Z3p051 Edit Code 5 Vol 4

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Quizzes Created: 4 | Total Attempts: 754

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1/80 Questions

What analytical process is used to achieve integrated defense (ID)?
- A. ID Threat Risk.
- B. ID Principles of Risk.
- C. ID Risk Management.
- D. ID Principles of Critical.

About This Quiz

Z3P051 EDIT CODE 5 VOL 4 quiz assesses knowledge in integrated defense and risk management within Air Force operations. It covers legal reviews, incident reporting, and nuclear safety, focusing on critical skills for military personnel.

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2.

The first step in risk analysis is asset
- A. risk assessment.
- B. threat assessment.
- C. criticality assessment.
- D. vulnerability assessment.
Correct Answer

A. C. criticality assessment.

Explanation

The first step in risk analysis is to assess the criticality of the assets involved. This involves determining the importance and value of the assets in order to prioritize them for further analysis. By understanding the criticality of each asset, organizations can allocate resources appropriately and focus on protecting the most important assets first.

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3.

Who must review the installation entry procedures for legal sufficiency?
- A. Staff Judge Advocate.
- B. Installation Commander.
- C. Defense Force Commander.
- D. Air Force Office of Investigation.
Correct Answer

A. A. Staff Judge Advocate.

Explanation

The Staff Judge Advocate is responsible for reviewing the installation entry procedures for legal sufficiency. They are knowledgeable in legal matters and ensure that the procedures comply with all applicable laws and regulations. This review is important to ensure that the installation entry procedures are legally sound and protect the rights of individuals. The Installation Commander, Defense Force Commander, and Air Force Office of Investigation may have their own roles and responsibilities, but the ultimate responsibility for reviewing the installation entry procedures lies with the Staff Judge Advocate.

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4.

Through which agency will the Base Defense Operations Center (BDOC) up-channel COVERED WAGON reportable incidents?
- A. Site security control.
- B. Security forces.
- C. Higher headquarters.
- D. Installation command post.
Correct Answer

A. D. Installation command post.

Explanation

The Base Defense Operations Center (BDOC) will up-channel COVERED WAGON reportable incidents through the Installation Command Post. This means that any reportable incidents will be reported to the command post at the installation level. The command post is responsible for coordinating and managing the overall operations and security of the installation, making it the appropriate agency to handle these incidents.

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0
5.

The jettisoning of a nuclear weapon or nuclear component is an example of a nuclear weapon
- A. accident.
- B. incident.
- C. mistake.
- D. mishap.
Correct Answer

A. A. accident.

Explanation

The jettisoning of a nuclear weapon or nuclear component implies an unplanned or unintended event, which aligns with the definition of an accident. Accidents refer to unexpected and unintentional events that result in damage or harm. In this context, the jettisoning of a nuclear weapon would be considered an accident as it involves the unintentional release or disposal of a dangerous weapon or component.

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6.

What does the color code yellow indicate when calling in a LACE report?
- A. Less than 33 percent available.
- B. Less than 66 percent available.
- C. Greater than 33 percent available.
- D. Greater than 66 percent available.
Correct Answer

A. C. Greater than 33 percent available.

Explanation

The color code yellow in a LACE report indicates that more than 33 percent is available.

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7.

Personnel assigned to the Priority II priority category should be evacuated within how many hours?
- 2
- 4
- 6
- 8
Correct Answer

A. 4

Explanation

Personnel assigned to the Priority II priority category should be evacuated within 4 hours. This suggests that these individuals are considered to be in a moderately urgent situation, requiring prompt evacuation but not immediate emergency response. Evacuating within 4 hours allows for timely response and ensures the safety and well-being of the personnel in this category.

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8.

Personnel assigned to the Priority III routine category should be evacuated within how many hours?
- 6
- 12
- 18
- 24
Correct Answer

A. 24

Explanation

Personnel assigned to the Priority III routine category should be evacuated within 24 hours. This means that they are not in immediate danger and can be evacuated within a reasonable timeframe. Evacuating them within 24 hours ensures their safety and allows for proper planning and coordination of resources.

