Z3p051 Edit Code 5 Vol 4

80 Questions | Total Attempts: 138

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Z3p051 Edit Code 5 Vol 4

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Questions and Answers
  • 1. 
    What analytical process is used to achieve integrated defense (ID)?
    • A. 

      A. ID Threat Risk.

    • B. 

      B. ID Principles of Risk.

    • C. 

      C. ID Risk Management.

    • D. 

      D. ID Principles of Critical.

  • 2. 
    The first step in risk analysis is asset
    • A. 

      A. risk assessment.

    • B. 

      B. threat assessment.

    • C. 

      C. criticality assessment.

    • D. 

      D. vulnerability assessment.

  • 3. 
    Who must review the installation entry procedures for legal sufficiency?
    • A. 

      A. Staff Judge Advocate.

    • B. 

      B. Installation Commander.

    • C. 

      C. Defense Force Commander.

    • D. 

      D. Air Force Office of Investigation.

  • 4. 
    Through which agency will the Base Defense Operations Center (BDOC) up-channel COVERED WAGON reportable incidents?
    • A. 

      A. Site security control.

    • B. 

      B. Security forces.

    • C. 

      C. Higher headquarters.

    • D. 

      D. Installation command post.

  • 5. 
    The jettisoning of a nuclear weapon or nuclear component is an example of a nuclear weapon
    • A. 

      A. accident.

    • B. 

      B. incident.

    • C. 

      C. mistake.

    • D. 

      D. mishap.

  • 6. 
    What does the color code yellow indicate when calling in a LACE report?
    • A. 

      A. Less than 33 percent available.

    • B. 

      B. Less than 66 percent available.

    • C. 

      C. Greater than 33 percent available.

    • D. 

      D. Greater than 66 percent available.

  • 7. 
    Personnel assigned to the Priority II priority category should be evacuated within how many hours?
    • A. 

      2

    • B. 

      4

    • C. 

      6

    • D. 

      8

  • 8. 
    Personnel assigned to the Priority III routine category should be evacuated within how many hours?
    • A. 

      6

    • B. 

      12

    • C. 

      18

    • D. 

      24

  • 9. 
    Who must approve each installation localized integrated defense plan (IDP)?
    • A. 

      A. Staff Judge Advocate.

    • B. 

      B. Installation commander.

    • C. 

      C. Defense force commander.

    • D. 

      D. Air Force Office of Investigation.

  • 10. 
    Who determines what posts are not staffed during funding or personnel shortages?
    • A. 

      A. Flight chief.

    • B. 

      B. Operations officer.

    • C. 

      C. Flight commander.

    • D. 

      D. Defense force commander.

  • 11. 
    How many days are the majority of security forces (SF) unit type codes (UTC) capable of existing without support?
    • A. 

      5

    • B. 

      10

    • C. 

      15

    • D. 

      20

  • 12. 
    Which type of attack may involve an insider threat?
    • A. 

      A. Standoff.

    • B. 

      B. Penetration.

    • C. 

      C. Chemical, biological.

    • D. 

      D. Information operation.

  • 13. 
    Which agency is the lead for terrorist incidents that occur outside the US?
    • A. 

      A. Department of State.

    • B. 

      B. Department of Justice.

    • C. 

      C. Department of Defense.

    • D. 

      D. Federal Bureau of Investigation.

  • 14. 
    Which agency is the lead for domestic terrorism within the US?
    • A. 

      A. Department of State.

    • B. 

      B. Department of Justice.

    • C. 

      c. Department of Defense.

    • D. 

      D. Federal Bureau of Investigation.

  • 15. 
    What type of supporters do not actually commit violent acts but assist the terrorists by providing money, intelligence, legal, or medical services?
    • A. 

      A. Passive supporter.

    • B. 

      B. Active supporters.

    • C. 

      C. Hardcore leadership.

    • D. 

      D. Active operational cadre.

  • 16. 
    What threat level assessment indicates anti-US terrorists are operationally active and use large casualty-producing attacks as their preferred method of operation?
    • A. 

      A. Significant.

    • B. 

      B. Moderate.

    • C. 

      C. High.

    • D. 

      D. Low.

  • 17. 
    What terrorist threat level factor focuses on the attack method used by the group and other measures enhancing its effectiveness, such as a state sponsorship and ingenious use of technology?
    • A. 

