2f071 CDC All Ure's Review Exam Style

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2f071 Quizzes & Trivia

2F071 CDC All URE's review exam style


Questions and Answers
  • 1. 
    At a minimum, how often should underground storage tanks be monitored to detect releases?
  • 2. 
    A 3-horsepower motor consumes how much power?
    • A. 

      755 W.

    • B. 

      1,534 W.

    • C. 

      2,023 W.

    • D. 

      2,238 W.

  • 3. 
    A magnet that is magnetized by induction from an external source is called
    • A. 

      A natural magnet.

    • B. 

      An electromagnet.

    • C. 

      An artificial magnet.

    • D. 

      An electromechanical magnet.

  • 4. 
    A temporary movement of a MRSP kit from home station to another location for a period of less than 30 days is referred to as a
    • A. 

      Transfer

    • B. 

      Relocation

    • C. 

      Deployment

    • D. 

      Reassignment

  • 5. 
    According to the electron theory, atoms are composed of
    • A. 

      Protons, neutrons, and electrons.

    • B. 

      Neutrons, elements, and protons.

    • C. 

      Electrons, molecules, and elements.

    • D. 

      Electrons, neutrons, and matter.

  • 6. 
    Accountability for a transferred MRSP kit temporary rests with the
    • A. 

      Using organization

    • B. 

      Accountable officer

    • C. 

      Home unit LRS customer service element

    • D. 

      Expeditionary LRS at the forward location

  • 7. 
    All of the following are important considerations when planning for cryogenics support except
    • A. 

      Required tankage

    • B. 

      Resupply method

    • C. 

      Product requirements

    • D. 

      Sufficient product availability

  • 8. 
    All of the following conditions require replacement of filter elements on the R–19 filter separator unit except
    • A. 

      A reading of 16 pounds per square inch, differential (psid) on the differential pressure (DP) gauge

    • B. 

      A reading of 22 psid on the DP gauge

    • C. 

      Elements that have been in use for 36 months

    • D. 

      Filter separator vessel performance is questionable

  • 9. 
    All of the following conditions would prevent a remote terminal workstation (RTW) from receiving data except
    • A. 

      The remote terminal unit being turned off.

    • B. 

      An inoperative remote terminal unit modem .

    • C. 

      The remote terminal workstation being turned on.

    • D. 

      An inoperative remote terminal workstation modem.

  • 10. 
    All of the following items should be accomplished prior to shipping the R–22 except
    • A. 

      Thoroughly clean the unit

    • B. 

      Drain all fuel from the piping

    • C. 

      Disconnect and drain all hose assemblies

    • D. 

      Place the unit in the low mobility position

  • 11. 
    At least how many days before the due date must flight physicals and physiological training for Forward Area Refueling Point (FARP) and Aerial Bulk Fuel Delivery System (ABFDS) trained personnel be scheduled?
    • A. 

      14

    • B. 

      30

    • C. 

      45

    • D. 

      60

  • 12. 
    At no time will money that is collected for cash sales of aviation products be safeguarded by
    • A. 

      FSC personnel.

    • B. 

      Shift supervisors.

    • C. 

      Off-duty personnel.

    • D. 

      Operations expeditors.

  • 13. 
    At what flow rate does adjustable pilot valve on the R–14 limit high flow?
    • A. 

      300 gpm

    • B. 

      350 gpm

    • C. 

      600 gpm

    • D. 

      650 gpm

  • 14. 
    At what flow rate is the R–14 capable of servicing through one 2-inch hose?
    • A. 

      100 gpm

    • B. 

      200 gpm

    • C. 

      300 gpm

    • D. 

      600 gpm

  • 15. 
    At what liquid level does the type III hydrant system product recovery tank overfill valve close?
    • A. 

      75 percent full.

    • B. 

      80 percent full.

    • C. 

      85 percent full.

    • D. 

      90 percent full.

  • 16. 
    At what maximum flow rate can the FAM cart pump deliver fuel?
    • A. 

      175 gpm

    • B. 

      300 gpm

    • C. 

      365 gpm

    • D. 

      600 gpm

  • 17. 
    At what maximum flow rate can the FFU–15E filter separator filter gasoline?
    • A. 

      450 gpm

    • B. 

      600 gpm

    • C. 

      750 gpm

    • D. 

      900 gpm

  • 18. 
    Concurrent servicing operations supporting sortie generation operations (CSO/SGO) are authorized on all following aircraft except the
    • A. 

      A–10.

    • B. 

      F–15.

    • C. 

      F–22.

    • D. 

      F–117.

  • 19. 
    During a flash point test, apply the flame to the vapor cup for
    • A. 

      0.5 seconds.

    • B. 

      1 second.

    • C. 

      1.5 seconds.

    • D. 

      2 seconds.

  • 20. 
    During air shipment, the cryotainer inner tank pressure should not exceed what maximum psi reading?
    • A. 

      35 psi

    • B. 

      40 psi

    • C. 

      50 psi

    • D. 

      55 psi

  • 21. 
    During bottom loading operations, what occurs when the signal to the bottom loading optic probe is lost?
    • A. 

      The bottom loading valve modulates to prevent deadheading.

    • B. 

      The electronic control module cuts power to the fillstand pump.

    • C. 

      The bottom loading valve cuts power to the electronic control module.

    • D. 

      The electronic control module cuts power to the bottom loading electric air solenoid.

  • 22. 
    During concurrent servicing of cargo or passenger aircraft, deplaning personnel should not come closer than how many feet from any aircraft fuel vent outlet?
    • A. 

      10 feet.

    • B. 

      20 feet.

    • C. 

      25 feet.

    • D. 

      50 feet.

  • 23. 
    During multiple source refueling, what action, if any, should be taken if backflow is detected?
    • A. 

      No action is required.

    • B. 

      Increase engine RPMs.

    • C. 

      Decrease the engine RPMs.

    • D. 

      Stop the operation immediately.

  • 24. 
    Each R–20 multi-aircraft servicing platform is equipped with how many feet of communication wire?
    • A. 

      1,000 feet

    • B. 

      1,500 feet

    • C. 

      3,000 feet

    • D. 

      4,500 feet

  • 25. 
    For air shipment, the inner tanks of empty cryotainers are pressurized with dry nitrogen gas at a positive pressure of
    • A. 

      10 to 15 psig

    • B. 

      15 to 25 psig

    • C. 

      25 to 30 psig

    • D. 

      30 to 40 psig

  • 26. 
    Fuel bladders can withstand temperatures from
    • A. 

      -15° F to 135° F

    • B. 

      -25° F to 145° F

    • C. 

      -40° F to 160° F

    • D. 

      -50° F to 170° F

  • 27. 
    Fuels personnel identify the tank vent valve by using a locally manufactured
    • A. 

      Bronze disc

    • B. 

      Adhesive label

    • C. 

      Wooden placard

    • D. 

      Round aluminum disc

  • 28. 
    Government purchase card (GPC) cardholders should reconcile transactions and approve the electronic statement of account within how many workdays of the end of the billing cycle?1
    • A. 

      1

    • B. 

      2

    • C. 

      3

    • D. 

      5

  • 29. 
    Hearing protection is required within how many feet of an R–14 operation?
    • A. 

      10 ft

    • B. 

      20 ft

    • C. 

      50 ft

    • D. 

      100 ft

  • 30. 
    How are all satisfactory spot checks without significant findings reported?
    • A. 

      They are consolidated weekly on one AF Form 2419.

    • B. 

      They are consolidated weekly on one AF Form 2420.

    • C. 

      They are consolidated monthly on one AF Form 2419.

    • D. 

      They are consolidated monthly on one AF Form 2420.

  • 31. 
    How do the charges of protons and electrons differ?
    • A. 

      Protons have positive charges, and electrons have neutral charges.

    • B. 

      Protons have neutral charges, and electrons have positive charges.

    • C. 

      Protons have negative charges, and electrons have positive charges.

    • D. 

      Protons have positive charges, and electrons have negative charges.

  • 32. 
    How is the fueling control valve opened to perform hot refueling operations?
    • A. 

      By a flow switch located before the control pit.

    • B. 

      By air pressure from the deadman control valve.

    • C. 

