Practice Test III- Medical Surgical Nursing

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1/49 Questions

Nurse Maureen knows that the positive diagnosis for HIV infection is made based on which of the following:
- A history of high risk sexual behaviors
- Positive ELISA and western blot tests
- Identification of an associated opportunistic infection
- Evidence of extreme weight loss and high fever

About This Quiz

Welcome to the third test on Medical-Surgical Nursing, here you are going to face 50 important questions on various medical topics such as cardiac problems, cancer, anemia, etc. So, this test is essential for those preparing for NCLEX or other nursing examss. Let's get started.

Practice Test III- Medical Surgical Nursing - Quiz

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2.

Among the following clients, which among them is high risk for potential hazards from the surgical experience?
- 67-year-old client
- 49-year-old client
- 33-year-old client
- 15-year-old client
Correct Answer

A. 67-year-old client

Explanation

A 67 year old client is greater risk because the older adult client is more likely to have a less-effective immune system.

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3
3.

Nurse Hazel receives emergency laboratory results for a client with chest pain and immediately informs the physician. An increased myoglobin level suggests which of the following?
- Liver disease
- Myocardial damage
- Hypertension
- Cancer
Correct Answer

A. Myocardial damage

Explanation

Detection of myoglobin is a diagnostic tool to determine whether myocardial damage has occurred.

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4
4.

Which of the following findings is the best indication that fluid replacement for the client with hypovolemic shock is adequate?
- Urine output greater than 30 ml/hr
- Respiratory rate of 21 breaths/minute
- Diastolic blood pressure greater than 90 mmHg
- Systolic blood pressure greater than 110 mmHg
Correct Answer

A. Urine output greater than 30 ml/hr

Explanation

Urine output provides the most sensitive indication of the client’s response to therapy for hypovolemic shock. Urine output should be consistently greater than 30 to 35 mL/hr.

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4
5.

Karen has been diagnosed with aplastic anemia. The nurse monitors for changes in which of the following physiologic functions?
- Bowel function
- Peripheral sensation
- Bleeding tendencies
- Intake and out put
Correct Answer

A. Bleeding tendencies

Explanation

Aplastic anemia decreases the bone marrow production of RBC’s, white blood cells, and platelets. The client is at risk for bruising and bleeding tendencies.

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6
6.

What is the priority nursing assessment in the first 24 hours after admission of the client with thrombotic CVA?
- Pupil size and papillary response
- Cholesterol level
- Echocardiogram
- Bowel sounds
Correct Answer

A. Pupil size and papillary response

Explanation

It is crucial to monitor the pupil size and papillary response to indicate changes around the cranial nerves.

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3
7.

Which of the following signs and symptoms would Nurse Maureen include in teaching plan as an early manifestation of laryngeal cancer?
- Stomatitis
- Airway obstruction
- Hoarseness
- Dysphagia
Correct Answer

A. Hoarseness

Explanation

Early warning signs of laryngeal cancer can vary depending on tumor location. Hoarseness lasting 2 weeks should be evaluated because it is one of the most common warning signs.

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3
8.

Patricia a 20-year-old college student with diabetes mellitus requests additional information about the advantages of using a pen-like insulin delivery devices. The nurse explains that the advantages of these devices over syringes include:
- Accurate dose delivery
- Shorter injection time
- Lower cost with reusable insulin cartridges
- Use of smaller gauge needle
Correct Answer

A. Accurate dose delivery

Explanation

These devices are more accurate because they are easily to used and have improved adherence in insulin regimens by young people because the medication can be administered discreetly.

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5
9.

Nurse Linda is preparing a client with multiple sclerosis for discharge from the hospital to home. Which of the following instruction is most appropriate?
- “Practice using the mechanical aids that you will need when future disabilities arise”.
- “Follow good health habits to change the course of the disease”.
- “Keep active, use stress reduction strategies, and avoid fatigue.
- “You will need to accept the necessity for a quiet and inactive lifestyle”.
Correct Answer

A. “Keep active, use stress reduction strategies, and avoid fatigue.

Explanation

The nurse most positive approach is to encourage the client with multiple sclerosis to stay active, use stress reduction techniques and avoid fatigue because it is important to support the immune system while remaining active.

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2
10.

A male client with tuberculosis asks Nurse Brian how long the chemotherapy must be continued. Nurse Brian’s accurate reply would be:
- 1 to 3 weeks
- 6 to 12 months
- 3 to 5 months
- 3 years and more
Correct Answer

A. 6 to 12 months

Explanation

Tubercle bacillus is a drug resistant organism and takes a long time to be eradicated. Usually a combination of three drugs is used for minimum of 6 months and at least six months beyond culture conversion.

