met is AF Form 2096.

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26.

All of the following conditions require replacement of filter elements on the R–19 filter separator unit except
- A reading of 16 pounds per square inch, differential (psid) on the differential pressure (DP) gauge
- A reading of 22 psid on the DP gauge
- Elements that have been in use for 36 months
- Filter separator vessel performance is questionable
Correct Answer

A. A reading of 16 pounds per square inch, differential (psid) on the differential pressure (DP) gauge

Explanation

The correct answer is a reading of 16 pounds per square inch, differential (psid) on the differential pressure (DP) gauge. This is because a reading of 16 psid on the DP gauge does not indicate a need for replacement of filter elements. The other conditions mentioned - a reading of 22 psid on the DP gauge, elements that have been in use for 36 months, and questionable filter separator vessel performance - all indicate a need for replacement of filter elements.

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27.

The standard measure for atmospheric pressure is equal to how many pounds per square inch?
- 13.1 psi.
- 14.7 psi.
- 15.2 psi.
- 17.9 psi.
Correct Answer

A. 14.7 psi.

Explanation

The standard measure for atmospheric pressure is equal to 14.7 pounds per square inch (psi). Atmospheric pressure refers to the force exerted by the weight of the air in the Earth's atmosphere. This measurement is commonly used in various fields such as meteorology, aviation, and scuba diving to understand and predict weather patterns, calculate aircraft performance, and determine diving depths, respectively.

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28.

Which statement best describes a positive ion?
- An atom that lost a proton and has more electrons.
- An atom that lost an electron and has more protons.
- An atom that has an equal number of electrons and protons.
- An atom that cannot throw off any protons.
Correct Answer

A. An atom that lost an electron and has more protons.

Explanation

A positive ion is formed when an atom loses one or more electrons. This results in an imbalance between the number of protons and electrons, with the atom having more protons than electrons. Therefore, the statement "An atom that lost an electron and has more protons" best describes a positive ion.

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29.

What filter separator component prevents pressure surges from damaging dispensing pressure control systems?
- Air eliminator.
- Water slug valve.
- Float control valve.
- Mainline control valve.
Correct Answer

A. Air eliminator.

Explanation

An air eliminator is a filter separator component that prevents pressure surges from damaging dispensing pressure control systems. It removes air bubbles or pockets from the system, ensuring a consistent and stable pressure. This helps to prevent any sudden increases or decreases in pressure that could potentially damage the system.

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30.

Which of the following may direct shipment of a vehicle with less than 50 percent life expectancy to satisfy mission requirements?
- LRS commander.
- Wing commander.
- MAJCOM.
- HQ USAF.
Correct Answer

A. MAJCOM.

Explanation

MAJCOM stands for Major Command, which is a level of command in the United States Air Force. The MAJCOM has the authority to direct the shipment of a vehicle with less than 50 percent life expectancy to satisfy mission requirements. The LRS commander, Wing commander, and HQ USAF do not have the same level of authority as the MAJCOM in making such decisions.

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31.

On the type IV hydrant system, how is fuel prevented from spilling onto the hot pad if a hose separates from the nozzle during a hot refueling operation?
- A dry break coupler inside the hose closes automatically.
- The flow switch senses a sudden surge in fuel flow, and shuts down the pumps.
- The pressure switch senses a sudden drop in pressure, and shuts down the pumps.
- The fusible link melts and falls out, causing the spring-loaded butterfly part of the valve to close.
Correct Answer

A. A dry break coupler inside the hose closes automatically.

Explanation

During a hot refueling operation, if a hose separates from the nozzle on a type IV hydrant system, a dry break coupler inside the hose closes automatically. This mechanism prevents fuel from spilling onto the hot pad. The dry break coupler is designed to quickly and securely disconnect the hose from the nozzle, sealing off the flow of fuel to prevent any leakage or spillage. This safety feature ensures that the fueling process is halted immediately, reducing the risk of fire or other hazards.

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32.

When documenting a cryogenic product receipt on the Air Force Form 1231, from which of the following documents is the contract number obtained?
- DD Form 250.
- DD Form 250–1.
- DD Form 1348.
- DD Form 1348–1.
Correct Answer

A. DD Form 250.

Explanation

The contract number for documenting a cryogenic product receipt on the Air Force Form 1231 is obtained from the DD Form 250.

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33.