      By fuel pressure from the deadman control valve.

    • D. 

      By a pressure switch located before the control pit.

  • 33. 
    How long should the fuel and water mixture in the separatory funnel be shaken when performing a fuel system icing inhibitor (FSII) test?
    • A. 

      Until you get a good separation.

    • B. 

      1 minute.

    • C. 

      3 minute.

    • D. 

      5 minute.

  • 34. 
    How many differential pressure transmitters (DPT) are installed on the issue line of a type III hydrant system that has a refueling capability of more than 2,400 gallons per minutes (gpm)?
    • A. 

      2.

    • B. 

      4.

    • C. 

      6.

    • D. 

      8.

  • 35. 
    How many feet of connecting hose does the ABFDS contain?
    • A. 

      162 ft

    • B. 

      173 ft

    • C. 

      186 ft

    • D. 

      190 ft

  • 36. 
    How many fillstand assemblies are included in the FORCE system?
    • A. 

      1

    • B. 

      2

    • C. 

      3

    • D. 

      4

  • 37. 
    How many filter elements does the ABFDS ACE contain?
    • A. 

      Two

    • B. 

      Three

    • C. 

      Four

    • D. 

      Six

  • 38. 
    How many filter elements does the PMU–27M filter separator contain?
    • A. 

      3

    • B. 

      6

    • C. 

      15

    • D. 

      30

  • 39. 
    How many filtrations, if any, are required for reclaimed products returned to storage which will be reissued to ground support equipment?
    • A. 

      None.

    • B. 

      One.

    • C. 

      Two.

    • D. 

      Three.

  • 40. 
    How many R–18 pumping units are included in a fuels operational readiness capability equipment module?
    • A. 

      1

    • B. 

      3

    • C. 

      4

    • D. 

      5

  • 41. 
    How many tanks are used with the type IV hydrant system, and what is the capacity of each?
    • A. 

      Two; 10,000 gallons.

    • B. 

      Four; 10,000 gallons.

    • C. 

      Two; 50,000 gallons.

    • D. 

      Four; 50,000 gallons.

  • 42. 
    How much fuel is passed through the test pad to obtain an Aeronautical Engine Laboratory (AEL) sample?
    • A. 

      1 quart.

    • B. 

      1 gallon.

    • C. 

      300 milliliters.

    • D. 

      600 milliliters.

  • 43. 
    How much total petroleum ether must be used to properly clean glass bottles before collecting samples for a fiber test?
    • A. 

      50 milliliters.

    • B. 

      100 milliliters.

    • C. 

      150 milliliters.

    • D. 

      200 milliliters.

  • 44. 
    How often are the printed standards for the Aeronautical Engine Laboratory (AEL) test replaced?
    • A. 

      Semiannually.

    • B. 

      Weekly.

    • C. 

      Daily.

    • D. 

      Annually.

  • 45. 
    How often must electrical continuity tests be performed on all filtration equipment?
    • A. 

      Daily.

    • B. 

      Weekly.

    • C. 

      Monthly.

    • D. 

      Semiannually.

  • 46. 
    How often should a filter separator vessel be cleaned?
    • A. 

      Every year, or when high concentrations of water detected.

    • B. 

      Every two years, or when sediment levels exceed tolerances.

    • C. 

      Every three years, or when coalescer elements are changed.

    • D. 

      Every five years, or when fiber sample fails.

  • 47. 
    How often should a liquid oxygen (LOX) generating plant be tested for odor and purity if a LOX production run will exceed 24 hours?
    • A. 

      Every 3 hours.

    • B. 

      Every 6 hours.

    • C. 

      Every 12 hours.

    • D. 

      Every 24 hours.

  • 48. 
    How often should a water slug valve test be performed on the Fuel Filter Unit (FFU)–15E?
    • A. 

      Daily

    • B. 

      Weekly

    • C. 

      Monthly

    • D. 

      Quarterly

  • 49. 
    How often should all fuels personnel complete task qualification training?
    • A. 

      Every 6 months

    • B. 

      Every 12 months

    • C. 

      Every 18 months

    • D. 

      Every 24 months

  • 50. 
    How often should correlation samples be submitted to the area laboratory to check the accuracy of tests performed at base level?
    • A. 

      Every 30 days.

    • B. 

      Every 45 days.

    • C. 

      Every 60 days.

    • D. 

      Every 90 days.

  • 51. 
    How often should cryotainers be sampled for purity, odor and minor constituents?
    • A. 

      Every 30 days.

    • B. 

      Every 60 days.

    • C. 

      Every 90 days.

    • D. 

      Every 120 days.

  • 52. 
    How often should dikes be checked for deterioration?
    • A. 

      Daily.

    • B. 

      Weekly.

    • C. 

      Monthly.

    • D. 

      Quarterly.

  • 53. 
    How often should government purchase card (GPC) cardholders reconcile their statement of account?
    • A. 

      Daily.

    • B. 

      Weekly.

    • C. 

      Monthly.

    • D. 

      Quarterly.

  • 54. 
    How often should hot refueling personnel undergo certification for hot refueling operations?
    • A. 

      Monthly.

    • B. 

      Quarterly.

    • C. 

      Semiannually.

    • D. 

      Annually.

  • 55. 
    How often should joint inventories for all individual tool kits (ITK) be accomplished?
    • A. 

      Monthly.

    • B. 

      Quarterly.

    • C. 

      Semiannually.

    • D. 

      Annually.

  • 56. 
    How often should the Aqua Glo water detector be calibrated?
    • A. 

      Daily.

    • B. 

      Weekly.

    • C. 

      Monthly.

    • D. 

      Semiannually.

  • 57. 
    How often should the engine fuel tank on the R–14 air transportable hydrant refueling system (ATHRS) be inspected to ensure it is free of water and sediment?
    • A. 

      Daily

    • B. 

      Weekly

    • C. 

      Monthly

    • D. 

      Quarterly

  • 58. 
    How often should the engine oil and oil filter on the PMU–27M be changed?
    • A. 

      Every 250 operating hours or three months, whichever comes first

    • B. 

      Every 250 operating hours or six months, whichever comes first

    • C. 

      Every 500 operating hours or three months, whichever comes first

    • D. 

      Every 500 operating hours or six months, whichever comes first

  • 59. 
    How often should the line strainers on the PMU–27M be removed and cleaned?
    • A. 

      Weekly

    • B. 

      Monthly

    • C. 

      Semiannually

    • D. 

      Annually

  • 60. 
    If an active duty airman cannot complete a core task due to nonavailability of equipment at the installation, submit a core task waiver request to the
    • A. 

      Squadron training manager

    • B. 

      LRS commander

    • C. 

      Parent MAJCOM

    • D. 

      Air Staff

  • 61. 
    If your base has experienced cold weather problems or anticipates cold weather problems, you should perform a cloud point test on all DF–2 that is received during
    • A. 

      January through April.

    • B. 

      October through December.

    • C. 

      October through March.

    • D. 

      November through January.

  • 62. 
    Initial tool listings for individual tool kits (ITK) and composite tool kits (CTK) include all of the following except
    • A. 

      Nomenclature.

    • B. 

      Quantity on hand.

    • C. 

      Quantity authorized.

    • D. 

      Tool national stock number (NSN).

  • 63. 
    Maintaining a current listing of all personnel with special experience identifiers (SEI) is the responsibility of the
    • A. 

      FSC.

    • B. 

      Fuels training supervisor

    • C. 

      Fuels mobility supervisor

    • D. 

      Fuels operations superintendent

  • 64. 
    On the type III hydrant system, where is the ball float assembly for the high-level shutoff valve located on an aboveground operating storage tank?
    • A. 

      On the top of the tank in the float well.

    • B. 

      On the top of the tank in the gauging well.

    • C. 

      On the interior of the tank at the required shut-off height.

    • D. 

      On the exterior of the tank at the required shut-off height.

  • 65. 
    On the type III hydrant system, which function of the filter separator control valve prevents the elements from bursting and allowing contaminated fuel downstream?
    • A. 

      Check valve.

    • B. 

      Flow control.

    • C. 

      Water slug shutoff.

    • D. 

      Differential pressure shutoff.

