Lifestyle Related Diseases in Community Health Nursing

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| By Catherine Halcomb
Catherine Halcomb
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Quizzes Created: 4552 | Total Attempts: 7,038,374
| Questions: 25 | Updated: Oct 28, 2026
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1. Match the drug suffix to its corresponding drug class.

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About This Quiz
Community Health Nursing Quizzes & Trivia

This assessment focuses on lifestyle-related diseases in community health nursing. It evaluates your knowledge on key concepts such as coronary artery disease, risk factors, and management strategies. Understanding these elements is crucial for promoting health and preventing diseases in communities.

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2. Which of the following are recommended interventions for a patient with emphysema? (Select all that apply)

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3. Emphysema is a prolonged lung disease caused by inelastic alveolar walls resulting in ____.

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4. Which of the following medicines is used in the management of Diabetes Mellitus Type 2?

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5. Which of the following are essential devices used in community health nursing for NCD management? (Select all that apply)

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6. Risk stratification is defined as estimating the level of risk of an individual for CVD in ____ years.

Explanation

Risk stratification involves assessing an individual's likelihood of developing cardiovascular disease (CVD) over a specific time frame, typically set at 10 years. This period is commonly used in clinical practice to evaluate risk factors such as age, blood pressure, cholesterol levels, and lifestyle habits. By estimating risk over a decade, healthcare professionals can better tailor prevention strategies and interventions, ultimately aiming to reduce the incidence of CVD and improve patient outcomes. This approach helps in identifying high-risk individuals who may benefit from more intensive monitoring and preventive measures.

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7. Risk screening in community health nursing refers to:

Explanation

Risk screening in community health nursing focuses on identifying individuals who may have undiagnosed health issues or risk factors, enabling early intervention. This proactive approach allows healthcare providers to detect diseases or conditions before they progress, promoting better health outcomes. By recognizing these risks early, nurses can implement preventive measures and provide education, ultimately improving the overall health of the community. This process is essential for managing chronic diseases, such as cardiovascular disease, by addressing risk factors before they lead to more serious health complications.

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8. In DM2 management, the 2-hour post-prandial blood glucose level indicating diabetes is 11 mmol/L or ____ mg/L.

Explanation

In diabetes management, a 2-hour post-prandial blood glucose level of 11 mmol/L is a critical threshold for diagnosing diabetes. To convert this measurement from millimoles per liter (mmol/L) to milligrams per liter (mg/dL), you multiply by a conversion factor of 18. Therefore, 11 mmol/L equals 198 mg/dL, which is typically rounded to 200 mg/dL for clinical purposes. This value indicates that the blood glucose level is significantly elevated, confirming the presence of diabetes.

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9. What is the eligibility age for PhilPEN interventions?

Explanation

PhilPEN interventions are designed to target individuals who are at a higher risk for certain health conditions, typically associated with age and lifestyle factors. By setting the eligibility age at 25 years old and above, the program aims to reach a demographic that is entering adulthood, where health behaviors and risks begin to solidify. This age threshold allows for early intervention and support, promoting better health outcomes and preventing the development of chronic diseases in a population that may still be establishing their health habits.

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10. PhilPEN aims for a ____% yearly reduction in mortality in the country.

Explanation

PhilPEN's goal of achieving a 2% yearly reduction in mortality reflects a strategic approach to improving public health outcomes. This target is likely based on data-driven assessments of current mortality rates and aims to implement effective health interventions, policies, and education to gradually enhance the population's overall health. By setting a specific percentage, PhilPEN can measure progress, allocate resources efficiently, and adjust strategies as needed to ensure continuous improvement in health metrics over time.

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11. PhilPEN stands for Philippine Package of Essential Non-Communicable Disease Interventions.

Explanation

PhilPEN is an initiative aimed at addressing non-communicable diseases (NCDs) in the Philippines. It encompasses a comprehensive set of essential interventions designed to prevent and manage NCDs, which are a significant public health concern. By focusing on essential services, PhilPEN aims to improve health outcomes and reduce the burden of diseases such as diabetes, hypertension, and cardiovascular conditions, ultimately enhancing the overall health of the population.