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6
11.

Nurse Hazel teaches the client with angina about common expected side effects of nitroglycerin including:
- High blood pressure
- Stomach cramps
- Headache
- Shortness of breath
Correct Answer

A. Headache

Explanation

Because of its widespread vasodilating effects, nitroglycerin often produces side effects such as headache, hypotension and dizziness.

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6
12.

A 65-year-old female is experiencing a flare-up of pruritus. Which of the client’s action could aggravate the cause of flare-ups?
- Sleeping in cool and humidified environment
- Daily baths with fragrant soap
- Using clothes made from 100% cotton
- Increasing fluid intake
Correct Answer

A. Daily baths with fragrant soap

Explanation

The use of fragrant soap is very drying to skin hence causing the pruritus.

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4
13.

An 83-year-old woman has several ecchymotic areas on her right arm. The bruises are probably caused by:
- Increased capillary fragility and permeability
- Increased blood supply to the skin
- Self inflicted injury
- Elder abuse
Correct Answer

A. Increased capillary fragility and permeability

Explanation

Aging process involves increased capillary fragility and permeability. Older adults have a decreased amount of subcutaneous fat and cause an increased incidence of bruise like lesions caused by collection of extravascular blood in
loosely structured dermis.

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2
14.

A client has undergone with a penile implant. After 24 hrs of surgery, the client’s scrotum was edematous and painful. The nurse should:
- Assist the client with sitz bath
- Apply war soaks in the scrotum
- Elevate the scrotum using a soft support
- Prepare for a possible incision and drainage
Correct Answer

A. Elevate the scrotum using a soft support

Explanation

Elevation increases lymphatic drainage, reducing edema and pain.

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3
15.

A male client’s left tibia fractures in an automobile accident, and a cast is applied. To assess for damage to major blood vessels from the fractured tibia, the nurse in charge should monitor the client for:
- Swelling of the left thigh
- Increased skin temperature of the foot
- Prolonged reperfusion of the toes after blanching
- Increased blood pressure
Correct Answer

A. Prolonged reperfusion of the toes after blanching

Explanation

Damage to blood vessels may decrease the circulatory perfusion of the toes, this would indicate the lack of blood supply to the extremity.

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7
16.

The following are lipid abnormalities. Which of the following is a risk factor for the development of atherosclerosis and PVD?
- High levels of low density lipid (LDL) cholesterol
- High levels of high density lipid (HDL) cholesterol
- Low concentration triglycerides
- Low levels of LDL cholesterol
Correct Answer

A. High levels of low density lipid (LDL) cholesterol

Explanation

An increased in LDL cholesterol concentration has been documented at risk factor for the development of atherosclerosis. LDL cholesterol is not broken down into the liver but is deposited into the wall of the blood vessels.

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5
17.

Nurse Maureen is aware that a client who has been diagnosed with chronic renal failure recognizes an adequate amount of high-biologic-value protein when the food the client selected from the menu was:
- Raw carrots
- Apple juice
- Whole wheat bread
- Cottage cheese
Correct Answer

A. Cottage cheese

Explanation

One cup of cottage cheese contains approximately 225 calories, 27 g of protein, 9 g of fat, 30 mg cholesterol, and 6 g of carbohydrate. Proteins of high biologic value (HBV) contain optimal levels of amino acids essential for life.

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7
18.

Among the following components thorough pain assessment, which is the most significant?
- Effect
- Cause
- Causing factors
- Intensity
Correct Answer

A. Intensity

Explanation

Intensity is the major indicative of severity of pain and it is important for the evaluation of the treatment.

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4
19.

A female client is receiving IV Mannitol. An assessment specific to the safe administration of the said drug is:
- Vital signs q4h
- Weighing daily
- Urine output hourly
- Level of consciousness q4h
Correct Answer

A. Urine output hourly

Explanation

The osmotic diuretic mannitol is contraindicated in the presence of inadequate renal function or heart failure because it increases the intravascular volume that must be filtered and excreted by the kidney.

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9
20.

Which of the following complications associated with tracheostomy tube?
- Increased cardiac output
- Acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS)
- Increased blood pressure
- Damage to laryngeal nerves
Correct Answer

A. Damage to laryngeal nerves

Explanation

Tracheostomy tube has several potential complications including bleeding, infection and laryngeal nerve damage.