      A. Activity.

    • B. 

      B. Intentions.

    • C. 

      C. Operational capability.

    • D. 

      D. Operational environment.

  • 18. 
    What threat level is considered a peacetime threat and increases in frequency and transitions to a wartime threat before the beginning of open hostilities or a rise in hostilities?
    • A. 

      A. Threat Level I.

    • B. 

      B. Threat Level II.

    • C. 

      C. Threat Level III.

    • D. 

      D. Threat Level IV.

  • 19. 
    What threat level consists of guerrilla forces, unconventional warfare forces, or small tactical units?
    • A. 

      A. Threat Level I.

    • B. 

      B. Threat Level II.

    • C. 

      C. Threat Level III.

    • D. 

      D. Threat Level IV.

  • 20. 
    What Desired Effect is achieved with lighting, intrusion detection systems, early warning systems, and closed-circuit television?
    • A. 

      A. Anticipate.

    • B. 

      B. Deter.

    • C. 

      C. Detect.

    • D. 

      D. Warn.

  • 21. 
    What Desired Effect is achieved through threat-and-effects-based planning that integrate all friendly forces into a single, comprehensive plan, ensuring friendly forces are trained and qualified on arming and use of force?
    • A. 

      A. Warn.

    • B. 

      B. Defeat.

    • C. 

      C. Delay.

    • D. 

      D. Defend.

  • 22. 
    How many random antiterrorist measures (RAM) chosen from higher force protection conditions (FPCON) are required daily?
    • A. 

      a. At least one.

    • B. 

      B. At least two.

    • C. 

      C. At least three.

    • D. 

      D. At least four.

  • 23. 
    How long has the US military been called upon to defeat insurgencies?
    • A. 

      A. Less than one century.

    • B. 

      b. Less than two centuries.

    • C. 

      C. Within the last 50 years.

    • D. 

      D. More than two centuries.

  • 24. 
    What must units develop about the area of responsibility (AOR) to include religious customs, nuances of local leaders, local culture, and terrain?
    • A. 

      A. Insurgency picture.

    • B. 

      B. Counterinsurgency picture.

    • C. 

      C. Common Operating Picture.

    • D. 

      D. Operational Environment Picture.

  • 25. 
    What will insurgents resort to if they cannot persuade locals to help or refrain from hindering them?
    • A. 

      A. Bribery.

    • B. 

      B. Coercion.

    • C. 

      C. Persuasion. .

    • D. 

      D. Encouragement

  • 26. 
    Joint doctrine defines a nongovernmental organization (NGO) as a
    • A. 

      A. government supported, self-governing, not-for profit organization.

    • B. 

      B. government supported, self-governing, for profit organization.

    • C. 

      C. private, self-governing, not-for-profit organization.

    • D. 

      D. private, self-governing, for-profit organization.

  • 27. 
    What type of agency is created by a formal agreement between two or more governments?
    • A. 

      A. Multinational corporation.

    • B. 

      B. Governmental organization.

    • C. 

      C. Host nation security council.

    • D. 

      D. Intergovernmental organization.

  • 28. 
    Which agency is the most notable intergovernmental organization (IGO) in the world?
    • A. 

      A. United Nations.

    • B. 

      B. World Health Organization.

    • C. 

      c. North Atlantic Treaty Organization.

    • D. 

      D. International Refugee Organization.

  • 29. 
    To avoid adverse effect on operations, commanders should address all sovereignty issues through the chain of command to the US
    • A. 

      A. senators.

    • B. 

      B. governors.

    • C. 

      C. ambassador.

    • D. 

      d. congressman.

  • 30. 
    Aerial ports of debarkation, border crossings, and seaports of debarkation are all examples of key
    • A. 

      A. terrain issues.

    • B. 

      B. logistical issues.

    • C. 

      C. sovereignty issues.

    • D. 

      D. transportation issues

  • 31. 
    If countries do not use the English alphabet, a combatant command-wide standard for spelling names should be set by the
    • A. 

      A. defense force commander.

    • B. 

      B. non-DoD agencies.

    • C. 

      C. local commander.

    • D. 

      D. DOD agencies.

  • 32. 
    Who primarily uses alternate fighting positions?
    • A. 

      A. Sniper.

    • B. 

      b. Rifleman.

    • C. 

      c. Grenadier.