  • 66. 
    On the type IV hydrant system, how is fuel prevented from spilling onto the hot pad if a hose separates from the nozzle during a hot refueling operation?
    • A. 

      A dry break coupler inside the hose closes automatically.

    • B. 

      The flow switch senses a sudden surge in fuel flow, and shuts down the pumps.

    • C. 

      The pressure switch senses a sudden drop in pressure, and shuts down the pumps.

    • D. 

      The fusible link melts and falls out, causing the spring-loaded butterfly part of the valve to close.

  • 67. 
    On the type IV hydrant system, how many aircraft can be hot refueled simultaneously in about 8 to 12 minutes, depending on the type of aircraft?
    • A. 

      2.

    • B. 

      3.

    • C. 

      4.

    • D. 

      6.

  • 68. 
    On the type V hydrant system, the deadman control valve is operated
    • A. 

      Electrically.

    • B. 

      Mechanically.

    • C. 

      By air pressure.

    • D. 

      By fuel pressure.

  • 69. 
    On the type V hydrant system, what size are the stainless steel pantographs that are installed inside the hardened shelters?
    • A. 

      3 inches.

    • B. 

      6 inches.

    • C. 

      9 inches.

    • D. 

      12 inches.

  • 70. 
    On what grades of fuel can the R–22 be designed to operate? a. . b. . c. . d. .
    • A. 

      MOGAS

    • B. 

      MOGAS and jet fuel

    • C. 

      Diesel fuel

    • D. 

      Diesel fuel and jet fuel

  • 71. 
    On which grades of fuel can the engine on the R–14 ATHRS operate?
    • A. 

      Jet fuel and gasoline

    • B. 

      Diesel fuel and jet fuel

    • C. 

      Diesel fuel and gasoline

    • D. 

      Diesel fuel, jet fuel, and gasoline

  • 72. 
    Personnel attending Aerial Bulk Fuel Delivery System (ABFDS) or Forward Area Refueling Point (FARP) training must have a minimum of how many months retainability?
    • A. 

      6.

    • B. 

      12.

    • C. 

      18.

    • D. 

      24.

  • 73. 
    Providing supply and equipment budget forecasts through the fuels management team (FMT) to the squadron commander is the responsibility of the
    • A. 

      FISC superintendent.

    • B. 

      Mobile refueling supervisor.

    • C. 

      Fuels operations superintendent.

    • D. 

      Fuels material control supervisor.

  • 74. 
    Since manning is not required for the type V hydrant system, how often must inspections be performed when it is operating?
    • A. 

      Every hour.

    • B. 

      Every 2 hours.

    • C. 

      Every 3 hours.

    • D. 

      Every 4 hours.

  • 75. 
    The ABFDS can carry what maximum number of gals. per sortie?
    • A. 

      3,000 gal

    • B. 

      6,000 gal

    • C. 

      9,000 gal

    • D. 

      30,000 gal

  • 76. 
    The amount of bulk petroleum war reserve requirement (BPWRR) a defense fuel supply point (DFSP) is authorized to store is referred to as
    • A. 

      Maximum inventory.

    • B. 

      Minimum inventory level.

    • C. 

      Peacetime operating stock.

    • D. 

      Bulk petroleum war reserve stock.

  • 77. 
    The centrifugal, self priming pump on the PMU–27M can deliver fuel at what flow rate?
    • A. 

      50 gpm

    • B. 

      100 gpm

    • C. 

      150 gpm

    • D. 

      300 gpm

  • 78. 
    The control valves will close if there is a communication loss between the R–20 multiaircraft servicing unit and the lead pumping unit exceeding how many minutes?
    • A. 

      2 minutes

    • B. 

      3 minutes

    • C. 

      4 minutes

    • D. 

      5 minutes

  • 79. 
    The FAM cart is equipped with all of the following nozzles except
    • A. 

      Overwing nozzle

    • B. 

      D–1 single point nozzle

    • C. 

      D–2 single point nozzle

    • D. 

      Closed circuit refueling nozzle

  • 80. 
    The FFU–15E filter separator is equipped with how many filter elements?
    • A. 

      6

    • B. 

      12

    • C. 

      18

    • D. 

      24

  • 81. 
    The FORCE system allows what maximum number of R–20s to be used within the same system for fuel servicing?
    • A. 

      3

    • B. 

      5

    • C. 

      6

    • D. 

      10

  • 82. 
    The fuels training supervisor should review all training records
    • A. 

      Annually

    • B. 

      Semiannually

    • C. 

      Quarterly

    • D. 

      Monthly

  • 83. 
    The Inventory Management Plan (IMP) is published
    • A. 

      Quarterly.

    • B. 

      Semiannually.

    • C. 

      Annually.

    • D. 

      Every two years.

  • 84. 
    The PMU–27M may be connected to what maximum number of 500-gal. sealed drums?
    • A. 

      Two

    • B. 

      Three

    • C. 

      Four

    • D. 

      Six

  • 85. 
    The R–18 pumping unit is capable of pumping at what maximum gpm?
    • A. 

      450 gpm

    • B. 

      600 gpm

    • C. 

      900 gpm

    • D. 

      1250 gpm

  • 86. 
    The R–19 filter separator unit can filter fuel at what maximum gpm rate?
    • A. 

      450 gpm

    • B. 

      600 gpm

    • C. 

      750 gpm

    • D. 

      1200 gpm

  • 87. 
    The R–22 trailer mounted transfer pump has the capability of transferring a maximum of how many gals. of fuel per day?
    • A. 

      100,000

    • B. 

      200,000

    • C. 

      250,000

    • D. 

      500,000

  • 88. 
    The standard measure for atmospheric pressure is equal to how many pounds per square inch?
    • A. 

      13.1 psi.

    • B. 

      14.7 psi.

    • C. 

      15.2 psi.

    • D. 

      17.9 psi.

  • 89. 
    The system shutdown indicator on the R–20 multi-aircraft servicing platform will illuminate when the level in the sump tank reaches what capacity?
    • A. 

      70 percent

    • B. 

      75 percent

    • C. 

      90 percent

    • D. 

      95 percent

  • 90. 
    The Tank Group window in FuelsManager allows operators to create tabular lists of up to how many tanks?
    • A. 

      5.

    • B. 

      10.

    • C. 

      15.

    • D. 

      20.

  • 91. 
    The uniform movement of electrons in a specific direction is called
    • A. 

      Electrical potential.

    • B. 

      Free electrons.

    • C. 

      Electric current.

    • D. 

      Ionization.

  • 92. 
    The war consumables distribution objective (WCDO) is derived from the War and Mobilization Plan (WMP)–4 and WMP–5
    • A. 

      Weekly.

    • B. 

      Monthly.

    • C. 

      Quarterly.

    • D. 

      Annually.

  • 93. 
    To aid in priming, the PMU–27M is equipped with a priming
    • A. 

      Stem

    • B. 

      Hose

    • C. 

      Valve

    • D. 

      Coupler

  • 94. 
    To obtain meaningful results with the bottle method test, the vacuum must read in excess of
    • A. 

      20 inches of mercury.

    • B. 

      25 inches of mercury.

    • C. 

      27 inches of mercury.

    • D. 

      30 inches of mercury.

  • 95. 
    Two or more atoms combined is called a
    • A. 

      A compound.

    • B. 

      An element.

    • C. 

      A molecule.

    • D. 

      A mixture.

  • 96. 
    Urgent action time compliance technical orders (TCTO) require compliance within what maximum amount of days?
    • A. 

      10 days.

    • B. 

      20 days.

    • C. 

      30 days.

    • D. 

      60 days.

  • 97. 
    What action, if any, should be taken if a commercial delivery operator does not provide a Department of Defense (DD) Form 250 with a liquid oxygen (LOX) shipment?
    • A. 

      No action is required.

    • B. 

      Notify the FMT and obtain an odor sample.

    • C. 

      Contact AFPET for disposition instructions.

    • D. 

      Inform the FSC and await further guidance.

  • 98. 
    What agency is responsible for formulating and disseminating instructions and other directives that cover operations not specified in detail in Air Force Manual (AFMAN) 23–110, Volume 2?
    • A. 

      MAJCOM.

