2F071 CDC All Ure's Review Exam Style
2F071 CDC All URE's review exam style
Questions and Answers
- 1.
A 3-horsepower motor consumes how much power?
- A.
755 W.
- B.
1,534 W.
- C.
2,023 W.
- D.
2,238 W.
Correct Answer
D. 2,238 W.Explanation
A 3-horsepower motor consumes 2,238 watts of power. Horsepower is a unit of power commonly used for rating the power output of motors. In this case, the motor has a power output of 3 horsepower, which is equivalent to 2,238 watts.Rate this question:
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- 2.
A magnet that is magnetized by induction from an external source is called
- A.
A natural magnet.
- B.
An electromagnet.
- C.
An artificial magnet.
- D.
An electromechanical magnet.
Correct Answer
C. An artificial magnet.Explanation
An artificial magnet is a magnet that is magnetized by induction from an external source. This means that it does not possess its own inherent magnetic properties and requires an external magnetic field to become magnetized. In contrast, a natural magnet, such as lodestone, is a magnet that occurs naturally and possesses its own magnetic properties. An electromagnet is a magnet that is created by passing an electric current through a coil of wire, while an electromechanical magnet is not a recognized term in magnetism.Rate this question:
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- 3.
A temporary movement of a MRSP kit from home station to another location for a period of less than 30 days is referred to as a
- A.
Transfer
- B.
Relocation
- C.
Deployment
- D.
Reassignment
Correct Answer
C. DeploymentExplanation
A temporary movement of a MRSP kit from home station to another location for a period of less than 30 days is referred to as a deployment. This suggests that the MRSP kit is being temporarily relocated to another location for a specific purpose or mission, but it is not a permanent reassignment or relocation. The term "deployment" is commonly used in military contexts to describe the temporary movement of personnel or equipment to a different location for a specific mission or operation.Rate this question:
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- 4.
According to the electron theory, atoms are composed of
- A.
Protons, neutrons, and electrons.
- B.
Neutrons, elements, and protons.
- C.
Electrons, molecules, and elements.
- D.
Electrons, neutrons, and matter.
Correct Answer
A. Protons, neutrons, and electrons.Explanation
According to the electron theory, atoms are composed of protons, neutrons, and electrons. This theory states that atoms are made up of three subatomic particles: protons, which have a positive charge; neutrons, which have no charge; and electrons, which have a negative charge. These particles are believed to be the building blocks of matter and are arranged in a specific way within the atom to create different elements. Therefore, the correct answer is protons, neutrons, and electrons.Rate this question:
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- 5.
Accountability for a transferred MRSP kit temporary rests with the
- A.
Using organization
- B.
Accountable officer
- C.
Home unit LRS customer service element
- D.
Expeditionary LRS at the forward location
Correct Answer
D. Expeditionary LRS at the forward locationExplanation
The correct answer is Expeditionary LRS at the forward location. When a MRSP kit is transferred, the temporary accountability for the kit rests with the Expeditionary LRS at the forward location. This means that they are responsible for ensuring the kit is properly accounted for and maintained until it is transferred to its final destination or returned to the home unit. The using organization, accountable officer, and home unit LRS customer service element may have roles in the overall accountability process, but the temporary responsibility lies with the Expeditionary LRS at the forward location.Rate this question:
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- 6.
All of the following are important considerations when planning for cryogenics support except
- A.
Required tankage
- B.
Resupply method
- C.
Product requirements
- D.
Sufficient product availability
Correct Answer
B. Resupply methodExplanation
When planning for cryogenics support, it is crucial to consider various factors such as required tankage, product requirements, and sufficient product availability. These factors ensure that the necessary equipment and resources are in place to support the cryogenic processes. However, the resupply method is not directly related to the planning process. While it is important to have a reliable method to resupply cryogenic materials, it is not a consideration when initially planning for cryogenics support.Rate this question:
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- 7.
All of the following conditions require replacement of filter elements on the R–19 filter separator unit except
- A.
A reading of 16 pounds per square inch, differential (psid) on the differential pressure (DP) gauge
- B.
A reading of 22 psid on the DP gauge
- C.
Elements that have been in use for 36 months
- D.
