2F071 CDC All Ure's Review Exam Style

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1. What is the lifting force of a liquid called?

Explanation

Buoyancy is the correct answer because it refers to the lifting force experienced by an object submerged in a fluid, such as a liquid. This force is exerted in the opposite direction to the force of gravity and is dependent on the density of the fluid and the volume of the object. Buoyancy is what allows objects to float in liquids and is a fundamental principle in fluid mechanics.

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About This Quiz
2F071 CDC All Ures Review Exam Style - Quiz

This 2F071 CDC All URE's review exam style quiz assesses key technical skills relevant to Air Force operations. It covers topics from electrical fundamentals to military logistics, emphasizing... see morethe practical application of theoretical knowledge in military contexts. see less

2. What pressure should the surge suppressor gauge on the R–20 multi-aircraft servicing unit indicate when the fueling system is not operating?

Explanation

The surge suppressor gauge on the R-20 multi-aircraft servicing unit should indicate a pressure of 90 psi when the fueling system is not operating. This pressure is likely necessary to maintain the stability and safety of the system in the absence of fuel flow.

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3. When configuring the automated data collection (ADC) system, what maximum number of dial retries can you configure the user interface terminal's (UIT) to attempt?

Explanation

The correct answer is 99 because the question asks for the maximum number of dial retries that can be configured for the user interface terminal (UIT) in the automated data collection (ADC) system. Out of the given options, 99 is the highest number, indicating that the UIT can attempt a maximum of 99 dial retries.

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4. When determining authorizations for cash sales, you know that cash sales are only authorized when

Explanation

Cash sales are only authorized when sales support by equipment and/or personnel do not interfere with military operations. This means that if the equipment or personnel needed for the sales would disrupt or hinder military operations in any way, cash sales would not be authorized. This ensures that the military's primary operations and functions are not compromised or affected by the sales activities.

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5. When documenting a cryogenic product issue to a liquid oxygen (LOX) cart on the Air Force Technical Order (AFTO) Form 134, what information should be entered block 4?

Explanation

In block 4 of the AFTO Form 134, the information that should be entered is the initials of the individual that filled the cart. This is important for accountability and traceability purposes, as it allows for the identification of the person responsible for filling the cart. It helps in tracking any issues or discrepancies related to the cryogenic product and ensures that proper documentation is maintained.

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6. When making a cash sale, what others forms of currency besides United States currency are acceptable for cash sale payments?

Explanation

The correct answer is "None" because the question is asking about the acceptable forms of currency for cash sale payments, and it states that besides United States currency, no other forms of currency are acceptable.

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7. When posting changes to publications, when, if ever, are "List of Effective Pages" checks mandatory?

Explanation

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8. When preparing to issue liquid nitrogen (LIN), what action, if any, should you take if a receiving tank's Air Force Technical Order (AFTO) Forms 244/245 lists an open Red X condition?

Explanation

If the receiving tank's AFTO Forms 244/245 lists an open Red X condition, it means that there is a critical issue or malfunction with the tank. In this case, it is necessary to not fill the receiving tank to avoid any potential risks or further damage. The open Red X condition indicates that the tank is not in a suitable condition to receive liquid nitrogen, and therefore, it is important to follow the appropriate protocol and refrain from filling the tank.

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9. When you are performing fuels controller duties, how often should you reconcile with the Fuels Enterprise Server (FES) and clear rejects?

Explanation

When performing fuels controller duties, it is important to reconcile with the Fuels Enterprise Server (FES) and clear rejects on a daily basis. This is necessary to ensure accurate and up-to-date information regarding fuel transactions and to address any errors or issues promptly. Regular reconciliation helps maintain the integrity of the fuel management system and ensures efficient operations.

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10. Where is the correct place to take the reading for the American Petroleum Institute (API) gravity test?

Explanation

The correct place to take the reading for the American Petroleum Institute (API) gravity test is the horizontal plane surface of the liquid. This is because the API gravity test measures the density or specific gravity of petroleum liquids, and the most accurate reading can be obtained by measuring at the horizontal plane surface of the liquid. This ensures that any variations in density due to settling or stratification are accounted for, providing a more reliable measurement of the API gravity.

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11. Which is not a type of positive displacement pump?

Explanation

Centrifugal pumps are not a type of positive displacement pump. Unlike positive displacement pumps, which use mechanical means to displace a fixed amount of fluid, centrifugal pumps use centrifugal force to increase the fluid's velocity and transfer it to the outlet. This makes them more suitable for applications that require high flow rates and low pressure, compared to positive displacement pumps that are better suited for high-pressure applications.

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12. Which shell of the valence electrons determines whether a material is a good or a poor conductor of electricity?

Explanation

The outermost shell of an atom is known as the valence shell, and it is responsible for determining the electrical conductivity of a material. This is because the valence electrons, which are located in the outermost shell, are involved in the formation of chemical bonds and the movement of electrons. Materials with a filled valence shell or a nearly filled valence shell tend to be poor conductors of electricity, while materials with an incomplete valence shell tend to be good conductors. Therefore, the outermost shell of the valence electrons determines whether a material is a good or a poor conductor of electricity.

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13. Which temperature scale is commonly used for scientific measurements?

Explanation

The Kelvin scale is commonly used for scientific measurements because it is an absolute temperature scale that starts at absolute zero, which is the lowest possible temperature. This makes it ideal for scientific calculations and experiments where precise measurements and comparisons are necessary. Unlike other temperature scales, such as Fahrenheit or Celsius, the Kelvin scale does not have negative values, making it easier to work with in scientific applications.

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14. Which type of measurement may be used to express pressure?

Explanation

Pressure is a measure of force exerted over an area, and it is commonly expressed in pounds per square inch (psi). Kilograms, pounds, and tons are units of mass or weight, not pressure. However, pounds per square inch is a specific unit that represents the amount of force applied to a certain area, making it the appropriate measurement for expressing pressure.

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15. Who is responsible for administering the Caution Tag program?

Explanation

The NCOIC Fuels Laboratory is responsible for administering the Caution Tag program. This implies that they are in charge of overseeing and managing the implementation and enforcement of the program. As the NCOIC (Non-Commissioned Officer in Charge) of the Fuels Laboratory, their role likely involves ensuring compliance with safety regulations, conducting inspections, and issuing caution tags when necessary. The other options, such as the Environmental coordinator, NCOIC Compliance, and FSC personnel, may have different responsibilities related to environmental matters or compliance, but they are not specifically mentioned as being responsible for the Caution Tag program.

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16. According to the electron theory, atoms are composed of

Explanation

According to the electron theory, atoms are composed of protons, neutrons, and electrons. This theory states that atoms are made up of three subatomic particles: protons, which have a positive charge; neutrons, which have no charge; and electrons, which have a negative charge. These particles are believed to be the building blocks of matter and are arranged in a specific way within the atom to create different elements. Therefore, the correct answer is protons, neutrons, and electrons.

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17. All of the following conditions require replacement of filter elements on the R–19 filter separator unit except

Explanation

The correct answer is a reading of 16 pounds per square inch, differential (psid) on the differential pressure (DP) gauge. This is because a reading of 16 psid on the DP gauge is within the acceptable range and does not indicate a need for filter element replacement. The other conditions mentioned, such as a reading of 22 psid on the DP gauge, elements that have been in use for 36 months, and questionable filter separator vessel performance, all indicate a need for replacement of filter elements.

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18. At no time will money that is collected for cash sales of aviation products be safeguarded by

Explanation

Off-duty personnel are not responsible for safeguarding the money collected for cash sales of aviation products. This duty falls on FSC personnel, shift supervisors, and operations expeditors who are actively working and responsible for the financial transactions. Off-duty personnel are not involved in the day-to-day operations and therefore do not have the responsibility to safeguard the collected money.

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19. Fuels personnel identify the tank vent valve by using a locally manufactured

Explanation

The fuels personnel identify the tank vent valve by using a round aluminum disc. This disc is most likely used as a label or marker to indicate the location of the tank vent valve. The round shape and aluminum material make it durable and easy to spot. It is also likely that the round aluminum disc is a standard and commonly used marker in the industry, making it easily recognizable by the personnel.

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20. Hearing protection is required within how many feet of an R–14 operation?

Explanation

Hearing protection is required within 50 feet of an R-14 operation. This suggests that the noise level generated by an R-14 operation is significant enough to potentially cause damage to hearing within a 50-foot radius. To ensure the safety of individuals in the vicinity, it is necessary to wear hearing protection in this range.

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21. How do the charges of protons and electrons differ?

Explanation

Protons and electrons have opposite charges. Protons have a positive charge, while electrons have a negative charge. This is a fundamental concept in atomic structure and is important in understanding the behavior of atoms and the interactions between particles.

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22. How long should the fuel and water mixture in the separatory funnel be shaken when performing a fuel system icing inhibitor (FSII) test?

Explanation

The fuel and water mixture in the separatory funnel should be shaken for 5 minutes when performing a fuel system icing inhibitor (FSII) test. This duration ensures that the mixture is thoroughly mixed and any potential separation is achieved. Shaking for a longer period may not yield any significant improvement in separation, while shaking for a shorter duration may result in incomplete mixing and inaccurate test results.

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23. How often should cryotainers be sampled for purity, odor and minor constituents?

Explanation

Cryotainers should be sampled for purity, odor, and minor constituents every 90 days. This frequency allows for regular monitoring of the cryotainer's contents to ensure that they meet the required standards. Sampling at this interval strikes a balance between frequent enough to catch any potential issues and infrequent enough to avoid unnecessary sampling. It also allows for timely detection of any changes in purity, odor, or minor constituents that may affect the cryotainer's performance or safety.

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24. How often should hot refueling personnel undergo certification for hot refueling operations?

Explanation

Hot refueling personnel should undergo certification for hot refueling operations on an annual basis. This ensures that they are up to date with the latest safety protocols and procedures involved in hot refueling. Regular certification helps maintain the highest level of safety standards and ensures that the personnel are competent and knowledgeable in performing their duties.

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25. On the type III hydrant system, where is the ball float assembly for the high-level shutoff valve located on an aboveground operating storage tank?