    • B. 

      DESC.

    • C. 

      AFPET.

    • D. 

      HQ USAF.

  • 99. 
    What agency is responsible for the procurement of fuel at deployed locations?
    • A. 

      Deployed fuels management team

    • B. 

      Parent MAJCOM

    • C. 

      Joint petroleum office

    • D. 

      DESC

  • 100. 
    What agency serves as the link between the Defense Energy Support Center (DESC) and its customers?
    • A. 

      BFMO.

    • B. 

      AFPET.

    • C. 

      HQ USAF.

    • D. 

      DESC regions.

  • 101. 
    What agency should the fuels management team (FMT) consult with on all matters regarding the provision of or changes to personal protective equipment (PPE) for workers?
    • A. 

      Base environmental manager.

    • B. 

      Base bioenvironmental engineer.

    • C. 

      Group environmental coordinator.

    • D. 

      Environmental protection committee.

  • 102. 
    What are the filter use limits for the PMU–27M?
    • A. 

      Two years or 200,000 gallons (gal.) throughput

    • B. 

      Two years or 400,000 gal. throughput

    • C. 

      Three years or 200,000 gal. throughput

    • D. 

      Three years or 400,000 gal. throughput

  • 103. 
    What are the three things needed to produce voltage by the principle of electromagnetic induction?
    • A. 

      Coil, core, and current.

    • B. 

      Magnet, housing, and prime mover.

    • C. 

      Coil, conductors, and relative motion.

    • D. 

      Magnetic field, conductor, and relative motion.

  • 104. 
    What are the two most common methods of producing voltage?
    • A. 

      Magnetic and heat.

    • B. 

      Chemical and heat.

    • C. 

      Chemical and mechanical.

    • D. 

      Magnetic and mechanical.

  • 105. 
    What are the two positions of the throttle switch located on the R–18 pumping unit’s handheld remote?
    • A. 

      ON and OFF

    • B. 

      ON and IDLE

    • C. 

      OFF and RUN

    • D. 

      RUN and IDLE

  • 106. 
    What causes the automatic bypass valve on the type III hydrant system to open and let fuel bypass the filter separator when receiving fuel by cross-country pipeline?
    • A. 

      Differential pressure of 20 psi sensed across the receiving filter separator.

    • B. 

      Differential pressure of 30 psi sensed by the differential pressure switch.

    • C. 

      System pressure that exceeds the maximum vessel operating pressure.

    • D. 

      System pressure that routes flow around the vessel when manual valves are used.

  • 107. 
    What cleaning agent should be used to clean the probe on the conductivity meter?
    • A. 

      Isopropyl alcohol.

    • B. 

      Petroleum ether.

    • C. 

      Turbine fuel.

    • D. 

      Acetone.

  • 108. 
    What component found on R–11s and R–12s prevents the auxiliary throttle from operating unless the power takeoff (PTO) is engaged?
    • A. 

      PTO interlock system.

    • B. 

      Throttle interlock system.

    • C. 

      Emergency shutdown switch.

    • D. 

      Emergency engine kill switch.

  • 109. 
    What component on the R–18 pumping unit will illuminate to indicate a serious problem with the engine?
    • A. 

      Stop light

    • B. 

      Beacon light

    • C. 

      Warning light

    • D. 

      Emergency stop activated indicator

  • 110. 
    What determines the intensity of the excess pressure in a water-hammer wave?
    • A. 

      The size of the pipe.

    • B. 

      The specific gravity of the fuel.

    • C. 

      The change in gallons per minute.

    • D. 

      The amount of extinguished velocity.

  • 111. 
    What does a steady red light on the battery status LED of the R–20 multi-aircraft servicing platform indicate?
    • A. 

      Battery charging

    • B. 

      Battery charge low

    • C. 

      Battery disconnected

    • D. 

      Battery at middle capacity

  • 112. 
    What effect of current causes an electric motor to produce mechanical energy?
    • A. 

      Heat.

    • B. 

      Magnetism.

    • C. 

      Chemical.

    • D. 

      Reactance.

  • 113. 
    What environmental regulation establishes “cradle to grave” control of hazardous substances?
    • A. 

      40 Code of Federal Regulations (CFR) 280.

    • B. 

      Technical Order (TO) 42B–1–23.

    • C. 

      Department of Defense (DOD) Directive 4140.25M.

    • D. 

      Resource Conservation and Recovery Act (RCRA).

  • 114. 
    What filter separator component prevents pressure surges from damaging dispensing pressure control systems?
    • A. 

      Air eliminator.

    • B. 

      Water slug valve.

    • C. 

      Float control valve.

    • D. 

      Mainline control valve.

  • 115. 
    What form is used to annotate fuel bladder inspections?
    • A. 

      AF Form 1807

    • B. 

      AFTO Form 39

    • C. 

      AFTO Form 95

    • D. 

      A locally developed form

  • 116. 
    What form is used to record limited technical inspections (LTI) on used vehicles?
    • A. 

      AF Form 1800.

    • B. 

      AF Form 1807.

    • C. 

      AFTO Form 91.

    • D. 

      AFTO Form 92.

  • 117. 
    What form should be completed for awarding skill levels when all upgrade training (UGT) requirements have been met?
    • A. 

      AF Form 623

    • B. 

      AF Form 797

    • C. 

      AF Form 1098

    • D. 

      AF Form 2096

  • 118. 
    What form should be used to identify liquid oxygen (LOX) samples sent to the area laboratory?
    • A. 

      AF Form 176.

    • B. 

      AF Form 475.

    • C. 

      AFTO Form 176.

    • D. 

      AFTO Form 475.

  • 119. 
    What fuel dispensing system component controls system fuel pressure?
    • A. 

      Bypass system.

    • B. 

      Mainline system.

    • C. 

      Hose reel control.

    • D. 

      Deadman control.

  • 120. 
    What grade of fuel should be used to flush the R–14 prior to air shipment?
    • A. 

      JP–4

    • B. 

      JP–5

    • C. 

      JP–8

    • D. 

      JPTS

  • 121. 
    What happens if the tank outlet manual valve on the type III hydrant system is open during an emergency stop situation?
    • A. 

      A horn will sound.

    • B. 

      The upstream butterfly valve closes.

    • C. 

      The downstream butterfly valve closes.

    • D. 

      The tank outlet valve will close automatically.

  • 122. 
    What happens when the type III hydrant system product recovery tank is 70 percent full?
    • A. 

      Float assembly closes the inlet valve.

    • B. 

      Switch assembly automatically turns the pump on.

    • C. 

      Float assembly closes the high-level shut-off valve.

    • D. 

      Switch assembly senses an emergency condition and shuts down the system.

  • 123. 
    What is a major difference between a gas and a liquid?
    • A. 

      A liquid is far less compressible than a gas.

    • B. 

      A gas is far less compressible than a liquid.

    • C. 

      A liquid is more combustible than a gas.

    • D. 

      A gas is more combustible than a liquid.

  • 124. 
    What is the first factor that the senior ranking deployed fuels member must consider when selecting a site for fuels operations?
    • A. 

      Safety

    • B. 

      Feasibility

    • C. 

      Force protection

    • D. 

      Proximity of aircraft servicing operations

  • 125. 
    What is the lifting force of a liquid called?
    • A. 

      Laminar.

    • B. 

      Interface.

    • C. 

      Buoyance.

    • D. 

      Dynamic pressure.

  • 126. 
    What is the maximum amount of time that can pass between the time a sample is obtained and the time a conductivity reading is taken?
    • A. 

      1 hour.

    • B. 

      6 hour.

    • C. 

      12 hour.

    • D. 

      24 hour.

  • 127. 
    What is the normal range of use limits for fuel system icing inhibitor (FSII) in turbine fuel?
    • A. 

      0.05 to 0.07 percent.

    • B. 

      0.05 to 0.10 percent.

    • C. 

      0.07 to 0.10 percent.

    • D. 

      0.07 to 0.20 percent.

  • 128. 
    What is the preferable time after obtaining a sample to take a conductivity reading?
    • A. 

      1 minute.

    • B. 

      2 minutes.

    • C. 

      5 minutes.

    • D. 

      10 minutes.