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5
21.

A client has undergone a laryngectomy. The immediate nursing priority would be:
- Keep trachea free of secretions
- Monitor for signs of infection
- Provide emotional support
- Promote means of communication
Correct Answer

A. Keep trachea free of secretions

Explanation

Patent airway is the most priority; therefore removal of secretions is necessary.

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7
22.

Marina with acute renal failure moves into the diuretic phase after one week of therapy. During this phase the client must be assessed for signs of developing:
- Hypovolemia
- Renal failure
- Metabolic acidosis
- Hyperkalemia
Correct Answer

A. Hypovolemia

Explanation

In the diuretic phase fluid retained during the oliguric phase is excreted and may reach 3 to 5 liters daily, hypovolemia may occur and fluids should be replaced.

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3
23.

Nurse Judith obtains a specimen of clear nasal drainage from a client with a head injury. Which of the following tests differentiates mucus from cerebrospinal fluid (CSF)?
- Protein
- Specific gravity
- Glucose
- Microorganism
Correct Answer

A. Glucose

Explanation

The constituents of CSF are similar to those of blood plasma. An examination for glucose content is done to determine whether a body fluid is a mucus or a CSF. A CSF normally contains glucose.

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5
24.

What is the peak age range in acquiring acute lymphocytic leukemia (ALL)?
- 4 to 12 years
- 20 to 30 years
- 40 to 50 years
- 60 to 70 years
Correct Answer

A. 4 to 12 years

Explanation

The peak incidence of Acute Lymphocytic Leukemia (ALL) is 4 years of age. It is uncommon after 15 years of age.

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6
25.

A male client has undergone spinal surgery, the nurse should:
- Observe the client’s bowel movement and voiding patterns
- Log-roll the client to prone position
- Assess the client’s feet for sensation and circulation
- Encourage client to drink plenty of fluids
Correct Answer

A. Assess the client’s feet for sensation and circulation

Explanation

Alteration in sensation and circulation indicates damage to the spinal cord, if these occurs notify physician immediately.

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7
26.

Which of the following represents a significant risk immediately after surgery for repair of aortic aneurysm?
- Potential wound infection
- Potential ineffective coping
- Potential electrolyte balance
- Potential alteration in renal perfusion
Correct Answer

A. Potential alteration in renal perfusion

Explanation

There is a potential alteration in renal perfusion manifested by decreased urine output. The altered renal perfusion may be related to renal artery embolism, prolonged hypotension, or prolonged aortic cross-clamping during the surgery.

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9
27.

Which of the following stage the carcinogen is irreversible?
- Progression stage
- Initiation stage
- Regression stage
- Promotion stage
Correct Answer

A. Progression stage

Explanation

Progression stage is the change of tumor from the preneoplastic state or low degree of malignancy to a fast growing tumor that cannot be reversed.

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6
28.

Nurse Faith should recognize that fluid shift in a client with burn injury results from an increase in the:
- Total volume of circulating whole blood
- Total volume of intravascular plasma
- Permeability of capillary walls
- Permeability of kidney tubules
Correct Answer

A. Permeability of capillary walls

Explanation

In burn, the capillaries and small vessels dilate, and cell damage cause the release of a histamine-like substance. The substance causes the capillary walls to become more permeable and significant quantities of fluid are lost.

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3
29.

Karina a client with myasthenia gravis is to receive immunosuppressive therapy. The nurse understands that this therapy is effective because of it:
- Promotes the removal of antibodies that impair the transmission of impulses
- Stimulates the production of acetylcholine at the neuromuscular junction
- Decreases the production of autoantibodies that attack the acetylcholine receptors
- Inhibits the breakdown of acetylcholine at the neuromuscular junction
Correct Answer

A. Decreases the production of autoantibodies that attack the acetylcholine receptors

Explanation

Steroids decrease the body’s immune response thus decreasing the production of antibodies that attack the acetylcholine receptors at the neuromuscular junction

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2
30.

Nurse Anna is aware that early adaptation of client with renal carcinoma is:
- Nausea and vomiting
- Flank pain
- Weight gain
- Intermittent hematuria
Correct Answer

A. Intermittent hematuria

Explanation

Intermittent pain is the classic sign of renal carcinoma. It is primarily due to capillary erosion by the cancerous growth.

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4
31.