Explanation

The ball float assembly for the high-level shutoff valve in a type III hydrant system is located on the exterior of the tank at the required shut-off height. This means that the assembly is positioned outside of the tank, at the specific height where the shut-off valve needs to be activated. This arrangement allows for easy access and maintenance of the assembly without the need to enter the tank.

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26. On the type IV hydrant system, how is fuel prevented from spilling onto the hot pad if a hose separates from the nozzle during a hot refueling operation?

Explanation

During a hot refueling operation, if a hose separates from the nozzle on a type IV hydrant system, the fuel is prevented from spilling onto the hot pad by a dry break coupler inside the hose. This coupler automatically closes, ensuring that the fuel flow is stopped and preventing any spillage.

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27. On what grades of fuel can the R–22 be designed to operate? a. . b. . c. . d. .

Explanation

The R-22 can be designed to operate on both diesel fuel and jet fuel.

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28. Since manning is not required for the type V hydrant system, how often must inspections be performed when it is operating?

Explanation

The correct answer is Every 3 hours. This is because the type V hydrant system does not require manning, meaning there is no need for constant monitoring or supervision. However, regular inspections are still necessary to ensure the system is functioning properly and to identify any potential issues or malfunctions. Performing inspections every 3 hours strikes a balance between frequent checks and allowing enough time for any potential problems to arise.

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29. The standard measure for atmospheric pressure is equal to how many pounds per square inch?

Explanation

The standard measure for atmospheric pressure is 14.7 psi. Atmospheric pressure refers to the force exerted by the weight of the air in the Earth's atmosphere. This pressure is commonly measured in pounds per square inch (psi). 14.7 psi is considered to be the average atmospheric pressure at sea level.

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30. The uniform movement of electrons in a specific direction is called

Explanation

The correct answer is electric current. Electrical potential refers to the potential energy of an electric charge, while free electrons are electrons that are not bound to an atom. Ionization refers to the process of converting an atom or molecule into an ion. Electric current, on the other hand, refers to the flow of electric charge in a specific direction, typically through a conductor.

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31. Two or more atoms combined is called a

Explanation

When two or more atoms join together, they form a molecule. A molecule is the smallest unit of a compound that retains the chemical properties of that compound. Compounds are made up of molecules, so the correct answer is a molecule. An element refers to a substance made up of only one type of atom, while a mixture is a combination of different substances that are not chemically bonded together.

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32. What agency serves as the link between the Defense Energy Support Center (DESC) and its customers?

Explanation

The Defense Energy Support Center (DESC) serves as the link between its customers and the agency that supports them. The DESC regions, therefore, act as the intermediary between DESC and its customers, ensuring efficient communication and coordination between the two parties. The other options, BFMO, AFPET, and HQ USAF, do not specifically serve as the link between DESC and its customers, making them incorrect answers.

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33. What are the two positions of the throttle switch located on the R–18 pumping unit's handheld remote?

Explanation

The correct answer is RUN and IDLE. The throttle switch on the R-18 pumping unit's handheld remote has two positions: RUN and IDLE. These positions allow the operator to control the speed and operation of the pumping unit.

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34. What cleaning agent should be used to clean the probe on the conductivity meter?

Explanation

Isopropyl alcohol is the recommended cleaning agent for cleaning the probe on a conductivity meter. This is because isopropyl alcohol is a commonly used solvent that effectively removes dirt, oils, and other contaminants from surfaces without leaving residue behind. It is also safe to use on electronic components and does not cause damage to the probe. Petroleum ether, turbine fuel, and acetone are not suitable cleaning agents for the probe on a conductivity meter as they may leave residue, damage the probe, or pose safety risks.

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35. What determines the intensity of the excess pressure in a water-hammer wave?

Explanation

The intensity of the excess pressure in a water-hammer wave is determined by the amount of extinguished velocity. When there is a sudden change in the flow rate of water in a pipe, such as when a valve is closed rapidly, it creates a shock wave known as a water-hammer wave. This wave travels through the pipe and can cause a sudden increase in pressure. The intensity of this pressure increase is directly related to the amount of velocity that is extinguished when the flow rate changes. The greater the change in velocity, the higher the intensity of the excess pressure in the water-hammer wave.

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36. What does a steady red light on the battery status LED of the R–20 multi-aircraft servicing platform indicate?

Explanation

A steady red light on the battery status LED of the R-20 multi-aircraft servicing platform indicates that the battery is disconnected. This means that there is no connection between the battery and the platform, which could be due to a loose connection or a faulty battery. The red light serves as a warning to indicate that the battery is not properly connected and needs to be fixed or replaced.

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37. What environmental regulation establishes "cradle to grave" control of hazardous substances?

Explanation

The correct answer is the Resource Conservation and Recovery Act (RCRA). This environmental regulation establishes "cradle to grave" control of hazardous substances, meaning it regulates the entire lifecycle of these substances from their creation to their disposal. The RCRA sets standards for the management and disposal of hazardous waste, and it also promotes the conservation of resources and the reduction of waste generation. It is a comprehensive framework that ensures the safe handling and disposal of hazardous substances to protect human health and the environment.

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38. What form is used to annotate fuel bladder inspections?

Explanation

The correct answer is a locally developed form. This means that there is no specific standardized form used to annotate fuel bladder inspections. Instead, each organization or facility may have their own form that they have developed internally to document and track these inspections. This allows for flexibility and customization based on the specific needs and requirements of the organization.

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39. What happens if the tank outlet manual valve on the type III hydrant system is open during an emergency stop situation?

Explanation

If the tank outlet manual valve on the type III hydrant system is open during an emergency stop situation, a horn will sound. This is likely a safety feature to alert individuals nearby that there is an issue and action needs to be taken.

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40. What is the primary purpose of the R–14 ATHRS?

Explanation

The primary purpose of the R-14 ATHRS is to service aircraft where permanent systems are not available. This means that the R-14 ATHRS can be used in situations where there is a need to provide fuel servicing to aircraft but there are no permanent fuel systems in place. It is likely that the R-14 ATHRS is a portable or temporary solution that can be used to transfer fuel to aircraft in locations where there are no permanent fuel servicing options.

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41. What item protects fuel dispensing system electrical components against overload?

Explanation

Automatic reset-type circuit breakers protect fuel dispensing system electrical components against overload. Unlike manual reset-type circuit breakers, which require manual intervention to reset after tripping, automatic reset-type circuit breakers reset themselves automatically once the overload condition is resolved. The twenty-five amp Bosch-type fuse and ten amp ATO fuse are not specifically designed for protecting against overload in fuel dispensing systems.

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42. What may a filter separator differential pressure reading below 3 pounds per square inch (psi) indicate?

Explanation

A filter separator differential pressure reading below 3 psi may indicate a defective O-ring or ruptured coalescers. This is because a lower pressure reading suggests that there is a loss of pressure across the coalescer elements, which could be caused by a faulty O-ring or ruptured coalescers. This can result in reduced efficiency of the coalescers and compromised filtration performance.

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43. What size sealing clamp should be used to repair a 5 in. hole in a fuel bladder?

Explanation

The correct answer is 7 ½ in because the question asks for the size of the sealing clamp needed to repair a 5 in. hole in a fuel bladder. Since the hole is 5 in. in size, a sealing clamp that is larger than the hole is required in order to effectively seal it. Therefore, the 7 ½ in. sealing clamp would be the appropriate choice.

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44. What term is used to define the process that takes place when water forms into droplets after passing through filter elements?

Explanation

The term "coalescing" is used to define the process that takes place when water forms into droplets after passing through filter elements. Coalescing refers to the merging or combining of smaller droplets into larger ones, which occurs during the filtration process. This helps to separate the water from any impurities or contaminants present, allowing for cleaner water to be obtained.

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45. What type of current flow is the result of voltages produced by batteries and thermocouples?

Explanation

The voltages produced by batteries and thermocouples result in direct current flow. Direct current is characterized by the flow of electric charge in one direction only, maintaining a constant polarity. This type of current is commonly used in electronic devices and systems that require a steady and continuous flow of electricity.

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46. What type of fabric are fuel bladders made of?

Explanation

Fuel bladders are made of single ply nylon because this material is known for its durability, flexibility, and resistance to fuel and chemical substances. Nylon is a synthetic fabric that is lightweight, strong, and has a high tensile strength, making it suitable for containing and storing fuel. The single ply construction means that the bladder is made from a single layer of nylon fabric, which helps to reduce the risk of leaks and ensures the bladder remains lightweight and flexible.

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47. What type of material is used to construct the fuel tank on the R–11?

Explanation

The fuel tank on the R-11 is constructed using a sheet aluminum alloy. This material is commonly used in the construction of fuel tanks due to its lightweight yet strong properties. Aluminum alloys offer good corrosion resistance and can withstand high temperatures, making them suitable for storing and transporting fuel safely.

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48. What type of meter is used on most fuel dispensing systems?

Explanation

Bi-rotor, positive displacement meters are commonly used on fuel dispensing systems. These meters work by using two rotating rotors that trap and measure a fixed volume of fuel, ensuring accurate measurement. Positive displacement meters are known for their high accuracy and reliability, making them suitable for applications where precise measurement is crucial, such as fuel dispensing.

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49. When investigating fuel gains and losses, you determine an excessive variance was caused by a pipeline rupture. This variance should fall into what category?

Explanation

The excessive variance caused by a pipeline rupture falls into the category of "Peacetime losses." This means that the loss occurred during a period of peace and not during a major disaster or combat situation. The pipeline rupture is considered an unexpected incident that led to the loss of fuel, but it is not classified as a major disaster or combat loss.

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50. At a minimum, how often should underground storage tanks be monitored to detect releases?

Explanation

Underground storage tanks should be monitored every 30 days to detect releases. This regular monitoring ensures that any leaks or releases are promptly detected and addressed, minimizing the potential environmental and health hazards associated with underground storage tanks. Monitoring at shorter intervals allows for more frequent assessment of the tanks' condition, reducing the risk of undetected leaks and preventing potential contamination of soil and groundwater.

