2F071 CDC All Ure's Review Exam Style

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According to the electron theory, atoms are composed of
- Protons, neutrons, and electrons.
- Neutrons, elements, and protons.
- Electrons, molecules, and elements.
- Electrons, neutrons, and matter.

About This Quiz

This 2F071 CDC All URE's review exam style quiz assesses key technical skills relevant to Air Force operations. It covers topics from electrical fundamentals to military logistics, emphasizing the practical application of theoretical knowledge in military contexts.

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2.

All of the following conditions require replacement of filter elements on the R–19 filter separator unit except
- A reading of 16 pounds per square inch, differential (psid) on the differential pressure (DP) gauge
- A reading of 22 psid on the DP gauge
- Elements that have been in use for 36 months
- Filter separator vessel performance is questionable
Correct Answer

A. A reading of 16 pounds per square inch, differential (psid) on the differential pressure (DP) gauge

Explanation

The correct answer is a reading of 16 pounds per square inch, differential (psid) on the differential pressure (DP) gauge. This is because a reading of 16 psid on the DP gauge is within the acceptable range and does not indicate a need for filter element replacement. The other conditions mentioned, such as a reading of 22 psid on the DP gauge, elements that have been in use for 36 months, and questionable filter separator vessel performance, all indicate a need for replacement of filter elements.

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3.

At no time will money that is collected for cash sales of aviation products be safeguarded by
- FSC personnel.
- Shift supervisors.
- Off-duty personnel.
- Operations expeditors.
Correct Answer

A. Off-duty personnel.

Explanation

Off-duty personnel are not responsible for safeguarding the money collected for cash sales of aviation products. This duty falls on FSC personnel, shift supervisors, and operations expeditors who are actively working and responsible for the financial transactions. Off-duty personnel are not involved in the day-to-day operations and therefore do not have the responsibility to safeguard the collected money.

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4.

Fuels personnel identify the tank vent valve by using a locally manufactured
- Bronze disc
- Adhesive label
- Wooden placard
- Round aluminum disc
Correct Answer

A. Round aluminum disc

Explanation

The fuels personnel identify the tank vent valve by using a round aluminum disc. This disc is most likely used as a label or marker to indicate the location of the tank vent valve. The round shape and aluminum material make it durable and easy to spot. It is also likely that the round aluminum disc is a standard and commonly used marker in the industry, making it easily recognizable by the personnel.

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5.

Hearing protection is required within how many feet of an R–14 operation?
- 10 ft
- 20 ft
- 50 ft
- 100 ft
Correct Answer

A. 50 ft

Explanation

Hearing protection is required within 50 feet of an R-14 operation. This suggests that the noise level generated by an R-14 operation is significant enough to potentially cause damage to hearing within a 50-foot radius. To ensure the safety of individuals in the vicinity, it is necessary to wear hearing protection in this range.

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6.

How do the charges of protons and electrons differ?
- Protons have positive charges, and electrons have neutral charges.
- Protons have neutral charges, and electrons have positive charges.
- Protons have negative charges, and electrons have positive charges.
- Protons have positive charges, and electrons have negative charges.
Correct Answer

A. Protons have positive charges, and electrons have negative charges.

Explanation

Protons and electrons have opposite charges. Protons have a positive charge, while electrons have a negative charge. This is a fundamental concept in atomic structure and is important in understanding the behavior of atoms and the interactions between particles.

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7.

How long should the fuel and water mixture in the separatory funnel be shaken when performing a fuel system icing inhibitor (FSII) test?
- Until you get a good separation.
- 1 minute.
- 3 minute.
- 5 minute.
Correct Answer

A. 5 minute.

Explanation

The fuel and water mixture in the separatory funnel should be shaken for 5 minutes when performing a fuel system icing inhibitor (FSII) test. This duration ensures that the mixture is thoroughly mixed and any potential separation is achieved. Shaking for a longer period may not yield any significant improvement in separation, while shaking for a shorter duration may result in incomplete mixing and inaccurate test results.