Filter separator vessel performance is questionable
Correct Answer
A. A reading of 16 pounds per square inch, differential (psid) on the differential pressure (DP) gaugeExplanation
The correct answer is a reading of 16 pounds per square inch, differential (psid) on the differential pressure (DP) gauge. This is because a reading of 16 psid on the DP gauge is within the acceptable range and does not indicate a need for filter element replacement. The other conditions mentioned, such as a reading of 22 psid on the DP gauge, elements that have been in use for 36 months, and questionable filter separator vessel performance, all indicate a need for replacement of filter elements.Rate this question:
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- 8.
All of the following conditions would prevent a remote terminal workstation (RTW) from receiving data except
- A.
The remote terminal unit being turned off.
- B.
An inoperative remote terminal unit modem .
- C.
The remote terminal workstation being turned on.
- D.
An inoperative remote terminal workstation modem.
Correct Answer
C. The remote terminal workstation being turned on.Explanation
The remote terminal workstation being turned on would not prevent it from receiving data. In fact, it is necessary for the workstation to be turned on in order to receive data. The other conditions mentioned, such as the remote terminal unit being turned off or having an inoperative modem, would prevent the RTW from receiving data.Rate this question:
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- 9.
All of the following items should be accomplished prior to shipping the R–22 except
- A.
Thoroughly clean the unit
- B.
Drain all fuel from the piping
- C.
Disconnect and drain all hose assemblies
- D.
Place the unit in the low mobility position
Correct Answer
D. Place the unit in the low mobility position -
- 10.
At a minimum, how often should underground storage tanks be monitored to detect releases?
- 11.
At least how many days before the due date must flight physicals and physiological training for Forward Area Refueling Point (FARP) and Aerial Bulk Fuel Delivery System (ABFDS) trained personnel be scheduled?
- A.
14
- B.
30
- C.
45
- D.
60
Correct Answer
C. 45Explanation
Flight physicals and physiological training for Forward Area Refueling Point (FARP) and Aerial Bulk Fuel Delivery System (ABFDS) trained personnel must be scheduled at least 45 days before the due date. This allows enough time for the personnel to complete the necessary medical examinations and training, ensuring that they are physically and mentally prepared for their duties. Scheduling these activities well in advance also allows for any potential delays or rescheduling that may be required.Rate this question:
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- 12.
At no time will money that is collected for cash sales of aviation products be safeguarded by
- A.
FSC personnel.
- B.
Shift supervisors.
- C.
Off-duty personnel.
- D.
Operations expeditors.
Correct Answer
C. Off-duty personnel.Explanation
Off-duty personnel are not responsible for safeguarding the money collected for cash sales of aviation products. This duty falls on FSC personnel, shift supervisors, and operations expeditors who are actively working and responsible for the financial transactions. Off-duty personnel are not involved in the day-to-day operations and therefore do not have the responsibility to safeguard the collected money.Rate this question:
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- 13.
At what flow rate does adjustable pilot valve on the R–14 limit high flow?
- A.
300 gpm
- B.
350 gpm
- C.
600 gpm
- D.
650 gpm
Correct Answer
C. 600 gpmExplanation
The adjustable pilot valve on the R-14 limits high flow at a rate of 600 gpm.Rate this question:
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- 14.
At what flow rate is the R–14 capable of servicing through one 2-inch hose?
- A.
100 gpm
- B.
200 gpm
- C.
300 gpm
- D.
600 gpm
Correct Answer
A. 100 gpmExplanation
The R-14 is capable of servicing a flow rate of 100 gpm through one 2-inch hose.Rate this question:
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- 15.
At what liquid level does the type III hydrant system product recovery tank overfill valve close?
- A.
75 percent full.
- B.
80 percent full.
- C.
85 percent full.
- D.
90 percent full.
Correct Answer
B. 80 percent full.Explanation
The type III hydrant system product recovery tank overfill valve closes when the liquid level reaches 80 percent full.Rate this question:
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- 16.
At what maximum flow rate can the FAM cart pump deliver fuel?
- A.
175 gpm
- B.
300 gpm
- C.
365 gpm
- D.
600 gpm
Correct Answer
C. 365 gpmExplanation
The FAM cart pump is capable of delivering fuel at a maximum flow rate of 365 gpm.Rate this question:
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- 17.
At what maximum flow rate can the FFU–15E filter separator filter gasoline?
- A.
450 gpm
- B.
600 gpm
- C.
750 gpm
- D.
900 gpm
Correct Answer
C. 750 gpmExplanation
The FFU-15E filter separator can filter gasoline at a maximum flow rate of 750 gpm.Rate this question:
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- 18.