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51. When performing a monthly inspection on emergency switches, check to ensure

Explanation

During a monthly inspection of emergency switches, it is important to check for proper operation while the system control panel/operation circuit is energized. This ensures that the switches are functioning correctly when they are needed in an emergency situation. It is crucial to test the switches under real operating conditions to ensure their reliability and effectiveness. Checking for proper operation while the system is energized helps identify any potential issues or malfunctions that may occur during an actual emergency, allowing for timely repairs or replacements to be made.

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52. When performing fuel servicing operations with the R–18 pumping unit, the throttle control should manually be set to what rpm setting?

Explanation

The correct answer is 2,250 rpm. When performing fuel servicing operations with the R-18 pumping unit, the throttle control should manually be set to 2,250 rpm.

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53. When preparing the R–20 filter separator unit for shipment, drain all of the following components except the

Explanation

When preparing the R-20 filter separator unit for shipment, it is necessary to drain all components except for the surge suppressors. Surge suppressors are devices used to protect electrical equipment from voltage spikes and surges. Unlike the sump tank, control valves, and micronic filter, surge suppressors do not contain any fluids that need to be drained before shipment. Therefore, they can be exempted from the draining process.

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54. When preparing to issue liquid oxygen (LOX), what action, if any, should be taken if a review of a receiving tank's Air Force Technical Order (AFTO) Form 134 finds that the form is not properly filled out?

Explanation

If a review of the receiving tank's AFTO Form 134 finds that it is not properly filled out, the correct action to take is to not service the receiving tank. This means that the tank should not be filled with liquid oxygen until the form is properly completed. This is important to ensure safety and compliance with regulations.

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55. When rating an inspection, the compliance and environmental element may use the five-tier rating system at the discretion of the

Explanation

The correct answer is "FMT." FMT stands for Functional Management Team, which is responsible for overseeing and managing the inspection process. They have the authority to use the five-tier rating system for the compliance and environmental element. The squadron commander, group commander, and parent MAJCOM do not have the discretion to determine the rating system used.

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56. When selecting a site for bladder operations, the site should have less than what degree of slope?

Explanation

Bladder operations require a flat and stable surface in order to ensure the safety and accuracy of the procedure. A slope greater than 3° could potentially cause complications during the operation, such as difficulty in maintaining the patient's position or the risk of instruments rolling away. Therefore, selecting a site with less than a 3° slope is crucial for the success of bladder operations.

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57. When setting up the R–22, prime the centrifugal pump with approximately how many gallons of fuel?

Explanation

To set up the R-22, the centrifugal pump needs to be primed with approximately 10 gallons of fuel. Priming the pump with this amount of fuel ensures that it is properly lubricated and ready to operate efficiently.

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58. When you are generating queries in Business Systems Modernization-Energy (BSM-E), the query should consist of at least one field, comparison and

Explanation

In Business Systems Modernization-Energy (BSM-E), when generating queries, it is important for the query to consist of at least one field, comparison, and value. This means that the query should include a specific field or attribute that is being searched, a comparison operator to specify the relationship between the field and the desired value, and the actual value that is being searched for. This ensures that the query is specific and targeted, allowing for accurate and relevant results to be obtained.

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59. When you are inputting a transaction in the Business Systems Modernization-Energy (BSM-E) log sheet, what information should you enter in the Defuel field when entering a defuel request?

Explanation

When inputting a transaction in the BSM-E log sheet for a defuel request, the information that should be entered in the Defuel field is "Y" in place of the defaulted "N". This indicates that the defuel request is being made and allows for proper tracking and recording of the transaction.

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60. When, if ever, is it necessary to prime the PMU–27M?

Explanation

The PMU-27M needs to be primed whenever the system has been purged of fuel. This is because purging the system of fuel can cause air to enter the fuel lines, which can disrupt the flow of fuel to the engine. Priming the PMU-27M ensures that the fuel lines are filled with fuel and any air pockets are eliminated, allowing the engine to function properly.

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61. Which of the following steps is not accomplished when preparing the PMU–27M for air shipment?

Explanation

When preparing the PMU-27M for air shipment, all hose assemblies are disconnected, the fuel from the piping is drained, and dust plugs and caps are installed on all fittings and hoses. However, the filter separator elements are not removed during this process.

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62. Which publication is a memorandum issued by commercial manufacturers advising maintainers of minor defects with a product?

Explanation

A service bulletin is a publication issued by commercial manufacturers to inform maintainers about minor defects with a product. This bulletin provides instructions and guidance on how to address and fix these issues. It serves as a means of communication between the manufacturer and the maintainers, ensuring that any potential problems are identified and resolved promptly to maintain the product's performance and safety.

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63. Who is responsible for enforcing radio transmission discipline over the radio net?

Explanation

The correct answer is Fuels controller. The fuels controller is responsible for enforcing radio transmission discipline over the radio net. They ensure that proper communication protocols are followed and maintain order and efficiency in radio transmissions. This is important to ensure effective communication and coordination within the fuels personnel and to avoid any confusion or mistakes in transmitting important information.

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64. Who is responsible for establishing minimum essential levels (MEL) for assigned equipment and facilities?

Explanation

The FMT (Facility Management Team) is responsible for establishing minimum essential levels (MEL) for assigned equipment and facilities. This team is tasked with managing and maintaining the equipment and facilities within an organization. They are responsible for setting the standards and ensuring that the equipment and facilities meet the minimum requirements for effective operation. The LRS commander, Fuels Operations Superintendent, and FISC Superintendent may have other responsibilities related to equipment and facilities, but the specific task of establishing MEL falls under the jurisdiction of the FMT.

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65. Who is responsible for reviewing aircraft flying schedules and organizing work shifts to meet fuel support requirements?

Explanation

The Fuels Operations Superintendent is responsible for reviewing aircraft flying schedules and organizing work shifts to meet fuel support requirements. This role involves overseeing the operations and distribution of fuels, ensuring that there is enough fuel available to support aircraft operations, and coordinating with other personnel to ensure efficient and timely fueling of aircraft. The Fuels Operations Superintendent plays a crucial role in ensuring that fuel support requirements are met and that aircraft can operate effectively.

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66. A temporary movement of a MRSP kit from home station to another location for a period of less than 30 days is referred to as a

Explanation

A temporary movement of a MRSP kit from home station to another location for a period of less than 30 days is referred to as a deployment. This suggests that the MRSP kit is being temporarily relocated to another location for a specific purpose or mission, but it is not a permanent reassignment or relocation. The term "deployment" is commonly used in military contexts to describe the temporary movement of personnel or equipment to a different location for a specific mission or operation.

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67. All of the following conditions would prevent a remote terminal workstation (RTW) from receiving data except

Explanation

The remote terminal workstation being turned on would not prevent it from receiving data. In fact, it is necessary for the workstation to be turned on in order to receive data. The other conditions mentioned, such as the remote terminal unit being turned off or having an inoperative modem, would prevent the RTW from receiving data.

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68. During bottom loading operations, what occurs when the signal to the bottom loading optic probe is lost?

Explanation

When the signal to the bottom loading optic probe is lost, the electronic control module cuts power to the bottom loading electric air solenoid. This means that the solenoid, which controls the flow of air to the bottom loading valve, will no longer receive power and will be deactivated. This is likely done as a safety measure to prevent any potential issues or accidents that could occur if the bottom loading valve remains open without proper control.

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69. During multiple source refueling, what action, if any, should be taken if backflow is detected?

Explanation

If backflow is detected during multiple source refueling, it is necessary to stop the operation immediately. Backflow can occur when fuel is flowing in the wrong direction, which can be a safety hazard. Stopping the operation will help prevent any further backflow and potential damage or accidents.

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70. Each R–20 multi-aircraft servicing platform is equipped with how many feet of communication wire?

Explanation

Each R-20 multi-aircraft servicing platform is equipped with 1,500 feet of communication wire.

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71. How often are the printed standards for the Aeronautical Engine Laboratory (AEL) test replaced?

Explanation

The printed standards for the Aeronautical Engine Laboratory (AEL) test are replaced annually. This means that the standards used for the test are updated and renewed every year.

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72. If your base has experienced cold weather problems or anticipates cold weather problems, you should perform a cloud point test on all DF–2 that is received during

Explanation

The correct answer is "October through March." This is because the question states that if the base has experienced or anticipates cold weather problems, a cloud point test should be performed on all DF-2 fuel received during this time period. The cloud point test is used to determine the lowest temperature at which a fuel will flow, and it is particularly important during colder months when fuel may have a higher risk of gelling or becoming solid. Therefore, performing the test from October through March ensures that any potential cold weather problems can be identified and addressed.

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73. On the type V hydrant system, what size are the stainless steel pantographs that are installed inside the hardened shelters?

Explanation

The stainless steel pantographs that are installed inside the hardened shelters on the type V hydrant system are 3 inches in size.

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74. On which grades of fuel can the engine on the R–14 ATHRS operate?

Explanation

The engine on the R-14 ATHRS can operate on diesel fuel and jet fuel. This means that it is designed to run on both types of fuel, allowing for flexibility in its usage. Diesel fuel is commonly used in heavy-duty vehicles and equipment, while jet fuel is used in aircraft. By being able to run on both fuels, the engine can be utilized in various applications, making it versatile and adaptable.

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75. Personnel attending Aerial Bulk Fuel Delivery System (ABFDS) or Forward Area Refueling Point (FARP) training must have a minimum of how many months retainability?

Explanation

Personnel attending Aerial Bulk Fuel Delivery System (ABFDS) or Forward Area Refueling Point (FARP) training must have a minimum of 24 months retainability. This means that individuals undergoing this training must commit to remaining in their position or service for at least 24 months after completing the training. This requirement ensures that the personnel receive the necessary training and are able to apply their skills effectively for an extended period of time before potentially being reassigned or leaving the service.

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76. The ABFDS can carry what maximum number of gals. per sortie?

Explanation

The ABFDS (Airborne Bulk Fuel Delivery System) can carry a maximum of 30,000 gallons per sortie. This means that during one trip or mission, the ABFDS can transport up to 30,000 gallons of fuel.

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77. What agency should the fuels management team (FMT) consult with on all matters regarding the provision of or changes to personal protective equipment (PPE) for workers?