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12. Which of the following are risk factors for lifestyle-related diseases? (Select all that apply)

Explanation

Tobacco use, physical inactivity, unhealthy diets high in sodium and sugar, and being over the age of 40 are all recognized risk factors for lifestyle-related diseases. Tobacco use is linked to various cancers and respiratory diseases. Physical inactivity contributes to obesity and cardiovascular issues. Diets high in sodium and sugar can lead to hypertension and diabetes. Additionally, age is a significant factor, as the risk of developing many chronic conditions increases with age, making individuals over 40 more susceptible to these diseases.

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13. Statins are a class of medications that lower LDL cholesterol and reduce the risk of heart attack and stroke.

Explanation

Statins work by inhibiting an enzyme involved in cholesterol production in the liver, which leads to a decrease in LDL (low-density lipoprotein) cholesterol levels in the bloodstream. Lowering LDL cholesterol is crucial because high levels are associated with an increased risk of cardiovascular diseases, including heart attacks and strokes. Numerous studies have demonstrated that statin therapy not only lowers cholesterol levels but also significantly reduces the incidence of these serious health events, making them an essential part of preventive cardiovascular care.

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14. According to the World Health Organization, quality of life is defined as an individual's perception of their position in life in the context of the culture and value systems in which they live and in relation to their ____.

Explanation

Quality of life encompasses how individuals view their lives based on various factors, including personal aspirations and societal norms. It is influenced by one's goals, which represent personal achievements; expectations, which shape how individuals anticipate their lives should be; standards, which reflect societal benchmarks; and concerns, which encompass worries or challenges faced. This holistic perspective allows for a comprehensive understanding of how individuals assess their overall well-being and satisfaction within their cultural and value frameworks.

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15. Which of the following drug suffixes corresponds to Beta Blockers?

Explanation

Beta blockers are a class of medications used primarily to manage heart conditions and hypertension. The suffix "-olol" is characteristic of these drugs, indicating their function as beta-adrenergic antagonists. Common examples include metoprolol and propranolol. In contrast, "-pril" denotes ACE inhibitors, "-pine" refers to calcium channel blockers, and "-statin" relates to cholesterol-lowering medications. Thus, recognizing the suffix "-olol" is essential for identifying beta blockers.

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16. Central adiposity is defined as a waist circumference of more than ____ cm.

Explanation

Central adiposity refers to the accumulation of fat around the abdomen, which is often measured by waist circumference. A waist measurement exceeding 90 cm in men is commonly used as a threshold to indicate increased risk of metabolic disorders, cardiovascular diseases, and other health issues associated with obesity. This measurement helps identify individuals who may benefit from lifestyle modifications and interventions to reduce health risks linked to excess abdominal fat.

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17. Which of the following are classified as target lifestyle-related diseases? (Select all that apply)

Explanation

Target lifestyle-related diseases are conditions often influenced by lifestyle choices such as diet, physical activity, and smoking. Cardiovascular diseases, Diabetes Mellitus, Cancer, and Chronic Respiratory/Obstructive Pulmonary Diseases are all linked to these factors. Poor diet and lack of exercise can lead to obesity and metabolic issues, increasing the risk of diabetes and heart disease. Similarly, smoking and environmental factors contribute to respiratory diseases and certain cancers. Therefore, these diseases are classified as target lifestyle-related diseases due to their strong association with lifestyle habits.

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18. Which of the following measures glucose in capillary blood commonly obtained through a finger prick?

Explanation

CBG, or Capillary Blood Glucose, refers to the measurement of glucose levels in capillary blood, which is typically obtained by a finger prick. This method is commonly used for quick assessments of blood sugar levels, especially in diabetic patients. It provides immediate results, allowing for timely decision-making regarding insulin administration or dietary adjustments. Other options like RBS (Random Blood Sugar) and FBS (Fasting Blood Sugar) may refer to different testing protocols but do not specifically denote the method of sampling as CBG does.

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19. HGT (Hemoglucotest) is a bedside blood glucose test usually performed using a glucometer and a finger-prick blood sample.

Explanation

HGT, or Hemoglucotest, is indeed a bedside blood glucose test that allows for quick and convenient monitoring of blood sugar levels. It typically involves using a glucometer, a device designed specifically for measuring glucose concentration in blood. The process usually requires a small blood sample obtained through a finger prick, making it a practical option for patients to manage their glucose levels effectively and efficiently in various settings, such as at home or in a clinical environment.

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20. RBS in diabetes monitoring stands for ____.