What environmental regulation establishes “cradle to grave” control of hazardous substances?
- 40 Code of Federal Regulations (CFR) 280.
- Technical Order (TO) 42B–1–23.
- Department of Defense (DOD) Directive 4140.25M.
- Resource Conservation and Recovery Act (RCRA).
Correct Answer

A. Resource Conservation and Recovery Act (RCRA).

Explanation

The correct answer is the Resource Conservation and Recovery Act (RCRA). This environmental regulation establishes "cradle to grave" control of hazardous substances, meaning it regulates the entire lifecycle of these substances, from their creation ("cradle") to their disposal ("grave"). The RCRA sets standards for the management, treatment, storage, and disposal of hazardous waste to protect human health and the environment. It also requires proper labeling, record-keeping, and reporting for hazardous substances.

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34.

When you are performing fuels controller duties, how often should you reconcile with the Fuels Enterprise Server (FES) and clear rejects?
- Daily.
- Weekly.
- Monthly.
- Quarterly.
Correct Answer

A. Daily.

Explanation

When performing fuels controller duties, it is important to reconcile with the Fuels Enterprise Server (FES) and clear rejects on a daily basis. This ensures that any discrepancies or errors in the fuel data are identified and resolved promptly, maintaining the accuracy and integrity of the fuel records. Regular reconciliation and clearing of rejects also help in preventing any potential issues or delays in fuel management processes. Therefore, daily reconciliation is necessary to ensure efficient fuel control operations.

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35.

When encoding a vehicle identification link (VIL) key for a rental vehicle, what information should be entered in the vehicle identification field?
- The word “Rental”.
- The payment office DODAAC.
- The vehicle license plate number.
- The ORG code for the DFSP issuing the VIL key.
Correct Answer

A. The vehicle license plate number.

Explanation

The vehicle identification field should contain the vehicle license plate number when encoding a Vehicle Identification Link (VIL) key for a rental vehicle.

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36.

Who is responsible for administering the Caution Tag program?
- Environmental coordinator.
- NCOIC Fuels Laboratory.
- NCOIC Compliance.
- FSC personnel.
Correct Answer

A. NCOIC Fuels Laboratory.

Explanation

The NCOIC Fuels Laboratory is responsible for administering the Caution Tag program.

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37.

On which grades of fuel can the engine on the R–14 ATHRS operate?
- Jet fuel and gasoline
- Diesel fuel and jet fuel
- Diesel fuel and gasoline
- Diesel fuel, jet fuel, and gasoline
Correct Answer

A. Diesel fuel and jet fuel

Explanation

The engine on the R-14 ATHRS can operate on both diesel fuel and jet fuel. This means that it is designed to run on a combination of these two types of fuel, allowing for versatility in its use. It is not compatible with gasoline, as indicated by the exclusion of this option.

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38.

The ABFDS can carry what maximum number of gals. per sortie?
- 3,000 gal
- 6,000 gal
- 9,000 gal
- 30,000 gal
Correct Answer

A. 30,000 gal

Explanation

The ABFDS can carry a maximum of 30,000 gallons per sortie.

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39.

When do the magnetic lines of force in a magnet cross?
- When the north pole of a magnet is placed near the north pole of another magnet.
- When the south pole of a magnet is placed near the north pole of another magnet.
- When a permanent magnet and a temporary magnet are put together.
- Magnetic lines of force never cross each other.
Correct Answer

A. Magnetic lines of force never cross each other.

Explanation

Magnetic lines of force never cross each other because they represent the direction of the magnetic field. If the lines were to cross, it would mean that the magnetic field would have to have two different directions at the same point, which is not possible. The lines always follow a continuous path from the north pole to the south pole of a magnet, or from a magnet to a magnetic material.

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40.

What type of lubricant is used to lubricate the power takeoff (PTO) on a fuel dispensing system?
- Thirty-weight motor oil.
- Ninety-weight gear oil.
- Synthetic gear lube.
- Silicone grease.
Correct Answer

A. Ninety-weight gear oil.

Explanation

Ninety-weight gear oil is the correct answer for lubricating the power takeoff (PTO) on a fuel dispensing system. Gear oil is specifically designed to provide lubrication and protection for gears, and the higher weight of ninety ensures that it can handle the heavy load and high temperatures of the PTO. This type of lubricant is commonly used in automotive and industrial applications where heavy-duty gear lubrication is required.

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41.

