Z3p051 Edit Code 5 Vol 4

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1. Who determines what posts are not staffed during funding or personnel shortages?

Explanation

During funding or personnel shortages, it is the responsibility of the Defense Force Commander to determine what posts are not staffed. This is because the Defense Force Commander is in charge of overseeing and managing the overall operations and resources of the defense force. They have the authority and knowledge to assess the situation and make decisions regarding the allocation of personnel and funding based on the needs and priorities of the organization.

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Z3p051 Edit Code 5 Vol 4 - Quiz

Z3P051 EDIT CODE 5 VOL 4 quiz assesses knowledge in integrated defense and risk management within Air Force operations. It covers legal reviews, incident reporting, and nuclear safety, focusing on critical skills for military personnel.

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2. Who signals for rollout after a long halt and movement commences?

Explanation

The convoy commander is responsible for signaling the start of movement after a long halt. They are in charge of coordinating and leading the convoy, ensuring that all vehicles are ready to proceed and that it is safe to do so. The convoy commander plays a crucial role in maintaining the organization and order of the convoy, making them the appropriate person to signal for rollout.

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3. What does an index contour line show when going from a lower to upper contour line?

Explanation

An index contour line is a thicker, darker contour line that is labeled with the elevation it represents. When going from a lower to an upper contour line, it means that you are moving to a higher elevation. Therefore, the correct answer is b. Increase in elevation.

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4. When should security forces (SF) perform checks of their individual issued items?

Explanation

Security forces should perform checks of their individual issued items on a daily basis to ensure that all equipment is in proper working order and ready for use. Performing daily checks allows SF to identify any issues or malfunctions promptly and take necessary actions to rectify them. Regular checks also help maintain the overall effectiveness and readiness of the security forces, ensuring that they are prepared to respond to any potential threats or emergencies.

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5. In tactical deployment situations, what movement technique do you use when speed is required and you cannot use the rushing technique?

Explanation

In tactical deployment situations, when speed is required and the rushing technique cannot be used, the high crawl movement technique is used. The high crawl involves moving forward by keeping the upper body raised off the ground and supporting the movement with the knees and elbows. This technique allows for faster movement while still maintaining a low profile and minimizing exposure to enemy fire. The roll technique involves rolling on the ground and is not suitable for situations where speed is required. The low crawl technique involves moving forward with the entire body close to the ground, and the spider crawl technique is not a recognized movement technique in tactical deployment situations.

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6. Which type of attack may involve an insider threat?

Explanation

An insider threat refers to a situation where someone within an organization poses a risk to its security or assets. In the context of this question, a penetration attack involves an unauthorized individual gaining access to a system or network by exploiting vulnerabilities. This type of attack can certainly be carried out by an insider who has knowledge of the system's weaknesses and may exploit them for personal gain or malicious intent.

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7. What analytical process is used to achieve integrated defense (ID)?

Explanation

Integrated Defense (ID) refers to a comprehensive approach to defense that involves the coordination and integration of various defense measures and strategies. In order to achieve this, a systematic and structured process of risk management is employed. This process involves identifying potential risks and threats, assessing their likelihood and potential impact, implementing measures to mitigate or eliminate those risks, and continuously monitoring and evaluating the effectiveness of the defense measures. By using ID Risk Management, organizations can ensure a holistic and coordinated approach to defense that addresses all potential vulnerabilities and threats.

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8. What Desired Effect is achieved with lighting, intrusion detection systems, early warning systems, and closed-circuit television?

Explanation

The desired effect achieved with lighting, intrusion detection systems, early warning systems, and closed-circuit television is to detect any potential threats or intrusions. These systems are put in place to identify and recognize any suspicious activity or unauthorized access in order to prevent any harm or damage. They act as a means of surveillance and monitoring, allowing for quick response and intervention if any potential threats are detected.

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9. How many random antiterrorist measures (RAM) chosen from higher force protection conditions (FPCON) are required daily?

Explanation

The question is asking for the minimum number of random antiterrorist measures (RAM) chosen from higher force protection conditions (FPCON) that are required daily. The correct answer is c. At least three, which means that a minimum of three RAM measures from FPCON are required daily.

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10. Which movement technique do you use when speed is important and contact with an adversary is not likely?

