CDC 2A652 Vol. 4

By Emmanuel Tijing
Emmanuel Tijing, IT & business
Emmanuel is a seasoned IT professional, bringing a wealth of technical expertise to enhance business processes, cross-functionality, availability, automation, and security of assets within organizational settings. His experience underscores a commitment to optimizing technology for organizational success.
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2A652 Quizzes & Trivia

Aerospace Ground Equipment Journeyman
Common AGE Systems. Edit Code 05.


Questions and Answers
  • 1. 

    What component on the New Generation Heater activates the HCU?

    • A.

      Oil pressure switch.

    • B.

      Burner control unit.

    • C.

      Heat control switch.

    • D.

      Thermostatic sensor.

    Correct Answer
    C. Heat control switch.
    Explanation
    The heat control switch is the component on the New Generation Heater that activates the HCU. This switch is responsible for regulating the temperature and turning on or off the heater accordingly. When the desired temperature is reached, the heat control switch signals the HCU to stop heating. Conversely, when the temperature drops below the set point, the switch activates the HCU to start heating again. Therefore, the heat control switch plays a crucial role in controlling the heating process and ensuring the desired temperature is maintained.

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  • 2. 

    The HCU on the New Generation heater starts the main air fan for output air when

    • A.

      A heat setting is selected.

    • B.

      Constant flame is established.

    • C.

      The temperature gauge reads cool.

    • D.

      The inside temperature reaches 140 degrees F.

    Correct Answer
    D. The inside temperature reaches 140 degrees F.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is when the inside temperature reaches 140 degrees F. This means that the main air fan is activated and starts blowing out the heated air once the temperature inside the heater reaches the specified level of 140 degrees F. This ensures that the output air is at the desired temperature and provides efficient heating. The other options, such as selecting a heat setting, establishing a constant flame, or reading a cool temperature on the gauge, do not specifically indicate when the main air fan is activated.

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  • 3. 

    When should you use starting aids to start the New Generation Heater?

    • A.

      During the engine start up with the ignition switch in PREHEAT position.

    • B.

      Never, as it will result in serious engine damage.

    • C.

      When the temperature gauge reads COOL.

    • D.

      When ambient temperature is below 32 degrees F.

    Correct Answer
    A. During the engine start up with the ignition switch in PREHEAT position.
    Explanation
    Starting aids should be used to start the New Generation Heater during engine start up with the ignition switch in PREHEAT position. This implies that the starting aids are necessary to assist in the starting process and should be used specifically when the ignition switch is in the PREHEAT position.

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  • 4. 

    Repair of ground heater equipment should never be attempted

    • A.

      Without first talking with the operator.

    • B.

      Without first consulting your supervisor.

    • C.

      Unless accurate technical data is available.

    • D.

      Unless in the presence of an experienced mechanic.

    Correct Answer
    C. Unless accurate technical data is available.
    Explanation
    Repairing ground heater equipment can be a complex task that requires accurate technical information. Without this data, attempting repairs can be dangerous and may result in further damage or injury. Therefore, it is crucial to have access to accurate technical data before attempting any repairs on ground heater equipment.

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  • 5. 

    The amount of heat required to raise the temperature of one pound of a substance on degree Fahrenheit is known as

    • A.

      British thermal unit.

    • B.

      Sensible unit.

    • C.

      Specific heat.

    • D.

      Latent heat.

    Correct Answer
    A. British thermal unit.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is British thermal unit. This is because the British thermal unit (BTU) is a unit of measurement commonly used in the United States to quantify the amount of heat energy required to raise the temperature of one pound of a substance by one degree Fahrenheit. It is widely used in the field of heating, ventilation, and air conditioning (HVAC) to measure the heating or cooling capacity of systems.

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  • 6. 

    Heat that can be felt and added or subtracted to a substance without changing its state is called

    • A.

      Super heat.

    • B.

      Latent heat.

    • C.

      Specific heat.

    • D.

      Sensible heat.

    Correct Answer
    D. Sensible heat.
    Explanation
    Sensible heat refers to the heat that can be felt and added or subtracted to a substance without changing its state. It is the heat that causes a change in temperature of a substance, such as warming or cooling it. This is different from latent heat, which is the heat required to change the state of a substance, such as from solid to liquid or from liquid to gas. Specific heat, on the other hand, is the amount of heat required to raise the temperature of a unit mass of a substance by one degree Celsius. Therefore, the correct answer is sensible heat.