    • D. 

      d. Crew-served weapons operator.

  • 33. 
    What illusion does the ground sloping upward method of range determination give to the observer?
    • A. 

      A. Greater distance.

    • B. 

      B. Shorter distance.

    • C. 

      C. Equal distance.

    • D. 

      D. Real distance.

  • 34. 
    Based on the terrain, vegetation, and visibility, leaders establish en route rally points every 100 to
    • A. 

      A. 500 meters.

    • B. 

      B. 400 meters.

    • C. 

      C. 300 meters.

    • D. 

      D. 200 meters.

  • 35. 
    Which organization normally assigns graphic control measures?
    • A. 

      A. Flight.

    • B. 

      B. Squadron.

    • C. 

      C. Command post.

    • D. 

      D. Base Defense Operations Center (BDOC).

  • 36. 
    What type of fire control measures do security forces (SF) flight leaders or subordinate leaders use as a means to control their defenders?
    • A. 

      A. Direct.

    • B. 

      B. Indirect.

    • C. 

      c. Sustained.

    • D. 

      d. Suppressive.

  • 37. 
    What is the most common means of giving fire commands?
    • A. 

      A. Sound.

    • B. 

      b. Visual signals.

    • C. 

      C. Airman-initiated.

    • D. 

      D. Radio communications.

  • 38. 
    What is your first course of action when caught in an assault?
    • A. 

      A. Throw hand grenades.

    • B. 

      B. Look for the enemy and return fire.

    • C. 

      C. Immediately return fire and assault the enemy.

    • D. 

      D. Immediately return fire and take a covered position.

  • 39. 
    Machine gunners fire at groups of five or more targets when in the
    • A. 

      A. secondary sector from farthest to closest.

    • B. 

      B. secondary sector from closet to farthest.

    • C. 

      C. primary sector from closest to farthest.

    • D. 

      D. primary sector from farthest to closest.

  • 40. 
    Which target indicator is among the most difficult for the enemy to avoid?
    • A. 

      A. Sound.

    • B. 

      B. Movement.

    • C. 

      C. Regularity of outline.

    • D. 

      d. Contrast with the background.

  • 41. 
    When marking targets, the more effective means of delivering accurate fire is
    • A. 

      A. spacing.

    • B. 

      B. aiming point.

    • C. 

      C. reference point.

    • D. 

      D. range determination.

  • 42. 
    The level of performance for the AN/PVS–14 depends upon the level of
    • A. 

      A. air.

    • B. 

      B. light.

    • C. 

      C. terrain.

    • D. 

      D. atmospheric pressure.

  • 43. 
    On the AN/PVS–14 monocular night vision device (MNVD), what component enables the operator to see azimuth readings in the monocular?
    • A. 

      A. Compass.

    • B. 

      B. Tethering cord.

    • C. 

      C. De-mist shield.

    • D. 

      D. Sacrificial window.

  • 44. 
    How should pre-combat inspections be tailored?
    • A. 

      A. Location.

    • B. 

      B. Weather conditions. .

    • C. 

      C. Number of personnel assigned.

    • D. 

      D. Specific unit and mission requirements

  • 45. 
    When should security forces (SF) perform checks of their individual issued items?
    • A. 

      A. Daily.

    • B. 

      B. Weekly.

    • C. 

      c. Bi-monthly.

    • D. 

      D. Monthly.

  • 46. 
    In tactical deployment situations, what movement technique do you use when speed is required and you cannot use the rushing technique?
    • A. 

      A. Roll.

    • B. 

      B. High crawl.

    • C. 

      C. Low crawl.

    • D. 

      D. Spider crawl.

  • 47. 
    Selection of team movement techniques is based on
    • A. 

      A. the ability of the team leader to control the team.

    • B. 

      B. likelihood of enemy contact and need for speed.

    • C. 

      c. patrol objectives.

    • D. 

      D. the enemy threat.

  • 48. 
    Which fire team movement is the primary formation used by a fire team?
    • A. 

      A. File.

    • B. 

      B. Wedge.

    • C. 

      c. Bounding.

    • D. 

      D. Traveling.

  • 49. 
    When is the bounding overwatch movement technique used?
    • A. 

      A. When speed is essential.

    • B. 

      B. When enemy contact is expected.

    • C. 

      C. When enemy contact is not likely.

    • D. 

      d. during dense vegetation or limited visibility.