Explanation

When speed is important and contact with an adversary is not likely, the technique that is commonly used is traveling. Traveling involves moving quickly and efficiently, without taking cover or maintaining constant vigilance for potential threats. This technique is suitable when there is a low risk of encountering enemies and the focus is on reaching the destination as quickly as possible. It allows for rapid movement and can be useful in situations where time is of the essence and there is a need to cover a large distance.

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11. To avoid adverse effect on operations, commanders should address all sovereignty issues through the chain of command to the US

Explanation

To avoid adverse effects on operations, commanders should address all sovereignty issues through the chain of command to the US ambassador. The ambassador represents the US government in foreign countries and is responsible for maintaining diplomatic relations. By addressing sovereignty issues through the ambassador, commanders ensure that the concerns are properly communicated and dealt with at the diplomatic level, which is crucial for maintaining good relations with the host country and avoiding any negative impact on operations. Senators, governors, and congressmen are not directly involved in diplomatic matters and may not have the authority or expertise to address sovereignty issues effectively.

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12. When processing captives, detainees, and prisoners (DCP) at collection points, which is NOT one of the principles of STRESS?

Explanation

The principle of STRESS when processing DCP at collection points involves searching, tagging, and safeguarding them. The release of captives, detainees, and prisoners is not a principle of STRESS.

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13. To perform transition to a handgun drill with a 3-point tactical sling, you must first place the rifle on

Explanation

To perform a transition to a handgun drill with a 3-point tactical sling, it is important to ensure the rifle is in a safe position. Placing the rifle on "Safe" ensures that the firearm is not loaded and the trigger is disabled, minimizing the risk of accidental discharge. This allows the user to safely and efficiently transition to their handgun without the risk of the rifle being fired unintentionally.

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14. Where will drivers position themselves during a short halt?

Explanation

During a short halt, drivers will remain in their vehicles. This is because a short halt refers to a brief stop or pause in driving, such as at a traffic light or a stop sign. It is important for drivers to stay inside their vehicles during these halts for safety reasons, as getting out of the vehicle can increase the risk of accidents or injuries.

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15. What terrain feature is a low point in the ground or a sinkhole?

Explanation

A low point in the ground or a sinkhole is commonly referred to as a depression. This type of terrain feature is characterized by a concave shape, where the land dips or sinks below the surrounding area. Depressions can be caused by various geological processes such as erosion, weathering, or the collapse of underground caves. They can vary in size and depth, and often collect water, forming ponds or lakes.

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16. What terrain feature is a short, continuous sloping line of higher ground, normally jutting out from the side of a ridge?

Explanation

A spur is a short, continuous sloping line of higher ground that typically extends from the side of a ridge. It is a terrain feature that can be observed in mountainous or hilly areas. A spur is formed when erosion or other geological processes create a ridge, and then the ridge extends further out, creating a sloping line of higher ground. It is important to note that a spur is different from a cut, cliff, or draw, as these terms refer to other types of terrain features.

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17. The jettisoning of a nuclear weapon or nuclear component is an example of a nuclear weapon

Explanation

The jettisoning of a nuclear weapon or nuclear component implies an unplanned or unintended event, which aligns with the definition of an accident. Accidents refer to unexpected and unintentional events that result in damage or harm. In this context, the jettisoning of a nuclear weapon would be considered an accident as it involves the unintentional release or disposal of a dangerous weapon or component.

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18. What illusion does the ground sloping upward method of range determination give to the observer?

Explanation

The ground sloping upward method of range determination gives the illusion of a greater distance to the observer. This is because when the ground slopes upward, it creates an optical illusion that makes objects appear farther away than they actually are. This can be misleading for the observer, as they may perceive the distance to be greater than it actually is.

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19. Personnel assigned to the Priority III routine category should be evacuated within how many hours?

Explanation

Personnel assigned to the Priority III routine category should be evacuated within 24 hours. This means that they are not in immediate danger and can be evacuated within a reasonable timeframe. Evacuating them within 24 hours ensures their safety and allows for proper planning and coordination of resources.

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20. What type of fire control measures do security forces (SF) flight leaders or subordinate leaders use as a means to control their defenders?

Explanation

Security forces flight leaders or subordinate leaders use direct fire control measures as a means to control their defenders. This means that they directly engage the enemy or threat with their weapons or firepower. Direct fire control measures involve engaging the enemy with accurate and immediate fire, allowing the defenders to neutralize the threat and protect themselves or their assets. This can include actions such as engaging the enemy with small arms fire, grenades, or other direct-fire weapons.