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  • 7. 

    Heat added to a gaseous substance is known as

    • A.

      Sensible heat.

    • B.

      Specific heat.

    • C.

      Super heat.

    • D.

      Latent heat.

    Correct Answer
    C. Super heat.
    Explanation
    Superheat refers to the addition of heat to a gaseous substance beyond its boiling point, resulting in an increase in temperature without a phase change. Sensible heat refers to the heat added or removed that causes a change in temperature, specific heat is the amount of heat required to raise the temperature of a substance, and latent heat is the heat absorbed or released during a phase change. Therefore, the correct answer is superheat as it specifically relates to the addition of heat to a gaseous substance.

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  • 8. 

    The relationship between pressure and the boiling point of a liquid is seen when

    • A.

      Pressure increases, it raises the boiling point.

    • B.

      Pressure increases, it lowers the boiling point.

    • C.

      The boiling point increases, it raises the pressure.

    • D.

      The boiling point increases, it lowers the pressure.

    Correct Answer
    A. Pressure increases, it raises the boiling point.
    Explanation
    When pressure increases, it raises the boiling point of a liquid. This is because an increase in pressure on the surface of the liquid makes it harder for the liquid molecules to escape and form vapor. As a result, more heat energy is required to reach the vapor pressure and the boiling point of the liquid increases.

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  • 9. 

    The factors that have the greatest bearing on the temperature of a refrigerant are the boiling of a liquid and the amount of heat applied and the

    • A.

      Temperature of the vapor.

    • B.

      Type of heat transfer.

    • C.

      Moisture in the air.

    • D.

      Pressure applied.

    Correct Answer
    D. Pressure applied.
    Explanation
    The pressure applied to a refrigerant has the greatest bearing on its temperature. When pressure is increased, the boiling point of the refrigerant also increases, causing it to become hotter. Conversely, when pressure is decreased, the boiling point decreases, causing the refrigerant to become colder. Therefore, the pressure applied directly affects the temperature of the refrigerant, making it the factor with the greatest influence.

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  • 10. 

    What component on the MA-3D air conditioner allows the operator to control the overall volume of air leaving the unit?

    • A.

      Blower control switch.

    • B.

      Airflow control switch.

    • C.

      Evaporator control switch.

    • D.

      Temperature control switch.

    Correct Answer
    B. Airflow control switch.
    Explanation
    The airflow control switch on the MA-3D air conditioner allows the operator to control the overall volume of air leaving the unit. This switch is specifically designed to adjust the airflow rate, allowing the user to increase or decrease the amount of air being expelled from the air conditioner. By manipulating this switch, the operator can customize the airflow to their desired level, ensuring optimal comfort and ventilation in the space where the air conditioner is installed.

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  • 11. 

    What type of solution is used in the MA-3D aftercooler system to carry heat away from the conditioned air stream?

    • A.

      Liquid refrigerant.

    • B.

      Gaseous refrigerant.

    • C.

      Pure water solution.

    • D.

      Ethylene glycol/water solution.

    Correct Answer
    D. Ethylene glycol/water solution.
    Explanation
    The MA-3D aftercooler system uses an ethylene glycol/water solution to carry heat away from the conditioned air stream. This solution is commonly used as a coolant in various cooling systems due to its high heat transfer capabilities. It absorbs heat from the air stream and carries it away, preventing the air from becoming overheated. The ethylene glycol/water solution is an effective and efficient solution for maintaining the desired temperature in the aftercooler system.

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  • 12. 

    Refrigerant that leaves the evaporator coil in the MA-3D air conditioner is further changed into a

    • A.

      Low pressure gas.

    • B.

      High pressure gas.

    • C.

      Low pressure liquid.

    • D.

      High pressure liquid.

    Correct Answer
    A. Low pressure gas.
    Explanation
    The refrigerant that leaves the evaporator coil in the MA-3D air conditioner is further changed into a low pressure gas. This is because the evaporator coil is responsible for absorbing heat from the surrounding air, causing the refrigerant to evaporate and turn into a gas. As a result, the refrigerant becomes a low pressure gas before it moves on to the next stage of the cooling process.

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  • 13. 