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9.

Who must approve each installation localized integrated defense plan (IDP)?
- A. Staff Judge Advocate.
- B. Installation commander.
- C. Defense force commander.
- D. Air Force Office of Investigation.
Correct Answer

A. B. Installation commander.

Explanation

The installation commander must approve each installation localized integrated defense plan (IDP). This makes sense as the installation commander is responsible for the overall security and defense of the installation. They have the authority and knowledge to review and approve the IDP, ensuring that it aligns with the specific needs and requirements of the installation. The approval from the installation commander ensures that the IDP is effectively implemented and coordinated with other defense measures in place.

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10.

Who determines what posts are not staffed during funding or personnel shortages?
- A. Flight chief.
- B. Operations officer.
- C. Flight commander.
- D. Defense force commander.
Correct Answer

A. D. Defense force commander.

Explanation

During funding or personnel shortages, it is the responsibility of the Defense Force Commander to determine what posts are not staffed. This is because the Defense Force Commander is in charge of overseeing and managing the overall operations and resources of the defense force. They have the authority and knowledge to assess the situation and make decisions regarding the allocation of personnel and funding based on the needs and priorities of the organization.

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11.

How many days are the majority of security forces (SF) unit type codes (UTC) capable of existing without support?
- 5
- 10
- 15
- 20
Correct Answer

A. 5

Explanation

The majority of security forces (SF) unit type codes (UTC) are capable of existing without support for 5 days. This means that these units have enough resources, training, and equipment to operate independently for a period of 5 days without requiring any external assistance or support.

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12.

Which type of attack may involve an insider threat?
- A. Standoff.
- B. Penetration.
- C. Chemical, biological.
- D. Information operation.
Correct Answer

A. B. Penetration.

Explanation

An insider threat refers to a situation where someone within an organization poses a risk to its security or assets. In the context of this question, a penetration attack involves an unauthorized individual gaining access to a system or network by exploiting vulnerabilities. This type of attack can certainly be carried out by an insider who has knowledge of the system's weaknesses and may exploit them for personal gain or malicious intent.

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13.

Which agency is the lead for terrorist incidents that occur outside the US?
- A. Department of State.
- B. Department of Justice.
- C. Department of Defense.
- D. Federal Bureau of Investigation.
Correct Answer

A. A. Department of State.

Explanation

The Department of State is the lead agency for terrorist incidents that occur outside the US. The Department of State is responsible for representing the US abroad and handling foreign policy issues. As such, it takes the lead in addressing and responding to terrorist incidents that occur outside of US borders. The Department of Justice is primarily responsible for enforcing federal laws and prosecuting criminals within the US, while the Department of Defense focuses on national security and military operations. The Federal Bureau of Investigation (FBI) primarily investigates and combats domestic terrorism within the US.

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14.

Which agency is the lead for domestic terrorism within the US?
- A. Department of State.
- B. Department of Justice.
- c. Department of Defense.
- D. Federal Bureau of Investigation.
Correct Answer

A. B. Department of Justice.

Explanation

The Department of Justice is the lead agency for domestic terrorism within the US because it is responsible for enforcing federal laws, including those related to terrorism. The department's mission includes preventing and investigating acts of terrorism, prosecuting individuals involved in terrorist activities, and coordinating with other agencies to ensure the safety and security of the country. This makes it the primary agency in charge of addressing domestic terrorism threats and taking appropriate legal actions against those responsible.

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15.

What type of supporters do not actually commit violent acts but assist the terrorists by providing money, intelligence, legal, or medical services?
- A. Passive supporter.
- B. Active supporters.
- C. Hardcore leadership.
- D. Active operational cadre.
Correct Answer

A. B. Active supporters.

Explanation

Active supporters are individuals who do not directly engage in violent acts but provide assistance to terrorists in various ways such as providing financial support, intelligence, legal advice, or medical services. They play a crucial role in enabling terrorist activities and helping terrorist organizations to function effectively. Unlike passive supporters who may sympathize with terrorists but do not actively contribute to their cause, active supporters actively aid and abet terrorist activities. Therefore, active supporters are the type of supporters described in the question.