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21. What is your first course of action when caught in an assault?

Explanation

The correct answer is d. Immediately return fire and take a covered position. When caught in an assault, the first course of action should be to defend oneself by returning fire and finding a safe place to take cover. This will help protect oneself from further harm and give time to assess the situation and plan the next steps.

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22. Which Defense Advanced Global Positioning System Receiver (DAGR) mode reduces power usage but does not track satellites?

Explanation

The correct answer is c. Standby. Standby mode in the Defense Advanced Global Positioning System Receiver (DAGR) reduces power usage but does not track satellites. This mode is typically used when the receiver is not actively being used but needs to conserve battery power. In standby mode, the receiver is still powered on but is not actively searching for or tracking satellite signals.

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23. The level of performance for the AN/PVS–14 depends upon the level of

Explanation

The AN/PVS-14 is a night vision device, and its performance is dependent on the level of light available. The device amplifies the existing light in order to provide clear visibility in low-light or dark environments. Therefore, the level of performance for the AN/PVS-14 is directly influenced by the amount of light present in the surroundings.

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24. On the AN/PVS–14 monocular night vision device (MNVD), what component enables the operator to see azimuth readings in the monocular?

Explanation

The correct answer is a. Compass. The compass component on the AN/PVS-14 monocular night vision device enables the operator to see azimuth readings in the monocular. This allows the operator to determine their direction and navigate accurately in low-light or nighttime conditions. The compass provides a valuable tool for situational awareness and orientation while using the night vision device.

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25. How should pre-combat inspections be tailored?

Explanation

Pre-combat inspections should be tailored based on the specific unit and mission requirements. This means that the inspections should be customized to meet the needs and objectives of the particular unit and the mission they are about to undertake. This can include factors such as the equipment and resources needed, the specific tasks and responsibilities of the unit, and any unique challenges or considerations related to the mission. By tailoring the inspections in this way, the unit can ensure that they are adequately prepared and equipped for the specific demands of their mission.

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26. Through which agency will the Base Defense Operations Center (BDOC) up-channel COVERED WAGON reportable incidents?

Explanation

The Base Defense Operations Center (BDOC) will up-channel COVERED WAGON reportable incidents through the Installation Command Post. This means that any reportable incidents will be reported to the command post at the installation level. The command post is responsible for coordinating and managing the overall operations and security of the installation, making it the appropriate agency to handle these incidents.

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27. How many days are the majority of security forces (SF) unit type codes (UTC) capable of existing without support?

Explanation

The majority of security forces (SF) unit type codes (UTC) are capable of existing without support for 5 days. This means that these units have enough resources, training, and equipment to operate independently for a period of 5 days without requiring any external assistance or support.

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28. What type of supporters do not actually commit violent acts but assist the terrorists by providing money, intelligence, legal, or medical services?

Explanation

Active supporters are individuals who do not directly engage in violent acts but provide assistance to terrorists in various ways such as providing financial support, intelligence, legal advice, or medical services. They play a crucial role in enabling terrorist activities and helping terrorist organizations to function effectively. Unlike passive supporters who may sympathize with terrorists but do not actively contribute to their cause, active supporters actively aid and abet terrorist activities. Therefore, active supporters are the type of supporters described in the question.

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29. What Desired Effect is achieved through threat-and-effects-based planning that integrate all friendly forces into a single, comprehensive plan, ensuring friendly forces are trained and qualified on arming and use of force?

Explanation

Through threat-and-effects-based planning that integrates all friendly forces into a single, comprehensive plan and ensures their training and qualification on arming and use of force, the desired effect achieved is to defend. This means that the focus is on protecting friendly forces and their assets from any potential threats or attacks. By having a well-coordinated plan and ensuring that all forces are prepared and capable of using force if necessary, the objective is to effectively defend against any hostile actions.

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30. How long has the US military been called upon to defeat insurgencies?

Explanation

The US military has been called upon to defeat insurgencies for more than two centuries. This suggests that the US military has a long history of dealing with insurgencies and has gained experience in combating such conflicts over the years. The answer implies that the US military has faced and successfully addressed insurgencies in various periods throughout its history, highlighting the ongoing nature of this challenge.

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31. What type of agency is created by a formal agreement between two or more governments?