    After the refrigerant leaves the compressor on the MA-3D air conditioner, it passes through the oil separator and into the

    • A.

      Heatsink coils.

    • B.

      Condenser coils.

    • C.

      Evaporator coils.

    • D.

      Receiver inlet valve.

    Correct Answer
    B. Condenser coils.
    Explanation
    After leaving the compressor, the refrigerant goes through the oil separator to remove any oil that may have mixed with it. It then enters the condenser coils, where it releases heat and condenses into a liquid state. The condenser coils are responsible for transferring heat from the refrigerant to the surrounding air, allowing the refrigerant to cool down and prepare for the next stage of the cooling process. Therefore, the correct answer is condenser coils.

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  • 14. 

    When starting the MA-3D air conditioner, hold the safety override switch until

    • A.

      30 psi oil pressure is registered on the engine oil pressure gauge.

    • B.

      You release the start switch.

    • C.

      The engine warms up.

    • D.

      The engine starts.

    Correct Answer
    A. 30 psi oil pressure is registered on the engine oil pressure gauge.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is 30 psi oil pressure is registered on the engine oil pressure gauge. This is because the instruction states to hold the safety override switch until this specific pressure is reached. This indicates that the engine has sufficient oil pressure to start and operate properly. Once this pressure is registered, it is safe to release the start switch and proceed with starting the engine.

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  • 15. 

    What component on the MA-3D air conditioner receives input from sensors for suction pressure and leaving air temperature?

    • A.

      Air cooler fan.

    • B.

      Air volume controller.

    • C.

      Temperature controller.

    • D.

      Temperature control knob.

    Correct Answer
    C. Temperature controller.
    Explanation
    The temperature controller on the MA-3D air conditioner receives input from sensors for suction pressure and leaving air temperature. This component is responsible for regulating and maintaining the desired temperature in the air conditioner by adjusting the cooling process based on the input received from the sensors.

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  • 16. 

    What component on the MA-3D air conditioner shuts off the compressor when the suction  pressure drops below 5 psi?

    • A.

      Low pressure cutout.

    • B.

      High pressure cutout.

    • C.

      Temperature controller.

    • D.

      Temperature control switch.

    Correct Answer
    C. Temperature controller.
    Explanation
    The temperature controller on the MA-3D air conditioner shuts off the compressor when the suction pressure drops below 5 psi. This component is responsible for monitoring and regulating the temperature in the system. When the suction pressure drops too low, it indicates a potential issue with the cooling process, and the temperature controller automatically shuts off the compressor to prevent further damage or inefficiency.

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  • 17. 

    What type of refrigeration system leak occurs when the pressure within the system is less than atmospheric pressure?

    • A.

      Inward leaks.

    • B.

      Vacuum leaks.

    • C.

      Pressure leaks.

    • D.

      Outward leaks.

    Correct Answer
    A. Inward leaks.
    Explanation
    When the pressure within a refrigeration system is less than atmospheric pressure, it creates a vacuum. Inward leaks refer to the type of refrigeration system leak that occurs in this situation, where air or other substances are drawn into the system due to the pressure difference. This can lead to a decrease in system efficiency and potential damage if not addressed.

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  • 18. 

    When performing refrigerant recovery, be sure

    • A.

      To use vacuum pumps.

    • B.

      To use the HCU.

    • C.

      The output air is between 150°F – 185°F.

    • D.

      The refrigerant has become a low-pressure vapor for compressor use.

    Correct Answer
    A. To use vacuum pumps.
    Explanation
    When performing refrigerant recovery, it is important to use vacuum pumps. Vacuum pumps are used to remove air and moisture from the refrigeration system, ensuring that the system is properly evacuated and ready for recharging with new refrigerant. This helps to prevent any contaminants from entering the system and causing damage to the compressor or other components. Using vacuum pumps also helps to achieve the desired level of vacuum in the system, which is necessary for proper operation and efficiency.

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  • 19. 

    The air cycle machine of an A/M32C–10D air conditioner consists of

    • A.

      A air compressor fan only.

    • B.

      An expansion turbine only.

    • C.

      A heat exchanger and an expansion turbine.

    • D.

      An expansion turbine and a compressor fan.