  • 129. 
    What is the primary purpose of the R–14 ATHRS?
    • A. 

      Transferring large quantities of fuel

    • B. 

      Blending multiple fuel additives at different ratios

    • C. 

      Servicing aircraft where permanent systems are not available

    • D. 

      Servicing small aircraft and transferring small quantities of fuel

  • 130. 
    What is the proper tire pressure setting for highway towing of an R–14 air transportable hydrant refueling system (ATHRS)?
    • A. 

      30 pounds per square inch (psi)

    • B. 

      35 psi

    • C. 

      60 psi

    • D. 

      65 psi

  • 131. 
    What is the proper tire pressure setting for the R–18 pumping unit?
    • A. 

      30 pounds per square inch (psi)

    • B. 

      65 psi

    • C. 

      75 psi

    • D. 

      100 psi

  • 132. 
    What is the rated capacity of the pumps on the type IV pressurized hot refueling system?
    • A. 

      300 gpm.

    • B. 

      600 gpm.

    • C. 

      900 gpm.

    • D. 

      1,200 gpm.

  • 133. 
    What is the simplest and most expedient method of fuel resupply?
    • A. 

      ABFDS

    • B. 

      Ocean tanker

    • C. 

      Aircraft systems

    • D. 

      The same source of supply used by the host airfield

  • 134. 
    What is the total flow rate of the ABFDS?
    • A. 

      300 gpm

    • B. 

      350 gpm

    • C. 

      450 gpm

    • D. 

      600 gpm

  • 135. 
    What is the unit of measurement for electrical power?
    • A. 

      Watts.

    • B. 

      Volts.

    • C. 

      Amps.

    • D. 

      Ohms.

  • 136. 
    What item protects fuel dispensing system electrical components against overload?
    • A. 

      Automatic reset-type circuit breakers.

    • B. 

      Manual reset-type circuit breakers.

    • C. 

      Twenty-five amp Bosch-type fuse.

    • D. 

      Ten amp ATO fuse.

  • 137. 
    What major command (MAJCOM) developed the type IV pressurized hot fueling system?
    • A. 

      Pacific Air Force (PACAF).

    • B. 

      Air Combat Command (ACC).

    • C. 

      Air Mobility Command (AMC).

    • D. 

      United States Air Force in Europe (USAFE).

  • 138. 
    What maximum number of additives can the TPI–4T–4A portable additive injector simultaneously inject?
    • A. 

      Two

    • B. 

      Three

    • C. 

      Four

    • D. 

      Five

  • 139. 
    What maximum number of base stations may be configured to operate with the automated data collection (ADC) system?
    • A. 

      5.

    • B. 

      6.

    • C. 

      10.

    • D. 

      12.

  • 140. 
    What maximum number of receiver aircraft can a FAM cart service simultaneously?
    • A. 

      Two

    • B. 

      Three

    • C. 

      Five

    • D. 

      Six

  • 141. 
    What maximum ramp angle can the R–14 negotiate in the high mobility position?
    • A. 

    • B. 

      10°

    • C. 

      15°

    • D. 

      20°

  • 142. 
    What may a filter separator differential pressure reading below 3 pounds per square inch (psi) indicate?
    • A. 

      Clean coalescer elements.

    • B. 

      Damaged coalescer screens.

    • C. 

      Clogged or dirty coalescers.

    • D. 

      A defective O-ring or ruptured coalescers.

  • 143. 
    What pressure should the surge suppressor gauge on the R–20 multi-aircraft servicing unit indicate when the fueling system is not operating?
    • A. 

      45 pounds per square inch (psi)

    • B. 

      75 psi

    • C. 

      90 psi

    • D. 

      150 psi

  • 144. 
    What size graduated cylinder is used to perform the American Petroleum Institute (API) gravity test?
    • A. 

      500 ml.

    • B. 

      1,000 ml.

    • C. 

      1,500 ml.

    • D. 

      2,000 ml.

  • 145. 
    What size mesh screen is used in the type III hydrant system receiving strainer?
    • A. 

      20.

    • B. 

      40.

    • C. 

      60.

    • D. 

      80.

  • 146. 
    What size sealing clamp should be used to repair a 5 in. hole in a fuel bladder?
    • A. 

      3 in

    • B. 

      5 in

    • C. 

      6 ½ in

    • D. 

      7 ½ in

  • 147. 
    What symbol should you enter on the Air Force Technical Order (AFTO) Form 244/245 if a routine inspection on a cryotainer goes overdue?
    • A. 

      Red X.

    • B. 

      Red dash.

    • C. 

      Red cross.

    • D. 

      Red diagonal.

  • 148. 
    What temperature is used to dry filters prior to performing the bottle method test?
    • A. 

      50°C.

    • B. 

      90°C.

    • C. 

      100°C.

    • D. 

      190°C.

  • 149. 
    What term is used to define the process that takes place when water forms into droplets after passing through filter elements?
    • A. 

      Separation.

    • B. 

      Integration.

    • C. 

      Coalescing.

    • D. 

      Commingling.

  • 150. 
    What term is used to describe the total pressure acting as a gas?
    • A. 

      Overpressure.

    • B. 

      Gauge pressure.

    • C. 

      Absolute pressure.

    • D. 

      Atmospheric pressure.

  • 151. 
    What type of current flow is the result of voltages produced by batteries and thermocouples?
    • A. 

      Open current.

    • B. 

      Direct current.

    • C. 

      Latent current.

    • D. 

      Alternating current.

  • 152. 
    What type of fabric are fuel bladders made of?
    • A. 

      Epoxy coated

    • B. 

      Single ply nylon

    • C. 

      Double ply kevlar

    • D. 

      Rubber impregnated

  • 153. 
    What type of inspection is performed to determine the condition of a vehicle or piece of equipment?
    • A. 

      Annual inspection.

    • B. 

      Special inspection.

    • C. 

      Limited technical inspection.

    • D. 

      Preventative maintenance and inspection.

  • 154. 
    What type of lubricant is used to lubricate the power takeoff (PTO) on a fuel dispensing system?
    • A. 

      Thirty-weight motor oil.

    • B. 

      Ninety-weight gear oil.

    • C. 

      Synthetic gear lube.

    • D. 

      Silicone grease.

  • 155. 
    What type of material is used to construct the fuel tank on the R–11?
    • A. 

      Titanium.

    • B. 

      Stainless steel.

    • C. 

      Sheet aluminum alloy.

    • D. 

      Steel-reinforced carbon fiber.

  • 156. 
    What type of meter is used on most fuel dispensing systems?
    • A. 

      Tri-rotor, positive displacement.

    • B. 

      Bi-rotor, positive displacement.

    • C. 

      Single-stage, bi-directional.

    • D. 

      Dual-stage, bi-directional.

  • 157. 
    What type of meter, if any, is installed on the TPI–4T–4A portable additive injector?
    • A. 

      None

    • B. 

      Flow control

    • C. 

      Bi-directional

    • D. 

      Positive displacement

  • 158. 
    What type of pressure reading is also referred to as overpressure?
    • A. 

      Zero pressure.

    • B. 

      Gauge pressure.

    • C. 

      Absolute pressure.

    • D. 

      Atmospheric pressure.

  • 159. 
    What type of publication is issued when a commercial manufacturer discovers dangerous or unsafe conditions with a product?
    • A. 

      Service bulletin.

    • B. 

      Urgent action TCTO.

    • C. 

      Manufacturer’s recall.

    • D. 

      Immediate action TCTO.

  • 160. 
    What type of thermometer should you use when performing a cloud point analysis?
    • A. 

      ASTM 5F.

    • B. 

      ASTM 89C.

    • C. 

      ASTM 1086.

    • D. 

      ASTM D2500.

  • 161. 
    What type of time compliance technical order (TCTO) is issued for safety conditions which, if left uncorrected, could result in fatality or serious injury to personnel or extensive damage to or destruction of valuable property?
    • A. 

      Urgent action.

    • B. 

      Routine action.

    • C. 

      Scheduled action.

    • D. 

      Immediate action.

  • 162. 
    What type(s) of current flow cannot be transformed from a higher voltage to a lower voltage?
    • A. 

      Latent current.

    • B. 