Explanation

An intergovernmental organization is created by a formal agreement between two or more governments. This type of agency allows governments to work together and collaborate on issues of mutual interest, such as economic development, security, or environmental protection. Examples of intergovernmental organizations include the United Nations, the World Health Organization, and the European Union. These organizations provide a platform for member governments to discuss and coordinate policies, share information and resources, and address global challenges collectively.

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32. Which fire team movement is the primary formation used by a fire team?

Explanation

The primary formation used by a fire team is the wedge formation. This formation is characterized by a team leader at the front, followed by the rest of the team members fanning out behind in a V-shaped pattern. The wedge formation allows for good visibility and fields of fire, as well as flexibility in maneuvering and reacting to enemy threats. It also facilitates communication and coordination among team members, making it an effective formation for tactical movements.

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33. Which agency is the most notable intergovernmental organization (IGO) in the world?

Explanation

The United Nations is the most notable intergovernmental organization (IGO) in the world because it is a global organization that brings together member states to promote peace, security, and cooperation. It addresses a wide range of global issues such as climate change, poverty, human rights, and international conflicts. The United Nations has a broad mandate and plays a crucial role in shaping international relations and promoting multilateralism. It is also known for its specialized agencies and programs that focus on specific areas such as health (World Health Organization), education (UNESCO), and humanitarian assistance (UNHCR).

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34. What are the two types of ambushes?

Explanation

The correct answer is b. Point and area. In an ambush, there are two main types: point and area. A point ambush is a surprise attack on a specific target or location, while an area ambush is a broader attack that covers a larger area and targets multiple enemy forces. These two types allow for different tactics and strategies to be employed depending on the situation and objectives of the ambush.

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35. How do you perform the hand and arm signal for Attention?

Explanation

To perform the hand and arm signal for Attention, you need to extend your arm sideways, slightly above the horizontal. Your palm should face the front, and you should wave your arm to and from the head several times. This signal is used to get someone's attention or to indicate that you want to speak to them.

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36. What terrain feature is a stretched out groove in the land, usually formed by streams and rivers?

Explanation

A stretched out groove in the land, usually formed by streams and rivers, is called a valley. Valleys are typically formed by the erosive action of flowing water over a long period of time. They are characterized by their elongated shape and often have a river or stream running through them. Valleys can vary in size and depth, and are commonly found in mountainous or hilly regions.

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37. Aerial ports of debarkation, border crossings, and seaports of debarkation are all examples of key

Explanation

Aerial ports of debarkation, border crossings, and seaports of debarkation are all locations where the sovereignty of a nation is of utmost importance. These locations are points of entry and exit for goods, people, and resources, and therefore the control and regulation of these areas is crucial for a nation to exercise its sovereignty. These locations often involve customs, immigration, and security procedures, which are all related to the exercise of a nation's authority and control over its borders and territory. Therefore, these examples are all related to sovereignty issues.

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38. What does the color code yellow indicate when calling in a LACE report?

Explanation

The color code yellow in a LACE report indicates that more than 33 percent is available.

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39. What is the first step in navigating using terrain association?

Explanation

The first step in navigating using terrain association is to orient your map. This involves aligning the map with the actual terrain and identifying prominent features on the ground that can be used as reference points. By orienting the map, you can accurately determine your location and plan your route based on the surrounding terrain features. This step is crucial in order to effectively navigate using terrain association.

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40. Which target indicator is among the most difficult for the enemy to avoid?

Explanation

Contrast with the background is among the most difficult target indicator for the enemy to avoid because it refers to the difference in color, brightness, or texture between the target and its surroundings. When a target has high contrast with the background, it becomes more visible and stands out, making it harder for the enemy to conceal or camouflage themselves effectively. This makes contrast an effective indicator for detecting and targeting enemy forces.

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41. Who primarily uses alternate fighting positions?

Explanation

Crew-served weapons operators primarily use alternate fighting positions. This is because crew-served weapons, such as heavy machine guns or mortars, require a team of operators to effectively operate and maintain them. These weapons are typically larger and heavier than individual rifles or grenades, making it necessary for the crew to use alternate fighting positions to provide cover and support while engaging the enemy.

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42. What direction is always the first shadow mark when using the shadow-tip method?

Explanation

When using the shadow-tip method, the first shadow mark is always in the west direction. This is because the sun rises in the east and sets in the west, causing objects to cast shadows in the opposite direction. Therefore, when using the shadow-tip method, the first shadow mark will always be towards the west.

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43. Which agency is the lead for domestic terrorism within the US?