    Correct Answer
    D. An expansion turbine and a compressor fan.
    Explanation
    The air cycle machine of an A/M32C-10D air conditioner consists of an expansion turbine and a compressor fan. This means that the machine uses both an expansion turbine and a compressor fan to operate. The expansion turbine is responsible for expanding the compressed air, while the compressor fan is responsible for compressing the air. Together, these components play a crucial role in the air conditioning process by regulating the flow and pressure of the air.

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  • 20. 

    The component of a A/M32C–10D air conditioner that extracts energy from the bleed air on the air cycle machine is the

    • A.

      Compressor.

    • B.

      Heat exchanger.

    • C.

      Expansion turbine.

    • D.

      Temperature controller.

    Correct Answer
    C. Expansion turbine.
    Explanation
    The expansion turbine is the component of the A/M32C-10D air conditioner that extracts energy from the bleed air on the air cycle machine. This turbine is responsible for converting the high-pressure, high-temperature air into lower pressure and temperature, thereby extracting energy from it. The compressor, heat exchanger, and temperature controller do not perform this specific function in the air conditioner.

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  • 21. 

    The compressor switch on the ACE 802S must be held in the HOLD position when engaging the compressor in order to

    • A.

      Ensure the engine is at governed speed before engaging compressor.

    • B.

      Allow the oil and discharge pressures to stabilize.

    • C.

      Defrost the evaporator.

    • D.

      Build-up oil pressure.

    Correct Answer
    B. Allow the oil and discharge pressures to stabilize.
    Explanation
    When engaging the compressor on the ACE 802S, it is important to hold the compressor switch in the HOLD position. This is because holding the switch allows the oil and discharge pressures to stabilize. By doing so, it ensures that the compressor operates at optimal levels and prevents any sudden surges or fluctuations in pressure. This helps to maintain the efficiency and effectiveness of the compressor, ultimately leading to better performance and longevity.

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  • 22. 

    What action occurs in the evaporator of the ACE 802S air conditioner?

    • A.

      Condensing refrigerant absorbs heat from the air stream.

    • B.

      Boiling refrigerant absorbs heat from the air stream.

    • C.

      Condensing refrigerant looses heat to the air stream.

    • D.

      Boiling refrigerant looses heat to the air stream.

    Correct Answer
    B. Boiling refrigerant absorbs heat from the air stream.
    Explanation
    In the evaporator of the ACE 802S air conditioner, the boiling refrigerant absorbs heat from the air stream. This is a key process in the cooling cycle of an air conditioner. As the refrigerant boils, it changes from a liquid to a gas, absorbing heat from the surrounding air in the process. This allows the air conditioner to remove heat from the indoor environment and provide cool air.

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  • 23. 

    What system on the ACE 802S air conditioner “supercharges” the compressor?

    • A.

      Defrost.

    • B.

      Heat boost.

    • C.

      Vapor injection.

    • D.

      Liquid injection.

    Correct Answer
    C. Vapor injection.
    Explanation
    Vapor injection is the system on the ACE 802S air conditioner that "supercharges" the compressor. This system injects additional vapor into the compressor, increasing its efficiency and cooling capacity. By introducing more vapor into the compressor, it helps to cool the air more effectively, resulting in improved performance and energy efficiency.

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  • 24. 

    What valve must be opened prior to starting the engine on the ACE 802S?

    • A.

      Air shutoff.

    • B.

      Fuel shutoff.

    • C.

      Coolant control.

    • D.

      Refrigerant flow.

    Correct Answer
    A. Air shutoff.
    Explanation
    The valve that must be opened prior to starting the engine on the ACE 802S is the air shutoff. This valve controls the flow of air into the engine and needs to be opened to allow the engine to receive the necessary air for combustion. Opening the air shutoff valve ensures that the engine can start and run smoothly.

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  • 25. 

    What must be accomplished to avoid damage prior to operating the ACE 802S air conditioner in the HEATING mode after COOLING mode operation?

    • A.

      Permit refrigerant pressure to equalize.

    • B.

      Perform maximum refrigerant pump down.

    • C.

      Place heating/cooling switch in HEATING position.

    • D.

      Place the reversing valve lever in the HEATING position.

    Correct Answer
    A. Permit refrigerant pressure to equalize.
    Explanation
    To avoid damage prior to operating the ACE 802S air conditioner in the HEATING mode after COOLING mode operation, it is necessary to permit refrigerant pressure to equalize. This is important because when switching from COOLING to HEATING mode, there may be a difference in pressure between the refrigerant in the system. Allowing the pressure to equalize ensures that there is no excessive strain or damage to the components of the air conditioner.

