Trivia Questions Quiz On Air Force Operations, Planning And Execution!

100 Questions | Total Attempts: 34

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Trivia Questions Quiz On Air Force Operations, Planning And Execution!

The trivia Questions Quiz below is on Air Force Operations, Planning and Execution. The quiz is designed to help you see just how much you know about the duties of officers in the air force and why it is seen as one of the major armed forces. Do give it a shot and see just how much more you will learn. All the best!


Questions and Answers
  • 1. 
    Challenges and threats of those who are opposed to the United States values and interests may arise from
    • A. 

      Adversaries

    • B. 

      Dignitaries

    • C. 

      Diplomats

    • D. 

      Allies

  • 2. 
    What are the four basic instruments of national power the US relies on for its security?
    • A. 

      Informational, strategic, diplomatic, and economic

    • B. 

      Diplomatic, strategic, informational, and doctrinal

    • C. 

      Diplomatic, economic, informational, and military

    • D. 

      Economic, diplomatic, strategic, and military

  • 3. 
    The United States Armed Forces shape and employ the military instrument to defend interest and objectives guided by
    • A. 

      Demobilization planning.

    • B. 

      National security policy

    • C. 

      Mobilization planning

    • D. 

      Joint tactical policy

  • 4. 
    What presents the fundamental principle that guides the armed forces in support of national objectives and shapes the way the armed forces think about the use of the military instrument of national power?
    • A. 

      Joint force concepts

    • B. 

      Operations planning

    • C. 

      Security strategy

    • D. 

      Doctrine

  • 5. 
    What provides authoritative guidance based upon existing capabilities of our Armed Forces?
    • A. 

      Joint doctrine.

    • B. 

      Basic doctrine.

    • C. 

      Execution planning

    • D. 

      Operations planning

  • 6. 
    The type of doctrine that states the most fundamental and enduring beliefs that describe and guide the proper use of Air Forces in military action is known as
    • A. 

      Basic

    • B. 

      Joint

    • C. 

      Tactical

    • D. 

      Operational

  • 7. 
    A doctrine that guides the proper organization and employment of forces in the context of distinct objectives, force capabilities, functional areas, and environments is referred to as
    • A. 

      Basic.

    • B. 

      Joint

    • C. 

      Tactical.

    • D. 

      Operational.

  • 8. 
    Which process is considered a sequential process performed simultaneously at the strategic, operational, and tactical levels of war?
    • A. 

      Joint contingency planning.

    • B. 

      Joint operations planning

    • C. 

      Mobilization planning

    • D. 

      Deployment planning

  • 9. 
    At what level does joint operation planning involve developing military objectives and tasks to support the National Security Strategy (NSS) and developing requirements necessary to accomplish these tasks?
    • A. 

      Tactical

    • B. 

      Strategic

    • C. 

      Functional

    • D. 

      Operational

  • 10. 
    Joint operations planning is conducted within the chain of command that runs from the president through the
    • A. 

      Vice president

    • B. 

      Chief of staff.

    • C. 

      Secretary of defense

    • D. 

      Chief master sergeant of the Air Force

  • 11. 
    What are the joint operation planning activities that support the development of operations plans, concept plans, functional plans, and operation orders?
    • A. 

      Sustainment, reconstitution, mobilization, and employment

    • B. 

      Mobilization, deployment, reconstitution, and sustainment

    • C. 

      Employment, sustainment, redeployment, and reconstitution

    • D. 

      Mobilization, deployment, employment, sustainment, and redeployment

  • 12. 
    The planning process by which the armed forces or part of them are brought to a state of readiness for war or other national emergency describes which joint operation planning activity?
    • A. 

      Sustainment

    • B. 

      Mobilization

    • C. 

      Employment

    • D. 

      Reconstitution

  • 13. 
    Planning that encompasses the movement of forces and their sustainment resources from their original locations to a specific destination to conduct joint operations describes which joint operation planning activity?
    • A. 

      Redeployment.

    • B. 

      Employment.

    • C. 

      Mobilization

    • D. 

      Deployment.

  • 14. 
    The joint operation planning activity that describes how to apply military force to attain specified military objectives within an operational area is
    • A. 

      Redeployment

    • B. 

      Employment

    • C. 

      Mobilization.

    • D. 

      Deployment

  • 15. 
    What type of plan includes all required annexes, appendices, and a supporting time-phased force deployment data (TPFDD)?
    • A. 

      Concept.

    • B. 

      Operational.

    • C. 

      Functional.

    • D. 

      Supporting

  • 16. 
    A plan to develop sound operational and support concepts that can be rapidly expanded into an operation order (OPORD) if necessary describes which type of plan?
    • A. 

      Concept.

    • B. 

      Operation.

    • C. 

      Functional

    • D. 

      Supporting

  • 17. 
    Which joint and service planning system is the Department of Defense (DOD)-directed single, integrated joint command and control (C2) for conventional operation planning and execution?
    • A. 

      Deliberate and Crisis Action Planning and Execution Segment (DCAPES).

    • B. 

      Joint Operations Planning and Execution System (JOPES).

    • C. 

      Status of Resources and Training System (SORTS)

    • D. 

      War and Mobilization Plan (WMP).

  • 18. 
    Which joint and service planning system’s objective is to enable Air Force-unique operation planning process which includes associated joint policy procedures?
    • A. 