While performing a physical assessment of a male client with a gout of the great toe, NurseVivian should assess for additional tophi (urate deposits) on the:
- Buttocks
- Ears
- Face
- Abdomen
Correct Answer

A. Ears

Explanation

Uric acid has a low solubility, it tends to precipitate and form deposits at various sites where blood flow is least active, including cartilaginous tissue such as the ears.

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7
32.

Nurse Katrina would recognize that the demonstration of crutch walking with tripod gait was understood when the client places weight on the:
- Palms of the hands and axillary regions
- Palms of the hand
- Axillary regions
- Feet, which are set apart
Correct Answer

A. Palms of the hand

Explanation

The palms should bear the client’s weight to avoid damage to the nerves in the axilla.

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4
33.

Atropine sulfate (Atropine) is contraindicated in all but one of the following client?
- A client with high blood
- A client with bowel obstruction
- A client with glaucoma
- A client with U.T.I
Correct Answer

A. A client with glaucoma

Explanation

Atropine sulfate, commonly known as Atropine, is a medication that works by blocking certain nerve impulses. It has various effects on the body, including dilating the pupils, increasing heart rate, and reducing secretions in the respiratory and digestive tracts.
The contraindication in a client with glaucoma stems from Atropine's ability to dilate the pupils. In glaucoma, there is increased pressure within the eye due to fluid buildup. Dilating the pupils further in this condition can exacerbate the problem by narrowing the angle between the iris and the cornea, leading to a sudden increase in eye pressure, potentially causing acute angle-closure glaucoma, which is a medical emergency.

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3
34.

Which of the following is the earliest sign of hypoxia in an unconscious client that a nurse should recognize?
- Cyanosis
- Increased respirations
- Hypertension
- Restlessness
Correct Answer

A. Restlessness

Explanation

Restlessness is an early indicator of hypoxia, even in an unconscious client. It reflects the brain's response to insufficient oxygen, which can cause agitation and anxiety before other physical symptoms manifest. While cyanosis, increased respirations, and hypertension can occur as hypoxia progresses, restlessness is typically one of the first signs, making it an important early indicator for healthcare providers to monitor.

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0
35.

Kenneth who was diagnosed with the uremic syndrome has the potential to develop complications. Which among the following complications should the nurse anticipates:
- Flapping hand tremors
- An elevated hematocrit level
- Hypotension
- Hypokalemia
Correct Answer

A. Flapping hand tremors

Explanation

Elevation of uremic waste products causes irritation of the nerves, resulting in flapping hand tremors.

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6
36.

A client is admitted to the hospital with benign prostatic hyperplasia, the nurse most relevant assessment would be:
- Flank pain radiating in the groin
- Distention of the lower abdomen
- Perineal edema
- Urethral discharge
Correct Answer

A. Distention of the lower abdomen

Explanation

This indicates that the bladder is distended with urine, therefore palpable.

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3
37.

A client is experiencing spinal shock. Nurse Myrna should expect the function of the bladder to be which of the following?
- Normal
- Atonic
- Spastic
- Uncontrolled
Correct Answer

A. Atonic

Explanation

In spinal shock, the bladder becomes completely atonic and will continue to fill unless the client is catheterized.

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10
38.

A 22 year old client suffered from his first tonic-clonic seizure. Upon awakening the client asks the nurse, “What caused me to have a seizure? Which of the following would the nurse include in the primary cause of tonic-clonic seizures in adults more the 20 years?
- Electrolyte imbalance
- Head trauma
- Epilepsy
- Congenital defect
Correct Answer

A. Head trauma

Explanation

Trauma is one of the primary cause of brain damage and seizure activity in adults. Other common causes of seizure activity in adults include neoplasms, withdrawal from drugs and alcohol, and vascular disease.

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6
39.

Marie with acute lymphocytic leukemia suffers from nausea and headache. These clinical manifestations may indicate all of the following except:
- Effects of radiation
- Chemotherapy side effects
- Meningeal irritation
- Gastric distension
Correct Answer

A. Gastric distension

Explanation

Acute Lymphocytic Leukemia (ALL) does not cause gastric distention. It does invade the central nervous system, and clients experience headaches and vomiting from meningeal irritation.

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3
40.

A client has been diagnosed with Disseminated Intravascular Coagulation (DIC). Which of the following is contraindicated with the client?
- Administering Heparin
- Administering Coumadin
- Treating the underlying cause
- Replacing depleted blood products
Correct Answer

A. Administering Coumadin

Explanation

Disseminated Intravascular Coagulation (DIC) has not been found to respond to oral anticoagulants such as Coumadin.

