Neuro Cortex,Meninges,Ventricles MCQ's

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  • 1/25 Questions

    Which of the following statements are correct about neurons whose cell bodies are located in dorsal root ganglia?

    • They are cranial nerve cells
    • They are multipolar neurons
    • They have both peripheral and central nervous system components
    • They are pseudo-unipolar neurons
    • They are derived from the neural tube
    • More than one above
    • None of the above
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Neuro Cortex,Meninges,Ventricles MCQ
About This Quiz

The Cerebral Cortex is made up of tightly packed neurons and is the wrinkly, outermost layer that surrounds the brain and is divided into lobes. The meninges of the brain and spinal cord are continuous, being linked through the magnum foramen. Test your understanding by taking this neuro cortex, meninges, ventricles MCQ's.

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  • 2. 

    A pregnant mother has a routine ultrasound to determine the sex of her baby. The doctor informs her that the baby is anencephalic. Which of the following statements are most characteristic of anencephaly?

    • Results from failure of caudal neural tube closure

    • Can often be treated successfully with surgery

    • Associated with no change in alpha-fetoprotein

    • Newborns with this condition may still display reflex activity

    • Results from neural tube closure deficits in the second trimester

    Correct Answer
    A. Newborns with this condition may still display reflex activity
    Explanation
    Anencephaly is a neural tube defect that occurs when the cranial end of the neural tube fails to close during embryonic development. This results in the absence of a major portion of the brain, skull, and scalp. Despite the severe malformation, newborns with anencephaly may still display reflex activity because the brainstem, which controls basic reflexes, may still be partially intact. However, anencephaly is a fatal condition, and there is no cure or successful treatment with surgery. Additionally, anencephaly is associated with an increase in alpha-fetoprotein levels in the amniotic fluid and maternal blood.

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  • 3. 

    A 52-year old female suddenly complained of experiencing her worst headache. She subsequently collapsed and was carried to the ER. A lumbar puncture was performed which suggested subarachnoid hemorrhage. Which of the following is most likely to be seen?

    • Decreased protein, decreased glucose and tumor cells

    • Decreased protein, decreased glucose and red blood cells

    • Increased protein, decreased glucose and white blood cells

    • Increased protein, normal glucose and red blood cells

    • Increased protein, increased glucose and white blood cells

    Correct Answer
    A. Increased protein, normal glucose and red blood cells
    Explanation
    In a subarachnoid hemorrhage, there is bleeding into the subarachnoid space, which is the area between the arachnoid membrane and the pia mater surrounding the brain. This bleeding can be caused by the rupture of an aneurysm or a head injury. The presence of red blood cells in the cerebrospinal fluid obtained through lumbar puncture indicates bleeding in the subarachnoid space. Increased protein levels may be seen due to the breakdown of red blood cells. Normal glucose levels suggest that there is no disturbance in glucose metabolism. Therefore, the most likely findings in a lumbar puncture of a patient with subarachnoid hemorrhage are increased protein, normal glucose, and red blood cells.

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  • 4. 

    A 3-month old child was treated for an ear infection, however her mother has noted that the child is irritable and prefers dim light. She brings her back to the hospital where she was admitted following physical examination. A lumbar puncture is done which revealed increased proteins, decreased glucose levels, increased WBCs with increased polymorphs. Based on the findings in this patient, she most likely has

    • Viral meningitis

    • Bacterial meningitis

    • Subarachnoid hemorrhage

    • Intracerebral hemorrhage

    • No infection

    Correct Answer
    A. Bacterial meningitis
    Explanation
    Based on the symptoms and test results described, the child most likely has bacterial meningitis. The increased proteins, decreased glucose levels, increased WBCs with increased polymorphs in the lumbar puncture indicate an inflammatory response in the cerebrospinal fluid. Bacterial meningitis is a serious infection of the meninges, the protective membranes surrounding the brain and spinal cord, and it can cause symptoms such as irritability and sensitivity to light. Prompt medical attention and treatment with antibiotics are crucial in cases of bacterial meningitis to prevent complications and potential life-threatening outcomes.