Explanation

RBS in diabetes monitoring refers to Random Blood Sugar, which is a test that measures the glucose level in the blood at any given time, regardless of when the person last ate. This test is crucial for diagnosing and managing diabetes, as it helps determine how well the body is controlling blood sugar levels. Elevated RBS levels can indicate diabetes or poor glycemic control, making it an essential tool for healthcare providers in assessing a patient's metabolic status and guiding treatment decisions.

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21. What is the normal reference range for blood glucose?

Explanation

A normal blood glucose level is crucial for maintaining overall health, as it indicates how well the body manages sugar. The reference range of 70-100 mg/dl represents optimal fasting glucose levels, where values below may suggest hypoglycemia, and those above could indicate prediabetes or diabetes. This range is widely accepted and used in clinical practice to assess metabolic health and diagnose conditions related to blood sugar regulation. Maintaining glucose within this range is essential for preventing complications associated with both low and high blood sugar levels.

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22. CVA stands for Cerebrovascular Accident, commonly known as a brain attack.

Explanation

CVA, or Cerebrovascular Accident, refers to a medical condition that occurs when blood flow to a part of the brain is interrupted, leading to brain damage. This interruption can be due to a blockage (ischemic stroke) or a rupture of a blood vessel (hemorrhagic stroke). The term "brain attack" emphasizes the urgency and seriousness of the condition, similar to a heart attack, highlighting the need for immediate medical attention to minimize brain injury and improve recovery outcomes.

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23. Angina pectoris is best described as:

Explanation

Angina pectoris refers to chest pain or discomfort that occurs when the heart muscle doesn't receive enough oxygen-rich blood. It is often a symptom of coronary artery disease and can signal an impending myocardial infarction (heart attack). Unlike a brain attack or complications from chronic kidney disease, angina specifically relates to heart function and is characterized by transient chest pain, typically triggered by physical exertion or stress. Understanding angina is crucial for recognizing potential heart-related issues and seeking timely medical intervention.

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24. Which procedure is commonly used to treat Coronary Artery Disease by widening narrowed arteries?

Explanation

Angioplasty is a minimally invasive procedure used to treat coronary artery disease by widening narrowed or blocked arteries. During the procedure, a catheter with a balloon at its tip is inserted into the affected artery. The balloon is then inflated to compress the plaque against the artery wall, improving blood flow. This technique can also involve placing a stent to keep the artery open. Angioplasty is preferred for its effectiveness and shorter recovery time compared to more invasive options like bypass surgery.

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25. Which of the following is the correct definition of CAD?

Explanation

Coronary Artery Disease (CAD) refers to the narrowing or blockage of the coronary arteries, primarily due to atherosclerosis, which is the buildup of cholesterol and fatty deposits. This condition can lead to reduced blood flow to the heart muscle, resulting in chest pain (angina) or heart attacks. It is a significant cause of morbidity and mortality worldwide, highlighting the importance of understanding and managing cardiovascular health. The other options do not accurately describe CAD, making the definition of Coronary Artery Disease the correct choice.

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Match the drug suffix to its corresponding drug class.
Which of the following are recommended interventions for a patient...
Emphysema is a prolonged lung disease caused by inelastic alveolar...
Which of the following medicines is used in the management of Diabetes...
Which of the following are essential devices used in community health...
Risk stratification is defined as estimating the level of risk of an...
Risk screening in community health nursing refers to:
In DM2 management, the 2-hour post-prandial blood glucose level...
What is the eligibility age for PhilPEN interventions?
PhilPEN aims for a ____% yearly reduction in mortality in the country.
PhilPEN stands for Philippine Package of Essential Non-Communicable...
Which of the following are risk factors for lifestyle-related...
Statins are a class of medications that lower LDL cholesterol and...
According to the World Health Organization, quality of life is defined...
Which of the following drug suffixes corresponds to Beta Blockers?
Central adiposity is defined as a waist circumference of more than...
Which of the following are classified as target lifestyle-related...
Which of the following measures glucose in capillary blood commonly...
HGT (Hemoglucotest) is a bedside blood glucose test usually performed...
RBS in diabetes monitoring stands for ____.
What is the normal reference range for blood glucose?
CVA stands for Cerebrovascular Accident, commonly known as a brain...
Angina pectoris is best described as:
Which procedure is commonly used to treat Coronary Artery Disease by...
Which of the following is the correct definition of CAD?
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