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8.

How often should cryotainers be sampled for purity, odor and minor constituents?
- Every 30 days.
- Every 60 days.
- Every 90 days.
- Every 120 days.
Correct Answer

A. Every 90 days.

Explanation

Cryotainers should be sampled for purity, odor, and minor constituents every 90 days. This frequency allows for regular monitoring of the cryotainer's contents to ensure that they meet the required standards. Sampling at this interval strikes a balance between frequent enough to catch any potential issues and infrequent enough to avoid unnecessary sampling. It also allows for timely detection of any changes in purity, odor, or minor constituents that may affect the cryotainer's performance or safety.

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9.

How often should hot refueling personnel undergo certification for hot refueling operations?
- Monthly.
- Quarterly.
- Semiannually.
- Annually.
Correct Answer

A. Annually.

Explanation

Hot refueling personnel should undergo certification for hot refueling operations on an annual basis. This ensures that they are up to date with the latest safety protocols and procedures involved in hot refueling. Regular certification helps maintain the highest level of safety standards and ensures that the personnel are competent and knowledgeable in performing their duties.

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10.

On the type III hydrant system, where is the ball float assembly for the high-level shutoff valve located on an aboveground operating storage tank?
- On the top of the tank in the float well.
- On the top of the tank in the gauging well.
- On the interior of the tank at the required shut-off height.
- On the exterior of the tank at the required shut-off height.
Correct Answer

A. On the exterior of the tank at the required shut-off height.

Explanation

The ball float assembly for the high-level shutoff valve in a type III hydrant system is located on the exterior of the tank at the required shut-off height. This means that the assembly is positioned outside of the tank, at the specific height where the shut-off valve needs to be activated. This arrangement allows for easy access and maintenance of the assembly without the need to enter the tank.

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11.

On the type IV hydrant system, how is fuel prevented from spilling onto the hot pad if a hose separates from the nozzle during a hot refueling operation?
- A dry break coupler inside the hose closes automatically.
- The flow switch senses a sudden surge in fuel flow, and shuts down the pumps.
- The pressure switch senses a sudden drop in pressure, and shuts down the pumps.
- The fusible link melts and falls out, causing the spring-loaded butterfly part of the valve to close.
Correct Answer

A. A dry break coupler inside the hose closes automatically.

Explanation

During a hot refueling operation, if a hose separates from the nozzle on a type IV hydrant system, the fuel is prevented from spilling onto the hot pad by a dry break coupler inside the hose. This coupler automatically closes, ensuring that the fuel flow is stopped and preventing any spillage.

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12.

On what grades of fuel can the R–22 be designed to operate? a. . b. . c. . d. .
- MOGAS
- MOGAS and jet fuel
- Diesel fuel
- Diesel fuel and jet fuel
Correct Answer

A. Diesel fuel and jet fuel

Explanation

The R-22 can be designed to operate on both diesel fuel and jet fuel.

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13.

Since manning is not required for the type V hydrant system, how often must inspections be performed when it is operating?
- Every hour.
- Every 2 hours.
- Every 3 hours.
- Every 4 hours.
Correct Answer

A. Every 3 hours.

Explanation

The correct answer is Every 3 hours. This is because the type V hydrant system does not require manning, meaning there is no need for constant monitoring or supervision. However, regular inspections are still necessary to ensure the system is functioning properly and to identify any potential issues or malfunctions. Performing inspections every 3 hours strikes a balance between frequent checks and allowing enough time for any potential problems to arise.

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14.

What is the lifting force of a liquid called?
- Laminar.
- Interface.
- Buoyance.
- Dynamic pressure.
Correct Answer

A. Buoyance.

Explanation

Buoyancy is the correct answer because it refers to the lifting force experienced by an object submerged in a fluid, such as a liquid. This force is exerted in the opposite direction to the force of gravity and is dependent on the density of the fluid and the volume of the object. Buoyancy is what allows objects to float in liquids and is a fundamental principle in fluid mechanics.