Explanation

The fuels management team (FMT) should consult with the base bioenvironmental engineer on all matters regarding the provision of or changes to personal protective equipment (PPE) for workers. The base bioenvironmental engineer is responsible for assessing and managing occupational and environmental health risks, including the selection and use of PPE. They have the expertise and knowledge to ensure that the appropriate PPE is provided to workers to protect them from potential hazards in their work environment.

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78. When performing fuels controller duties, in the event of an emergency, you must notify each element in the Fuels management flight, the squadron commander and the

Explanation

When performing fuels controller duties, in the event of an emergency, it is crucial to notify the appropriate authorities. In this case, the correct answer is the wing command post. The wing command post is responsible for coordinating and overseeing operations within the entire wing, including the Fuels management flight. Therefore, notifying the wing command post ensures that the highest level of command is informed and can take appropriate action in response to the emergency.

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79. How often should correlation samples be submitted to the area laboratory to check the accuracy of tests performed at base level?

Explanation

Correlation samples should be submitted to the area laboratory every 90 days to check the accuracy of tests performed at the base level. This frequency allows for regular monitoring and ensures that any discrepancies or inaccuracies in the tests can be identified and addressed in a timely manner. It strikes a balance between frequent monitoring and the practicality of submitting samples.

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80. The PMU–27M may be connected to what maximum number of 500-gal. sealed drums?

Explanation

The PMU-27M can be connected to a maximum of four 500-gallon sealed drums.

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81. The Tank Group window in FuelsManager allows operators to create tabular lists of up to how many tanks?

Explanation

The Tank Group window in FuelsManager allows operators to create tabular lists of up to 20 tanks. This means that the operators can organize and view information about a maximum of 20 tanks at a time.

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82. To aid in priming, the PMU–27M is equipped with a priming

Explanation

The PMU-27M is equipped with a priming valve to aid in priming. This valve allows for the controlled flow of fluid during the priming process. It helps to ensure that the correct amount of fluid is delivered to the system, preventing any potential issues or damage. The valve can be opened or closed as needed, allowing for precise control over the priming process. Overall, the priming valve is an essential component of the PMU-27M, ensuring efficient and effective priming.

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83. What action, if any, should be taken if a commercial delivery operator does not provide a Department of Defense (DD) Form 250 with a liquid oxygen (LOX) shipment?

Explanation

If a commercial delivery operator does not provide a Department of Defense (DD) Form 250 with a liquid oxygen (LOX) shipment, the appropriate action to take is to inform the FSC (Field Support Center) and await further guidance. This is because the FSC will have the necessary knowledge and authority to provide instructions on how to proceed with the shipment in the absence of the required form.

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84. What component found on R–11s and R–12s prevents the auxiliary throttle from operating unless the power takeoff (PTO) is engaged?

Explanation

The throttle interlock system is a component found on R-11s and R-12s that prevents the auxiliary throttle from operating unless the power takeoff (PTO) is engaged. This system ensures that the auxiliary throttle can only be used when the PTO is active, which helps to prevent accidents or damage that could occur if the throttle is engaged without the PTO being engaged. It adds an extra layer of safety and control to the operation of the vehicle or equipment.

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85. What effect of current causes an electric motor to produce mechanical energy?

Explanation

An electric motor produces mechanical energy due to the effect of magnetism. When an electric current flows through the motor's coils, it creates a magnetic field. This magnetic field interacts with the permanent magnets in the motor, causing a rotational force to be exerted on the motor's shaft. This rotational force is what ultimately produces mechanical energy and allows the motor to perform its intended function.

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86. What happens when the type III hydrant system product recovery tank is 70 percent full?

Explanation

When the type III hydrant system product recovery tank is 70 percent full, the float assembly closes the inlet valve to prevent further filling of the tank. At the same time, the switch assembly detects the level of the tank and automatically turns on the pump to start the process of transferring the product to another location. Therefore, the correct answer is that the switch assembly automatically turns the pump on.

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87. What is the maximum amount of time that can pass between the time a sample is obtained and the time a conductivity reading is taken?

Explanation

The maximum amount of time that can pass between the time a sample is obtained and the time a conductivity reading is taken is 24 hours. This is because conductivity readings can be affected by factors such as temperature and evaporation, which can change the conductivity of the sample over time. Therefore, it is important to take the conductivity reading as soon as possible after obtaining the sample to ensure accurate results.

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88. What is the simplest and most expedient method of fuel resupply?

Explanation

The simplest and most expedient method of fuel resupply is using the same source of supply used by the host airfield. This means that the aircraft can refuel directly from the fuel source that is already available at the airfield, eliminating the need for additional transportation or logistics. This method is efficient and convenient as it utilizes existing infrastructure and resources.

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89. What temperature is used to dry filters prior to performing the bottle method test?

Explanation

The correct answer is 90°C. This temperature is used to dry filters prior to performing the bottle method test. Drying the filters at this temperature helps to remove any moisture or contaminants that may be present, ensuring accurate and reliable test results. Higher temperatures may cause the filters to degrade or burn, while lower temperatures may not effectively remove all moisture. Therefore, 90°C is the optimal temperature for drying filters in this specific test.

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90. What type of lubricant is used to lubricate the power takeoff (PTO) on a fuel dispensing system?

Explanation

Ninety-weight gear oil is the correct answer for lubricating the power takeoff (PTO) on a fuel dispensing system. The PTO requires a heavy-duty lubricant to withstand the high loads and temperatures generated during operation. Ninety-weight gear oil is specifically designed for heavy-duty applications and provides excellent lubrication and protection to the gears and other components of the PTO. Using a lighter lubricant like thirty-weight motor oil or silicone grease may not provide sufficient lubrication, while synthetic gear lube may not have the necessary viscosity for proper lubrication in this specific application.

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91. What type of meter, if any, is installed on the TPI–4T–4A portable additive injector?

Explanation

The correct answer is "None." This means that there is no type of meter installed on the TPI-4T-4A portable additive injector.

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92. When do the magnetic lines of force in a magnet cross?

Explanation

Magnetic lines of force never cross each other because they represent the path along which a free north pole would move if placed in the magnetic field. If they were to cross, it would imply that a north pole could move in two different directions simultaneously, which is not possible. Therefore, the correct answer is that magnetic lines of force never cross each other.

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93. When documenting a significant maintenance action on an Air Force Technical Order (AFTO) Form 95, what information should you enter in block 1?

Explanation

In block 1 of an Air Force Technical Order (AFTO) Form 95, you should enter the mission, design, series (MDS) of the equipment. This information is important for accurately documenting the maintenance action and ensuring that it is associated with the correct equipment. It helps in identifying the specific type and model of the equipment involved in the maintenance action.

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94. When encoding a vehicle identification link (VIL) key for a rental vehicle, what information should be entered in the vehicle identification field?

Explanation

The vehicle identification field should contain the vehicle license plate number when encoding a Vehicle Identification Link (VIL) key for a rental vehicle.

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95. When investigating fuel gains and losses, you know that variances in inventory levels may be caused by all of the following conditions except

Explanation

When investigating fuel gains and losses, variances in inventory levels can be caused by factors such as temperature, mode of delivery, and volume of the product. However, tank size does not directly affect the inventory levels as it is a fixed characteristic of the tank and does not change unless the tank itself is replaced. Therefore, tank size is not a condition that can cause variances in inventory levels.

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96. When should Bourdon gauges be calibrated?

Explanation

Bourdon gauges should be calibrated annually to ensure their accuracy and reliability. Regular calibration helps to detect any deviations or inaccuracies in the gauge's measurements and allows for adjustments or repairs to be made if necessary. By calibrating the gauges annually, any potential issues can be identified and resolved promptly, ensuring that the gauge continues to provide accurate readings.

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97. When testing for fiber particles after an element change, how much fuel must be flush through a filter separator?

Explanation

After an element change, it is necessary to flush a sufficient amount of fuel through a filter separator to test for fiber particles. The correct answer is 2,000 gallons, which indicates that a large volume of fuel needs to be flushed through the filter separator to ensure thorough testing and removal of any fiber particles that may have accumulated.

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98. When you are maintaining and updating statuses in Business Systems Modernization- Energy (BSM-E) which status board should you use to document transfers?

Explanation

When maintaining and updating statuses in Business Systems Modernization-Energy (BSM-E), the "Move" status board should be used to document transfers. This suggests that the "Move" status board is specifically designed for tracking and recording the movement or transfer of items within the system. The other options, such as "Hydrants," "Inventory," and "General Purpose," do not specifically mention transfers and therefore are not the appropriate status boards for documenting transfers in BSM-E.

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99. Which best describes immiscible liquids?

Explanation

Immiscible liquids refer to two or more liquids that do not mix together. In this case, one liquid will float on top of the other, indicating that they are not able to form a homogeneous mixture. This occurs due to differences in polarity or intermolecular forces between the liquids, causing them to repel each other and remain separate.

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100. Which hose is exempt from annual hydrostatic hose testing requirements?

Explanation

Hoses used for hot refueling E-4B aircraft are exempt from annual hydrostatic hose testing requirements. This means that these particular hoses do not need to undergo the regular testing process. The other options, such as hoses for FAM carts, hoses used for hot/rapid defueling, and hoses used for concurrent servicing operations supporting sortie generation operations, are not exempt and would still need to go through the annual hydrostatic hose testing requirements.

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101. Which statement best describes a positive ion?

Explanation

A positive ion is formed when an atom loses one or more electrons. This results in the atom having more protons than electrons, giving it a positive charge. Therefore, the statement "An atom that lost an electron and has more protons" best describes a positive ion.

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102. Which unit of measurement would indicate velocity of flow?

Explanation

The unit of measurement that indicates the velocity of flow is feet per second. This unit measures the distance that a fluid travels in one second, indicating the speed at which it is flowing.

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103. Who may approve deviations from hot refueling policies when combat or emergency situations require the use of hot refueling?

Explanation

The MAJCOM commander may approve deviations from hot refueling policies when combat or emergency situations require the use of hot refueling. This means that the commander of the Major Command (MAJCOM) has the authority to grant exceptions to the standard procedures for refueling aircraft while their engines are still running. This flexibility is necessary in urgent situations where time is of the essence, such as during combat operations or in emergency scenarios. The MAJCOM commander is responsible for making decisions that prioritize the mission and the safety of personnel, and approving deviations from hot refueling policies falls within their purview.