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  • 5. 

    During examination at clinic, it was noted that the size of an infant's head was larger than normal expected for her age. Radiological examination indicated that there is obstruction of the medial foramen draining the fourth ventricle. What is the name of this foramen?

    • Cerebral aqueduct

    • Interventricular foramen

    • Foramen of Megendie

    • Foramen of Monro

    • Foramen of Luschka

    Correct Answer
    A. Foramen of Megendie
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Foramen of Megendie. The question describes a situation where an infant's head size is larger than normal for her age, and radiological examination indicates obstruction of the medial foramen draining the fourth ventricle. The Foramen of Megendie, also known as the Median Aperture, is one of the three openings in the fourth ventricle that allows cerebrospinal fluid to flow out of the ventricles and into the subarachnoid space. Obstruction of this foramen can lead to the accumulation of cerebrospinal fluid in the ventricles, causing hydrocephalus and an enlarged head size.

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  • 6. 

    If the Foramen of Megendie is obstructed, which of the following would occur?

    • Non-communicating hydrocephalus

    • Communicating hydrocephalus

    • Subdural hematoma

    • Epidural hematoma

    • Subarachnoid hemorrhage

    Correct Answer
    A. Non-communicating hydrocephalus
    Explanation
    If the Foramen of Megendie is obstructed, it would lead to non-communicating hydrocephalus. The Foramen of Megendie is a small opening in the brain that allows cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) to flow from the ventricles into the subarachnoid space. When it is obstructed, CSF cannot flow properly, causing a buildup of fluid within the ventricles. This leads to increased pressure on the brain, resulting in hydrocephalus. In non-communicating hydrocephalus, the obstruction occurs within the ventricular system, preventing CSF from flowing between the ventricles and the subarachnoid space.

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  • 7. 

    A 75-year old man develops a tumor in his cerebral aqueduct, leading to a non- communicating hydrocephalus. Which finding below is most likely in this man?

    • A shift of the cranial contents in a superior and lateral direction

    • The development of an unusually large head circumference

    • An enlargement of the subarachnoid space

    • The development of an unusually small head circumference

    • A shift of the cranial contents in an inferior and medial direction

    Correct Answer
    A. A shift of the cranial contents in an inferior and medial direction
    Explanation
    A tumor in the cerebral aqueduct can block the flow of cerebrospinal fluid (CSF), leading to a non-communicating hydrocephalus. In this condition, the CSF accumulates in the ventricles of the brain, causing an increase in intracranial pressure. The increased pressure can cause a shift of the cranial contents in an inferior and medial direction, as the pressure pushes the brain downwards and towards the midline. This is the most likely finding in this man with a tumor in his cerebral aqueduct.

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  • 8. 

    Cerebrospinal fluid is returned directly to the venous system by means of the:

    • Cerebral veins

    • Choroid plexus

    • Cerebral aqueduct

    • Arachnoid villi

    • Apertures in the third ventricle

    Correct Answer
    A. Arachnoid villi
    Explanation
    Arachnoid villi are small, finger-like projections of the arachnoid mater (one of the layers of the meninges) into the dural sinuses. They act as one-way valves, allowing cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) to be absorbed from the subarachnoid space and returned back into the venous system. This process helps maintain the balance of CSF production and absorption, preventing an accumulation of fluid in the brain. Therefore, arachnoid villi are responsible for directly returning CSF to the venous system.

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  • 9. 

    A 42-year old woman is suffering from chronic headaches. A CT reveals a tumor in her 4"-' ventricle and enlargement of all ventricles. Under normal conditions which of the following is characteristic of CSF flow?

    • The CSF flows from the 4ch ventricle to the cistern magna via the median aperture

    • The CSF flows from the lateral ventricles to the 3rd ventricle via the cerebral aqueduct.

