HIV/AIDS Medical Surgical Nursing Practice

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| Attempts: 12 | Questions: 30 | Updated: Sep 11, 2026
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1. Social isolation in a patient with HIV infection is most commonly associated with:

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HIV/AIDS Medical Surgical Nursing Practice - Quiz

This assessment evaluates essential knowledge about HIV\/AIDS medical surgical nursing. Key concepts include transmission methods, CD4+ cell counts, and associated complications such as opportunistic infections and cancers. Understanding these topics is vital for healthcare professionals in providing effective care and education to patients living with HIV\/AIDS.

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2. AIDS dementia complex (HIV encephalopathy) results from:

Explanation

AIDS dementia complex, also known as HIV encephalopathy, occurs due to the direct effects of HIV on the brain, leading to progressive damage of brain cells. This damage results in a decline in cognitive functions, changes in behavior, and deterioration of motor skills. Unlike bacterial meningitis, vitamin deficiencies, or medication overdoses, which have distinct causes and effects, the neurocognitive impairment associated with AIDS dementia complex is primarily a consequence of the viral infection's impact on the central nervous system.

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3. AIDS-related lymphomas include:

Explanation

AIDS-related lymphomas encompass both Hodgkin lymphoma and non-Hodgkin lymphoma due to the immunocompromised state of individuals with HIV/AIDS. The virus weakens the immune system, increasing susceptibility to various malignancies, including both types of lymphomas. Non-Hodgkin lymphoma is more prevalent among AIDS patients, but Hodgkin lymphoma can also occur. This dual association highlights the complex relationship between HIV infection and the development of these lymphoproliferative disorders.

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4. Kaposi sarcoma in HIV/AIDS is caused by:

Explanation

Kaposi sarcoma is a cancer that commonly occurs in individuals with HIV/AIDS, primarily due to the reactivation of Human herpesvirus-8 (HHV-8). This virus is a member of the herpesvirus family and is associated with the development of Kaposi sarcoma lesions. While HIV weakens the immune system, allowing HHV-8 to proliferate, it is HHV-8 that directly causes the cancer, not HIV itself or other viruses like Epstein-Barr or Cytomegalovirus. Thus, HHV-8 is the primary etiological agent in the context of HIV/AIDS-related Kaposi sarcoma.

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5. A key adverse effect associated with tenofovir disoproxil fumarate (TDF) is:

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6. A diagnosis of AIDS (Stage 3) is made when the CD4+ T-cell count falls:

Explanation

AIDS (Acquired Immunodeficiency Syndrome) is diagnosed when the immune system is severely compromised, specifically indicated by a CD4+ T-cell count below 200 cells/mm³. This threshold signifies a significant risk for opportunistic infections and other complications, marking the transition from HIV infection to AIDS. The CD4+ T-cell count is a critical measure of immune function, and values below this level reflect a profound depletion of these essential immune cells, which play a vital role in the body's defense against infections and diseases.

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7. Efavirenz is particularly associated with which adverse effects?

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8. Lamivudine (3TC) works by:

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9. Which of the following provides an objective measurement of a patient's nutritional status in HIV care?

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10. To improve nutritional status, the nurse should encourage the patient to:

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11. An appropriate nursing intervention for a patient coping with grief related to HIV diagnosis is to:

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12. AIDS was first identified in the year:

Explanation

AIDS, or Acquired Immunodeficiency Syndrome, was first identified in 1981 when cases of a rare pneumonia and other unusual infections were reported among young gay men in Los Angeles and New York. This marked the beginning of the recognition of a new and serious health condition linked to a compromised immune system. The disease was later connected to the Human Immunodeficiency Virus (HIV), which was identified in the following years. The early 1980s were crucial in understanding and addressing the emerging epidemic.

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13. HIV is classified as a retrovirus because it:

Explanation

HIV is classified as a retrovirus because it carries RNA as its genetic material. Unlike other viruses that may use DNA, retroviruses have RNA genomes. Upon entering a host cell, HIV uses the enzyme reverse transcriptase to convert its RNA into DNA, which then integrates into the host's genome. This unique replication process distinguishes retroviruses from other virus types, making the presence of RNA a defining characteristic.

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14. Which technique should be used when handling a used needle to prevent needlestick injury?