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5
41.

After a long leg cast is removed, the male client should:
- Cleanse the leg by scrubbing with a brisk motion
- Put leg through full range of motion twice daily
- Report any discomfort or stiffness to the physician
- Elevate the leg when sitting for long periods of time
Correct Answer

A. Elevate the leg when sitting for long periods of time

Explanation

Elevation will help control the edema that usually occurs.

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3
42.

Marco who was diagnosed with a brain tumor was scheduled for craniotomy. In preventing the development of cerebral edema after surgery, the nurse should expect the use of:
- Diuretics
- Antihypertensive
- Steroids
- Anticonvulsants
Correct Answer

A. Steroids

Explanation

Glucocorticoids (steroids) are used for their anti-inflammatory action, which decreases the development of edema.

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8
43.

Halfway through the administration of blood, the female client complains of lumbar pain. After stopping the infusion Nurse Hazel should:
- Increase the flow of normal saline
- Assess the pain further
- Notify the blood bank
- Obtain vital signs
Correct Answer

A. Increase the flow of normal saline

Explanation

The blood must be stopped at once, and then normal saline should be infused to keep the line patent and maintain blood volume.

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12
44.

Nurse Maureen expecting a client with mitral stenosis would demonstrate symptoms associated with congestion in the:
- Right atrium
- Superior vena cava
- Aorta
- Pulmonary
Correct Answer

A. Pulmonary

Explanation

When mitral stenosis is present, the left atrium has difficulty emptying its contents into the left ventricle because there is no valve to prevent back ward flow into the pulmonary vein, the pulmonary circulation is under pressure.

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9
45.

Mang Jose with rheumatoid arthritis states, “the only time I am without pain is when I lie in bed perfectly still”. During the convalescent stage, the nurse in charge with Mang Jose should encourage:
- Active joint flexion and extension
- Continued immobility until pain subsides
- Range of motion exercises twice daily
- Flexion exercises three times daily
Correct Answer

A. Active joint flexion and extension

Explanation

Active exercises, alternating extension, flexion, abduction, and adduction, mobilize exudates in the joints relieves stiffness and pain.

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5
46.

Lydia is scheduled for elective splenectomy. Before the clients go to surgery, the nurse in charge final assessment would be:
- Signed consent
- Vital signs
- Name band
- Empty bladder
Correct Answer

A. Vital signs

Explanation

An elective procedure is scheduled in advance so that all preparations can be completed ahead of time. The vital signs are the final check that must be completed before the client leaves the room so that continuity of care and
assessment is provided for.

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6
47.

Nurse Josie should instruct the client to eat which of the following foods to obtain the best supply of Vitamin B12?
- Dairy products
- Vegetables
- Grains
- Broccoli
Correct Answer

A. Dairy products

Explanation

Good source of vitamin B12 are dairy products and meats.

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5
48.

Nurse Katrina should anticipate that all of the following drugs may be used in the attempt to control the symptoms of Meniere's disease except:
- Antihistamines
- Glucocorticoids
- Antiemetics
- Diuretics
Correct Answer

A. Glucocorticoids

Explanation

Glucocorticoids play no significant role in disease treatment.

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1
49.

Nurse Jon assesses vital signs on a client undergone epidural anesthesia. Which of the following would the nurse assess next?
- Headache
- Bladder distension
- Dizziness
- Ability to move legs
Correct Answer

A. Bladder distension

Explanation

The last area to return sensation is in the perineal area, and the nurse in charge should monitor the client for distended bladder.

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4

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Practice Test III- Medical Surgical Nursing

Nurse Maureen knows that the positive diagnosis for HIV infection is made based on which of the following:

Quiz Preview

Among the following clients, which among them is high risk for potential hazards from the surgical experience?

Nurse Hazel receives emergency laboratory results for a client with chest pain and immediately informs the physician. An increased myoglobin level suggests which of the following?

Which of the following findings is the best indication that fluid replacement for the client with hypovolemic shock is adequate?

Karen has been diagnosed with aplastic anemia. The nurse monitors for changes in which of the following physiologic functions?

What is the priority nursing assessment in the first 24 hours after admission of the client with thrombotic CVA?

Which of the following signs and symptoms would Nurse Maureen include in teaching plan as an early manifestation of laryngeal cancer?