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  • 26. 

     In troubleshooting, what is the first step that must be completed when a unit comes in with a write-up in the forms?

    • A.

      Isolate the problem.

    • B.

      Perform a service inspection.

    • C.

      Perform an operational check.

    • D.

      Recognize the write-up as a malfunction.

    Correct Answer
    D. Recognize the write-up as a malfunction.
    Explanation
    The first step that must be completed when a unit comes in with a write-up in the forms is to recognize the write-up as a malfunction. This means acknowledging that there is a reported issue or problem with the unit. This step is important because it sets the foundation for the troubleshooting process and helps to identify the specific problem that needs to be addressed. By recognizing the write-up as a malfunction, the technician can then proceed to isolate the problem, perform a service inspection, and perform an operational check to further diagnose and resolve the issue.

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  • 27. 

    How can a restriction in a refrigerant system be identified?

    • A.

      Frosting at the outlet.

    • B.

      Sweating of the outlet.

    • C.

      Increased suction pressure.

    • D.

      Loosen fittings to check flow.

    Correct Answer
    A. Frosting at the outlet.
    Explanation
    A restriction in a refrigerant system can be identified by observing frosting at the outlet. When there is a restriction in the system, the flow of refrigerant is hindered, causing a decrease in pressure and temperature. This leads to the formation of frost on the outlet as the refrigerant cools down rapidly. Therefore, the presence of frosting at the outlet indicates a restriction in the refrigerant system.

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  • 28. 

    Oil in the rotary vane compressor

    • A.

      Lubricates the connecting rods.

    • B.

      Has high viscosity and is very inflammable.

    • C.

      Forms a seal between the vanes and the stator.

    • D.

      Permits it to be typed as a high pressure unit.

    Correct Answer
    C. Forms a seal between the vanes and the stator.
    Explanation
    The oil in the rotary vane compressor forms a seal between the vanes and the stator. This is important because it helps to prevent any leakage of air or gas during the compression process. The oil creates a barrier between the moving parts, ensuring that they remain in contact and allowing for efficient compression. Without this seal, there would be a loss of pressure and the compressor would not be able to function effectively.

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  • 29. 

    What provides pressurized oil to the rotor blades of the MC-2A rotary sliding vane compressor?

    • A.

      Hollow-ported bolt.

    • B.

      Drilled passages.

    • C.

      Rotor shaft.

    • D.

      Stator shaft.

    Correct Answer
    C. Rotor shaft.
    Explanation
    The rotor shaft provides pressurized oil to the rotor blades of the MC-2A rotary sliding vane compressor.

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  • 30. 

    On the MC-2A rotary sliding vane compressor, the minimum pressure valve does all of the following except

    • A.

      Ensure minimum pressure within the oil chamber.

    • B.

      Ensure minimum pressure to the condensate drain.

    • C.

      Prevent receiver air from flowing back to the compressor by working as a check valve.

    • D.

      Increase the efficiency of the felt pads by ensuring they receive a constant minimum air pressure.

    Correct Answer
    B. Ensure minimum pressure to the condensate drain.
    Explanation
    The MC-2A rotary sliding vane compressor's minimum pressure valve performs various functions, including ensuring minimum pressure within the oil chamber, preventing receiver air from flowing back to the compressor by working as a check valve, and increasing the efficiency of the felt pads by ensuring they receive a constant minimum air pressure. However, it does not have a role in ensuring minimum pressure to the condensate drain.

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  • 31. 

    What medium is used to cool the MC-2A rotary vane compressor?

    • A.

      Oil.

    • B.

      Air.

    • C.

      Water.

    • D.

      Hydraulic fluid.

    Correct Answer
    A. Oil.
    Explanation
    The MC-2A rotary vane compressor is cooled using oil. Oil is commonly used as a cooling medium in compressors because it has good heat transfer properties and can effectively dissipate the heat generated during compression. It also helps lubricate the moving parts of the compressor, reducing friction and wear. Using air or water as a cooling medium may not be as effective in cooling the compressor and may not provide the necessary lubrication. Hydraulic fluid is not typically used for cooling compressors.

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  • 32. 