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15.

What pressure should the surge suppressor gauge on the R–20 multi-aircraft servicing unit indicate when the fueling system is not operating?
- 45 pounds per square inch (psi)
- 75 psi
- 90 psi
- 150 psi
Correct Answer

A. 90 psi

Explanation

The surge suppressor gauge on the R-20 multi-aircraft servicing unit should indicate a pressure of 90 psi when the fueling system is not operating. This pressure is likely necessary to maintain the stability and safety of the system in the absence of fuel flow.

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16.

When configuring the automated data collection (ADC) system, what maximum number of dial retries can you configure the user interface terminal’s (UIT) to attempt?
- 30.
- 49.
- 60.
- 99.
Correct Answer

A. 99.

Explanation

The correct answer is 99 because the question asks for the maximum number of dial retries that can be configured for the user interface terminal (UIT) in the automated data collection (ADC) system. Out of the given options, 99 is the highest number, indicating that the UIT can attempt a maximum of 99 dial retries.

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17.

When determining authorizations for cash sales, you know that cash sales are only authorized when
- Products are not normally stocked.
- Military exchange facilities are available at the installation.
- Adequate commercial facilities are available within reasonable distance.
- Sales support by equipment and/or personnel do not interfere with military operations.
Correct Answer

A. Sales support by equipment and/or personnel do not interfere with military operations.

Explanation

Cash sales are only authorized when sales support by equipment and/or personnel do not interfere with military operations. This means that if the equipment or personnel needed for the sales would disrupt or hinder military operations in any way, cash sales would not be authorized. This ensures that the military's primary operations and functions are not compromised or affected by the sales activities.

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18.

When documenting a cryogenic product issue to a liquid oxygen (LOX) cart on the Air Force Technical Order (AFTO) Form 134, what information should be entered block 4?
- The date the cart was filled.
- The quantity issued to the cart.
- The tank number of the issuing cryotainer.
- The initials of the individual that filled the cart.
Correct Answer

A. The initials of the individual that filled the cart.

Explanation

In block 4 of the AFTO Form 134, the information that should be entered is the initials of the individual that filled the cart. This is important for accountability and traceability purposes, as it allows for the identification of the person responsible for filling the cart. It helps in tracking any issues or discrepancies related to the cryogenic product and ensures that proper documentation is maintained.

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19.

When making a cash sale, what others forms of currency besides United States currency are acceptable for cash sale payments?
- None.
- All forms of European currency.
- Any form of international currency.
- All forms of North American currency.
Correct Answer

A. None.

Explanation

The correct answer is "None" because the question is asking about the acceptable forms of currency for cash sale payments, and it states that besides United States currency, no other forms of currency are acceptable.

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20.

When posting changes to publications, when, if ever, are “List of Effective Pages” checks mandatory?
- Never.
- As directed by MAJCOM.
- At the discretion of the TO manager.
- When changes and revisions are posted to paper TOs are posted.
Correct Answer

A. When changes and revisions are posted to paper TOs are posted.
21.

When preparing to issue liquid nitrogen (LIN), what action, if any, should you take if a receiving tank’s Air Force Technical Order (AFTO) Forms 244/245 lists an open Red X condition?
- No action is required.
- Do not fill the receiving tank.
- Inform the FMT and await further instructions.
- Notify the FSC and request line expediter assistance.
Correct Answer

A. Do not fill the receiving tank.

Explanation

If the receiving tank's AFTO Forms 244/245 lists an open Red X condition, it means that there is a critical issue or malfunction with the tank. In this case, it is necessary to not fill the receiving tank to avoid any potential risks or further damage. The open Red X condition indicates that the tank is not in a suitable condition to receive liquid nitrogen, and therefore, it is important to follow the appropriate protocol and refrain from filling the tank.

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22.