  • 50. 
    During bounding overwatch the bounding team should not move more than how many meters forward of the overwatching team?
    • A. 

      50

    • B. 

      100

    • C. 

      150

    • D. 

      200

  • 51. 
    Which movement technique do you use when speed is important and contact with an adversary is not likely?
    • A. 

      A. Traveling.

    • B. 

      b. Wedge formation.

    • C. 

      C. Traveling overwatch.

    • D. 

      D. Bounding overwatch.

  • 52. 
    What are the two types of ambushes?
    • A. 

      A. Distant and near.

    • B. 

      B. Point and area.

    • C. 

      C. Area and far.

    • D. 

      D. Near and far.

  • 53. 
    What are the most common types of reconnaissance patrols?
    • A. 

      A. Area, route, and zone.

    • B. 

      B. Route, point, Intel, and traveling.

    • C. 

      c. Intel, contact, area, and zone.

    • D. 

      D. Bounding, traveling, Intel, and contact.

  • 54. 
    What type of reconnaissance patrols involves a directed effort to obtain detailed information on all routes, obstacles, terrain, and enemy forces within a defined sector?
    • A. 

      A. Route.

    • B. 

      B. Point.

    • C. 

      C. Zone.

    • D. 

      d. Area.

  • 55. 
    To perform transition to a handgun drill with a 3-point tactical sling, you must first place the rifle on
    • A. 

      A. Safe.

    • B. 

      B. Fire.

    • C. 

      c. Semi.

    • D. 

      D. Burst.

  • 56. 
    How do you perform the hand and arm signal for Attention?
    • A. 

      A. Tap the back of the helmet repeatedly with an open hand.

    • B. 

      B. Point at the palm of the hand with the index finger of the other hand.

    • C. 

      C. Extend the arm sideways, slightly above the horizontal; palm to the front; wave the arm to and from the head several times.

    • D. 

      D. Raise the hand in front of the forehead, palm to the front, and swing the hand and forearm up and down several times in front of the face.

  • 57. 
    How do you perform the hand and arm signal for Line Formation?
    • A. 

      A. Extend the arms parallel to the ground.

    • B. 

      B. Two or three movements upward with the open hand, palm uppermost.

    • C. 

      C. Extend the arms overhead, palms inward, then slowly lower arms to a horizontal position.

    • D. 

      D. Raise both arms sideward to the horizontal; bend arms at the elbows and place both hands across the face, palms to front.

  • 58. 
    When processing captives, detainees, and prisoners (DCP) at collection points, which is NOT one of the principles of STRESS?
    • A. 

      a. Search.

    • B. 

      B. Tag.

    • C. 

      c. Release.

    • D. 

      D. Safeguard.

  • 59. 
    What convoy movement formation can only be used on multilane roads?
    • A. 

      A. File.

    • B. 

      B. Offset.

    • C. 

      C. Staggered.

    • D. 

      d. Inverted (T).

  • 60. 
    What convoy movement formation can be used to block third party traffic and assist in changing lanes?
    • A. 

      A. File.

    • B. 

      b. Offset.

    • C. 

      C. Staggered.

    • D. 

      d. Inverted (T).

  • 61. 
    Where will drivers position themselves during a short halt?
    • A. 

      A. Front of vehicle.

    • B. 

      B. Remain in vehicle.

    • C. 

      C. Left side of vehicle.

    • D. 

      D. Right side of vehicle.

  • 62. 
    Who signals for rollout after a long halt and movement commences?
    • A. 

      A. Driver.

    • B. 

      B. Vehicle commander.

    • C. 

      C. Convoy commander.

    • D. 

      D. Crew-serve weapon gunner.

  • 63. 
    You can find the sheet name of a map in the
    • A. 

      A. center of the top margin and on the lower left area margin.

    • B. 

      B. corner of the top margin and on the lower left area margin.

    • C. 

      C. corner of the upper left margin and on the right lower margin.

    • D. 

      D. center of the center margin and on the right side lower margin.

  • 64. 
    What terrain feature is a stretched out groove in the land, usually formed by streams and rivers?
    • A. 

      A. Hill.

    • B. 

      B. Saddle.

    • C. 

      C. Valley.

    • D. 

      d. Depression.

  • 65. 
    What terrain feature is a low point in the ground or a sinkhole?
    • A. 