Explanation

The Department of Justice is the lead agency for domestic terrorism within the US because it is responsible for enforcing federal laws, including those related to terrorism. The department's mission includes preventing and investigating acts of terrorism, prosecuting individuals involved in terrorist activities, and coordinating with other agencies to ensure the safety and security of the country. This makes it the primary agency in charge of addressing domestic terrorism threats and taking appropriate legal actions against those responsible.

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44. What terrorist threat level factor focuses on the attack method used by the group and other measures enhancing its effectiveness, such as a state sponsorship and ingenious use of technology?

Explanation

Operational capability focuses on the attack method used by the group and other measures enhancing its effectiveness, such as state sponsorship and ingenious use of technology. This factor assesses the group's ability to carry out attacks and the resources they have at their disposal. It takes into account their access to weapons, funding, training, and technology, as well as any support they may receive from external sources. By evaluating the operational capability of a terrorist group, analysts can determine the level of threat posed by the group and the potential impact of their attacks.

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45. What must units develop about the area of responsibility (AOR) to include religious customs, nuances of local leaders, local culture, and terrain?

Explanation

Units must develop a common operating picture about the area of responsibility (AOR) to include religious customs, nuances of local leaders, local culture, and terrain. This means they need to have a comprehensive understanding of the various factors that influence the AOR, such as the religious practices followed by the local population, the preferences and characteristics of local leaders, the cultural norms and traditions, and the physical features of the terrain. By developing a common operating picture, units can effectively navigate and operate within the AOR while respecting and understanding the local context.

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46. What will insurgents resort to if they cannot persuade locals to help or refrain from hindering them?

Explanation

Insurgents will resort to coercion if they cannot persuade locals to help or refrain from hindering them. Coercion refers to the use of force or threats to compel someone to do something against their will. In this context, if insurgents are unable to convince or persuade locals to support their cause or stay out of their way, they may resort to using force or threats to achieve their objectives.

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47. Joint doctrine defines a nongovernmental organization (NGO) as a

Explanation

A nongovernmental organization (NGO) is defined as a private, self-governing, not-for-profit organization. This means that an NGO is not controlled or funded by the government, operates independently, and is focused on achieving a social or humanitarian mission rather than making a profit.

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48. When is the bounding overwatch movement technique used?

Explanation

The bounding overwatch movement technique is used when enemy contact is expected. This technique involves one element of a team providing covering fire while the other element moves forward. It is a cautious and coordinated approach that allows the team to maintain security while advancing towards the objective. By using this technique, the team can quickly respond to any enemy contact and minimize the risk of being caught off guard.

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49. How do you perform the hand and arm signal for Line Formation?

Explanation

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50. What convoy movement formation can only be used on multilane roads?

Explanation

Staggered formation is the only convoy movement formation that can be used on multilane roads. In this formation, vehicles are positioned diagonally across multiple lanes, with each vehicle slightly offset from the one in front of it. This allows for better visibility and maneuverability, as well as better utilization of the available road space. The staggered formation helps to maintain a safe distance between vehicles and reduces the risk of collisions, especially when changing lanes or merging with traffic. It also allows for easier communication and coordination among convoy members.

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51. What convoy movement formation can be used to block third party traffic and assist in changing lanes?

Explanation

Offset formation can be used to block third party traffic and assist in changing lanes. In offset formation, vehicles are staggered in a diagonal line, with each vehicle slightly to the side and rear of the vehicle in front of it. This formation creates a physical barrier that makes it difficult for other vehicles to pass through, effectively blocking third party traffic. Additionally, the staggered positioning of the vehicles allows for easier lane changes, as each vehicle has a clear line of sight and can easily move into the adjacent lane.

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52. How close will a six-digit refined grid coordinate get you to the point you want to identify?

Explanation

A six-digit refined grid coordinate will get you within 100 meters of the point you want to identify. The more digits there are in a grid coordinate, the more precise the location is. In this case, having six digits narrows down the location to within 100 meters, providing a relatively accurate point of identification.

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53. Personnel assigned to the Priority II priority category should be evacuated within how many hours?

Explanation

Personnel assigned to the Priority II priority category should be evacuated within 4 hours. This suggests that these individuals are considered to be in a moderately urgent situation, requiring prompt evacuation but not immediate emergency response. Evacuating within 4 hours allows for timely response and ensures the safety and well-being of the personnel in this category.