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104. A magnet that is magnetized by induction from an external source is called

Explanation

An artificial magnet is a magnet that is magnetized by induction from an external source. This means that it does not possess its own inherent magnetic properties and requires an external magnetic field to become magnetized. In contrast, a natural magnet, such as lodestone, is a magnet that occurs naturally and possesses its own magnetic properties. An electromagnet is a magnet that is created by passing an electric current through a coil of wire, while an electromechanical magnet is not a recognized term in magnetism.

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105. Concurrent servicing operations supporting sortie generation operations (CSO/SGO) are authorized on all following aircraft except the

Explanation

The correct answer is F–117. This aircraft is not authorized for concurrent servicing operations supporting sortie generation operations (CSO/SGO).

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106. During a flash point test, apply the flame to the vapor cup for

Explanation

In a flash point test, the flame is applied to the vapor cup for a specific duration to determine the lowest temperature at which the vapor can ignite. The correct answer of 1 second suggests that this is the optimal duration to achieve accurate results. Applying the flame for shorter durations may not provide enough time for the vapor to ignite, while longer durations may result in excessive heating or potential ignition of the vapor. Therefore, 1 second is the recommended duration for this test.

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107. How many filter elements does the ABFDS ACE contain?

Explanation

The ABFDS ACE contains three filter elements.

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108. How many tanks are used with the type IV hydrant system, and what is the capacity of each?

Explanation

The correct answer is four tanks with a capacity of 50,000 gallons each. This means that the type IV hydrant system utilizes four tanks, each with a capacity of 50,000 gallons.

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109. How often should a filter separator vessel be cleaned?

Explanation

A filter separator vessel should be cleaned every three years or when the coalescer elements are changed. This is because over time, the coalescer elements can become clogged with contaminants and lose their effectiveness in separating liquids from gases. Regular cleaning or replacement of these elements ensures that the vessel continues to function properly and maintain efficient separation of fluids.

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110. How often should dikes be checked for deterioration?

Explanation

Dikes should be checked for deterioration on a weekly basis to ensure their structural integrity and prevent any potential breaches or failures. Regular inspections allow for early detection of any signs of damage, erosion, or weakness in the dikes, which can be promptly addressed and repaired. Weekly checks also enable the monitoring of water levels, drainage systems, and any changes in the surrounding environment that could impact the dikes' stability. This proactive approach helps to mitigate risks and ensure the safety and effectiveness of the dikes in protecting against flooding or water intrusion.

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111. How often should government purchase card (GPC) cardholders reconcile their statement of account?

Explanation

Government Purchase Card (GPC) cardholders should reconcile their statement of account on a monthly basis. This allows them to review and verify all transactions made using the GPC, ensuring accuracy and identifying any discrepancies or fraudulent activities. Monthly reconciliation also helps in tracking expenses, managing budgets, and maintaining financial accountability. Reconciling statements on a regular basis ensures timely identification and resolution of any issues, promoting transparency and efficiency in government spending.

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112. If an active duty airman cannot complete a core task due to nonavailability of equipment at the installation, submit a core task waiver request to the

Explanation

If an active duty airman is unable to complete a core task because the necessary equipment is not available at their installation, they should submit a core task waiver request to the parent MAJCOM. The parent MAJCOM is the higher-level command responsible for overseeing multiple installations, and they have the authority to grant waivers for specific tasks. The squadron training manager, LRS commander, and Air Staff are not directly responsible for granting waivers in this situation.

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113. Initial tool listings for individual tool kits (ITK) and composite tool kits (CTK) include all of the following except

Explanation

The initial tool listings for individual tool kits (ITK) and composite tool kits (CTK) include the nomenclature, quantity authorized, and the tool national stock number (NSN). However, the quantity on hand is not included in the initial tool listings. This means that the listings provide information about the tools that are authorized and their identification, but not the specific quantity of each tool that is currently available.

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114. The amount of bulk petroleum war reserve requirement (BPWRR) a defense fuel supply point (DFSP) is authorized to store is referred to as

Explanation

The correct answer is "bulk petroleum war reserve stock". This refers to the amount of bulk petroleum that a defense fuel supply point (DFSP) is authorized to store. It represents the reserve stock specifically designated for wartime use, ensuring that there is an adequate supply of petroleum during times of conflict or emergency.

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115. The war consumables distribution objective (WCDO) is derived from the War and Mobilization Plan (WMP)–4 and WMP–5

Explanation

The correct answer is quarterly. The war consumables distribution objective (WCDO) is derived from the War and Mobilization Plan (WMP) on a quarterly basis. This means that the distribution objectives for war consumables are reviewed and updated every three months.

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116. What major command (MAJCOM) developed the type IV pressurized hot fueling system?

Explanation

The correct answer is United States Air Force in Europe (USAFE). The type IV pressurized hot fueling system was developed by USAFE.

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117. Which of the following may direct shipment of a vehicle with less than 50 percent life expectancy to satisfy mission requirements?

Explanation

The MAJCOM (Major Command) has the authority to direct the shipment of a vehicle with less than 50 percent life expectancy to satisfy mission requirements. The LRS (Logistics Readiness Squadron) commander and Wing commander may have some authority in their respective areas, but the decision to ship a vehicle would typically be made at a higher level, such as the MAJCOM or HQ USAF (Headquarters, United States Air Force).

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118. What causes the automatic bypass valve on the type III hydrant system to open and let fuel bypass the filter separator when receiving fuel by cross-country pipeline?

Explanation

When receiving fuel by cross-country pipeline, the automatic bypass valve on the type III hydrant system opens and lets fuel bypass the filter separator when there is a differential pressure of 20 psi sensed across the receiving filter separator. This means that the pressure on one side of the filter separator is 20 psi higher than the pressure on the other side. This indicates that there is a higher pressure drop across the filter, which could be caused by a clogged or dirty filter. To prevent damage to the system and ensure continuous fuel flow, the automatic bypass valve opens to allow fuel to bypass the filter separator.

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119. What filter separator component prevents pressure surges from damaging dispensing pressure control systems?

Explanation

An air eliminator is a filter separator component that is designed to remove air or gas from a liquid flow. In a dispensing pressure control system, pressure surges can occur due to the presence of air or gas in the system. These pressure surges can cause damage to the system. Therefore, an air eliminator is used to eliminate any air or gas from the liquid flow, preventing pressure surges and protecting the dispensing pressure control system.

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120. What is the preferable time after obtaining a sample to take a conductivity reading?

Explanation

The preferable time after obtaining a sample to take a conductivity reading is 2 minutes. Conductivity is a measure of how well a substance conducts electric current, and it can change over time due to factors like temperature and chemical reactions. Waiting for 2 minutes allows the sample to stabilize and ensures that the conductivity reading is accurate. Taking the reading too soon after obtaining the sample may not give an accurate result, while waiting too long may lead to changes in conductivity due to external factors. Therefore, 2 minutes is the preferable time to obtain a reliable conductivity reading.

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121. When determining authorizations for sales to non-DOD aircraft, you know that "T" Department of Defense address activity codes (DODAAC) are assigned to non-DOD organizations by

Explanation

DESC (Defense Logistics Agency Energy Support Center) is responsible for assigning Department of Defense address activity codes (DODAAC) to non-DOD organizations. DODAACs are unique identifiers used to track and manage transactions and authorizations within the Department of Defense.

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122. When encoding vehicle identification link (VIL) keys, how long should you maintain copies of a vehicle identification link (VIL) key requests in the defense fuel supply point (DSFP) document control file?

Explanation

You should maintain copies of a vehicle identification link (VIL) key requests in the defense fuel supply point (DSFP) document control file for 36 months.

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123. Which Air Force Petroleum Agency (AFPET) division performs contracting support for all AFPET contracted and cost recovery programs?

Explanation

The Resource Management Division performs contracting support for all AFPET contracted and cost recovery programs. This division is responsible for managing the financial resources and ensuring efficient allocation of funds for various programs within the Air Force Petroleum Agency. They handle the contracting process and ensure that all contracted and cost recovery programs are properly supported and managed.

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124. Who must establish procedures for the collection, safekeeping, and deposit of funds received for cash sales of aviation fuels?

Explanation

The FMT, or Financial Management Technician, must establish procedures for the collection, safekeeping, and deposit of funds received for cash sales of aviation fuels. This role is responsible for managing the financial transactions and ensuring that proper procedures are followed to safeguard the funds.

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125. With which of the following alternate fuels should special precautions be taken due to its high volatility?

Explanation

Jet B should be handled with special precautions due to its high volatility. Volatility refers to the tendency of a substance to vaporize or evaporate quickly. Jet B is a highly volatile fuel, meaning it has a low flash point and can easily ignite or explode when exposed to an ignition source. Therefore, extra care and safety measures must be taken when handling, storing, and transporting Jet B to prevent accidents or fires.

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126. A 3-horsepower motor consumes how much power?

Explanation

A 3-horsepower motor consumes 2,238 watts of power. Horsepower is a unit of power commonly used for rating the power output of motors. In this case, the motor has a power output of 3 horsepower, which is equivalent to 2,238 watts.

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127. How often should all fuels personnel complete task qualification training?

Explanation

All fuels personnel should complete task qualification training every 12 months. This ensures that they stay updated with the latest industry standards, regulations, and best practices. By completing training on a yearly basis, personnel can refresh their knowledge and skills, ensuring they are competent and capable of performing their tasks safely and efficiently. Regular training also helps to identify any gaps in knowledge or areas that may need improvement, allowing for continuous professional development within the fuels industry.

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128. What agency is responsible for the procurement of fuel at deployed locations?

Explanation

DESC, or the Defense Energy Support Center, is responsible for the procurement of fuel at deployed locations. They are the agency within the Department of Defense that manages and provides energy support to the military services, including fuel procurement and distribution. The other options listed are not specifically responsible for fuel procurement at deployed locations.

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129. What is the proper tire pressure setting for highway towing of an R–14 air transportable hydrant refueling system (ATHRS)?