    What is the air output of the MC-2A rotary sliding vane compressor?

    • A.

      High volume, high pressure.

    • B.

      High volume, low pressure.

    • C.

      Low volume, high pressure.

    • D.

      Low volume, low pressure.

    Correct Answer
    D. Low volume, low pressure.
    Explanation
    The air output of the MC-2A rotary sliding vane compressor is low volume, low pressure. This means that the compressor produces a small amount of air at a low pressure.

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  • 33. 

    The valves on a reciprocating compressor are operated by

    • A.

      Atmospheric pressure.

    • B.

      Electrical input.

    • C.

      Oil pressure.

    • D.

      Pushrods.

    Correct Answer
    A. Atmospheric pressure.
    Explanation
    The valves on a reciprocating compressor are operated by atmospheric pressure. This means that the opening and closing of the valves are controlled by the pressure difference between the cylinder and the surrounding atmosphere. When the pressure inside the cylinder is higher than atmospheric pressure, the valve opens, allowing the compressed gas to be discharged. When the pressure inside the cylinder is lower than atmospheric pressure, the valve closes, preventing the backflow of gas. Therefore, atmospheric pressure plays a crucial role in the operation of the valves in a reciprocating compressor.

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  • 34. 

    Oil-moisture traps are required on a multi-stage reciprocating compressor to

    • A.

      Cool the compressed air.

    • B.

      Ensure even compression of the air.

    • C.

      Introduce moisture to the compressed air.

    • D.

      Remove moisture from the compressed air.

    Correct Answer
    D. Remove moisture from the compressed air.
    Explanation
    Oil-moisture traps are required on a multi-stage reciprocating compressor to remove moisture from the compressed air. As the air is compressed, the temperature and pressure increase, causing the moisture in the air to condense. This condensed moisture can be detrimental to the compressor and the downstream equipment, leading to corrosion and damage. Therefore, oil-moisture traps are installed to capture and separate the moisture from the compressed air, ensuring that only dry air continues downstream. This helps to protect the compressor and maintain the quality of the compressed air for further use.

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  • 35. 

    During an inspection on an LN2 cart, you should look at all of the following except the

    • A.

      Brake assembly.

    • B.

      Engine oil level.

    • C.

      Unit for cleanliness.

    • D.

      Front end alignment.

    Correct Answer
    B. Engine oil level.
    Explanation
    During an inspection on an LN2 cart, you should look at the brake assembly, unit for cleanliness, and front end alignment. However, the engine oil level is not relevant to the inspection of an LN2 cart.

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  • 36. 

    When LOX carts are being transported, what position should the vent valve be in?

    • A.

      Tow.

    • B.

      Closed.

    • C.

      Opened.

    • D.

      Transport.

    Correct Answer
    B. Closed.
    Explanation
    When LOX carts are being transported, the vent valve should be in the closed position. This is because the vent valve is responsible for releasing excess pressure from the cart. During transportation, it is important to keep the vent valve closed to prevent any leakage or loss of LOX, which is highly volatile and can be dangerous.

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  • 37. 

    How is the air compressor in the SGNSC categorized?

    • A.

      High-pressure.

    • B.

      Low-pressure.

    • C.

      High volume.

    • D.

      Low volume.

    Correct Answer
    A. High-pressure.
    Explanation
    The air compressor in the SGNSC is categorized as high-pressure because it is designed to generate and deliver compressed air at a high pressure level. This means that the air compressor is capable of producing air at a greater force, which is useful for applications that require high-pressure air, such as powering pneumatic tools or filling high-pressure air tanks.

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  • 38. 

    What component on the SGNSC removes nitrogen from the ambient air?

    • A.

      Filters.

    • B.

      Carbon absorber.

    • C.

      Booster compressor.

    • D.

      Separation membrane.

    Correct Answer
    D. Separation membrane.
    Explanation
    The separation membrane is the component on the SGNSC that removes nitrogen from the ambient air. It is responsible for separating the nitrogen gas from the other gases present in the air, allowing for the production of nitrogen gas with high purity. This is achieved through a process called membrane separation, where the membrane selectively allows certain gases to pass through while blocking others. In this case, the separation membrane allows nitrogen to pass through while removing other gases, resulting in the removal of nitrogen from the ambient air.

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  • 39. 