    • The CSF flows from the 3rd to 4th ventricle via the foramen of Monroe

    • The CSF flows from the lateral ventricles to the 4th via the foramen of Luschka

    • The CSF flows from the ducal sinuses to the subarachnoid space via the arachnoid

    Correct Answer
    A. The CSF flows from the 4ch ventricle to the cistern magna via the median aperture
    Explanation
    The CSF (cerebrospinal fluid) flows from the 4th ventricle to the cistern magna via the median aperture. This is the correct answer because the question mentions that there is a tumor in the 4th ventricle, which could potentially obstruct the flow of CSF. The enlargement of all ventricles also suggests a problem with CSF circulation. The other options mentioned in the question are incorrect as they do not describe the normal flow of CSF in relation to the 4th ventricle.

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  • 10. 

    A 25-year old woman suffers head injuries from an automobile accident. Her MRI reveals an epidural hematoma. Between which two structures has blood accumulated?

    • Between the arachnoid and the pia mater.

    • Between the dura and the pia mater.

    • Between the dura and the arachnoid layer.

    • Between the pia and sub arachnoid layer.

    • Between the skull and the dura.

    Correct Answer
    A. Between the skull and the dura.
    Explanation
    An epidural hematoma is a collection of blood that forms between the skull and the dura mater, which is the tough outermost layer of the meninges. In this case, the head injury has caused bleeding between these two structures. The arachnoid and pia mater are inner layers of the meninges and are not involved in the accumulation of blood in an epidural hematoma.

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  • 11. 

    A 2-year old child presents with hydrocephalus due to a tumor in her fourth ventricle. Under normal conditions the CSF flows from the 4th ventricle to the cistern magna via which foramen?

    • The left foramen of Luschka

    • The foramen of Megendie

    • The right foramen of Luschka

    • The foramen of Monroe

    • The left Interventricular foramen

    Correct Answer
    A. The foramen of Megendie
    Explanation
    The foramen of Megendie is the correct answer because it is the opening through which cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) flows from the fourth ventricle to the cistern magna. In hydrocephalus, the blockage of this foramen can lead to an accumulation of CSF in the ventricles, causing increased pressure and enlargement of the head. This condition is commonly seen in infants and young children.

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  • 12. 

    Broca's area corresponds to which of the following Brodmann’s numbers?

    • BA 22

    • BA 39/40

    • BA 44

    • BA 39

    • BA 44/45

    Correct Answer
    A. BA 44/45
    Explanation
    Broca's area is a region in the frontal lobe of the brain that is responsible for language production and speech. It is commonly associated with the ability to articulate words and form sentences. Brodmann's numbers are a system used to classify different areas of the cerebral cortex based on their histological characteristics. BA 44/45 refers to the region of the brain that includes Broca's area. Therefore, the correct answer is BA 44/45.

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  • 13. 

    Which of the following receives a larger area of cortex when considering motor cortex somatotopy?

    • Erector spinae musculature

    • Gastrocnemius

    • Hypothenar muscles

    • Biceps Brachii

    • Quadratus plantae

    Correct Answer
    A. Hypothenar muscles
    Explanation
    The hypothenar muscles receive a larger area of cortex when considering motor cortex somatotopy. This is because the motor cortex somatotopy is organized in a way that assigns more cortical space to areas of the body that require more precise and fine motor control. The hypothenar muscles, located in the palm of the hand, are responsible for controlling the movements of the little finger and are involved in fine motor tasks such as writing or playing a musical instrument. Therefore, they require more precise control and thus receive a larger area of cortex.

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  • 14. 

    In which of the following lobes is the primary auditory cortex located?

    • Parietal lobe

    • Occipital lobe

    • Frontal lobe

    • Insular lobe

    • Temporal lobe

    Correct Answer
    A. Temporal lobe
    Explanation
    The primary auditory cortex is located in the temporal lobe. This lobe is responsible for processing auditory information and is involved in tasks such as hearing, language comprehension, and sound recognition. It receives information from the ears and interprets it, allowing us to perceive and understand sounds.