Explanation

The proper tire pressure setting for highway towing of an R-14 air transportable hydrant refueling system (ATHRS) is 65 psi. This higher pressure is necessary to ensure the stability and safety of the system during towing on the highway. It helps to distribute the weight evenly and prevent excessive wear and tear on the tires.

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130. What size mesh screen is used in the type III hydrant system receiving strainer?

Explanation

The correct answer is 60. In a type III hydrant system, a receiving strainer is used to filter out debris and prevent it from entering the system. The size of the mesh screen used in this strainer is 60, indicating that it has 60 openings per linear inch. This size is chosen to effectively filter out larger particles while still allowing water to flow through smoothly.

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131. What type of time compliance technical order (TCTO) is issued for safety conditions which, if left uncorrected, could result in fatality or serious injury to personnel or extensive damage to or destruction of valuable property?

Explanation

Immediate action TCTOs are issued for safety conditions that have the potential to cause fatality or serious injury to personnel or extensive damage to valuable property if not corrected. These TCTOs require immediate attention and action to address the safety concerns and prevent any potential harm or damage.

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132. When documenting a cryogenic product issue to a liquid oxygen (LOX) cart on the Air Force Technical Order (AFTO) Form 134, how should odor test results be annotated in block 2?

Explanation

The correct answer is "As either 'FAIL' or 'PASS' in column D." This is because when documenting a cryogenic product issue to a liquid oxygen (LOX) cart on the Air Force Technical Order (AFTO) Form 134, the odor test results should be annotated as either "FAIL" or "PASS" in column D. This column is specifically used to indicate the result of the odor test. The options mentioned in columns A, B, and C are not relevant to documenting the odor test results in this scenario.

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133. When performing fuel servicing operations with the R–20 multi-aircraft servicing platform, the deadman switch on the hand-held remote should be pressed and released at intervals no greater than how many minutes?

Explanation

The correct answer is 2 minutes. This means that when performing fuel servicing operations with the R-20 multi-aircraft servicing platform, the deadman switch on the hand-held remote should be pressed and released at intervals no greater than 2 minutes. This is important to ensure the safe and efficient operation of the fuel servicing equipment. By regularly pressing and releasing the deadman switch, it helps to prevent any potential accidents or fuel spills that could occur if the switch is not activated within the specified time frame.

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134. When performing offload operations with the FORCE system, the deadman switch on the R–18 pumping unit should be placed in what position?

Explanation

The correct answer is "NO DEADMAN" because the question is asking about the position of the deadman switch on the R-18 pumping unit during offload operations with the FORCE system. Since the deadman switch is not needed or used during offload operations, it should be in the "NO DEADMAN" position.

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135. When personnel are servicing aircraft with the type IV hydrant system, who is responsible for positioning the aircraft on the hot pad?

Explanation

The hot refueling supervisor is responsible for positioning the aircraft on the hot pad when personnel are servicing aircraft with the type IV hydrant system. This implies that the hot refueling supervisor has the authority and expertise to ensure the safe and efficient positioning of the aircraft during the servicing process.

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136. When, if ever, is a particulate test on a liquid oxygen (LOX) cart required?

Explanation

A particulate test on a liquid oxygen (LOX) cart is required when there is suspicion of particulate contamination. This means that if there are concerns or indications that the LOX cart may have been contaminated with particles, such as dirt or debris, then a particulate test should be conducted. This is important to ensure the purity and safety of the liquid oxygen being stored or transported in the cart. Regular testing may not be necessary, but if there are suspicions or evidence of contamination, it becomes necessary to conduct the test.

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137. Which of the following agencies can initiate a Reporting Emergency Petroleum, Oils and Lubricants (REPOL)?

Explanation

The Joint Staff is the correct agency that can initiate a Reporting Emergency Petroleum, Oils, and Lubricants (REPOL). The Joint Staff is responsible for coordinating and integrating military operations and is composed of representatives from all branches of the armed forces. They have the authority to initiate a REPOL in order to report and manage emergency situations related to petroleum, oils, and lubricants. The other options, DESC (Defense Energy Support Center), AFPET (Air Force Petroleum Office), and MAJCOM (Major Command), do not have the authority to initiate a REPOL.

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138. Which recoverable and waste (R&W) petroleum product category covers motor crankcase oils and reciprocating aircraft engine oils?

Explanation

Category 3 of recoverable and waste (R&W) petroleum products covers motor crankcase oils and reciprocating aircraft engine oils. This category specifically includes lubricating oils that are used in internal combustion engines, such as those found in cars and airplanes. These oils can be recovered and recycled for further use or properly disposed of as waste.

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139. Who may authorize bases to use computer products in lieu of AF Forms 2419 and 2420?

Explanation

Parent MAJCOM may authorize bases to use computer products in lieu of AF Forms 2419 and 2420.

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140. With what type of fuel is the flow reducer ring not used when you are performing the bottle method test?

Explanation

The flow reducer ring is not used when performing the bottle method test with JP-5 fuel.

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141. Within what maximum amount of days of receipt will all new and used vehicles and equipment be inspected by the Air Force activity which receives it?

Explanation

The Air Force activity is required to inspect all new and used vehicles and equipment within a certain timeframe of receipt. The maximum amount of days allowed for this inspection is 60. This means that the Air Force activity must complete the inspection within 60 days of receiving the vehicles and equipment.

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142. How many feet of connecting hose does the ABFDS contain?

Explanation

The ABFDS contains 186 feet of connecting hose.

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143. How often must electrical continuity tests be performed on all filtration equipment?

Explanation

Electrical continuity tests must be performed on all filtration equipment on a monthly basis. This ensures that the electrical connections are intact and functioning properly. Regular testing helps to identify any potential issues or faults in the equipment's electrical system, allowing for timely repairs or maintenance. Monthly testing strikes a balance between frequent enough to catch problems early and not too frequent to cause unnecessary disruptions to the filtration process.

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144. How often should a water slug valve test be performed on the Fuel Filter Unit (FFU)–15E?

Explanation

The water slug valve test on the Fuel Filter Unit (FFU) should be performed monthly. This test is necessary to ensure the proper functioning of the FFU and to prevent any potential issues caused by water accumulation. Performing the test on a monthly basis allows for regular monitoring and maintenance of the FFU, ensuring its optimal performance and longevity.

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145. Providing supply and equipment budget forecasts through the fuels management team (FMT) to the squadron commander is the responsibility of the

Explanation

The Fuels material control supervisor is responsible for providing supply and equipment budget forecasts through the fuels management team (FMT) to the squadron commander. This role involves managing the inventory and distribution of fuels and ensuring that the necessary supplies and equipment are available. They work closely with the FMT to forecast and plan for future fuel needs, and their responsibility includes providing budget forecasts to the squadron commander.

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146. The control valves will close if there is a communication loss between the R–20 multiaircraft servicing unit and the lead pumping unit exceeding how many minutes?

Explanation

If there is a communication loss between the R-20 multiaircraft servicing unit and the lead pumping unit for more than 5 minutes, the control valves will close. This suggests that the control valves have a safety mechanism in place to prevent any potential damage or accidents that could occur due to a prolonged loss of communication between the two units.

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147. What component on the R–18 pumping unit will illuminate to indicate a serious problem with the engine?

Explanation

The stop light on the R-18 pumping unit will illuminate to indicate a serious problem with the engine. This light serves as a warning signal, indicating that there is a significant issue that requires immediate attention and action. It is crucial to address the problem promptly to prevent further damage or potential accidents.

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148. When documenting a cryogenic product receipt on the Air Force Form 1231, from which of the following documents is the contract number obtained?

Explanation

The contract number for a cryogenic product receipt on the Air Force Form 1231 is obtained from the DD Form 250. This form is used for documenting the receipt, inspection, and acceptance of supplies and services. It includes important information such as the contract number, delivery date, and quantity received. Therefore, the contract number would be obtained from the DD Form 250 when documenting the cryogenic product receipt.

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149. When maintaining Defense Energy Support Center (DESC) files, at a minimum, the defense fuel supply point (DFSP) inventory transaction documents and official records you store locally should consist of the current fiscal year documents plus documents from how many previous fiscal years?

Explanation

When maintaining Defense Energy Support Center (DESC) files, it is necessary to store the defense fuel supply point (DFSP) inventory transaction documents and official records locally. The minimum requirement is to store documents from the current fiscal year plus documents from the previous two fiscal years. This ensures that there is a record of transactions and inventory for at least three fiscal years, allowing for proper documentation and accountability.

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150. When maintaining Defense Energy Support Center (DESC) files, upon successful completion of end-of year closeout actions, how long should you retain the twelve monthly electronic backup disks as the fiscal year backup?

Explanation

Upon successful completion of end-of-year closeout actions, the twelve monthly electronic backup disks should be retained as the fiscal year backup for 6 years and 3 months.

Submit
151. When performing a hydrant flushing operation, ensure enough fuel velocity is generated to remove water and sediment by flushing the system

Explanation

When performing a hydrant flushing operation, it is important to ensure that enough fuel velocity is generated to remove water and sediment by flushing the system. This can be achieved by operating all issue pumps. Operating all issue pumps will increase the flow rate and pressure, allowing for a more effective flushing process. This ensures that the water and sediment are thoroughly removed from the system, maintaining its efficiency and functionality.

Submit
152. Fuel bladders can withstand temperatures from

Explanation

Fuel bladders are designed to withstand a wide range of temperatures to ensure their functionality and safety. The correct answer, -40° F to 160° F, indicates that fuel bladders can endure extremely cold temperatures as low as -40° F and high temperatures up to 160° F without being damaged or compromised. This temperature range allows fuel bladders to be used in various climates and environments, ensuring that they can store and transport fuel effectively and safely.

Submit
153. The FFU–15E filter separator is equipped with how many filter elements?

Explanation

The FFU-15E filter separator is equipped with 6 filter elements.

Submit
154. What form should be completed for awarding skill levels when all upgrade training (UGT) requirements have been met?

Explanation

The AF Form 2096 should be completed for awarding skill levels when all upgrade training (UGT) requirements have been met.

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155. What is a major difference between a gas and a liquid?

Explanation

A major difference between a gas and a liquid is their compressibility. Liquids are far less compressible compared to gases. This means that when pressure is applied, gases can be compressed more easily than liquids, which are relatively resistant to compression.