Concurrent servicing operations supporting sortie generation operations (CSO/SGO) are authorized on all following aircraft except the
- A.
A–10.
- B.
F–15.
- C.
F–22.
- D.
F–117.
Correct Answer
D. F–117.Explanation
The correct answer is F–117. This aircraft is not authorized for concurrent servicing operations supporting sortie generation operations (CSO/SGO).Rate this question:
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- 19.
During a flash point test, apply the flame to the vapor cup for
- A.
0.5 seconds.
- B.
1 second.
- C.
1.5 seconds.
- D.
2 seconds.
Correct Answer
B. 1 second.Explanation
In a flash point test, the flame is applied to the vapor cup for a specific duration to determine the lowest temperature at which the vapor can ignite. The correct answer of 1 second suggests that this is the optimal duration to achieve accurate results. Applying the flame for shorter durations may not provide enough time for the vapor to ignite, while longer durations may result in excessive heating or potential ignition of the vapor. Therefore, 1 second is the recommended duration for this test.Rate this question:
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- 20.
During air shipment, the cryotainer inner tank pressure should not exceed what maximum psi reading?
- A.
35 psi
- B.
40 psi
- C.
50 psi
- D.
55 psi
Correct Answer
B. 40 psiExplanation
During air shipment, it is crucial to maintain the pressure inside the cryotainer within safe limits to prevent any potential damage or accidents. The correct answer of 40 psi indicates that the maximum allowable pressure for the cryotainer's inner tank during air shipment should not exceed 40 psi. This ensures the safety and integrity of the cryotainer and its contents during transportation.Rate this question:
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- 21.
During bottom loading operations, what occurs when the signal to the bottom loading optic probe is lost?
- A.
The bottom loading valve modulates to prevent deadheading.
- B.
The electronic control module cuts power to the fillstand pump.
- C.
The bottom loading valve cuts power to the electronic control module.
- D.
The electronic control module cuts power to the bottom loading electric air solenoid.
Correct Answer
D. The electronic control module cuts power to the bottom loading electric air solenoid.Explanation
When the signal to the bottom loading optic probe is lost, the electronic control module cuts power to the bottom loading electric air solenoid. This means that the solenoid, which controls the flow of air to the bottom loading valve, will no longer receive power and will be deactivated. This is likely done as a safety measure to prevent any potential issues or accidents that could occur if the bottom loading valve remains open without proper control.Rate this question:
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- 22.
During concurrent servicing of cargo or passenger aircraft, deplaning personnel should not come closer than how many feet from any aircraft fuel vent outlet?
- A.
10 feet.
- B.
20 feet.
- C.
25 feet.
- D.
50 feet.
Correct Answer
C. 25 feet.Explanation
During concurrent servicing of aircraft, deplaning personnel should maintain a distance of at least 25 feet from any aircraft fuel vent outlet. This is necessary to ensure safety and prevent any potential hazards related to fuel leaks or spills. Being at a sufficient distance minimizes the risk of accidental ignition or exposure to flammable substances. It also allows for proper ventilation and prevents any interference with the fueling process. Therefore, 25 feet is the correct answer to maintain a safe distance during concurrent servicing.Rate this question:
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- 23.
During multiple source refueling, what action, if any, should be taken if backflow is detected?
- A.
No action is required.
- B.
Increase engine RPMs.
- C.
Decrease the engine RPMs.
- D.
Stop the operation immediately.
Correct Answer
D. Stop the operation immediately.Explanation
If backflow is detected during multiple source refueling, it is necessary to stop the operation immediately. Backflow can occur when fuel is flowing in the wrong direction, which can be a safety hazard. Stopping the operation will help prevent any further backflow and potential damage or accidents.Rate this question:
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- 24.
Each R–20 multi-aircraft servicing platform is equipped with how many feet of communication wire?
- A.
1,000 feet
- B.
1,500 feet
- C.
3,000 feet
- D.
4,500 feet
Correct Answer
B. 1,500 feetExplanation
Each R-20 multi-aircraft servicing platform is equipped with 1,500 feet of communication wire.Rate this question:
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- 25.
For air shipment, the inner tanks of empty cryotainers are pressurized with dry nitrogen gas at a positive pressure of
- A.
10 to 15 psig
- B.
15 to 25 psig
- C.
25 to 30 psig
- D.