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  • 15. 

    Which of the following areas is not involved in language for a person who is left- dominant?

    • Left dorsolateral prefrontal cortex

    • Left opercular gyrus

    • Left angular gyrus

    • Right plenum temporale

    • Right primary auditory cortex

    Correct Answer
    A. Left dorsolateral prefrontal cortex
    Explanation
    The left dorsolateral prefrontal cortex is not involved in language for a person who is left-dominant. This area of the brain is responsible for executive functions such as working memory, decision-making, and problem-solving. Language processing is primarily associated with the left hemisphere of the brain, with areas such as the left opercular gyrus and left angular gyrus playing important roles. The right plenum temporale and right primary auditory cortex are involved in processing auditory information, but they are not specifically related to language processing.

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  • 16. 

    A 56-year old man has a stroke in branches of the posterior cerebral artery, which affects the majority of his Brodmann's area 17. What major problem do you expect this individual to exhibit?

    • Difficulties in the comprehension of speech

    • Difficulties hearing

    • Disruptions with the perception of pain and temperature

    • Disruptions in visual processing

    • Disruptions in voluntary motor output

    Correct Answer
    A. Disruptions in visual processing
    Explanation
    A stroke in branches of the posterior cerebral artery that affects the majority of Brodmann's area 17 would result in disruptions in visual processing. Brodmann's area 17 is the primary visual cortex, responsible for processing visual information. Damage to this area can lead to difficulties in visual perception, such as problems recognizing objects, faces, or colors, and may also cause visual hallucinations or visual field defects. Therefore, it is expected that this individual would exhibit disruptions in visual processing.

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  • 17. 

    A 71-year old man has a stroke in small branches of the middle cerebral artery that supplies Brodmann's areas 41/42. What major problem do you expect this individual to exhibit?

    • Difficulty in the comprehension of speech

    • Disruptions with the perception of pain and temperature

    • Disruptions in visual processing

    • Disruptions in voluntary motor output

    • Difficulty hearing

    Correct Answer
    A. Difficulty hearing
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "Difficulty hearing" because Brodmann's areas 41/42 are part of the auditory cortex, which is responsible for processing sound and speech. Therefore, damage to this area can result in difficulty hearing.

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  • 18. 

    An area of the brain involved in language functions exhibits measurable volume difference between the right and the left hemisphere, in relation with the degree of lateralization of those language functions. What is the name of this area?

    • Triangular area

    • Opercular area

    • Angular gyrus

    • Planum temporale

    • Primary auditory cortex

    Correct Answer
    A. Planum temporale
    Explanation
    The area of the brain involved in language functions that exhibits measurable volume difference between the right and left hemisphere is called the Planum temporale. This area is known to be involved in various language processes such as speech perception, phonological processing, and language comprehension. The volume difference between the hemispheres is related to the degree of lateralization of these language functions, indicating that the Planum temporale plays a crucial role in language processing.

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  • 19. 

    During his various craniotomies for removal of brain tumors, Wilder Penfield (1891- 1976) working at the Montreal Neurological Institute, discovered that very low voltage electrical stimulation of certain areas of the brain in conscious but anesthetized patients consistently generated reports from the patients that they could hear familiar sounds or music playing. Which part of the human cerebral cortex is best mapped for audition?

    • Areas 21 and 22 of Brodmann

    • Areas 44 and 45 of Brodmann

    • Areas 41 and 42 of Brodmann

    • Areas 6 and 8 of Brodmann

    • Areas 17 and 18 of Brodmann

    Correct Answer
    A. Areas 41 and 42 of Brodmann
    Explanation
    Wilder Penfield discovered that electrical stimulation of certain areas of the brain in conscious but anesthetized patients consistently generated reports of hearing familiar sounds or music. This suggests that these areas are involved in auditory perception. The best mapped areas for audition in the human cerebral cortex are areas 41 and 42 of Brodmann.

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  • 20. 