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156. What is the first factor that the senior ranking deployed fuels member must consider when selecting a site for fuels operations?

Explanation

The senior ranking deployed fuels member must consider safety as the first factor when selecting a site for fuels operations. This is because ensuring the safety of personnel, equipment, and the surrounding environment is crucial in any fuel operation. Safety measures should be in place to prevent accidents, spills, or any other potential hazards that could jeopardize the mission or cause harm to personnel. By prioritizing safety, the fuels member can ensure that the site chosen for operations is suitable and meets all necessary safety requirements.

Submit
157. What is the rated capacity of the pumps on the type IV pressurized hot refueling system?

Explanation

The rated capacity of the pumps on the type IV pressurized hot refueling system is 600 gpm. This means that the pumps are capable of delivering 600 gallons per minute of fuel during the refueling process.

Submit
158. What is the unit of measurement for electrical power?

Explanation

The unit of measurement for electrical power is watts. Watts measure the rate at which electrical energy is consumed or produced. It is named after James Watt, a Scottish engineer who played a significant role in the development of the steam engine. Watts are commonly used to quantify the power of various electrical devices, such as light bulbs, motors, and appliances.

Submit
159. What symbol should you enter on the Air Force Technical Order (AFTO) Form 244/245 if a routine inspection on a cryotainer goes overdue?

Explanation

The correct symbol to enter on the Air Force Technical Order (AFTO) Form 244/245 if a routine inspection on a cryotainer goes overdue is a red dash. This symbol indicates that the inspection was not performed within the required timeframe. It serves as a visual reminder that the inspection is overdue and needs to be completed as soon as possible to ensure the cryotainer's proper functioning and safety.

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160. What type of inspection is performed to determine the condition of a vehicle or piece of equipment?

Explanation

A limited technical inspection is performed to determine the condition of a vehicle or piece of equipment. This type of inspection focuses on specific components or systems of the vehicle or equipment, rather than a comprehensive evaluation. It is typically conducted to identify any potential issues or defects that may require immediate attention or repair. Unlike an annual inspection, which is a more comprehensive examination, a limited technical inspection is more targeted and specific. It helps in assessing the overall condition and functionality of the vehicle or equipment, ensuring its safe and efficient operation.

Submit
161. What type(s) of current flow cannot be transformed from a higher voltage to a lower voltage?

Explanation

Direct current (DC) is the type of current flow that cannot be transformed from a higher voltage to a lower voltage. This is because DC flows in only one direction, and it does not change its direction periodically like alternating current (AC). Therefore, it is not possible to use a transformer to step down the voltage of a DC current. Transformers work by utilizing the changing magnetic field created by AC to induce a voltage in the secondary coil, but this mechanism does not work with DC. Hence, DC cannot be transformed from a higher voltage to a lower voltage.

Submit
162. When entering an order into the Paperless Ordering and Receipt Tracking Screens (PORTS) system, what agencies receive fuel request e-mails from after you have placed the ground products order?

Explanation

When entering an order into the PORTS system, fuel request e-mails are received by the vendor and DESC (Defense Energy Support Center). The vendor is responsible for fulfilling the order and providing the requested fuel products, while DESC oversees and manages the logistics and distribution of fuel for the military. Both parties are involved in the process of processing and delivering the ground products order.

Submit
163. When performing a semiannual inspection of fillstand bonding receptacles for proper tension, you obtain a pull measurement of five pounds. This indicates a

Explanation

A pull measurement of five pounds during a semiannual inspection of fillstand bonding receptacles indicates a weak or damaged bonding receptacle. This means that the receptacle is not able to provide proper tension, which could potentially compromise the bonding between the fillstand and the equipment it is connected to. A corroded bond plug would typically result in a different type of issue, such as a poor electrical connection.

Submit
164. When selecting a fuel site, what factor will drive span of control decisions?

Explanation

Force protection is the factor that will drive span of control decisions when selecting a fuel site. Force protection refers to measures taken to safeguard personnel, equipment, and resources from hostile actions. When deciding on the span of control, the level of force protection required at a fuel site will determine the number of personnel and resources needed to effectively protect the site. This factor takes into account the potential threats and risks associated with the site and ensures that adequate security measures are in place to mitigate them.

Submit
165. Which condition would require you to clean a cryotainer filter?

Explanation

Cleaning a cryotainer filter would be necessary if there is a decrease in liquid flow. This indicates that the filter is becoming clogged or blocked, impeding the flow of liquid. By cleaning the filter, any debris or contaminants can be removed, allowing for proper liquid flow and preventing any potential issues or damage to the cryotainer system.

Submit
166. Who is responsible for maintaining the fuels account as outlined in Air Force Manual (AFMAN) 23–110, Volume 2, Part 2?

Explanation

The correct answer is FSC. FSC stands for Fuels Service Center, which is responsible for maintaining the fuels account as outlined in Air Force Manual (AFMAN) 23–110, Volume 2, Part 2. This means that the Fuels Service Center is in charge of managing and overseeing the storage, distribution, and accounting of fuels within the Air Force.

Submit
167. Who should you notify if, while performing fuels expediter duties, you use the spill response kit?

Explanation

The correct answer is Fuels Environmental coordinator. When performing fuels expediter duties and using the spill response kit, it is important to notify the Fuels Environmental coordinator. This individual is responsible for overseeing environmental aspects related to fuel operations and can provide guidance on proper spill response procedures. They will ensure that any spills or potential environmental hazards are addressed promptly and effectively.

Submit
168. During concurrent servicing of cargo or passenger aircraft, deplaning personnel should not come closer than how many feet from any aircraft fuel vent outlet?

Explanation

During concurrent servicing of aircraft, deplaning personnel should maintain a distance of at least 25 feet from any aircraft fuel vent outlet. This is necessary to ensure safety and prevent any potential hazards related to fuel leaks or spills. Being at a sufficient distance minimizes the risk of accidental ignition or exposure to flammable substances. It also allows for proper ventilation and prevents any interference with the fueling process. Therefore, 25 feet is the correct answer to maintain a safe distance during concurrent servicing.

Submit
169. How often should a liquid oxygen (LOX) generating plant be tested for odor and purity if a LOX production run will exceed 24 hours?

Explanation

A liquid oxygen (LOX) generating plant should be tested for odor and purity every 24 hours if a production run exceeds 24 hours. This ensures that the LOX being produced is of the desired quality and does not contain any impurities or odors that may affect its usability or safety. Regular testing is necessary to maintain the integrity and reliability of the LOX production process.

Submit
170. What are the three things needed to produce voltage by the principle of electromagnetic induction?

Explanation

To produce voltage by the principle of electromagnetic induction, three things are required: a magnetic field, a conductor, and relative motion between the magnetic field and the conductor. When there is relative motion between the magnetic field and the conductor, a voltage is induced in the conductor due to the electromagnetic induction phenomenon. The presence of a magnetic field is necessary to create a flux, the conductor acts as a medium for the flow of electrons, and the relative motion between the two creates a change in the magnetic field, leading to the generation of voltage.

Submit
171. When entering sample information in Business Systems Modernization-Energy (BSM-E), what information should you record in the SAMPLE block?

Explanation

In the Business Systems Modernization-Energy (BSM-E), the information that should be recorded in the SAMPLE block is the next sequential sample number. This means that each sample taken should be assigned a unique number in a sequential order. This helps in organizing and tracking the samples effectively. The other options, such as the type of sample taken, the kind of sample equipment used, and the amount of fuel obtained, may be important information to record as well, but the next sequential sample number is specifically mentioned as the information that should be recorded in the SAMPLE block.

Submit
172. When starting the PMU–27M, the throttle should be placed at

Explanation

When starting the PMU-27M, the throttle should be placed at half speed. This is because starting the engine at full speed can cause excessive wear and tear on the engine components, while starting at idle speed may not provide enough power to start the engine effectively. Half speed is a balanced position that allows for a smooth and efficient start of the engine.

Submit
173. All of the following items should be accomplished prior to shipping the R–22 except

Explanation

not-available-via-ai

Submit
174. At what flow rate is the R–14 capable of servicing through one 2-inch hose?

Explanation

The R-14 is capable of servicing a flow rate of 100 gpm through one 2-inch hose.

Submit
175. For air shipment, the inner tanks of empty cryotainers are pressurized with dry nitrogen gas at a positive pressure of

Explanation

The correct answer is 15 to 25 psig. This is the recommended pressure range for pressurizing the inner tanks of empty cryotainers during air shipment. Pressurizing the tanks with dry nitrogen gas at this positive pressure helps to maintain the structural integrity of the tanks and prevent any damage or collapse during transportation. It also ensures that the tanks are properly sealed and prevents the ingress of moisture or contaminants.

Submit
176. How many differential pressure transmitters (DPT) are installed on the issue line of a type III hydrant system that has a refueling capability of more than 2,400 gallons per minutes (gpm)?

Explanation

Based on the information given, the correct answer is 4. This is because the question asks for the number of differential pressure transmitters (DPT) installed on the issue line of a type III hydrant system with a refueling capability of more than 2,400 gpm. Since the answer is 4, it can be inferred that there are 4 DPTs installed on the issue line to monitor the pressure differentials in the system.

Submit
177. How often should the Aqua Glo water detector be calibrated?

Explanation

The Aqua Glo water detector should be calibrated daily to ensure accurate and reliable readings. Daily calibration is necessary to maintain the device's sensitivity and effectiveness in detecting water leaks or moisture. Regular calibration helps to prevent false alarms or missed detections, ensuring that any water-related issues can be promptly addressed.

Submit
178. To obtain meaningful results with the bottle method test, the vacuum must read in excess of

Explanation

The bottle method test is a method used to measure the porosity of soil. In this test, a vacuum is applied to a soil sample in a bottle, and the amount of air that is drawn out of the sample is measured. To obtain accurate and meaningful results, the vacuum must read in excess of 20 inches of mercury. This means that the vacuum pressure should be higher than 20 inches of mercury in order to effectively draw out the air from the soil sample and measure its porosity.

Submit
179. What maximum ramp angle can the R–14 negotiate in the high mobility position?