What symbol should you enter on the Air Force Technical Order (AFTO) Form 244/245 if a routine inspection on a cryotainer goes overdue?
- Red X.
- Red dash.
- Red cross.
- Red diagonal.
Correct Answer

A. Red dash.

Explanation

If a routine inspection on a cryotainer goes overdue, the symbol that should be entered on the Air Force Technical Order (AFTO) Form 244/245 is a red dash. The red dash symbol indicates that the inspection was not completed within the specified timeframe. This helps to alert maintenance personnel that the cryotainer requires immediate attention and should be inspected as soon as possible.

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42.

Who may approve deviations from hot refueling policies when combat or emergency situations require the use of hot refueling?
- FMFC.
- HQ USAF/A4.
- MAJCOM commander.
- Air Force Petroleum Agency.
Correct Answer

A. MAJCOM commander.

Explanation

The MAJCOM commander may approve deviations from hot refueling policies when combat or emergency situations require the use of hot refueling. This individual has the authority and responsibility to make decisions regarding operational procedures, including deviations from standard policies, in order to ensure the safety and effectiveness of military operations.

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43.

How often should dikes be checked for deterioration?
- Daily.
- Weekly.
- Monthly.
- Quarterly.
Correct Answer

A. Weekly.

Explanation

Dikes should be checked for deterioration on a weekly basis to ensure their structural integrity and prevent any potential failures or breaches. Regular inspections allow for early detection of any signs of deterioration, such as cracks, erosion, or seepage, which can be promptly addressed and repaired. Weekly checks also help to maintain the overall stability and effectiveness of the dikes, reducing the risk of flooding and protecting the surrounding areas.

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44.

When determining authorizations for cash sales, you know that cash sales are only authorized when
- Products are not normally stocked.
- Military exchange facilities are available at the installation.
- Adequate commercial facilities are available within reasonable distance.
- Sales support by equipment and/or personnel do not interfere with military operations.
Correct Answer

A. Sales support by equipment and/or personnel do not interfere with military operations.

Explanation

The correct answer is "sales support by equipment and/or personnel do not interfere with military operations." This means that cash sales can only be authorized if the support provided by equipment and/or personnel does not disrupt or hinder military operations. In other words, the sales should not interfere with the functioning or effectiveness of the military in any way.

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45.

When encoding vehicle identification link (VIL) keys, how long should you maintain copies of a vehicle identification link (VIL) key requests in the defense fuel supply point (DSFP) document control file?
- 12 months.
- 24 months.
- 36 months.
- 48 months.
Correct Answer

A. 36 months.

Explanation

The correct answer is 36 months. This means that copies of vehicle identification link (VIL) key requests should be maintained in the defense fuel supply point (DSFP) document control file for a period of 36 months. This is likely to ensure that there is a record of the requests for a significant amount of time, allowing for future reference or auditing purposes.

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46.

How often should a liquid oxygen (LOX) generating plant be tested for odor and purity if a LOX production run will exceed 24 hours?
- Every 3 hours.
- Every 6 hours.
- Every 12 hours.
- Every 24 hours.
Correct Answer

A. Every 24 hours.

Explanation

The correct answer is Every 24 hours. In a liquid oxygen generating plant, it is important to test for odor and purity regularly to ensure the safety and quality of the produced liquid oxygen. However, since the production run exceeds 24 hours, testing every 3, 6, or 12 hours would be excessive and unnecessary. Testing every 24 hours strikes a balance between ensuring the oxygen is free from odor and impurities while also being practical and efficient for the production process.

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47.

At least how many days before the due date must flight physicals and physiological training for Forward Area Refueling Point (FARP) and Aerial Bulk Fuel Delivery System (ABFDS) trained personnel be scheduled?
- 14
- 30
- 45
- 60
Correct Answer

A. 45

Explanation

Flight physicals and physiological training for Forward Area Refueling Point (FARP) and Aerial Bulk Fuel Delivery System (ABFDS) trained personnel must be scheduled at least 45 days before the due date.

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48.

All of the following items should be accomplished prior to shipping the R–22 except
- Thoroughly clean the unit
- Drain all fuel from the piping
- Disconnect and drain all hose assemblies
- Place the unit in the low mobility position
Correct Answer

A. Place the unit in the low mobility position

Explanation

Prior to shipping the R-22, it is important to thoroughly clean the unit, drain all fuel from the piping, and disconnect and drain all hose assemblies. However, placing the unit in the low mobility position is not necessary before shipping it.

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49.

Which of the following steps is not accomplished when preparing the PMU–27M for air shipment?
- Disconnect all hose assemblies
- Drain all the fuel from the piping
- Remove the filter separator elements
- Install dust plugs and caps on all fittings and hoses
Correct Answer

A. Remove the filter separator elements

Explanation

When preparing the PMU-27M for air shipment, all of the mentioned steps are accomplished except for removing the filter separator elements.