Patricia a 20-year-old college student with diabetes mellitus requests additional information about the advantages of using a pen-like insulin delivery devices. The nurse explains that the advantages of these devices over syringes include:

Nurse Linda is preparing a client with multiple sclerosis for discharge from the hospital to home. Which of the following instruction is most appropriate?

A male client with tuberculosis asks Nurse Brian how long the chemotherapy must be continued. Nurse Brian’s accurate reply would be:

Nurse Hazel teaches the client with angina about common expected side effects of nitroglycerin including:

A 65-year-old female is experiencing a flare-up of pruritus. Which of the client’s action could aggravate the cause of flare-ups?

An 83-year-old woman has several ecchymotic areas on her right arm. The bruises are probably caused by:

A client has undergone with a penile implant. After 24 hrs of surgery, the client’s scrotum was edematous and painful. The nurse should:

A male client’s left tibia fractures in an automobile accident, and a cast is applied. To assess for damage to major blood vessels from the fractured tibia, the nurse in charge should monitor the client for:

The following are lipid abnormalities. Which of the following is a risk factor for the development of atherosclerosis and PVD?

Nurse Maureen is aware that a client who has been diagnosed with chronic renal failure recognizes an adequate amount of high-biologic-value protein when the food the client selected from the menu was:

Among the following components thorough pain assessment, which is the most significant?

A female client is receiving IV Mannitol. An assessment specific to the safe administration of the said drug is:

Which of the following complications associated with tracheostomy tube?

A client has undergone a laryngectomy. The immediate nursing priority would be:

Marina with acute renal failure moves into the diuretic phase after one week of therapy. During this phase the client must be assessed for signs of developing:

Nurse Judith obtains a specimen of clear nasal drainage from a client with a head injury. Which of the following tests differentiates mucus from cerebrospinal fluid (CSF)?

What is the peak age range in acquiring acute lymphocytic leukemia (ALL)?

A male client has undergone spinal surgery, the nurse should:

Which of the following represents a significant risk immediately after surgery for repair of aortic aneurysm?

Which of the following stage the carcinogen is irreversible?

Nurse Faith should recognize that fluid shift in a client with burn injury results from an increase in the:

Karina a client with myasthenia gravis is to receive immunosuppressive therapy. The nurse understands that this therapy is effective because of it:

Nurse Anna is aware that early adaptation of client with renal carcinoma is:

While performing a physical assessment of a male client with a gout of the great toe, NurseVivian should assess for additional tophi (urate deposits) on the:

Nurse Katrina would recognize that the demonstration of crutch walking with tripod gait was understood when the client places weight on the:

Atropine sulfate (Atropine) is contraindicated in all but one of the following client?

Which of the following is the earliest sign of hypoxia in an unconscious client that a nurse should recognize?

Kenneth who was diagnosed with the uremic syndrome has the potential to develop complications. Which among the following complications should the nurse anticipates:

A client is admitted to the hospital with benign prostatic hyperplasia, the nurse most relevant assessment would be:

A client is experiencing spinal shock. Nurse Myrna should expect the function of the bladder to be which of the following?

A 22 year old client suffered from his first tonic-clonic seizure. Upon awakening the client asks the nurse, “What caused me to have a seizure? Which of the following would the nurse include in the primary cause of tonic-clonic seizures in adults more the 20 years?

Marie with acute lymphocytic leukemia suffers from nausea and headache. These clinical manifestations may indicate all of the following except:

A client has been diagnosed with Disseminated Intravascular Coagulation (DIC). Which of the following is contraindicated with the client?

After a long leg cast is removed, the male client should:

Marco who was diagnosed with a brain tumor was scheduled for craniotomy. In preventing the development of cerebral edema after surgery, the nurse should expect the use of:

Halfway through the administration of blood, the female client complains of lumbar pain. After stopping the infusion Nurse Hazel should:

Nurse Maureen expecting a client with mitral stenosis would demonstrate symptoms associated with congestion in the:

Mang Jose with rheumatoid arthritis states, “the only time I am without pain is when I lie in bed perfectly still”. During the convalescent stage, the nurse in charge with Mang Jose should encourage:

Lydia is scheduled for elective splenectomy. Before the clients go to surgery, the nurse in charge final assessment would be:

Nurse Josie should instruct the client to eat which of the following foods to obtain the best supply of Vitamin B12?

Nurse Katrina should anticipate that all of the following drugs may be used in the attempt to control the symptoms of Meniere's disease except:

Nurse Jon assesses vital signs on a client undergone epidural anesthesia. Which of the following would the nurse assess next?