Explanation

The R-14 can negotiate a maximum ramp angle of 20° in the high mobility position. This means that it can safely climb up a ramp with a slope of up to 20° without any issues. This high mobility position allows the R-14 to navigate through rough terrains and steep inclines with ease, making it a versatile and capable vehicle.

Submit
180. When performing meter calibrations, what is the acceptable difference between the master meter and the meter being calibrated?

Explanation

The acceptable difference between the master meter and the meter being calibrated is ½ gallon for each 100 gallons passing through the meter. This means that for every 100 gallons that pass through the meter being calibrated, there can be a difference of up to ½ gallon compared to the master meter. This allows for a small margin of error in the calibration process, ensuring that the meter is accurately measuring the flow of fluid.

Submit
181. Which aircraft does not require a hot brake check before entering the hot refueling pad?

Explanation

The F-15 aircraft does not require a hot brake check before entering the hot refueling pad. This means that the brakes of the F-15 are not required to be inspected for overheating or excessive wear before refueling in a hot refueling pad.

Submit
182. Accountability for a transferred MRSP kit temporary rests with the

Explanation

The correct answer is Expeditionary LRS at the forward location. When a MRSP kit is transferred, the temporary accountability for the kit rests with the Expeditionary LRS at the forward location. This means that they are responsible for ensuring the kit is properly accounted for and maintained until it is transferred to its final destination or returned to the home unit. The using organization, accountable officer, and home unit LRS customer service element may have roles in the overall accountability process, but the temporary responsibility lies with the Expeditionary LRS at the forward location.

Submit
183. The FAM cart is equipped with all of the following nozzles except

Explanation

The FAM cart is equipped with all of the mentioned nozzles except the D-2 single point nozzle.

Submit
184. The R–22 trailer mounted transfer pump has the capability of transferring a maximum of how many gals. of fuel per day?

Explanation

The R-22 trailer mounted transfer pump has the capability of transferring a maximum of 500,000 gallons of fuel per day.

Submit
185. What maximum number of base stations may be configured to operate with the automated data collection (ADC) system?

Explanation

The maximum number of base stations that may be configured to operate with the automated data collection (ADC) system is 10. This means that the system is capable of supporting up to 10 base stations for data collection purposes.

Submit
186. What maximum number of receiver aircraft can a FAM cart service simultaneously?

Explanation

A FAM cart is a type of aircraft ground support equipment used for refueling and servicing aircraft. The question is asking about the maximum number of receiver aircraft that can be serviced simultaneously by a FAM cart. The correct answer is three, which means that the FAM cart is capable of refueling and servicing up to three aircraft at the same time. This indicates that the FAM cart has multiple fueling hoses or servicing capabilities to accommodate three aircraft simultaneously.

Submit
187. What type of publication is issued when a commercial manufacturer discovers dangerous or unsafe conditions with a product?

Explanation

A manufacturer's recall is issued when a commercial manufacturer discovers dangerous or unsafe conditions with a product. This means that the manufacturer recognizes a potential risk or defect with their product and takes the initiative to inform the public and request that the product be returned or repaired. This is done in order to prevent any harm or injury to consumers and to ensure their safety.

Submit
188. What type of thermometer should you use when performing a cloud point analysis?

Explanation

ASTM 5F is the correct answer because it is the standard specification for thermometers used in cloud point analysis. The American Society for Testing and Materials (ASTM) has specific standards for different types of thermometers, and ASTM 5F is the one recommended for this particular analysis. Using the correct thermometer ensures accurate and reliable measurements during the cloud point analysis process.

Submit
189. When conducting internal inspections, within what maximum number of days should an element be inspected if it receives unsatisfactory rating?

Explanation

When conducting internal inspections, an element should be inspected within 45 days if it receives an unsatisfactory rating. This time frame allows for a reasonable period to address any issues or deficiencies that may have contributed to the unsatisfactory rating. Waiting longer than 45 days could potentially result in further deterioration or escalation of the problem, leading to more significant consequences. Therefore, conducting the inspection within 45 days ensures timely corrective actions can be taken to address the unsatisfactory rating.

Submit
190. When should Defense Energy Support Center (DESC) receive the non-Department of Defense (DOD) sales report and supporting documents?

Explanation

DESC should receive the non-Department of Defense (DOD) sales report and supporting documents within 5 working days after the end of the month. This allows for a reasonable amount of time for the necessary paperwork to be compiled and submitted to DESC for review and processing.

Submit
191. When you are reconciling accounts, what is the allowable tolerance for motor (automotive) gasoline (MOGAS)?

Explanation

When reconciling accounts, the allowable tolerance for motor gasoline (MOGAS) is .005. This means that there can be a difference of up to .005 in the recorded amount of MOGAS compared to the actual amount. This tolerance allows for minor discrepancies or errors in the accounting process, ensuring that small variations in the recorded and actual amounts of MOGAS are acceptable and do not require further investigation or adjustment.

Submit
192. How many filtrations, if any, are required for reclaimed products returned to storage which will be reissued to ground support equipment?

Explanation

Only one filtration is required for reclaimed products returned to storage before they are reissued to ground support equipment. This suggests that the reclaimed products need to go through a single filtration process to ensure their quality and remove any impurities before being reused.

Submit
193. How much fuel is passed through the test pad to obtain an Aeronautical Engine Laboratory (AEL) sample?

Explanation

To obtain an Aeronautical Engine Laboratory (AEL) sample, only 300 milliliters of fuel is passed through the test pad. This indicates that a small amount of fuel is sufficient for the purpose of obtaining the sample, suggesting that the AEL sample does not require a large volume of fuel for testing or analysis.

Submit
194. Urgent action time compliance technical orders (TCTO) require compliance within what maximum amount of days?

Explanation

Urgent action time compliance technical orders (TCTO) are directives that require immediate attention and compliance. These orders are issued when there is a critical issue that needs to be addressed promptly. In this case, the correct answer is 10 days, indicating that the compliance with the TCTO should be completed within this maximum timeframe to ensure timely resolution of the urgent issue.

Submit
195. What is the proper tire pressure setting for the R–18 pumping unit?

Explanation

The proper tire pressure setting for the R-18 pumping unit is 75 psi. This is the correct answer because it is the only option provided that matches the recommended tire pressure for the specific unit mentioned.

Submit
196. What size graduated cylinder is used to perform the American Petroleum Institute (API) gravity test?

Explanation

The American Petroleum Institute (API) gravity test is used to measure the density of petroleum liquids. To perform this test, a graduated cylinder is required. The size of the graduated cylinder needed for the API gravity test is 1,000 ml. This size is suitable for accurately measuring the volume of the liquid being tested, ensuring precise results for the density calculation.

Submit
197. Which Air Force Petroleum Agency (AFPET) division provides oversight and remedy for fuels mishaps and safety incidents?

Explanation

The Facilities and Distribution Division of the Air Force Petroleum Agency (AFPET) provides oversight and remedy for fuels mishaps and safety incidents. This division is responsible for managing and maintaining the facilities and infrastructure related to fuel distribution, ensuring the safe and efficient handling of petroleum products. They play a crucial role in identifying and addressing any mishaps or safety incidents that may occur during the distribution process, ensuring the overall safety and integrity of the fuel supply chain.

Submit
198. Which physical factor affects the behavior of liquids in both rest and motion?

Explanation

The behavior of liquids in both rest and motion is affected by gravity, atmospheric pressure, and applied forces. Gravity causes liquids to flow downwards and affects their density. Atmospheric pressure affects the boiling point and vapor pressure of liquids. Applied forces, such as stirring or shaking, can change the motion and behavior of liquids.

Submit
199. How often should the line strainers on the PMU–27M be removed and cleaned?

Explanation

The line strainers on the PMU-27M should be removed and cleaned twice a year, or semiannually. This frequency allows for regular maintenance and ensures that the strainers are free from any debris or blockages that could affect the performance of the equipment. Cleaning the strainers semiannually helps to maintain the efficiency and longevity of the PMU-27M.

Submit
200. On the type III hydrant system, which function of the filter separator control valve prevents the elements from bursting and allowing contaminated fuel downstream?

Explanation

The differential pressure shutoff function of the filter separator control valve prevents the elements from bursting and allowing contaminated fuel downstream. This function is designed to monitor the pressure difference across the filter elements and automatically shut off the flow if the pressure difference exceeds a certain threshold. By doing so, it prevents any potential damage to the elements and ensures that only clean fuel passes through the system, preventing contamination downstream.

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What is the first factor that the senior ranking deployed fuels member...
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What is the unit of measurement for electrical power?
What symbol should you enter on the Air Force Technical Order (AFTO)...
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When entering sample information in Business Systems...
When starting the PMU–27M, the throttle should be placed at
All of the following items should be accomplished prior to shipping...
At what flow rate is the R–14 capable of servicing through one...
For air shipment, the inner tanks of empty cryotainers are pressurized...
How many differential pressure transmitters (DPT) are installed on the...
How often should the Aqua Glo water detector be calibrated?
To obtain meaningful results with the bottle method test, the vacuum...
What maximum ramp angle can the R–14 negotiate in the high...
When performing meter calibrations, what is the acceptable difference...
Which aircraft does not require a hot brake check before entering the...
Accountability for a transferred MRSP kit temporary rests with the
The FAM cart is equipped with all of the following nozzles except
The R–22 trailer mounted transfer pump has the capability of...
What maximum number of base stations may be configured to operate with...
What maximum number of receiver aircraft can a FAM cart service...
What type of publication is issued when a commercial manufacturer...
What type of thermometer should you use when performing a cloud point...
When conducting internal inspections, within what maximum number of...
When should Defense Energy Support Center (DESC) receive the...
When you are reconciling accounts, what is the allowable tolerance for...
How many filtrations, if any, are required for reclaimed products...
How much fuel is passed through the test pad to obtain an Aeronautical...
Urgent action time compliance technical orders (TCTO) require...
What is the proper tire pressure setting for the R–18 pumping...
What size graduated cylinder is used to perform the American Petroleum...
Which Air Force Petroleum Agency (AFPET) division provides oversight...
Which physical factor affects the behavior of liquids in both rest and...
How often should the line strainers on the PMU–27M be removed...
On the type III hydrant system, which function of the filter separator...
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