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16.

What threat level assessment indicates anti-US terrorists are operationally active and use large casualty-producing attacks as their preferred method of operation?
- A. Significant.
- B. Moderate.
- C. High.
- D. Low.
Correct Answer

A. A. Significant.

Explanation

The threat level assessment of "significant" indicates that anti-US terrorists are actively operating and prefer to carry out large casualty-producing attacks. This means that these terrorists pose a major threat to the United States and its interests, and their attacks are likely to result in significant harm and casualties.

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17.

What terrorist threat level factor focuses on the attack method used by the group and other measures enhancing its effectiveness, such as a state sponsorship and ingenious use of technology?
- A. Activity.
- B. Intentions.
- C. Operational capability.
- D. Operational environment.
Correct Answer

A. C. Operational capability.

Explanation

Operational capability focuses on the attack method used by the group and other measures enhancing its effectiveness, such as state sponsorship and ingenious use of technology. This factor assesses the group's ability to carry out attacks and the resources they have at their disposal. It takes into account their access to weapons, funding, training, and technology, as well as any support they may receive from external sources. By evaluating the operational capability of a terrorist group, analysts can determine the level of threat posed by the group and the potential impact of their attacks.

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18.

What threat level is considered a peacetime threat and increases in frequency and transitions to a wartime threat before the beginning of open hostilities or a rise in hostilities?
- A. Threat Level I.
- B. Threat Level II.
- C. Threat Level III.
- D. Threat Level IV.
Correct Answer

A. A. Threat Level I.

Explanation

Threat Level I is considered a peacetime threat that increases in frequency and transitions to a wartime threat before the beginning of open hostilities or a rise in hostilities.

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19.

What threat level consists of guerrilla forces, unconventional warfare forces, or small tactical units?
- A. Threat Level I.
- B. Threat Level II.
- C. Threat Level III.
- D. Threat Level IV.
Correct Answer

A. B. Threat Level II.

Explanation

Threat Level II consists of guerrilla forces, unconventional warfare forces, or small tactical units.

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20.

What Desired Effect is achieved with lighting, intrusion detection systems, early warning systems, and closed-circuit television?
- A. Anticipate.
- B. Deter.
- C. Detect.
- D. Warn.
Correct Answer

A. C. Detect.

Explanation

The desired effect achieved with lighting, intrusion detection systems, early warning systems, and closed-circuit television is to detect any potential threats or intrusions. These systems are put in place to identify and recognize any suspicious activity or unauthorized access in order to prevent any harm or damage. They act as a means of surveillance and monitoring, allowing for quick response and intervention if any potential threats are detected.

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21.

What Desired Effect is achieved through threat-and-effects-based planning that integrate all friendly forces into a single, comprehensive plan, ensuring friendly forces are trained and qualified on arming and use of force?
- A. Warn.
- B. Defeat.
- C. Delay.
- D. Defend.
Correct Answer

A. D. Defend.

Explanation

Through threat-and-effects-based planning that integrates all friendly forces into a single, comprehensive plan and ensures their training and qualification on arming and use of force, the desired effect achieved is to defend. This means that the focus is on protecting friendly forces and their assets from any potential threats or attacks. By having a well-coordinated plan and ensuring that all forces are prepared and capable of using force if necessary, the objective is to effectively defend against any hostile actions.

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22.

How many random antiterrorist measures (RAM) chosen from higher force protection conditions (FPCON) are required daily?
- a. At least one.
- B. At least two.
- C. At least three.
- D. At least four.
Correct Answer

A. C. At least three.

Explanation

The question is asking for the minimum number of random antiterrorist measures (RAM) chosen from higher force protection conditions (FPCON) that are required daily. The correct answer is c. At least three, which means that a minimum of three RAM measures from FPCON are required daily.

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23.