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54. Based on the terrain, vegetation, and visibility, leaders establish en route rally points every 100 to

Explanation

Leaders establish en route rally points every 400 meters based on the terrain, vegetation, and visibility. This distance allows for regular check-ins and regrouping of the team, ensuring that everyone is on the same page and can maintain situational awareness. It also provides a reasonable balance between keeping the team together and making progress towards the destination.

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55. What is the most common means of giving fire commands?

Explanation

Visual signals are the most common means of giving fire commands because they can be easily seen and understood by the personnel involved. They provide a clear and immediate communication method, especially in situations where sound or radio communications may not be reliable or feasible. Visual signals, such as hand gestures or flags, can be easily recognized and interpreted, making them an effective means of conveying commands and instructions in various situations.

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56. Machine gunners fire at groups of five or more targets when in the

Explanation

Machine gunners fire at groups of five or more targets when in the primary sector from farthest to closest. This means that they prioritize engaging targets that are farthest away and then work their way towards the ones that are closest. This strategy allows them to effectively suppress and eliminate threats in a systematic manner, starting with those that pose the greatest danger from a distance and then moving on to those that are closer and potentially more immediate threats.

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57. When marking targets, the more effective means of delivering accurate fire is

Explanation

The most effective means of delivering accurate fire when marking targets is by using an aiming point. This means that the shooter focuses on a specific point on the target and aims their weapon at that point. By doing so, they increase the chances of hitting the target accurately. Spacing, reference point, and range determination are not directly related to delivering accurate fire when marking targets.

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58. Which agency is the lead for terrorist incidents that occur outside the US?

Explanation

The Department of State is the lead agency for terrorist incidents that occur outside the US. The Department of State is responsible for representing the US abroad and handling foreign policy issues. As such, it takes the lead in addressing and responding to terrorist incidents that occur outside of US borders. The Department of Justice is primarily responsible for enforcing federal laws and prosecuting criminals within the US, while the Department of Defense focuses on national security and military operations. The Federal Bureau of Investigation (FBI) primarily investigates and combats domestic terrorism within the US.

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59. The first step in risk analysis is asset

Explanation

The first step in risk analysis is to assess the criticality of the assets involved. This involves determining the importance and value of the assets in order to prioritize them for further analysis. By understanding the criticality of each asset, organizations can allocate resources appropriately and focus on protecting the most important assets first.

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60. What threat level is considered a peacetime threat and increases in frequency and transitions to a wartime threat before the beginning of open hostilities or a rise in hostilities?

Explanation

Threat Level I is considered a peacetime threat that increases in frequency and transitions to a wartime threat before the beginning of open hostilities or a rise in hostilities.

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61. Selection of team movement techniques is based on

Explanation

The selection of team movement techniques is based on the likelihood of enemy contact and the need for speed. This means that the team leader must consider the possibility of encountering the enemy and the urgency of reaching their destination quickly. By assessing these factors, the leader can determine the most appropriate movement techniques for their team, ensuring they are prepared for potential threats and able to move efficiently towards their objectives.

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62. What are the most common types of reconnaissance patrols?

Explanation

The most common types of reconnaissance patrols are area, route, and zone. Area patrols are conducted to gather information about a specific area, such as terrain features or enemy positions. Route patrols are conducted along a specific route to gather information about the route itself and any potential obstacles or threats. Zone patrols are conducted to gather information about a larger area or zone, such as a specific sector of a battlefield. These types of patrols are commonly used in military operations to gather intelligence and assess the enemy's capabilities and intentions.

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63. What is the center of the protractor circle from where all directions are measured called?

Explanation

The center of the protractor circle is called the index mark. This is the point from where all directions are measured on the protractor. It serves as a reference point for aligning angles and determining their measurements. The index mark is usually marked with a small dot or a line on the protractor, and it helps in accurately measuring and drawing angles.

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64. The easiest method for measuring distance in a straight line is to use a.

Explanation

The easiest method for measuring distance in a straight line is to use a ruler. A ruler provides a straight edge that can be aligned with the two points being measured, allowing for an accurate measurement of the distance between them. A compass is used to draw circles or arcs, not measure straight distances. A protractor is used to measure angles, not distances. Tick marks are typically used for marking points or making small measurements, but they are not as accurate or reliable as a ruler for measuring straight distances.

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65. Which method lets you locate an unknown point using at least two known positions on the ground?