Explanation

Using the one-handed scoop technique without recapping minimizes the risk of needlestick injuries by allowing safe handling of used needles. This method involves using a single hand to place the needle into a safety container, reducing the chance of accidental punctures. Recapping needles increases the likelihood of contact with the sharp end, which can lead to injuries. By avoiding recapping and utilizing this technique, healthcare workers can ensure better safety and compliance with best practices in needle disposal.

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15. Patients using latex condoms should be advised to avoid which lubricants, since the oil can cause the condom to break?

Explanation

Patients using latex condoms should avoid oil-based lubricants like baby oil or petroleum jelly because these substances can degrade latex, leading to a higher risk of breakage. In contrast, water-based gels and saline solutions are safe to use with latex condoms, as they do not compromise the material's integrity. It’s essential to choose the right lubricant to ensure effective protection against sexually transmitted infections and unintended pregnancies.

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16. Donated blood is routinely screened for:

Explanation

Donated blood is routinely screened for HIV-1, HIV-2, and the p24 antigen to ensure the safety of the blood supply and protect recipients from these infectious agents. HIV-1 and HIV-2 are the two main types of the virus that causes AIDS, while the p24 antigen is a protein that appears early in HIV infection, allowing for earlier detection. Comprehensive screening helps identify potential infections before the antibodies develop, reducing the risk of transmission through transfusions. This rigorous testing is essential for maintaining public health and ensuring donor safety.

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17. HIV transmission occurs through:

Explanation

HIV is primarily transmitted through direct contact with infected bodily fluids, such as blood, semen, vaginal secretions, and breast milk. This transmission typically occurs when these fluids enter the body through breaks in the skin or mucosal surfaces, which can happen during unprotected sex, sharing needles, or from mother to child during childbirth or breastfeeding. Casual contact, airborne droplets, and sharing food utensils do not facilitate the transmission of HIV, as the virus does not survive long outside the human body and requires specific conditions to infect another person.

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18. HIV-1 is transmitted through all of the following body fluids EXCEPT:

Explanation

HIV-1 is primarily transmitted through specific body fluids that contain high concentrations of the virus, such as blood, seminal fluid, vaginal secretions, and breast milk. In contrast, sweat and tears do not carry sufficient viral loads to facilitate transmission. While these fluids can contain trace amounts of the virus, they are not considered effective routes for HIV transmission, making them the exception among the listed options.

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19. An expected favorable patient outcome in HIV care includes:

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20. Which NRTI requires HLA-B*5701 testing before use due to risk of a hypersensitivity reaction?

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21. Cryptococcal meningitis in HIV/AIDS is caused by:

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22. Pneumocystis pneumonia in HIV/AIDS typically occurs when the CD4+ count falls below:

Explanation

Pneumocystis pneumonia (PCP) is a common opportunistic infection in individuals with HIV/AIDS, particularly when their immune system is severely compromised. A CD4+ count below 200 cells/mm³ indicates significant immunosuppression, making patients highly susceptible to infections like PCP. At this level, the body's ability to respond to pathogens is critically impaired, allowing organisms such as Pneumocystis jirovecii to proliferate and cause pneumonia. Therefore, the threshold of 200 cells/mm³ is crucial for identifying patients at high risk for developing this life-threatening condition.

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23. Which laboratory approach detects both the p24 antigen and HIV antibodies?

Explanation

The antigen/antibody combination test is designed to simultaneously detect the p24 antigen and antibodies to HIV in a single sample. This dual detection allows for earlier diagnosis of HIV infection, as the p24 antigen can be present before antibodies are developed. By identifying both components, the test enhances sensitivity and specificity, making it a crucial tool in HIV screening and diagnosis. This approach is more effective than antibody differentiation tests, which only identify antibodies, and is not limited to nucleic acid testing or complete blood counts.

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24. In Stage 1, the time typically required to cause a major HIV-related complication is:

Explanation

HIV progresses through several stages, and Stage 1 is characterized by the acute infection phase where the virus replicates rapidly. However, it typically takes 8 to 10 years for significant immune system damage to occur and lead to major HIV-related complications, such as AIDS. This prolonged asymptomatic period allows the virus to remain undetected while gradually weakening the immune system, making this timeframe the average duration before serious health issues arise.

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25. Stage 1 of HIV infection is best described as:

Explanation

Stage 1 of HIV infection, also known as acute HIV infection, often presents as asymptomatic. During this phase, the virus replicates rapidly, but the immune system responds by producing antibodies and activating immune cells, creating a temporary equilibrium. This balance allows the individual to remain symptom-free despite the presence of the virus, which can lead to a false sense of security. Understanding this stage is crucial for early detection and intervention, as individuals may unknowingly transmit the virus to others.