      A. Hill.

    • B. 

      B. Saddle.

    • C. 

      C. Valley.

    • D. 

      D. Depression.

  • 66. 
    What terrain feature is a short, continuous sloping line of higher ground, normally jutting out from the side of a ridge?
    • A. 

      A. Cut.

    • B. 

      B. Spur.

    • C. 

      C. Cliff.

    • D. 

      D. Draw.

  • 67. 
    Contour lines are the most common method of showing
    • A. 

      A. location of a ridge.

    • B. 

      B. location anywhere on a map.

    • C. 

      C. elevation in relation to the water.

    • D. 

      d. relief and elevation on a standard topographic map.

  • 68. 
    What does an index contour line show when going from a lower to upper contour line?
    • A. 

      A. Fading in elevation.

    • B. 

      B. Increase in elevation.

    • C. 

      C. Decrease in elevation.

    • D. 

      D. No change in elevation

  • 69. 
    To plot a grid coordinate on a topographical map, you read it from
    • A. 

      A. right to left; bottom to top.

    • B. 

      B. right to left; top to bottom.

    • C. 

      C. left to right; top to bottom.

    • D. 

      D. left to right; bottom to top.

  • 70. 
    How close will a six-digit refined grid coordinate get you to the point you want to identify?
    • A. 

      A. 10 meters.

    • B. 

      B. 100 meters.

    • C. 

      C. 1,000 meters.

    • D. 

      D. 10,000 meters.

  • 71. 
    An azimuth is defined as a
    • A. 

      A. vertical line measured up or down.

    • B. 

      B. diagonal angle measured clockwise for the centerline.

    • C. 

      C. horizontal angle measured clockwise from a north base line.

    • D. 

      d. horizontal angle measured counter clockwise from south base line.

  • 72. 
    What is the center of the protractor circle from where all directions are measured called?
    • A. 

      A. Mils.

    • B. 

      B. Square.

    • C. 

      C. Degrees.

    • D. 

      D. Index mark.

  • 73. 
    The easiest method for measuring distance in a straight line is to use a.
    • A. 

      A ruler.

    • B. 

      B. a compass.

    • C. 

      C. a protractor.

    • D. 

      D. the tick marks.

  • 74. 
    Which method lets you locate an unknown point using at least two known positions on the ground?
    • A. 

      a. Resection.

    • B. 

      b. Intersection.

    • C. 

      C. Modified resection.

    • D. 

      D. Straightedge method.

  • 75. 
    Which method lets you locate your position on a map by converting a grid azimuth to a back azimuth of at least two well-defined locations pinpointed on the map?
    • A. 

      A. Resection.

    • B. 

      B. Intersection.

    • C. 

      C. Modified resection.

    • D. 

      D. Straightedge method.

  • 76. 
    What is the first step in navigating using terrain association?
    • A. 

      A. Determine direction of the declination diagram.

    • B. 

      b. Convert magnetic azimuth to a grid azimuth.

    • C. 

      c. Convert grid azimuth to a back azimuth.

    • D. 

      D. Orient your map.

  • 77. 
    What direction is always the first shadow mark when using the shadow-tip method?
    • A. 

      A. North.

    • B. 

      B. South.

    • C. 

      C. West.

    • D. 

      D. East.

  • 78. 
    The Defense Advanced Global Positioning System Receiver (DAGR) provides the user position,
    • A. 

      A. air speed, time reporting, and navigation capabilities.

    • B. 

      B. velocity, time reporting, and navigation capabilities.

    • C. 

      C. jamming detector, time reporting, and navigation capabilities.

    • D. 

      D. communication, time reporting, and navigation capabilities.

  • 79. 
    What is the Defense Advanced Global Positioning System Receiver’s (DAGR) primary function?
    • A. 

      A. Operate in ground facilities, air, sea, and land vehicles.

    • B. 

      B. Operate waypoint calculations, data transfer, and targeting.

    • C. 

      C. Determine jamming sources, gun laying, and man overboard.

    • D. 

      D. Navigate through terrain using stored waypoint position information.

  • 80. 
    Which Defense Advanced Global Positioning System Receiver (DAGR) mode reduces power usage but does not track satellites?
    • A. 

      A. Fix.

    • B. 

      b. Average.

    • C. 

      C. Standby.

    • D. 

      d. Continuous.