Explanation

Intersection is the method that allows you to locate an unknown point using at least two known positions on the ground. This method involves drawing lines from the known positions to the unknown point and finding the point where the lines intersect. By using the principles of geometry, the exact location of the unknown point can be determined. Resection and modified resection are methods used to determine the position of an observer, while the straightedge method is a technique for drawing straight lines.

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66. Which method lets you locate your position on a map by converting a grid azimuth to a back azimuth of at least two well-defined locations pinpointed on the map?

Explanation

Resection is the method that allows you to locate your position on a map by converting a grid azimuth to a back azimuth of at least two well-defined locations pinpointed on the map. This involves taking bearings to two or more known locations, measuring the angles between those bearings and the back azimuths, and then using trigonometry to determine the intersection point, which represents your current position. This method is commonly used in land navigation and orienteering to determine one's location on a map.

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67. Which organization normally assigns graphic control measures?

Explanation

The Base Defense Operations Center (BDOC) is responsible for assigning graphic control measures. These measures are used to coordinate and control the movement and positioning of forces during military operations. The BDOC ensures that the appropriate measures are assigned to maintain situational awareness and prevent friendly fire incidents. The other options, such as Flight, Squadron, and Command post, may have their own roles and responsibilities, but they do not typically handle the assignment of graphic control measures.

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68. What threat level assessment indicates anti-US terrorists are operationally active and use large casualty-producing attacks as their preferred method of operation?

Explanation

The threat level assessment of "significant" indicates that anti-US terrorists are actively operating and prefer to carry out large casualty-producing attacks. This means that these terrorists pose a major threat to the United States and its interests, and their attacks are likely to result in significant harm and casualties.

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69. Who must review the installation entry procedures for legal sufficiency?

Explanation

The Staff Judge Advocate is responsible for reviewing the installation entry procedures for legal sufficiency. They are knowledgeable in legal matters and ensure that the procedures comply with all applicable laws and regulations. This review is important to ensure that the installation entry procedures are legally sound and protect the rights of individuals. The Installation Commander, Defense Force Commander, and Air Force Office of Investigation may have their own roles and responsibilities, but the ultimate responsibility for reviewing the installation entry procedures lies with the Staff Judge Advocate.

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70. To plot a grid coordinate on a topographical map, you read it from

Explanation

When plotting a grid coordinate on a topographical map, you read it from left to right and from bottom to top. This means that you start by identifying the horizontal grid line (left to right) and then move vertically to determine the vertical grid line (bottom to top). This method ensures that you accurately locate the point on the map based on its coordinates.

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71. What is the Defense Advanced Global Positioning System Receiver's (DAGR) primary function?

Explanation

The Defense Advanced Global Positioning System Receiver (DAGR) is primarily designed to navigate through terrain using stored waypoint position information. This means that it can help users determine their current location and navigate to specific waypoints or destinations by providing accurate positioning information. It does not have the functions mentioned in the other options such as operating in different vehicles, performing waypoint calculations, data transfer, targeting, determining jamming sources, gun laying, or man overboard.

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72. You can find the sheet name of a map in the

Explanation

The correct answer is a. center of the top margin and on the lower left area margin. This answer suggests that the sheet name of a map can be found in two locations: the center of the top margin and the lower left area margin. This implies that the sheet name is prominently displayed in two easily visible areas of the map.

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73. If countries do not use the English alphabet, a combatant command-wide standard for spelling names should be set by the

Explanation

If countries do not use the English alphabet, it would be important to establish a standard for spelling names across the combatant command. This standard should be set by non-DoD agencies, as they would have expertise in dealing with different languages and alphabets. Non-DoD agencies would be better equipped to understand the nuances and complexities of spelling names in non-English alphabets, ensuring consistency and accuracy across the command.

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74. The Defense Advanced Global Positioning System Receiver (DAGR) provides the user position,

Explanation

The Defense Advanced Global Positioning System Receiver (DAGR) provides the user with velocity, time reporting, and navigation capabilities. This means that it can determine the speed at which the user is moving, provide accurate timing information, and assist in navigating to a desired location. It does not provide air speed or jamming detection capabilities, nor does it have communication functions. Therefore, option b is the correct answer.

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75. What threat level consists of guerrilla forces, unconventional warfare forces, or small tactical units?

Explanation

Threat Level II consists of guerrilla forces, unconventional warfare forces, or small tactical units.

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76. During bounding overwatch the bounding team should not move more than how many meters forward of the overwatching team?