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26. In Stage 0 of HIV infection, the antibody test is typically:

Explanation

During Stage 0 of HIV infection, the body has not yet produced detectable levels of antibodies, leading to a negative antibody test result. However, individuals may experience early symptoms such as fever, fatigue, or rash, which are common during acute HIV infection. This stage is characterized by the virus replicating rapidly, often before the immune system has had a chance to respond adequately. Therefore, despite the presence of symptoms, the antibody test may still show a negative result.

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27. Protease inhibitors act primarily at which stage of the HIV life cycle?

Explanation

Protease inhibitors target the HIV life cycle during the assembly and budding stage. After the virus has replicated its genetic material, the newly formed viral proteins need to be cleaved into their functional forms by the protease enzyme. This cleavage is essential for the maturation of the virus. By inhibiting protease, these drugs prevent the virus from properly assembling and maturing, ultimately reducing the production of infectious viral particles. Thus, protease inhibitors effectively disrupt the final stages of the HIV life cycle, preventing the spread of the virus.

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28. Viral DNA that has inserted into the host cell's DNA is referred to as a:

Explanation

A provirus is a form of viral DNA that integrates into the genome of a host cell. This integration allows the virus to replicate along with the host's DNA during cell division, effectively becoming a permanent part of the host's genetic material. Unlike a virion, which is the complete virus particle, or a capsid, which is the protein shell of the virus, a provirus represents the viral genome incorporated into the host's DNA, facilitating persistent infection and potential activation later.

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29. The enzyme responsible for copying viral RNA into DNA is:

Explanation

Reverse transcriptase is an enzyme that converts viral RNA into DNA, a process crucial for retroviruses like HIV. This enzyme facilitates the synthesis of complementary DNA (cDNA) from an RNA template, allowing the viral genetic material to integrate into the host's genome. This step is essential for the virus to replicate and produce new viral particles, making reverse transcriptase a key target for antiretroviral therapies. In contrast, protease and integrase serve different roles in the viral life cycle, while RNA polymerase is involved in synthesizing RNA from a DNA template.

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30. A normal CD4+ cell count is generally considered to be:

Explanation

A normal CD4+ cell count typically ranges from 700 to 1000 cells/mm³, with some sources extending this range up to 1500 cells/mm³. CD4+ cells are crucial for the immune system, particularly in fighting infections. Counts below this range may indicate immunosuppression or the presence of conditions such as HIV/AIDS. Monitoring CD4+ levels helps assess immune function and the effectiveness of treatments, making it essential for managing health in immunocompromised individuals.

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Social isolation in a patient with HIV infection is most commonly...
AIDS dementia complex (HIV encephalopathy) results from:
AIDS-related lymphomas include:
Kaposi sarcoma in HIV/AIDS is caused by:
A key adverse effect associated with tenofovir disoproxil fumarate...
A diagnosis of AIDS (Stage 3) is made when the CD4+ T-cell count...
Efavirenz is particularly associated with which adverse effects?
Lamivudine (3TC) works by:
Which of the following provides an objective measurement of a...
To improve nutritional status, the nurse should encourage the patient...
An appropriate nursing intervention for a patient coping with grief...
AIDS was first identified in the year:
HIV is classified as a retrovirus because it:
Which technique should be used when handling a used needle to prevent...
Patients using latex condoms should be advised to avoid which...
Donated blood is routinely screened for:
HIV transmission occurs through:
HIV-1 is transmitted through all of the following body fluids EXCEPT:
An expected favorable patient outcome in HIV care includes:
Which NRTI requires HLA-B*5701 testing before use due to risk of a...
Cryptococcal meningitis in HIV/AIDS is caused by:
Pneumocystis pneumonia in HIV/AIDS typically occurs when the CD4+...
Which laboratory approach detects both the p24 antigen and HIV...
In Stage 1, the time typically required to cause a major HIV-related...
Stage 1 of HIV infection is best described as:
In Stage 0 of HIV infection, the antibody test is typically:
Protease inhibitors act primarily at which stage of the HIV life...
Viral DNA that has inserted into the host cell's DNA is referred to as...
The enzyme responsible for copying viral RNA into DNA is:
A normal CD4+ cell count is generally considered to be:
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