      Direct current.

    • C. 

      Latent and open current.

    • D. 

      Alternating and direct current.

  • 163. 
    When conducting internal inspections, within what maximum number of days should an element be inspected if it receives unsatisfactory rating?
    • A. 

      30 days.

    • B. 

      45 days.

    • C. 

      60 days.

    • D. 

      90 days.

  • 164. 
    When configuring the automated data collection (ADC) system, what maximum number of dial retries can you configure the user interface terminal’s (UIT) to attempt?
    • A. 

      30.

    • B. 

      49.

    • C. 

      60.

    • D. 

      99.

  • 165. 
    When determining authorizations for cash sales, you know that cash sales are only authorized when
    • A. 

      Products are not normally stocked.

    • B. 

      Military exchange facilities are available at the installation.

    • C. 

      Adequate commercial facilities are available within reasonable distance.

    • D. 

      Sales support by equipment and/or personnel do not interfere with military operations.

  • 166. 
    When determining authorizations for sales to non-DOD aircraft, you know that “T” Department of Defense address activity codes (DODAAC) are assigned to non-DOD organizations by
    • A. 

      DESC.

    • B. 

      AFPET.

    • C. 

      DAASC.

    • D. 

      MAJCOM.

  • 167. 
    When do the magnetic lines of force in a magnet cross?
    • A. 

      When the north pole of a magnet is placed near the north pole of another magnet.

    • B. 

      When the south pole of a magnet is placed near the north pole of another magnet.

    • C. 

      When a permanent magnet and a temporary magnet are put together.

    • D. 

      Magnetic lines of force never cross each other.

  • 168. 
    When documenting a cryogenic product issue to a liquid oxygen (LOX) cart on the Air Force Technical Order (AFTO) Form 134, what information should be entered block 4?
    • A. 

      The date the cart was filled.

    • B. 

      The quantity issued to the cart.

    • C. 

      The tank number of the issuing cryotainer.

    • D. 

      The initials of the individual that filled the cart.

  • 169. 
    When documenting a cryogenic product issue to a liquid oxygen (LOX) cart on the Air Force Technical Order (AFTO) Form 134, how should odor test results be annotated in block 2?
    • A. 

      As either “+” or “-” in column A.

    • B. 

      As either “PASS” of “FAIL” in column B.

    • C. 

      As either “GO” or “NO GO” in column C.

    • D. 

      As either “FAIL” of “PASS” in column D.

  • 170. 
    When documenting a cryogenic product receipt on the Air Force Form 1231, from which of the following documents is the contract number obtained?
    • A. 

      DD Form 250.

    • B. 

      DD Form 250–1.

    • C. 

      DD Form 1348.

    • D. 

      DD Form 1348–1.

  • 171. 
    When documenting a significant maintenance action on an Air Force Technical Order (AFTO) Form 95, what information should you enter in block 1?
    • A. 

      The appropriate page number.

    • B. 

      The serial number of the item.

    • C. 

      The name of the equipment manufacturer.

    • D. 

      The mission, design, series (MDS) of the equipment.

  • 172. 
    When encoding a vehicle identification link (VIL) key for a rental vehicle, what information should be entered in the vehicle identification field?
    • A. 

      The word “Rental”.

    • B. 

      The payment office DODAAC.

    • C. 

      The vehicle license plate number.

    • D. 

      The ORG code for the DFSP issuing the VIL key.

  • 173. 
    When encoding vehicle identification link (VIL) keys, how long should you maintain copies of a vehicle identification link (VIL) key requests in the defense fuel supply point (DSFP) document control file?
    • A. 

      12 months.

    • B. 

      24 months.

    • C. 

      36 months.

    • D. 

      48 months.

  • 174. 
    When entering an order into the Paperless Ordering and Receipt Tracking Screens (PORTS) system, what agencies receive fuel request e-mails from after you have placed the ground products order?
    • A. 

      FSC and the FMT.

    • B. 

      FSC and the vendor.

    • C. 

      DESC and MAJCOM.

    • D. 

      The vendor and DESC.

  • 175. 
    When entering sample information in Business Systems Modernization-Energy (BSM-E), what information should you record in the SAMPLE block?
    • A. 

      The type of sample taken.

    • B. 

      The next sequential sample number.

    • C. 

      The kind of sample equipment used.

    • D. 

      The amount of fuel obtained to perform the sample analysis.

  • 176. 
    When investigating fuel gains and losses, you determine an excessive variance was caused by a pipeline rupture. This variance should fall into what category?
    • A. 

      Major disaster.

    • B. 

      Combat losses.

    • C. 

      Peacetime losses.

    • D. 

      Determinable losses.

  • 177. 
    When investigating fuel gains and losses, you know that variances in inventory levels may be caused by all of the following conditions except
    • A. 

      Tank size.

    • B. 

      Temperature.

    • C. 

      Mode of delivery.

    • D. 

      Volume of the product.

  • 178. 
    When maintaining Defense Energy Support Center (DESC) files, at a minimum, the defense fuel supply point (DFSP) inventory transaction documents and official records you store locally should consist of the current fiscal year documents plus documents from how many previous fiscal years?
    • A. 

      1

    • B. 

      2

    • C. 

      3

    • D. 

      5

  • 179. 
    When maintaining Defense Energy Support Center (DESC) files, upon successful completion of end-of year closeout actions, how long should you retain the twelve monthly electronic backup disks as the fiscal year backup?
    • A. 

      3 years.

    • B. 

      3 years and 6 months.

    • C. 

      6 years.

    • D. 

      6 years and 3 months.

  • 180. 
    When making a cash sale, what others forms of currency besides United States currency are acceptable for cash sale payments?
    • A. 

      None.

    • B. 

      All forms of European currency.

    • C. 

      Any form of international currency.

    • D. 

      All forms of North American currency.

  • 181. 
    When performing a hydrant flushing operation, ensure enough fuel velocity is generated to remove water and sediment by flushing the system
    • A. 

      Every 90 days.

    • B. 

      With all issue pumps operating.

    • C. 

      With at least two issue pumps operating.

    • D. 

      At 50 percent of the rated system capacity.

  • 182. 
    When performing a monthly inspection on emergency switches, check to ensure
    • A. 

      The switches are not damaged.

    • B. 

      Proper lubrication of the switches.

    • C. 

      The switches are mechanically functional.

    • D. 

      Proper operation while the system control panel/operation circuit is energized .

  • 183. 
    When performing a semiannual inspection of fillstand bonding receptacles for proper tension, you obtain a pull measurement of five pounds. This indicates a
    • A. 

      Corroded bond plug.

    • B. 

      Corroded bonding receptacle.

    • C. 

      Weak or damaged bond plug.

    • D. 

      Weak or damaged bonding receptacle.

  • 184. 
    When performing fuel servicing operations with the R–18 pumping unit, the throttle control should manually be set to what rpm setting?
    • A. 

      1,550 rpm

    • B. 

      1,850 rpm

    • C. 

      1,950 rpm

    • D. 

      2,250 rpm

  • 185. 
    When performing fuel servicing operations with the R–20 multi-aircraft servicing platform, the deadman switch on the hand-held remote should be pressed and released at intervals no greater than how many minutes?
    • A. 

      1 minute

    • B. 

      2 minutes

    • C. 

      4 minutes

    • D. 

      5 minutes

  • 186. 
    When performing fuels controller duties, in the event of an emergency, you must notify each element in the Fuels management flight, the squadron commander and the
    • A. 

      Group commander.

    • B. 

      Wing commander.

    • C. 

      Group command post.

    • D. 

      Wing command post.

  • 187. 
    When performing meter calibrations, what is the acceptable difference between the master meter and the meter being calibrated?
    • A. 

      ½ gallon for each 100 gallons passing through the meter.

    • B. 

      ½ gallon for each 500 gallons passing through the meter.

    • C. 

      1 gallon for each 100 gallons passing through the meter.

    • D. 

      1 gallon for each 500 gallons passing through the meter.

  • 188. 
    When performing offload operations with the FORCE system, the deadman switch on the R–18 pumping unit should be placed in what position?
    • A. 

      ON

    • B. 

      OFF

    • C. 

      OFFLOAD

    • D. 