    A 52-year old man has a stroke in branches of the anterior cerebral artery supplying the anterior paracentral lobule. What major problem do you expect this individual to exhibit?

    • Loss of touch and pain perception in the hand

    • Loss of touch and pain perception in the foot

    • Loss of voluntary motor output to the foot

    • Loss of voluntary motor output to the hand

    • Disruptions in visual processing

    Correct Answer
    A. Loss of voluntary motor output to the foot
    Explanation
    The anterior paracentral lobule is responsible for controlling voluntary motor output to the lower limbs, specifically the foot. Therefore, damage to this area due to a stroke in the branches of the anterior cerebral artery would result in a loss of voluntary motor output to the foot. This means that the individual would have difficulty in moving or controlling their foot voluntarily.

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  • 21. 

    A 49-year old man suffers from a stroke and he is unable to move his right upper limb and has lost sensation to that region as well. Which of the following arteries do your suspect to be compromised?

    • Right anterior cerebral artery

    • Left anterior cerebral artery

    • Right middle cerebral artery

    • Left middle cerebral artery

    • Right posterior cerebral artery

    Correct Answer
    A. Left middle cerebral artery
    Explanation
    The left middle cerebral artery supplies blood to the lateral surface of the brain, including the motor and sensory areas responsible for controlling movement and sensation in the right upper limb. Therefore, if the man is unable to move his right upper limb and has lost sensation in that region, it suggests that the left middle cerebral artery is compromised.

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  • 22. 

    What layer is mostly composed of pyramidal cells?

    • 1

    • II

    • V

    • IV

    • VI

    Correct Answer
    A. V
    Explanation
    Layer V of the cerebral cortex is mostly composed of pyramidal cells. Pyramidal cells are a type of neuron that have a triangular-shaped cell body and an apical dendrite that extends towards the surface of the cortex. These cells are known for their involvement in motor control, as they send signals from the cortex to other areas of the brain and spinal cord. Layer V is located deep within the cortex and is one of the main output layers, responsible for transmitting information from the cortex to subcortical structures and the spinal cord.

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  • 23. 

    What is the anatomical marker of lateralization of language?

    • Structure of the arcuate fasciculus

    • Asymmetry of primary auditory cortex surface

    • Presence of angular gyrus on the dominant hemisphere

    • Involvement of dorsolateral prefrontal cortex

    • Asymmetry of planum temporale surface

    Correct Answer
    A. Asymmetry of planum temporale surface
    Explanation
    The correct answer is asymmetry of planum temporale surface. The planum temporale is a region in the temporal lobe of the brain that is involved in language processing. In individuals with typical language lateralization, the planum temporale is larger in the left hemisphere compared to the right hemisphere. This asymmetry is thought to be a marker of the specialization of the left hemisphere for language functions.

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  • 24. 

    What is the role of non-dominant equivalent to Wernicke area?

    • Language production

    • Language understanding

    • Semantic aspects of language

    • Prosodic aspects of language

    • Syntactic aspects of language

    Correct Answer
    A. Prosodic aspects of language
    Explanation
    The non-dominant equivalent to Wernicke area is responsible for prosodic aspects of language. Prosody refers to the rhythm, intonation, and stress patterns in speech that convey meaning and emotion. It helps to convey the speaker's attitude, emphasis, and intentions. This area plays a crucial role in understanding and producing these prosodic features of language.

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  • 25. 

    Left hemineglect suggests lesion of the

    • Prefrontal cortex

    • Right hemisphere

    • Left hemisphere

    • Optic nerve

    • Visual cortex

    Correct Answer
    A. Right hemisphere
    Explanation
    Left hemineglect is a condition where individuals fail to attend or respond to stimuli presented on the left side of their visual field. This suggests a lesion in the right hemisphere of the brain. The right hemisphere is responsible for processing information from the left side of the body, including visual information. When this hemisphere is damaged, it can result in a neglect of the left side of space. Lesions in other areas such as the prefrontal cortex, optic nerve, or visual cortex would not specifically cause left hemineglect.

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