When you are performing fuels controller duties, how often should you reconcile with the Fuels Enterprise Server (FES) and clear rejects?
- Daily.
- Weekly.
- Monthly.
- Quarterly.
Correct Answer

A. Daily.

Explanation

When performing fuels controller duties, it is important to reconcile with the Fuels Enterprise Server (FES) and clear rejects on a daily basis. This is necessary to ensure accurate and up-to-date information regarding fuel transactions and to address any errors or issues promptly. Regular reconciliation helps maintain the integrity of the fuel management system and ensures efficient operations.

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23.

Where is the correct place to take the reading for the American Petroleum Institute (API) gravity test?
- Horizontal plane surface of the liquid.
- Bottom of the hydrometer.
- Top of the hydrometer.
- Top of the cylinder.
Correct Answer

A. Horizontal plane surface of the liquid.

Explanation

The correct place to take the reading for the American Petroleum Institute (API) gravity test is the horizontal plane surface of the liquid. This is because the API gravity test measures the density or specific gravity of petroleum liquids, and the most accurate reading can be obtained by measuring at the horizontal plane surface of the liquid. This ensures that any variations in density due to settling or stratification are accounted for, providing a more reliable measurement of the API gravity.

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24.

Which is not a type of positive displacement pump?
- Gear.
- Piston.
- Rotary.
- Centrifugal.
Correct Answer

A. Centrifugal.

Explanation

Centrifugal pumps are not a type of positive displacement pump. Unlike positive displacement pumps, which use mechanical means to displace a fixed amount of fluid, centrifugal pumps use centrifugal force to increase the fluid's velocity and transfer it to the outlet. This makes them more suitable for applications that require high flow rates and low pressure, compared to positive displacement pumps that are better suited for high-pressure applications.

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25.

Which shell of the valence electrons determines whether a material is a good or a poor conductor of electricity?
- The outermost shell.
- The middle shell.
- The second shell.
- The first shell.
Correct Answer

A. The outermost shell.

Explanation

The outermost shell of an atom is known as the valence shell, and it is responsible for determining the electrical conductivity of a material. This is because the valence electrons, which are located in the outermost shell, are involved in the formation of chemical bonds and the movement of electrons. Materials with a filled valence shell or a nearly filled valence shell tend to be poor conductors of electricity, while materials with an incomplete valence shell tend to be good conductors. Therefore, the outermost shell of the valence electrons determines whether a material is a good or a poor conductor of electricity.

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26.

Which temperature scale is commonly used for scientific measurements?
- Kelvin scale.
- Rankine scale.
- Réaumur scale.
- Fahrenheit scale.
Correct Answer

A. Kelvin scale.

Explanation

The Kelvin scale is commonly used for scientific measurements because it is an absolute temperature scale that starts at absolute zero, which is the lowest possible temperature. This makes it ideal for scientific calculations and experiments where precise measurements and comparisons are necessary. Unlike other temperature scales, such as Fahrenheit or Celsius, the Kelvin scale does not have negative values, making it easier to work with in scientific applications.

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27.

Which type of measurement may be used to express pressure?
- Kilograms.
- Pounds.
- Tons.
- Pounds per square inch.
Correct Answer

A. Pounds per square inch.

Explanation

Pressure is a measure of force exerted over an area, and it is commonly expressed in pounds per square inch (psi). Kilograms, pounds, and tons are units of mass or weight, not pressure. However, pounds per square inch is a specific unit that represents the amount of force applied to a certain area, making it the appropriate measurement for expressing pressure.

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28.

Who is responsible for administering the Caution Tag program?
- Environmental coordinator.
- NCOIC Fuels Laboratory.
- NCOIC Compliance.
- FSC personnel.
Correct Answer

A. NCOIC Fuels Laboratory.

Explanation

The NCOIC Fuels Laboratory is responsible for administering the Caution Tag program. This implies that they are in charge of overseeing and managing the implementation and enforcement of the program. As the NCOIC (Non-Commissioned Officer in Charge) of the Fuels Laboratory, their role likely involves ensuring compliance with safety regulations, conducting inspections, and issuing caution tags when necessary. The other options, such as the Environmental coordinator, NCOIC Compliance, and FSC personnel, may have different responsibilities related to environmental matters or compliance, but they are not specifically mentioned as being responsible for the Caution Tag program.