How long has the US military been called upon to defeat insurgencies?
- A. Less than one century.
- b. Less than two centuries.
- C. Within the last 50 years.
- D. More than two centuries.
Correct Answer

A. D. More than two centuries.

Explanation

The US military has been called upon to defeat insurgencies for more than two centuries. This suggests that the US military has a long history of dealing with insurgencies and has gained experience in combating such conflicts over the years. The answer implies that the US military has faced and successfully addressed insurgencies in various periods throughout its history, highlighting the ongoing nature of this challenge.

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24.

What must units develop about the area of responsibility (AOR) to include religious customs, nuances of local leaders, local culture, and terrain?
- A. Insurgency picture.
- B. Counterinsurgency picture.
- C. Common Operating Picture.
- D. Operational Environment Picture.
Correct Answer

A. C. Common Operating Picture.

Explanation

Units must develop a common operating picture about the area of responsibility (AOR) to include religious customs, nuances of local leaders, local culture, and terrain. This means they need to have a comprehensive understanding of the various factors that influence the AOR, such as the religious practices followed by the local population, the preferences and characteristics of local leaders, the cultural norms and traditions, and the physical features of the terrain. By developing a common operating picture, units can effectively navigate and operate within the AOR while respecting and understanding the local context.

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25.

What will insurgents resort to if they cannot persuade locals to help or refrain from hindering them?
- A. Bribery.
- B. Coercion.
- C. Persuasion. .
- D. Encouragement
Correct Answer

A. B. Coercion.

Explanation

Insurgents will resort to coercion if they cannot persuade locals to help or refrain from hindering them. Coercion refers to the use of force or threats to compel someone to do something against their will. In this context, if insurgents are unable to convince or persuade locals to support their cause or stay out of their way, they may resort to using force or threats to achieve their objectives.

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26.

Joint doctrine defines a nongovernmental organization (NGO) as a
- A. government supported, self-governing, not-for profit organization.
- B. government supported, self-governing, for profit organization.
- C. private, self-governing, not-for-profit organization.
- D. private, self-governing, for-profit organization.
Correct Answer

A. C. private, self-governing, not-for-profit organization.

Explanation

A nongovernmental organization (NGO) is defined as a private, self-governing, not-for-profit organization. This means that an NGO is not controlled or funded by the government, operates independently, and is focused on achieving a social or humanitarian mission rather than making a profit.

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27.

What type of agency is created by a formal agreement between two or more governments?
- A. Multinational corporation.
- B. Governmental organization.
- C. Host nation security council.
- D. Intergovernmental organization.
Correct Answer

A. D. Intergovernmental organization.

Explanation

An intergovernmental organization is created by a formal agreement between two or more governments. This type of agency allows governments to work together and collaborate on issues of mutual interest, such as economic development, security, or environmental protection. Examples of intergovernmental organizations include the United Nations, the World Health Organization, and the European Union. These organizations provide a platform for member governments to discuss and coordinate policies, share information and resources, and address global challenges collectively.

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28.

Which agency is the most notable intergovernmental organization (IGO) in the world?
- A. United Nations.
- B. World Health Organization.
- c. North Atlantic Treaty Organization.
- D. International Refugee Organization.
Correct Answer

A. A. United Nations.

Explanation

The United Nations is the most notable intergovernmental organization (IGO) in the world because it is a global organization that brings together member states to promote peace, security, and cooperation. It addresses a wide range of global issues such as climate change, poverty, human rights, and international conflicts. The United Nations has a broad mandate and plays a crucial role in shaping international relations and promoting multilateralism. It is also known for its specialized agencies and programs that focus on specific areas such as health (World Health Organization), education (UNESCO), and humanitarian assistance (UNHCR).

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29.