30 to 40 psig
Correct Answer
B. 15 to 25 psigExplanation
The correct answer is 15 to 25 psig. This is the recommended pressure range for pressurizing the inner tanks of empty cryotainers during air shipment. Pressurizing the tanks with dry nitrogen gas at this positive pressure helps to maintain the structural integrity of the tanks and prevent any damage or collapse during transportation. It also ensures that the tanks are properly sealed and prevents the ingress of moisture or contaminants.Rate this question:
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- 26.
Fuel bladders can withstand temperatures from
- A.
-15° F to 135° F
- B.
-25° F to 145° F
- C.
-40° F to 160° F
- D.
-50° F to 170° F
Correct Answer
C. -40° F to 160° FExplanation
Fuel bladders are designed to withstand a wide range of temperatures to ensure their functionality and safety. The correct answer, -40° F to 160° F, indicates that fuel bladders can endure extremely cold temperatures as low as -40° F and high temperatures up to 160° F without being damaged or compromised. This temperature range allows fuel bladders to be used in various climates and environments, ensuring that they can store and transport fuel effectively and safely.Rate this question:
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- 27.
Fuels personnel identify the tank vent valve by using a locally manufactured
- A.
Bronze disc
- B.
Adhesive label
- C.
Wooden placard
- D.
Round aluminum disc
Correct Answer
D. Round aluminum discExplanation
The fuels personnel identify the tank vent valve by using a round aluminum disc. This disc is most likely used as a label or marker to indicate the location of the tank vent valve. The round shape and aluminum material make it durable and easy to spot. It is also likely that the round aluminum disc is a standard and commonly used marker in the industry, making it easily recognizable by the personnel.Rate this question:
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- 28.
Government purchase card (GPC) cardholders should reconcile transactions and approve the electronic statement of account within how many workdays of the end of the billing cycle?1
- A.
1
- B.
2
- C.
3
- D.
5
Correct Answer
C. 3Explanation
Government purchase card (GPC) cardholders are required to reconcile transactions and approve the electronic statement of account within 3 workdays of the end of the billing cycle. This ensures that all transactions are reviewed and verified in a timely manner, reducing the risk of fraudulent or unauthorized charges. By promptly reconciling and approving the statement of account, cardholders can also ensure accurate financial reporting and budget management.Rate this question:
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- 29.
Hearing protection is required within how many feet of an R–14 operation?
- A.
10 ft
- B.
20 ft
- C.
50 ft
- D.
100 ft
Correct Answer
C. 50 ftExplanation
Hearing protection is required within 50 feet of an R-14 operation. This suggests that the noise level generated by an R-14 operation is significant enough to potentially cause damage to hearing within a 50-foot radius. To ensure the safety of individuals in the vicinity, it is necessary to wear hearing protection in this range.Rate this question:
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- 30.
How are all satisfactory spot checks without significant findings reported?
- A.
They are consolidated weekly on one AF Form 2419.
- B.
They are consolidated weekly on one AF Form 2420.
- C.
They are consolidated monthly on one AF Form 2419.
- D.
They are consolidated monthly on one AF Form 2420.
Correct Answer
A. They are consolidated weekly on one AF Form 2419.Explanation
All satisfactory spot checks without significant findings are reported by consolidating them weekly on one AF Form 2419.Rate this question:
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- 31.
How do the charges of protons and electrons differ?
- A.
Protons have positive charges, and electrons have neutral charges.
- B.
Protons have neutral charges, and electrons have positive charges.
- C.
Protons have negative charges, and electrons have positive charges.
- D.
Protons have positive charges, and electrons have negative charges.
Correct Answer
D. Protons have positive charges, and electrons have negative charges.Explanation
Protons and electrons have opposite charges. Protons have a positive charge, while electrons have a negative charge. This is a fundamental concept in atomic structure and is important in understanding the behavior of atoms and the interactions between particles.Rate this question:
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- 32.
How is the fueling control valve opened to perform hot refueling operations?
- A.
By a flow switch located before the control pit.
- B.
By air pressure from the deadman control valve.
- C.
By fuel pressure from the deadman control valve.
- D.
By a pressure switch located before the control pit.
Correct Answer
B. By air pressure from the deadman control valve.Explanation
The fueling control valve is opened to perform hot refueling operations by using air pressure from the deadman control valve. This means that the valve is activated and opened by the air pressure generated by the deadman control valve.Rate this question:
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- 33.
How long should the fuel and water mixture in the separatory funnel be shaken when performing a fuel system icing inhibitor (FSII) test?
- A.
Until you get a good separation.
- B.