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29.

A temporary movement of a MRSP kit from home station to another location for a period of less than 30 days is referred to as a
- Transfer
- Relocation
- Deployment
- Reassignment
Correct Answer

A. Deployment

Explanation

A temporary movement of a MRSP kit from home station to another location for a period of less than 30 days is referred to as a deployment. This suggests that the MRSP kit is being temporarily relocated to another location for a specific purpose or mission, but it is not a permanent reassignment or relocation. The term "deployment" is commonly used in military contexts to describe the temporary movement of personnel or equipment to a different location for a specific mission or operation.

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30.

All of the following conditions would prevent a remote terminal workstation (RTW) from receiving data except
- The remote terminal unit being turned off.
- An inoperative remote terminal unit modem .
- The remote terminal workstation being turned on.
- An inoperative remote terminal workstation modem.
Correct Answer

A. The remote terminal workstation being turned on.

Explanation

The remote terminal workstation being turned on would not prevent it from receiving data. In fact, it is necessary for the workstation to be turned on in order to receive data. The other conditions mentioned, such as the remote terminal unit being turned off or having an inoperative modem, would prevent the RTW from receiving data.

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31.

During bottom loading operations, what occurs when the signal to the bottom loading optic probe is lost?
- The bottom loading valve modulates to prevent deadheading.
- The electronic control module cuts power to the fillstand pump.
- The bottom loading valve cuts power to the electronic control module.
- The electronic control module cuts power to the bottom loading electric air solenoid.
Correct Answer

A. The electronic control module cuts power to the bottom loading electric air solenoid.

Explanation

When the signal to the bottom loading optic probe is lost, the electronic control module cuts power to the bottom loading electric air solenoid. This means that the solenoid, which controls the flow of air to the bottom loading valve, will no longer receive power and will be deactivated. This is likely done as a safety measure to prevent any potential issues or accidents that could occur if the bottom loading valve remains open without proper control.

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32.

During multiple source refueling, what action, if any, should be taken if backflow is detected?
- No action is required.
- Increase engine RPMs.
- Decrease the engine RPMs.
- Stop the operation immediately.
Correct Answer

A. Stop the operation immediately.

Explanation

If backflow is detected during multiple source refueling, it is necessary to stop the operation immediately. Backflow can occur when fuel is flowing in the wrong direction, which can be a safety hazard. Stopping the operation will help prevent any further backflow and potential damage or accidents.

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33.

Each R–20 multi-aircraft servicing platform is equipped with how many feet of communication wire?
- 1,000 feet
- 1,500 feet
- 3,000 feet
- 4,500 feet
Correct Answer

A. 1,500 feet

Explanation

Each R-20 multi-aircraft servicing platform is equipped with 1,500 feet of communication wire.

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34.

How often are the printed standards for the Aeronautical Engine Laboratory (AEL) test replaced?
- Semiannually.
- Weekly.
- Daily.
- Annually.
Correct Answer

A. Annually.

Explanation

The printed standards for the Aeronautical Engine Laboratory (AEL) test are replaced annually. This means that the standards used for the test are updated and renewed every year.

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35.

If your base has experienced cold weather problems or anticipates cold weather problems, you should perform a cloud point test on all DF–2 that is received during
- January through April.
- October through December.
- October through March.
- November through January.
Correct Answer

A. October through March.

Explanation

The correct answer is "October through March." This is because the question states that if the base has experienced or anticipates cold weather problems, a cloud point test should be performed on all DF-2 fuel received during this time period. The cloud point test is used to determine the lowest temperature at which a fuel will flow, and it is particularly important during colder months when fuel may have a higher risk of gelling or becoming solid. Therefore, performing the test from October through March ensures that any potential cold weather problems can be identified and addressed.