To avoid adverse effect on operations, commanders should address all sovereignty issues through the chain of command to the US
- A. senators.
- B. governors.
- C. ambassador.
- d. congressman.
Correct Answer

A. C. ambassador.

Explanation

To avoid adverse effects on operations, commanders should address all sovereignty issues through the chain of command to the US ambassador. The ambassador represents the US government in foreign countries and is responsible for maintaining diplomatic relations. By addressing sovereignty issues through the ambassador, commanders ensure that the concerns are properly communicated and dealt with at the diplomatic level, which is crucial for maintaining good relations with the host country and avoiding any negative impact on operations. Senators, governors, and congressmen are not directly involved in diplomatic matters and may not have the authority or expertise to address sovereignty issues effectively.

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30.

Aerial ports of debarkation, border crossings, and seaports of debarkation are all examples of key
- A. terrain issues.
- B. logistical issues.
- C. sovereignty issues.
- D. transportation issues
Correct Answer

A. C. sovereignty issues.

Explanation

Aerial ports of debarkation, border crossings, and seaports of debarkation are all locations where the sovereignty of a nation is of utmost importance. These locations are points of entry and exit for goods, people, and resources, and therefore the control and regulation of these areas is crucial for a nation to exercise its sovereignty. These locations often involve customs, immigration, and security procedures, which are all related to the exercise of a nation's authority and control over its borders and territory. Therefore, these examples are all related to sovereignty issues.

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31.

If countries do not use the English alphabet, a combatant command-wide standard for spelling names should be set by the
- A. defense force commander.
- B. non-DoD agencies.
- C. local commander.
- D. DOD agencies.
Correct Answer

A. B. non-DoD agencies.

Explanation

If countries do not use the English alphabet, it would be important to establish a standard for spelling names across the combatant command. This standard should be set by non-DoD agencies, as they would have expertise in dealing with different languages and alphabets. Non-DoD agencies would be better equipped to understand the nuances and complexities of spelling names in non-English alphabets, ensuring consistency and accuracy across the command.

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32.

Who primarily uses alternate fighting positions?
- A. Sniper.
- b. Rifleman.
- c. Grenadier.
- d. Crew-served weapons operator.
Correct Answer

A. d. Crew-served weapons operator.

Explanation

Crew-served weapons operators primarily use alternate fighting positions. This is because crew-served weapons, such as heavy machine guns or mortars, require a team of operators to effectively operate and maintain them. These weapons are typically larger and heavier than individual rifles or grenades, making it necessary for the crew to use alternate fighting positions to provide cover and support while engaging the enemy.

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33.

What illusion does the ground sloping upward method of range determination give to the observer?
- A. Greater distance.
- B. Shorter distance.
- C. Equal distance.
- D. Real distance.
Correct Answer

A. A. Greater distance.

Explanation

The ground sloping upward method of range determination gives the illusion of a greater distance to the observer. This is because when the ground slopes upward, it creates an optical illusion that makes objects appear farther away than they actually are. This can be misleading for the observer, as they may perceive the distance to be greater than it actually is.

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34.

Based on the terrain, vegetation, and visibility, leaders establish en route rally points every 100 to
- A. 500 meters.
- B. 400 meters.
- C. 300 meters.
- D. 200 meters.
Correct Answer

A. B. 400 meters.

Explanation

Leaders establish en route rally points every 400 meters based on the terrain, vegetation, and visibility. This distance allows for regular check-ins and regrouping of the team, ensuring that everyone is on the same page and can maintain situational awareness. It also provides a reasonable balance between keeping the team together and making progress towards the destination.

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35.

Which organization normally assigns graphic control measures?
- A. Flight.
- B. Squadron.
- C. Command post.
- D. Base Defense Operations Center (BDOC).
Correct Answer

A. D. Base Defense Operations Center (BDOC).

Explanation

The Base Defense Operations Center (BDOC) is responsible for assigning graphic control measures. These measures are used to coordinate and control the movement and positioning of forces during military operations. The BDOC ensures that the appropriate measures are assigned to maintain situational awareness and prevent friendly fire incidents. The other options, such as Flight, Squadron, and Command post, may have their own roles and responsibilities, but they do not typically handle the assignment of graphic control measures.

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36.