      NO DEADMAN

  • 189. 
    When personnel are servicing aircraft with the type IV hydrant system, who is responsible for positioning the aircraft on the hot pad?
    • A. 

      Fuels operator.

    • B. 

      Fuels operations supervisor.

    • C. 

      Hot refueling crewman

    • D. 

      Hot refueling supervisor

  • 190. 
    When posting changes and supplements to publications, within what maximum number of days of receipt should you file technical order (TO) changes and supplements?
    • A. 

      1.

    • B. 

      5.

    • C. 

      7.

    • D. 

      10.

  • 191. 
    When posting changes to publications, when, if ever, are “List of Effective Pages” checks mandatory?
    • A. 

      Never.

    • B. 

      As directed by MAJCOM.

    • C. 

      At the discretion of the TO manager.

    • D. 

      When changes and revisions are posted to paper TOs are posted.

  • 192. 
    When preparing the R–20 filter separator unit for shipment, drain all of the following components except the
    • A. 

      Sump tank

    • B. 

      Control valves

    • C. 

      Micronic filter

    • D. 

      Surge suppressors

  • 193. 
    When preparing to issue liquid nitrogen (LIN), what action, if any, should you take if a receiving tank’s Air Force Technical Order (AFTO) Forms 244/245 lists an open Red X condition?
    • A. 

      No action is required.

    • B. 

      Do not fill the receiving tank.

    • C. 

      Inform the FMT and await further instructions.

    • D. 

      Notify the FSC and request line expediter assistance.

  • 194. 
    When preparing to issue liquid oxygen (LOX), what action, if any, should be taken if a review of a receiving tank’s Air Force Technical Order (AFTO) Form 134 finds that the form is not properly filled out?
    • A. 

      No action is required.

    • B. 

      Do not service the receiving tank.

    • C. 

      Contact the FSC and await further instructions.

    • D. 

      Inform aircraft maintenance of the discrepancy.

  • 195. 
    When preparing to perform an annual inspection, review all of the following forms for annotated discrepancies except
    • A. 

      AFTO Form 95.

    • B. 

      AFTO Form 134.

    • C. 

      AFTO Form 244.

    • D. 

      AFTO Form 245.

  • 196. 
    When rating an inspection, the compliance and environmental element may use the five-tier rating system at the discretion of the
    • A. 

      FMT.

    • B. 

      Squadron commander.

    • C. 

      Group commander.

    • D. 

      Parent MAJCOM.

  • 197. 
    When reporting inspection results, what form should be used to report inspection result findings?
    • A. 

      AF Form 2419.

    • B. 

      AF Form 2420.

    • C. 

      AF Form 2605.

    • D. 

      AF Form 2606.

  • 198. 
    When selecting a fuel site, what factor will drive span of control decisions?
    • A. 

      Site location

    • B. 

      Asset security

    • C. 

      Force protection

    • D. 

      Geographical dispersion

  • 199. 
    When selecting a site for bladder operations, the site should have less than what degree of slope?
    • A. 

    • B. 

    • C. 

    • D. 

  • 200. 
    When setting up the R–22, prime the centrifugal pump with approximately how many gallons of fuel?
    • A. 

      5

    • B. 

      10

    • C. 

      15

    • D. 

      20

  • 201. 
    When should a refractometer used for fuel system icing inhibitor (FSII) tests be calibrated?
    • A. 

      Prior to first use.

    • B. 

      Weekly, and prior to first use.

    • C. 

      Daily, or when changing test water.

    • D. 

      Monthly, or when changing test water.

  • 202. 
    When should Bourdon gauges be calibrated?
    • A. 

      Quarterly.

    • B. 

      Semiannually.

    • C. 

      Annually.

    • D. 

      Biennially.

  • 203. 
    When should Defense Energy Support Center (DESC) receive the non-Department of Defense (DOD) sales report and supporting documents?
    • A. 

      Within 2 working days after the end of the month.

    • B. 

      Within 2 calendar days after the end of the month.

    • C. 

      Within 5 working days after the end of the month.

    • D. 

      Within 5 calendar days after the end of the month.

  • 204. 
    When starting the PMU–27M, the throttle should be placed at
    • A. 

      Idle

    • B. 

      Half speed

    • C. 

      Two-thirds speed

    • D. 

      Full speed

  • 205. 
    When testing for fiber particles after an element change, how much fuel must be flush through a filter separator?
    • A. 

      200 gallons.

    • B. 

      500 gallons.

    • C. 

      1,000 gallons.

    • D. 

      2,000 gallons.

  • 206. 
    When you are generating queries in Business Systems Modernization-Energy (BSM-E), the query should consist of at least one field, comparison and
    • A. 

      Link.

    • B. 

      Rate.

    • C. 

      Value.

    • D. 

      Subject.

  • 207. 
    When you are inputting a transaction in the Business Systems Modernization-Energy (BSM-E) log sheet, what information should you enter in the Defuel field when entering a defuel request?
    • A. 

      Enter the word “Defuel” in the field.

    • B. 

      Enter the reason for the defuel request.

    • C. 

      Enter “Y’ in place of the defaulted “N”.

    • D. 

      Enter the estimated gallon amount of the defuel.

  • 208. 
    When you are maintaining and updating statuses in Business Systems Modernization- Energy (BSM-E) which status board should you use to document transfers?
    • A. 

      Move.

    • B. 

      Hydrants.

    • C. 

      Inventory.

    • D. 

      General Purpose.

  • 209. 
    When you are performing fuels controller duties, how often should you reconcile with the Fuels Enterprise Server (FES) and clear rejects?
    • A. 

      Daily.

    • B. 

      Weekly.

    • C. 

      Monthly.

    • D. 

      Quarterly.

  • 210. 
    When you are reconciling accounts, what is the allowable tolerance for motor (automotive) gasoline (MOGAS)?
    • A. 

      .0025.

    • B. 

      .003.

    • C. 

      .005.

    • D. 

      .0075.

  • 211. 
    When you are submitting an 1884 inventory report, the report should reflect product quantities as of
    • A. 

      .0700 GMT each Friday.

    • B. 

      .0700 local each Friday.

    • C. 

      .0800 GMT Friday.

    • D. 

      .0800 local each Friday.

  • 212. 
    When, if ever, is a particulate test on a liquid oxygen (LOX) cart required?
    • A. 

      Never.

    • B. 

      Once every 90 days.

    • C. 

      After a LOX cart has been filled.

    • D. 

      When particulate contamination is suspected.

  • 213. 
    When, if ever, is it necessary to prime the PMU–27M?
    • A. 

      Never

    • B. 

      After initial start up

    • C. 

      Prior to air shipment

    • D. 

      Any time the system has been purged of fuel

  • 214. 
    Where do the type III hydrant system pressure indicating transmitters sense pressure?
    • A. 

      Issue line and atmosphere.

    • B. 

      Issue line and downstream venturi.

    • C. 

      Return line and atmosphere.

    • D. 

      Return line and downstream venturi.

  • 215. 
    Where is the correct place to take the reading for the American Petroleum Institute (API) gravity test?
    • A. 

      Horizontal plane surface of the liquid.

    • B. 

      Bottom of the hydrometer.

    • C. 

      Top of the hydrometer.

    • D. 

      Top of the cylinder.

  • 216. 
    Which Air Force Petroleum Agency (AFPET) division performs contracting support for all AFPET contracted and cost recovery programs?
    • A. 

      Technical Division.

    • B. 

      Plans and Programs Division.

    • C. 

      Resource Management Division.

    • D. 

      Science and Technology Division.

  • 217. 
    Which Air Force Petroleum Agency (AFPET) division provides oversight and remedy for fuels mishaps and safety incidents?
    • A. 

      Technical Division.

    • B. 

      Plans and Programs Division.

    • C. 

      Science and Technology Division.

    • D. 

      Facilities and Distribution Division.

  • 218. 
    Which aircraft does not require a hot brake check before entering the hot refueling pad?
    • A. 

      B–1.

    • B. 

      F–15.

    • C. 

      F–16.

    • D. 

      F–22.

  • 219. 
    Which best describes immiscible liquids?
    • A. 

      They mix well together.

    • B. 