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36.

On the type V hydrant system, what size are the stainless steel pantographs that are installed inside the hardened shelters?
- 3 inches.
- 6 inches.
- 9 inches.
- 12 inches.
Correct Answer

A. 3 inches.

Explanation

The stainless steel pantographs that are installed inside the hardened shelters on the type V hydrant system are 3 inches in size.

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37.

On which grades of fuel can the engine on the R–14 ATHRS operate?
- Jet fuel and gasoline
- Diesel fuel and jet fuel
- Diesel fuel and gasoline
- Diesel fuel, jet fuel, and gasoline
Correct Answer

A. Diesel fuel and jet fuel

Explanation

The engine on the R-14 ATHRS can operate on diesel fuel and jet fuel. This means that it is designed to run on both types of fuel, allowing for flexibility in its usage. Diesel fuel is commonly used in heavy-duty vehicles and equipment, while jet fuel is used in aircraft. By being able to run on both fuels, the engine can be utilized in various applications, making it versatile and adaptable.

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38.

Personnel attending Aerial Bulk Fuel Delivery System (ABFDS) or Forward Area Refueling Point (FARP) training must have a minimum of how many months retainability?
- 6.
- 12.
- 18.
- 24.
Correct Answer

A. 24.

Explanation

Personnel attending Aerial Bulk Fuel Delivery System (ABFDS) or Forward Area Refueling Point (FARP) training must have a minimum of 24 months retainability. This means that individuals undergoing this training must commit to remaining in their position or service for at least 24 months after completing the training. This requirement ensures that the personnel receive the necessary training and are able to apply their skills effectively for an extended period of time before potentially being reassigned or leaving the service.

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39.

The ABFDS can carry what maximum number of gals. per sortie?
- 3,000 gal
- 6,000 gal
- 9,000 gal
- 30,000 gal
Correct Answer

A. 30,000 gal

Explanation

The ABFDS (Airborne Bulk Fuel Delivery System) can carry a maximum of 30,000 gallons per sortie. This means that during one trip or mission, the ABFDS can transport up to 30,000 gallons of fuel.

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40.

The standard measure for atmospheric pressure is equal to how many pounds per square inch?
- 13.1 psi.
- 14.7 psi.
- 15.2 psi.
- 17.9 psi.
Correct Answer

A. 14.7 psi.

Explanation

The standard measure for atmospheric pressure is 14.7 psi. Atmospheric pressure refers to the force exerted by the weight of the air in the Earth's atmosphere. This pressure is commonly measured in pounds per square inch (psi). 14.7 psi is considered to be the average atmospheric pressure at sea level.

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41.

The uniform movement of electrons in a specific direction is called
- Electrical potential.
- Free electrons.
- Electric current.
- Ionization.
Correct Answer

A. Electric current.

Explanation

The correct answer is electric current. Electrical potential refers to the potential energy of an electric charge, while free electrons are electrons that are not bound to an atom. Ionization refers to the process of converting an atom or molecule into an ion. Electric current, on the other hand, refers to the flow of electric charge in a specific direction, typically through a conductor.

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42.

Two or more atoms combined is called a
- A compound.
- An element.
- A molecule.
- A mixture.
Correct Answer

A. A molecule.

Explanation

When two or more atoms join together, they form a molecule. A molecule is the smallest unit of a compound that retains the chemical properties of that compound. Compounds are made up of molecules, so the correct answer is a molecule. An element refers to a substance made up of only one type of atom, while a mixture is a combination of different substances that are not chemically bonded together.

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43.

What agency serves as the link between the Defense Energy Support Center (DESC) and its customers?
- BFMO.
- AFPET.
- HQ USAF.
- DESC regions.
Correct Answer

A. DESC regions.

Explanation

The Defense Energy Support Center (DESC) serves as the link between its customers and the agency that supports them. The DESC regions, therefore, act as the intermediary between DESC and its customers, ensuring efficient communication and coordination between the two parties. The other options, BFMO, AFPET, and HQ USAF, do not specifically serve as the link between DESC and its customers, making them incorrect answers.