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Quiz Edited by
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Dec 29, 2012

Quiz Created by
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2F071 CDC Review Exam Style

What is the lifting force of a liquid called?

Quiz Preview

The uniform movement of electrons in a specific direction is called

What term is used to define the process that takes place when water forms into droplets after passing through filter elements?

When posting changes to publications, when, if ever, are “List of Effective Pages” checks mandatory?

When investigating fuel gains and losses, you determine an excessive variance was caused by a pipeline rupture. This variance should fall into what category?

If your base has experienced cold weather problems or anticipates cold weather problems, you should perform a cloud point test on all DF–2 that is received during

On what grades of fuel can the R–22 be designed to operate? a. . b. . c. . d. .

Which best describes immiscible liquids?

Which type of measurement may be used to express pressure?

According to the electron theory, atoms are composed of

Which shell of the valence electrons determines whether a material is a good or a poor conductor of electricity?

What action, if any, should be taken if a commercial delivery operator does not provide a Department of Defense (DD) Form 250 with a liquid oxygen (LOX) shipment?

When configuring the automated data collection (ADC) system, what maximum number of dial retries can you configure the user interface terminal’s (UIT) to attempt?

What agency serves as the link between the Defense Energy Support Center (DESC) and its customers?

At no time will money that is collected for cash sales of aviation products be safeguarded by

How long should the fuel and water mixture in the separatory funnel be shaken when performing a fuel system icing inhibitor (FSII) test?

Hearing protection is required within how many feet of an R–14 operation?

What is the simplest and most expedient method of fuel resupply?

When personnel are servicing aircraft with the type IV hydrant system, who is responsible for positioning the aircraft on the hot pad?

How often should hot refueling personnel undergo certification for hot refueling operations?

During multiple source refueling, what action, if any, should be taken if backflow is detected?

Where is the correct place to take the reading for the American Petroleum Institute (API) gravity test?

With what type of fuel is the flow reducer ring not used when you are performing the bottle method test?

What is the maximum amount of time that can pass between the time a sample is obtained and the time a conductivity reading is taken?

What form should be completed for awarding skill levels when all upgrade training (UGT) requirements have been met?

All of the following conditions require replacement of filter elements on the R–19 filter separator unit except

The standard measure for atmospheric pressure is equal to how many pounds per square inch?

Which statement best describes a positive ion?

What filter separator component prevents pressure surges from damaging dispensing pressure control systems?

Which of the following may direct shipment of a vehicle with less than 50 percent life expectancy to satisfy mission requirements?

On the type IV hydrant system, how is fuel prevented from spilling onto the hot pad if a hose separates from the nozzle during a hot refueling operation?

When documenting a cryogenic product receipt on the Air Force Form 1231, from which of the following documents is the contract number obtained?

What environmental regulation establishes “cradle to grave” control of hazardous substances?

When you are performing fuels controller duties, how often should you reconcile with the Fuels Enterprise Server (FES) and clear rejects?

When encoding a vehicle identification link (VIL) key for a rental vehicle, what information should be entered in the vehicle identification field?

Who is responsible for administering the Caution Tag program?

On which grades of fuel can the engine on the R–14 ATHRS operate?

The ABFDS can carry what maximum number of gals. per sortie?

When do the magnetic lines of force in a magnet cross?

What type of lubricant is used to lubricate the power takeoff (PTO) on a fuel dispensing system?

What symbol should you enter on the Air Force Technical Order (AFTO) Form 244/245 if a routine inspection on a cryotainer goes overdue?

Who may approve deviations from hot refueling policies when combat or emergency situations require the use of hot refueling?

How often should dikes be checked for deterioration?

When determining authorizations for cash sales, you know that cash sales are only authorized when

When encoding vehicle identification link (VIL) keys, how long should you maintain copies of a vehicle identification link (VIL) key requests in the defense fuel supply point (DSFP) document control file?

How often should a liquid oxygen (LOX) generating plant be tested for odor and purity if a LOX production run will exceed 24 hours?

At least how many days before the due date must flight physicals and physiological training for Forward Area Refueling Point (FARP) and Aerial Bulk Fuel Delivery System (ABFDS) trained personnel be scheduled?

All of the following items should be accomplished prior to shipping the R–22 except

Which of the following steps is not accomplished when preparing the PMU–27M for air shipment?