What type of fire control measures do security forces (SF) flight leaders or subordinate leaders use as a means to control their defenders?
- A. Direct.
- B. Indirect.
- c. Sustained.
- d. Suppressive.
Correct Answer

A. A. Direct.

Explanation

Security forces flight leaders or subordinate leaders use direct fire control measures as a means to control their defenders. This means that they directly engage the enemy or threat with their weapons or firepower. Direct fire control measures involve engaging the enemy with accurate and immediate fire, allowing the defenders to neutralize the threat and protect themselves or their assets. This can include actions such as engaging the enemy with small arms fire, grenades, or other direct-fire weapons.

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37.

What is the most common means of giving fire commands?
- A. Sound.
- b. Visual signals.
- C. Airman-initiated.
- D. Radio communications.
Correct Answer

A. b. Visual signals.

Explanation

Visual signals are the most common means of giving fire commands because they can be easily seen and understood by the personnel involved. They provide a clear and immediate communication method, especially in situations where sound or radio communications may not be reliable or feasible. Visual signals, such as hand gestures or flags, can be easily recognized and interpreted, making them an effective means of conveying commands and instructions in various situations.

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38.

What is your first course of action when caught in an assault?
- A. Throw hand grenades.
- B. Look for the enemy and return fire.
- C. Immediately return fire and assault the enemy.
- D. Immediately return fire and take a covered position.
Correct Answer

A. D. Immediately return fire and take a covered position.

Explanation

The correct answer is d. Immediately return fire and take a covered position. When caught in an assault, the first course of action should be to defend oneself by returning fire and finding a safe place to take cover. This will help protect oneself from further harm and give time to assess the situation and plan the next steps.

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39.

Machine gunners fire at groups of five or more targets when in the
- A. secondary sector from farthest to closest.
- B. secondary sector from closet to farthest.
- C. primary sector from closest to farthest.
- D. primary sector from farthest to closest.
Correct Answer

A. D. primary sector from farthest to closest.

Explanation

Machine gunners fire at groups of five or more targets when in the primary sector from farthest to closest. This means that they prioritize engaging targets that are farthest away and then work their way towards the ones that are closest. This strategy allows them to effectively suppress and eliminate threats in a systematic manner, starting with those that pose the greatest danger from a distance and then moving on to those that are closer and potentially more immediate threats.

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40.

Which target indicator is among the most difficult for the enemy to avoid?
- A. Sound.
- B. Movement.
- C. Regularity of outline.
- d. Contrast with the background.
Correct Answer

A. d. Contrast with the background.

Explanation

Contrast with the background is among the most difficult target indicator for the enemy to avoid because it refers to the difference in color, brightness, or texture between the target and its surroundings. When a target has high contrast with the background, it becomes more visible and stands out, making it harder for the enemy to conceal or camouflage themselves effectively. This makes contrast an effective indicator for detecting and targeting enemy forces.

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41.

When marking targets, the more effective means of delivering accurate fire is
- A. spacing.
- B. aiming point.
- C. reference point.
- D. range determination.
Correct Answer

A. B. aiming point.

Explanation

The most effective means of delivering accurate fire when marking targets is by using an aiming point. This means that the shooter focuses on a specific point on the target and aims their weapon at that point. By doing so, they increase the chances of hitting the target accurately. Spacing, reference point, and range determination are not directly related to delivering accurate fire when marking targets.

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42.

The level of performance for the AN/PVS–14 depends upon the level of
- A. air.
- B. light.
- C. terrain.
- D. atmospheric pressure.
Correct Answer

A. B. light.

Explanation

The AN/PVS-14 is a night vision device, and its performance is dependent on the level of light available. The device amplifies the existing light in order to provide clear visibility in low-light or dark environments. Therefore, the level of performance for the AN/PVS-14 is directly influenced by the amount of light present in the surroundings.

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43.