      One liquid will float on the other.

    • C. 

      They will become an intrained solution.

    • D. 

      They will repel each other and react violently.

  • 220. 
    Which condition would require you to clean a cryotainer filter?
    • A. 

      A decrease in liquid flow.

    • B. 

      A negative odor test result.

    • C. 

      A negative particulate test result.

    • D. 

      A decrease in the annular space micron reading.

  • 221. 
    Which gas law declares that cooling a gas decreases its volume?
    • A. 

      Boyle’s law.

    • B. 

      Charles’ law.

    • C. 

      Dalton’s law.

    • D. 

      Gay-Lussac’s law.

  • 222. 
    Which hose is exempt from annual hydrostatic hose testing requirements?
    • A. 

      Hoses for FAM carts.

    • B. 

      Hoses used for hot/rapid defueling.

    • C. 

      Hoses used for hot refueling E–4B aircraft.

    • D. 

      Hoses used for concurrent servicing operations supporting sortie generation operations.

  • 223. 
    Which is not a type of positive displacement pump?
    • A. 

      Gear.

    • B. 

      Piston.

    • C. 

      Rotary.

    • D. 

      Centrifugal.

  • 224. 
    Which of the following agencies can initiate a Reporting Emergency Petroleum, Oils and Lubricants (REPOL)?
    • A. 

      DESC.

    • B. 

      AFPET.

    • C. 

      Joint staff.

    • D. 

      MAJCOM.

  • 225. 
    Which of the following may direct shipment of a vehicle with less than 50 percent life expectancy to satisfy mission requirements?
    • A. 

      LRS commander.

    • B. 

      Wing commander.

    • C. 

      MAJCOM.

    • D. 

      HQ USAF.

  • 226. 
    Which of the following steps is not accomplished when preparing the PMU–27M for air shipment?
    • A. 

      Disconnect all hose assemblies

    • B. 

      Drain all the fuel from the piping

    • C. 

      Remove the filter separator elements

    • D. 

      Install dust plugs and caps on all fittings and hoses

  • 227. 
    Which physical factor affects the behavior of liquids in both rest and motion?
    • A. 

      Friction, applied forces, and gravity.

    • B. 

      Friction, inertia, and atmospheric pressure.

    • C. 

      Gravity, atmospheric pressure, and inertia.

    • D. 

      Gravity, atmospheric pressure, and applied forces.

  • 228. 
    Which publication is a memorandum issued by commercial manufacturers advising maintainers of minor defects with a product?
    • A. 

      TCTO.

    • B. 

      Service bulletin.

    • C. 

      Technical manual.

    • D. 

      Manufacturer’s recall.

  • 229. 
    Which recoverable and waste (R&W) petroleum product category covers motor crankcase oils and reciprocating aircraft engine oils?
    • A. 

      Category 1.

    • B. 

      Category 2.

    • C. 

      Category 3.

    • D. 

      Category 4.

  • 230. 
    Which shell of the valence electrons determines whether a material is a good or a poor conductor of electricity?
    • A. 

      The outermost shell.

    • B. 

      The middle shell.

    • C. 

      The second shell.

    • D. 

      The first shell.

  • 231. 
    Which statement best describes a positive ion?
    • A. 

      An atom that lost a proton and has more electrons.

    • B. 

      An atom that lost an electron and has more protons.

    • C. 

      An atom that has an equal number of electrons and protons.

    • D. 

      An atom that cannot throw off any protons.

  • 232. 
    Which temperature scale is commonly used for scientific measurements?
    • A. 

      Kelvin scale.

    • B. 

      Rankine scale.

    • C. 

      Réaumur scale.

    • D. 

      Fahrenheit scale.

  • 233. 
    Which type of measurement may be used to express pressure?
    • A. 

      Kilograms.

    • B. 

      Pounds.

    • C. 

      Tons.

    • D. 

      Pounds per square inch.

  • 234. 
    Which unit of measurement would indicate velocity of flow?
    • A. 

      Feet per second

    • B. 

      Gallons per minute.

    • C. 

      Cubic feet per second.

    • D. 

      Cubic gallons per minute.

  • 235. 
    Who is responsible for administering the Caution Tag program?
    • A. 

      Environmental coordinator.

    • B. 

      NCOIC Fuels Laboratory.

    • C. 

      NCOIC Compliance.

    • D. 

      FSC personnel.

  • 236. 
    Who is responsible for enforcing radio transmission discipline over the radio net?
    • A. 

      Fuels controller.

    • B. 

      FISC Superintendent.

    • C. 

      FMT.

    • D. 

      All fuels personnel.

  • 237. 
    Who is responsible for establishing a fuels mobility support element at locations storing or using mobility support equipment?
    • A. 

      Fuels operations superintendent

    • B. 

      Fuels mobility supervisor

    • C. 

      Fuels management team

    • D. 

      MAJCOM

  • 238. 
    Who is responsible for establishing minimum essential levels (MEL) for assigned equipment and facilities?
    • A. 

      LRS commander.

    • B. 

      FMT.

    • C. 

      Fuels Operations Superintendent.

    • D. 

      FISC Superintendent.

  • 239. 
    Who is responsible for maintaining the fuels account as outlined in Air Force Manual (AFMAN) 23–110, Volume 2, Part 2?
    • A. 

      DESC.

    • B. 

      MAJCOM.

    • C. 

      FMT.

    • D. 

      FSC.

  • 240. 
    Who is responsible for reviewing aircraft flying schedules and organizing work shifts to meet fuel support requirements?
    • A. 

      Fuels Operations Superintendent.

    • B. 

      NCOIC Fuels Distribution.

    • C. 

      Mobile Refueling Supervisor.

    • D. 

      Fuels Expediter.

  • 241. 
    Who may approve deviations from hot refueling policies when combat or emergency situations require the use of hot refueling?
    • A. 

      FMFC.

    • B. 

      HQ USAF/A4.

    • C. 

      MAJCOM commander.

    • D. 

      Air Force Petroleum Agency.

  • 242. 
    Who may authorize bases to use computer products in lieu of AF Forms 2419 and 2420?
    • A. 

      FMT.

    • B. 

      DESC.

    • C. 

      AFPET.

    • D. 

      Parent MAJCOM.

  • 243. 
    Who must establish procedures for the collection, safekeeping, and deposit of funds received for cash sales of aviation fuels?
    • A. 

      NCOIC FSC.

    • B. 

      FISC superintendent.

    • C. 

      FMT.

    • D. 

      MAJCOM.

  • 244. 
    Who should the senior ranking deployed fuels member contact for assistance in determining cryogenic support?
    • A. 

      Numbered Air Force

    • B. 

      MAJCOM

    • C. 

      Joint petroleum office

    • D. 

      DESC

  • 245. 
    Who should you notify if, while performing fuels expediter duties, you use the spill response kit?
    • A. 

      Fuels Environmental coordinator.

    • B. 

      NCOIC fuels distribution.

    • C. 

      FOD prevention monitor.

    • D. 

      FSC.

  • 246. 
    With what type of fuel is the flow reducer ring not used when you are performing the bottle method test?
    • A. 

      JP–8.

    • B. 

      JP–7.

    • C. 

      JP–5.

    • D. 

      JP–4.

  • 247. 
    With which of the following alternate fuels should special precautions be taken due to its high volatility?
    • A. 

      JP–5

    • B. 

      Jet A

    • C. 

      Jet A–1

    • D. 

      Jet B

  • 248. 
    Within what maximum amount of days of receipt will all new and used vehicles and equipment be inspected by the Air Force activity which receives it?
    • A. 

      30.

    • B. 

      45.

    • C. 

      60.

    • D. 

      90.

  • 249. 
    Within what maximum number of days of a mishap should the fuels management team (FMT) send an advisory message to the parent major command (MAJCOM)/A4 on the outcome of the mishap investigation?
    • A. 

      15.

    • B. 

      30.

    • C. 

      45.

    • D. 

      60.

  • 250. 
    At a minimum, how often should underground storage tanks be monitored to detect releases?
    • A. 

      Every 30 days.

    • B. 

      Every 60 days.

    • C. 

      Every 90 days.

    • D. 

      Every 120 days.