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44.

What are the two positions of the throttle switch located on the R–18 pumping unit’s handheld remote?
- ON and OFF
- ON and IDLE
- OFF and RUN
- RUN and IDLE
Correct Answer

A. RUN and IDLE

Explanation

The correct answer is RUN and IDLE. The throttle switch on the R-18 pumping unit's handheld remote has two positions: RUN and IDLE. These positions allow the operator to control the speed and operation of the pumping unit.

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45.

What cleaning agent should be used to clean the probe on the conductivity meter?
- Isopropyl alcohol.
- Petroleum ether.
- Turbine fuel.
- Acetone.
Correct Answer

A. Isopropyl alcohol.

Explanation

Isopropyl alcohol is the recommended cleaning agent for cleaning the probe on a conductivity meter. This is because isopropyl alcohol is a commonly used solvent that effectively removes dirt, oils, and other contaminants from surfaces without leaving residue behind. It is also safe to use on electronic components and does not cause damage to the probe. Petroleum ether, turbine fuel, and acetone are not suitable cleaning agents for the probe on a conductivity meter as they may leave residue, damage the probe, or pose safety risks.

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46.

What determines the intensity of the excess pressure in a water-hammer wave?
- The size of the pipe.
- The specific gravity of the fuel.
- The change in gallons per minute.
- The amount of extinguished velocity.
Correct Answer

A. The amount of extinguished velocity.

Explanation

The intensity of the excess pressure in a water-hammer wave is determined by the amount of extinguished velocity. When there is a sudden change in the flow rate of water in a pipe, such as when a valve is closed rapidly, it creates a shock wave known as a water-hammer wave. This wave travels through the pipe and can cause a sudden increase in pressure. The intensity of this pressure increase is directly related to the amount of velocity that is extinguished when the flow rate changes. The greater the change in velocity, the higher the intensity of the excess pressure in the water-hammer wave.

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47.

What does a steady red light on the battery status LED of the R–20 multi-aircraft servicing platform indicate?
- Battery charging
- Battery charge low
- Battery disconnected
- Battery at middle capacity
Correct Answer

A. Battery disconnected

Explanation

A steady red light on the battery status LED of the R-20 multi-aircraft servicing platform indicates that the battery is disconnected. This means that there is no connection between the battery and the platform, which could be due to a loose connection or a faulty battery. The red light serves as a warning to indicate that the battery is not properly connected and needs to be fixed or replaced.

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48.

What environmental regulation establishes “cradle to grave” control of hazardous substances?
- 40 Code of Federal Regulations (CFR) 280.
- Technical Order (TO) 42B–1–23.
- Department of Defense (DOD) Directive 4140.25M.
- Resource Conservation and Recovery Act (RCRA).
Correct Answer

A. Resource Conservation and Recovery Act (RCRA).

Explanation

The correct answer is the Resource Conservation and Recovery Act (RCRA). This environmental regulation establishes "cradle to grave" control of hazardous substances, meaning it regulates the entire lifecycle of these substances from their creation to their disposal. The RCRA sets standards for the management and disposal of hazardous waste, and it also promotes the conservation of resources and the reduction of waste generation. It is a comprehensive framework that ensures the safe handling and disposal of hazardous substances to protect human health and the environment.

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49.

What form is used to annotate fuel bladder inspections?
- AF Form 1807
- AFTO Form 39
- AFTO Form 95
- A locally developed form
Correct Answer

A. A locally developed form

Explanation

The correct answer is a locally developed form. This means that there is no specific standardized form used to annotate fuel bladder inspections. Instead, each organization or facility may have their own form that they have developed internally to document and track these inspections. This allows for flexibility and customization based on the specific needs and requirements of the organization.