On the AN/PVS–14 monocular night vision device (MNVD), what component enables the operator to see azimuth readings in the monocular?
- A. Compass.
- B. Tethering cord.
- C. De-mist shield.
- D. Sacrificial window.
Correct Answer

A. A. Compass.

Explanation

The correct answer is a. Compass. The compass component on the AN/PVS-14 monocular night vision device enables the operator to see azimuth readings in the monocular. This allows the operator to determine their direction and navigate accurately in low-light or nighttime conditions. The compass provides a valuable tool for situational awareness and orientation while using the night vision device.

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44.

How should pre-combat inspections be tailored?
- A. Location.
- B. Weather conditions. .
- C. Number of personnel assigned.
- D. Specific unit and mission requirements
Correct Answer

A. D. Specific unit and mission requirements

Explanation

Pre-combat inspections should be tailored based on the specific unit and mission requirements. This means that the inspections should be customized to meet the needs and objectives of the particular unit and the mission they are about to undertake. This can include factors such as the equipment and resources needed, the specific tasks and responsibilities of the unit, and any unique challenges or considerations related to the mission. By tailoring the inspections in this way, the unit can ensure that they are adequately prepared and equipped for the specific demands of their mission.

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45.

When should security forces (SF) perform checks of their individual issued items?
- A. Daily.
- B. Weekly.
- c. Bi-monthly.
- D. Monthly.
Correct Answer

A. A. Daily.

Explanation

Security forces should perform checks of their individual issued items on a daily basis to ensure that all equipment is in proper working order and ready for use. Performing daily checks allows SF to identify any issues or malfunctions promptly and take necessary actions to rectify them. Regular checks also help maintain the overall effectiveness and readiness of the security forces, ensuring that they are prepared to respond to any potential threats or emergencies.

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46.

In tactical deployment situations, what movement technique do you use when speed is required and you cannot use the rushing technique?
- A. Roll.
- B. High crawl.
- C. Low crawl.
- D. Spider crawl.
Correct Answer

A. B. High crawl.

Explanation

In tactical deployment situations, when speed is required and the rushing technique cannot be used, the high crawl movement technique is used. The high crawl involves moving forward by keeping the upper body raised off the ground and supporting the movement with the knees and elbows. This technique allows for faster movement while still maintaining a low profile and minimizing exposure to enemy fire. The roll technique involves rolling on the ground and is not suitable for situations where speed is required. The low crawl technique involves moving forward with the entire body close to the ground, and the spider crawl technique is not a recognized movement technique in tactical deployment situations.

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47.

Selection of team movement techniques is based on
- A. the ability of the team leader to control the team.
- B. likelihood of enemy contact and need for speed.
- c. patrol objectives.
- D. the enemy threat.
Correct Answer

A. B. likelihood of enemy contact and need for speed.

Explanation

The selection of team movement techniques is based on the likelihood of enemy contact and the need for speed. This means that the team leader must consider the possibility of encountering the enemy and the urgency of reaching their destination quickly. By assessing these factors, the leader can determine the most appropriate movement techniques for their team, ensuring they are prepared for potential threats and able to move efficiently towards their objectives.

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48.

Which fire team movement is the primary formation used by a fire team?
- A. File.
- B. Wedge.
- c. Bounding.
- D. Traveling.
Correct Answer

A. B. Wedge.

Explanation

The primary formation used by a fire team is the wedge formation. This formation is characterized by a team leader at the front, followed by the rest of the team members fanning out behind in a V-shaped pattern. The wedge formation allows for good visibility and fields of fire, as well as flexibility in maneuvering and reacting to enemy threats. It also facilitates communication and coordination among team members, making it an effective formation for tactical movements.

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49.

When is the bounding overwatch movement technique used?
- A. When speed is essential.
- B. When enemy contact is expected.
- C. When enemy contact is not likely.
- d. during dense vegetation or limited visibility.
Correct Answer

A. B. When enemy contact is expected.

Explanation

The bounding overwatch movement technique is used when enemy contact is expected. This technique involves one element of a team providing covering fire while the other element moves forward. It is a cautious and coordinated approach that allows the team to maintain security while advancing towards the objective. By using this technique, the team can quickly respond to any enemy contact and minimize the risk of being caught off guard.

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