1 minute.
- C.
3 minute.
- D.
5 minute.
Correct Answer
D. 5 minute.Explanation
The fuel and water mixture in the separatory funnel should be shaken for 5 minutes when performing a fuel system icing inhibitor (FSII) test. This duration ensures that the mixture is thoroughly mixed and any potential separation is achieved. Shaking for a longer period may not yield any significant improvement in separation, while shaking for a shorter duration may result in incomplete mixing and inaccurate test results.Rate this question:
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- 34.
How many differential pressure transmitters (DPT) are installed on the issue line of a type III hydrant system that has a refueling capability of more than 2,400 gallons per minutes (gpm)?
- A.
2.
- B.
4.
- C.
6.
- D.
8.
Correct Answer
B. 4.Explanation
Based on the information given, the correct answer is 4. This is because the question asks for the number of differential pressure transmitters (DPT) installed on the issue line of a type III hydrant system with a refueling capability of more than 2,400 gpm. Since the answer is 4, it can be inferred that there are 4 DPTs installed on the issue line to monitor the pressure differentials in the system.Rate this question:
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- 35.
How many feet of connecting hose does the ABFDS contain?
- A.
162 ft
- B.
173 ft
- C.
186 ft
- D.
190 ft
Correct Answer
C. 186 ftExplanation
The ABFDS contains 186 feet of connecting hose.Rate this question:
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- 36.
How many fillstand assemblies are included in the FORCE system?
- A.
1
- B.
2
- C.
3
- D.
4
Correct Answer
B. 2Explanation
The correct answer is 2 because the question asks for the number of fillstand assemblies included in the FORCE system. Since the answer choices are numbers, we can determine that there are only two fillstand assemblies in the system.Rate this question:
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- 37.
How many filter elements does the ABFDS ACE contain?
- A.
Two
- B.
Three
- C.
Four
- D.
Six
Correct Answer
B. ThreeExplanation
The ABFDS ACE contains three filter elements.Rate this question:
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- 38.
How many filter elements does the PMU–27M filter separator contain?
- A.
3
- B.
6
- C.
15
- D.
30
Correct Answer
A. 3Explanation
The PMU-27M filter separator contains 3 filter elements.Rate this question:
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- 39.
How many filtrations, if any, are required for reclaimed products returned to storage which will be reissued to ground support equipment?
- A.
None.
- B.
One.
- C.
Two.
- D.
Three.
Correct Answer
B. One.Explanation
Only one filtration is required for reclaimed products returned to storage before they are reissued to ground support equipment. This suggests that the reclaimed products need to go through a single filtration process to ensure their quality and remove any impurities before being reused.Rate this question:
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- 40.
How many R–18 pumping units are included in a fuels operational readiness capability equipment module?
- A.
1
- B.
3
- C.
4
- D.
5
Correct Answer
D. 5Explanation
The correct answer is 5 because the question asks for the number of R-18 pumping units included in a fuels operational readiness capability equipment module. Since the question does not provide any additional information or context, we can assume that the module includes 5 R-18 pumping units.Rate this question:
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- 41.
How many tanks are used with the type IV hydrant system, and what is the capacity of each?
- A.
Two; 10,000 gallons.
- B.
Four; 10,000 gallons.
- C.
Two; 50,000 gallons.
- D.
Four; 50,000 gallons.
Correct Answer
D. Four; 50,000 gallons.Explanation
The correct answer is four tanks with a capacity of 50,000 gallons each. This means that the type IV hydrant system utilizes four tanks, each with a capacity of 50,000 gallons.Rate this question:
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- 42.
How much fuel is passed through the test pad to obtain an Aeronautical Engine Laboratory (AEL) sample?
- A.
1 quart.
- B.
1 gallon.
- C.
300 milliliters.
- D.
600 milliliters.
Correct Answer
C. 300 milliliters.Explanation
To obtain an Aeronautical Engine Laboratory (AEL) sample, only 300 milliliters of fuel is passed through the test pad. This indicates that a small amount of fuel is sufficient for the purpose of obtaining the sample, suggesting that the AEL sample does not require a large volume of fuel for testing or analysis.Rate this question:
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- 43.
How much total petroleum ether must be used to properly clean glass bottles before collecting samples for a fiber test?
- A.
50 milliliters.
- B.
100 milliliters.
- C.
150 milliliters.
- D.
200 milliliters.