    To start the SGNSC, the operator must place the ignition switch in the start position for no more than

    • A.

      5 seconds.

    • B.

      10 seconds.

    • C.

      15 seconds.

    • D.

      20 seconds.

    Correct Answer
    B. 10 seconds.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is 10 seconds. This is the maximum amount of time that the ignition switch should be placed in the start position to start the SGNSC. Placing the switch in the start position for more than 10 seconds may cause damage or malfunction to the system.

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  • 40. 

    At what storage cylinder pressure, in psig, should the SGNSC nitrogen booster compressor stop?

    • A.

      2400 psig.

    • B.

      4100 psig.

    • C.

      4400 psig.

    • D.

      6400 psig.

    Correct Answer
    C. 4400 psig.
    Explanation
    The SGNSC nitrogen booster compressor should stop at a storage cylinder pressure of 4400 psig.

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  • 41. 

    The proper level of the gauge of the hydraulic reservoir should be

    • A.

      2/3 to 3/4 inch from the bottom of the glass.

    • B.

      2/3 to 3/4 inch from the top of the glass.

    • C.

      1/2 inch from the bottom of the glass.

    • D.

      1/2 inch from the top of the glass.

    Correct Answer
    A. 2/3 to 3/4 inch from the bottom of the glass.
    Explanation
    The proper level of the gauge of the hydraulic reservoir should be 2/3 to 3/4 inch from the bottom of the glass because this ensures that there is enough hydraulic fluid in the reservoir to properly lubricate and operate the hydraulic system. Having the fluid level too low could result in insufficient lubrication and potential damage to the system, while having it too high could cause excess pressure and potential leaks. Therefore, maintaining the fluid level within the specified range is crucial for the optimal functioning of the hydraulic system.

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  • 42. 

    During an operational check of an SGNSC you find that the engine starts, is running at 3,000 rpm, but the nitrogen purity does not reach 95.5% within 30 minutes. What is a probable cause of this malfunction?

    • A.

      Warming door is not lowered for cold weather operating conditions.

    • B.

      Low oil level in the feed air compressor lubricant separator tank.

    • C.

      Booster compressor defective.

    • D.

      Poor air ventilation.

    Correct Answer
    A. Warming door is not lowered for cold weather operating conditions.
    Explanation
    The probable cause of the malfunction is that the warming door is not lowered for cold weather operating conditions. This could lead to insufficient warming of the engine, causing the nitrogen purity to not reach the required level within the specified time frame.

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  • 43. 

    What is important to keep in mind when performing maintenance on the SGNSC?

    • A.

      Weather conditions.

    • B.

      Wind direction.

    • C.

      Ventilation.

    • D.

      Safety.

    Correct Answer
    D. Safety.
    Explanation
    When performing maintenance on the SGNSC, it is important to keep safety in mind. This means taking necessary precautions to ensure the well-being of individuals involved in the maintenance process. Safety measures may include wearing appropriate protective gear, following proper procedures, and being aware of potential hazards. Prioritizing safety helps to prevent accidents, injuries, and damage to equipment, ensuring a successful and efficient maintenance operation.

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  • 44. 

    When filling and bleeding the hydraulic system of the MJ-2A-1 hydraulic test stand, the reservoir selector valve must be in the

    • A.

      Open position.

    • B.

      Stand position.

    • C.

      Aircraft position.

    • D.

      External position.

    Correct Answer
    C. Aircraft position.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "aircraft position." When filling and bleeding the hydraulic system of the MJ-2A-1 hydraulic test stand, the reservoir selector valve must be in the "aircraft position." This means that the valve is set in a position that allows the hydraulic fluid to flow directly from the aircraft's hydraulic system into the test stand's reservoir. This is necessary to properly fill and bleed the hydraulic system and ensure its proper functioning.

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  • 45. 

    The purpose of the low pressure pump on the MJ-2A-1 is to ensure a constant flow of fluid to the

    • A.

      Relief valves.

    • B.

      Aircraft pumps.

    • C.

      Low pressure filters.

    • D.

      High pressure pump.

    Correct Answer
    D. High pressure pump.
    Explanation
    The purpose of the low pressure pump on the MJ-2A-1 is to ensure a constant flow of fluid to the high pressure pump. The high pressure pump requires a consistent supply of fluid in order to function properly and generate the necessary pressure. The low pressure pump acts as a feeder, ensuring that the high pressure pump always has a sufficient amount of fluid available.