Explanation

During bounding overwatch, the bounding team should not move more than 150 meters forward of the overwatching team. This distance ensures that the bounding team stays within a reasonable range for the overwatching team to provide effective cover and support. Moving too far ahead could potentially leave the bounding team vulnerable to enemy fire without adequate protection from the overwatching team.

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77. What type of reconnaissance patrols involves a directed effort to obtain detailed information on all routes, obstacles, terrain, and enemy forces within a defined sector?

Explanation

Zone reconnaissance patrols involve a directed effort to obtain detailed information on all routes, obstacles, terrain, and enemy forces within a defined sector. This type of patrol focuses on gathering comprehensive information about a specific area, allowing for a thorough understanding of the terrain, enemy positions, and potential obstacles that may be encountered. By conducting a zone reconnaissance patrol, military forces can gather critical intelligence to inform their operational planning and decision-making processes.

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78. An azimuth is defined as a

Explanation

An azimuth is a horizontal angle measured clockwise from a north base line. It is used in navigation and surveying to determine the direction of a point relative to a reference line. This reference line is usually the north-south axis, and the azimuth is measured in degrees. By using azimuths, one can accurately describe the direction of an object or location in relation to a fixed reference point.

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79. Who must approve each installation localized integrated defense plan (IDP)?

Explanation

The installation commander must approve each installation localized integrated defense plan (IDP). This makes sense as the installation commander is responsible for the overall security and defense of the installation. They have the authority and knowledge to review and approve the IDP, ensuring that it aligns with the specific needs and requirements of the installation. The approval from the installation commander ensures that the IDP is effectively implemented and coordinated with other defense measures in place.

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80. Contour lines are the most common method of showing

Explanation

Contour lines are lines that connect points of equal elevation on a map. They are used to represent the shape and elevation of the land surface, showing the relief or variation in height. By analyzing the contour lines, one can determine the steepness of slopes, identify ridges and valleys, and understand the overall topography of an area. Therefore, contour lines are primarily used to depict both relief (the difference in height between the highest and lowest points) and elevation on a standard topographic map.

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What Desired Effect is achieved through threat-and-effects-based...
How long has the US military been called upon to defeat insurgencies?
What type of agency is created by a formal agreement between two or...
Which fire team movement is the primary formation used by a fire team?
Which agency is the most notable intergovernmental organization (IGO)...
What are the two types of ambushes?
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Aerial ports of debarkation, border crossings, and seaports of...
What does the color code yellow indicate when calling in a LACE...
What is the first step in navigating using terrain association?
Which target indicator is among the most difficult for the enemy to...
Who primarily uses alternate fighting positions?
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Which agency is the lead for domestic terrorism within the US?
What terrorist threat level factor focuses on the attack method used...
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What will insurgents resort to if they cannot persuade locals to help...
Joint doctrine defines a nongovernmental organization (NGO) as a
When is the bounding overwatch movement technique used?
How do you perform the hand and arm signal for Line Formation?
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What convoy movement formation can be used to block third party...
How close will a six-digit refined grid coordinate get you to the...
Personnel assigned to the Priority II priority category should be...
Based on the terrain, vegetation, and visibility, leaders establish en...
What is the most common means of giving fire commands?
Machine gunners fire at groups of five or more targets when in the
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Which agency is the lead for terrorist incidents that occur outside...
The first step in risk analysis is asset
What threat level is considered a peacetime threat and increases in...
Selection of team movement techniques is based on
What are the most common types of reconnaissance patrols?
What is the center of the protractor circle from where all directions...
The easiest method for measuring distance in a straight line is to use...
Which method lets you locate an unknown point using at least two known...
Which method lets you locate your position on a map by converting a...
Which organization normally assigns graphic control measures?
What threat level assessment indicates anti-US terrorists are...
Who must review the installation entry procedures for legal...
To plot a grid coordinate on a topographical map, you read it from
What is the Defense Advanced Global Positioning System Receiver's...
You can find the sheet name of a map in the
If countries do not use the English alphabet, a combatant command-wide...
The Defense Advanced Global Positioning System Receiver (DAGR)...
What threat level consists of guerrilla forces, unconventional warfare...
During bounding overwatch the bounding team should not move more than...
What type of reconnaissance patrols involves a directed effort to...
An azimuth is defined as a
Who must approve each installation localized integrated defense plan...
Contour lines are the most common method of showing
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