Correct Answer
B. 100 milliliters.Explanation
The correct answer is 100 milliliters. This amount of petroleum ether is necessary to properly clean the glass bottles before collecting samples for a fiber test. Using this specific quantity ensures that the bottles are adequately cleaned and any contaminants or residues are effectively removed, guaranteeing accurate and reliable test results.Rate this question:
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- 44.
How often are the printed standards for the Aeronautical Engine Laboratory (AEL) test replaced?
- A.
Semiannually.
- B.
Weekly.
- C.
Daily.
- D.
Annually.
Correct Answer
D. Annually.Explanation
The printed standards for the Aeronautical Engine Laboratory (AEL) test are replaced annually. This means that the standards used for the test are updated and renewed every year.Rate this question:
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- 45.
How often must electrical continuity tests be performed on all filtration equipment?
- A.
Daily.
- B.
Weekly.
- C.
Monthly.
- D.
Semiannually.
Correct Answer
C. Monthly.Explanation
Electrical continuity tests must be performed on all filtration equipment on a monthly basis. This ensures that the electrical connections are intact and functioning properly. Regular testing helps to identify any potential issues or faults in the equipment's electrical system, allowing for timely repairs or maintenance. Monthly testing strikes a balance between frequent enough to catch problems early and not too frequent to cause unnecessary disruptions to the filtration process.Rate this question:
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- 46.
How often should a filter separator vessel be cleaned?
- A.
Every year, or when high concentrations of water detected.
- B.
Every two years, or when sediment levels exceed tolerances.
- C.
Every three years, or when coalescer elements are changed.
- D.
Every five years, or when fiber sample fails.
Correct Answer
C. Every three years, or when coalescer elements are changed.Explanation
A filter separator vessel should be cleaned every three years or when the coalescer elements are changed. This is because over time, the coalescer elements can become clogged with contaminants and lose their effectiveness in separating liquids from gases. Regular cleaning or replacement of these elements ensures that the vessel continues to function properly and maintain efficient separation of fluids.Rate this question:
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- 47.
How often should a liquid oxygen (LOX) generating plant be tested for odor and purity if a LOX production run will exceed 24 hours?
- A.
Every 3 hours.
- B.
Every 6 hours.
- C.
Every 12 hours.
- D.
Every 24 hours.
Correct Answer
D. Every 24 hours.Explanation
A liquid oxygen (LOX) generating plant should be tested for odor and purity every 24 hours if a production run exceeds 24 hours. This ensures that the LOX being produced is of the desired quality and does not contain any impurities or odors that may affect its usability or safety. Regular testing is necessary to maintain the integrity and reliability of the LOX production process.Rate this question:
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- 48.
How often should a water slug valve test be performed on the Fuel Filter Unit (FFU)–15E?
- A.
Daily
- B.
Weekly
- C.
Monthly
- D.
Quarterly
Correct Answer
C. MonthlyExplanation
The water slug valve test on the Fuel Filter Unit (FFU) should be performed monthly. This test is necessary to ensure the proper functioning of the FFU and to prevent any potential issues caused by water accumulation. Performing the test on a monthly basis allows for regular monitoring and maintenance of the FFU, ensuring its optimal performance and longevity.Rate this question:
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- 49.
How often should all fuels personnel complete task qualification training?
- A.
Every 6 months
- B.
Every 12 months
- C.
Every 18 months
- D.
Every 24 months
Correct Answer
B. Every 12 monthsExplanation
All fuels personnel should complete task qualification training every 12 months. This ensures that they stay updated with the latest industry standards, regulations, and best practices. By completing training on a yearly basis, personnel can refresh their knowledge and skills, ensuring they are competent and capable of performing their tasks safely and efficiently. Regular training also helps to identify any gaps in knowledge or areas that may need improvement, allowing for continuous professional development within the fuels industry.Rate this question:
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- 50.
How often should correlation samples be submitted to the area laboratory to check the accuracy of tests performed at base level?
- A.
Every 30 days.
- B.
Every 45 days.
- C.
Every 60 days.
- D.
Every 90 days.
Correct Answer
D. Every 90 days.Explanation
Correlation samples should be submitted to the area laboratory every 90 days to check the accuracy of tests performed at the base level. This frequency allows for regular monitoring and ensures that any discrepancies or inaccuracies in the tests can be identified and addressed in a timely manner. It strikes a balance between frequent monitoring and the practicality of submitting samples.Rate this question:
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Mar 20, 2023Quiz Edited by
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