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  • 46. 

     In the MJ-2A-1 hydraulic test stand, the output volume of the high pressure pump is controlled by the

    • A.

      Volume control.

    • B.

      Flow control valve.

    • C.

      Compensator control.

    • D.

      Flowmeter assembly.

    Correct Answer
    A. Volume control.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is volume control. In the MJ-2A-1 hydraulic test stand, the output volume of the high pressure pump is controlled by the volume control. This means that the volume of fluid being pumped by the high pressure pump can be adjusted using the volume control mechanism. This allows for precise control over the output volume of the pump, which is important in hydraulic systems to ensure that the correct amount of fluid is being delivered to the system. The other options, such as flow control valve, compensator control, and flowmeter assembly, do not directly control the output volume of the pump.

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  • 47. 

    If the position of the reservoir selector valve is changed in the hydraulic test stand during operation, the operator may cause the

    • A.

      Flowmeter to be damaged.

    • B.

      Aircraft reservoir to overfill.

    • C.

      Flow control valve seals to rupture.

    • D.

      Return system pressure to decrease.

    Correct Answer
    A. Flowmeter to be damaged.
    Explanation
    If the position of the reservoir selector valve is changed during operation, it can potentially cause a sudden change in the flow of hydraulic fluid. This sudden change in flow can put excessive pressure on the flowmeter, causing it to be damaged.

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  • 48. 

    What engine system safety device on the MJ-2A-1 hydraulic test stand sounds the warning horn in the event of an engine system malfunction?

    • A.

      Water level switch.

    • B.

      Oil pressure switch.

    • C.

      Fuel level indicator.

    • D.

      Fuel pressure switch.

    Correct Answer
    B. Oil pressure switch.
    Explanation
    The oil pressure switch is responsible for monitoring the oil pressure in the engine system. In the event of a malfunction, such as low oil pressure, the oil pressure switch will activate the warning horn to alert the operator. This safety device ensures that any issues with the engine system are promptly detected and addressed, preventing potential damage or accidents. The other options, water level switch, fuel level indicator, and fuel pressure switch, do not directly relate to monitoring the engine system and therefore are not the correct answer.

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  • 49. 

    When setting the controls for operation of the MJ-2A-1 hydraulic test stand, what control must you set in the OPEN position?

    • A.

      Compensator control valve.

    • B.

      Return system bypass valve.

    • C.

      Supply shut-off valve.

    • D.

      System selector valve.

    Correct Answer
    B. Return system bypass valve.
    Explanation
    When setting the controls for operation of the MJ-2A-1 hydraulic test stand, the control that must be set in the OPEN position is the Return system bypass valve. This valve allows the hydraulic fluid to bypass the system and return to the reservoir, preventing excessive pressure build-up in the system. By setting it in the OPEN position, it ensures that the hydraulic system functions properly and does not cause any damage or malfunctions.

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  • 50. 

    When filling and bleeding the MJ-2A-1 hydraulic test stand, the system should be pressurized and bled until

    • A.

      A solid line of fluid can be seen in the sight tube.

    • B.

      The sight tube is filled with bubbles.

    • C.

      Sight tube fluid turns a milky color.

    • D.

      Sight tube fluid is blue in color.

    Correct Answer
    A. A solid line of fluid can be seen in the sight tube.
    Explanation
    When filling and bleeding the MJ-2A-1 hydraulic test stand, it is important to pressurize and bleed the system until a solid line of fluid can be seen in the sight tube. This indicates that there are no air bubbles present in the system and that the hydraulic fluid is properly filled and bled. This ensures that the hydraulic system will function correctly and efficiently. The other options, such as the sight tube being filled with bubbles, the sight tube fluid turning milky, or the sight tube fluid being blue in color, are incorrect as they indicate potential issues or incorrect filling and bleeding procedures.

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Emmanuel Tijing |IT & business |
Emmanuel is a seasoned IT professional, bringing a wealth of technical expertise to enhance business processes, cross-functionality, availability, automation, and security of assets within organizational settings. His experience underscores a commitment to optimizing technology for organizational success.

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  • Current Version
  • Mar 21, 2023
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • Mar 31, 2013
    Quiz Created by
    Emmanuel Tijing
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