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2F071 CDC All Ure's Review Exam Style

According to the electron theory, atoms are composed of

Quiz Preview

All of the following conditions require replacement of filter elements on the R–19 filter separator unit except

At no time will money that is collected for cash sales of aviation products be safeguarded by

Fuels personnel identify the tank vent valve by using a locally manufactured

Hearing protection is required within how many feet of an R–14 operation?

How do the charges of protons and electrons differ?

How long should the fuel and water mixture in the separatory funnel be shaken when performing a fuel system icing inhibitor (FSII) test?

How often should cryotainers be sampled for purity, odor and minor constituents?

How often should hot refueling personnel undergo certification for hot refueling operations?

On the type III hydrant system, where is the ball float assembly for the high-level shutoff valve located on an aboveground operating storage tank?

On the type IV hydrant system, how is fuel prevented from spilling onto the hot pad if a hose separates from the nozzle during a hot refueling operation?

On what grades of fuel can the R–22 be designed to operate? a. . b. . c. . d. .

Since manning is not required for the type V hydrant system, how often must inspections be performed when it is operating?

What is the lifting force of a liquid called?

What pressure should the surge suppressor gauge on the R–20 multi-aircraft servicing unit indicate when the fueling system is not operating?

When configuring the automated data collection (ADC) system, what maximum number of dial retries can you configure the user interface terminal’s (UIT) to attempt?

When determining authorizations for cash sales, you know that cash sales are only authorized when

When documenting a cryogenic product issue to a liquid oxygen (LOX) cart on the Air Force Technical Order (AFTO) Form 134, what information should be entered block 4?

When making a cash sale, what others forms of currency besides United States currency are acceptable for cash sale payments?

When posting changes to publications, when, if ever, are “List of Effective Pages” checks mandatory?

When preparing to issue liquid nitrogen (LIN), what action, if any, should you take if a receiving tank’s Air Force Technical Order (AFTO) Forms 244/245 lists an open Red X condition?

When you are performing fuels controller duties, how often should you reconcile with the Fuels Enterprise Server (FES) and clear rejects?

Where is the correct place to take the reading for the American Petroleum Institute (API) gravity test?

Which is not a type of positive displacement pump?

Which shell of the valence electrons determines whether a material is a good or a poor conductor of electricity?

Which temperature scale is commonly used for scientific measurements?

Which type of measurement may be used to express pressure?

Who is responsible for administering the Caution Tag program?

A temporary movement of a MRSP kit from home station to another location for a period of less than 30 days is referred to as a

All of the following conditions would prevent a remote terminal workstation (RTW) from receiving data except

During bottom loading operations, what occurs when the signal to the bottom loading optic probe is lost?

During multiple source refueling, what action, if any, should be taken if backflow is detected?

Each R–20 multi-aircraft servicing platform is equipped with how many feet of communication wire?

How often are the printed standards for the Aeronautical Engine Laboratory (AEL) test replaced?

If your base has experienced cold weather problems or anticipates cold weather problems, you should perform a cloud point test on all DF–2 that is received during

On the type V hydrant system, what size are the stainless steel pantographs that are installed inside the hardened shelters?

On which grades of fuel can the engine on the R–14 ATHRS operate?

Personnel attending Aerial Bulk Fuel Delivery System (ABFDS) or Forward Area Refueling Point (FARP) training must have a minimum of how many months retainability?

The ABFDS can carry what maximum number of gals. per sortie?

The standard measure for atmospheric pressure is equal to how many pounds per square inch?

The uniform movement of electrons in a specific direction is called

Two or more atoms combined is called a

What agency serves as the link between the Defense Energy Support Center (DESC) and its customers?

What are the two positions of the throttle switch located on the R–18 pumping unit’s handheld remote?

What cleaning agent should be used to clean the probe on the conductivity meter?

What determines the intensity of the excess pressure in a water-hammer wave?

What does a steady red light on the battery status LED of the R–20 multi-aircraft servicing platform indicate?

What environmental regulation establishes “cradle to grave” control of hazardous substances?

What form is used to annotate fuel bladder inspections?