      Deliberate and Crisis Action Planning and Execution Segment (DCAPES).

    • B. 

      Joint Operations Planning and Execution System (JOPES).

    • C. 

      Status of Resources and Training System (SORTS).

    • D. 

      War and Mobilization Plan (WMP).

  • 19. 
    Which joint and service planning system provides the Air Staff, Air Force planners, and Air Force commanders with current policies, apportioned forces, and planning factors for conducting and supporting operations?
    • A. 

      Deliberate and Crisis Action Planning and Execution Segment (DCAPES)

    • B. 

      Joint Operations Planning and Execution System (JOPES).

    • C. 

      Status of Resources and Training System (SORTS).

    • D. 

      War and Mobilization Plan (WMP).

  • 20. 
    Which joint and service planning system is the single automated reporting system within the Department of Defense (DOD) functioning as the central registry of all operational units of the United States armed forces and certain foreign organizations?
    • A. 

      Deliberate and Crisis Action Planning and Execution Segment (DCAPES).

    • B. 

      Joint Operations Planning and Execution System (JOPES).

    • C. 

      Status of Resources and Training System (SORTS).

    • D. 

      War and Mobilization Plan (WMP).

  • 21. 
    Who develops procedures for administrative support of active, reserve components, and retirees?
    • A. 

      Functional directorates

    • B. 

      Functional dignitaries

    • C. 

      Functional managers

    • D. 

      Functional leaders

  • 22. 
    Which military department was not established by The National Security Act of 1947?
    • A. 

      Air Force.

    • B. 

      Marines.

    • C. 

      Army

    • D. 

      Navy

  • 23. 
    American military power plays a vital role in all of the following except
    • A. 

      Crisis.

    • B. 

      Peace

    • C. 

      Politics

    • D. 

      Conflict

  • 24. 
    The Air National Guard (ANG) is a unique institution with both
    • A. 

      Federal and state missions

    • B. 

      Federal and overseas missions

    • C. 

      State and community missions

    • D. 

      Overseas and community missions

  • 25. 
    Most Air National Guard flying units can trace their lineage back to the
    • A. 

      1910s and 20s

    • B. 

      1920s and 30s

    • C. 

      1930s and 40s.

    • D. 

      1940s and 50s.

  • 26. 
    The Reserves defend the United States through the control and exploitation of air and space by supporting what type of engagement?
    • A. 

      Regional.

    • B. 

      National.

    • C. 

      Global.

    • D. 

      Local.

  • 27. 
    The readiness of the Reserves allows for rapid expansion of the total force through what form of movement?
    • A. 

      Deployment.

    • B. 

      Employment

    • C. 

      Mobilization.

    • D. 

      Demobilization.

  • 28. 
    The Reserves bring what three things to the military environment from their civilian employment?
    • A. 

      Citizen Airmen, community connections, and personnel stability

    • B. 

      Family, personnel stability, and community connections

    • C. 

      Manpower, people, and camaraderie

    • D. 

      Talent, depth, and experience

  • 29. 
    The depth of experience the Reserve forces bring to the mission and the Air Force is an invaluable.
    • A. 

      Responsibility

    • B. 

      Commodity

    • C. 

      Opportunity.

    • D. 

      Job.

  • 30. 
    Reserve friendships and team work that develops over time provide esprit-de-corps to the unit along with what other strength?
    • A. 

      Stability

    • B. 

      Liability.

    • C. 

      Reliability

    • D. 

      Responsibility

  • 31. 
    To meet the national security challenges of the 21st century the Air and Space Expeditionary Force (AEF) concept was designed to do what for air and space forces?
    • A. 

      Train, manage, and equip.

    • B. 

      Equip, train, deploy, and sustain.

    • C. 

      Organize, train, equip, and sustain

    • D. 

      Organize, manage, train, and equip

  • 32. 
    Air and Space Expeditionary Force (AEF) concept provides trained and ready air and space forces for what type of defense?
    • A. 

      Aerial.

    • B. 

      Global.

    • C. 

      Regional.

    • D. 

      National.

  • 33. 
    The Air and Space Expeditionary Force (AEF) primary purpose is to provide
    • A. 

      War-fighter support

    • B. 

      Stability to Airmen

    • C. 

      Predictability to Airmen.

    • D. 

      Fair share tempo band support

  • 34. 
    The Air and Space Expeditionary Force (AEF) doctrine is vital to understanding how best to employ air and space power along with understanding the proper way to do what with air and space forces?
    • A. 

      Organize, present, deploy, and sustain.

    • B. 

      Organize, present, and deploy

    • C. 

      Deploy, present, and sustain

    • D. 

      Organize and sustain.

  • 35. 
    The Air Force organized its total force into how many air and space expeditionary forces?
    • A. 

      10

    • B. 

      15

    • C. 

      20

    • D. 

      25

  • 36. 
    In order for the air and space expeditionary force (AEF) to maintain a sustainable rotational rhythm, how many AEFs are tasked at any time?
    • A. 

      One

    • B. 

      Two

    • C. 

      Three

    • D. 

      Four

  • 37. 
    The goal of the Air and Space Expeditionary Force (AEF) concept is to
    • A. 

      Win the war

    • B. 

      Place capable personnel in the area of responsibility

    • C. 

      Equitably align available Air Force unit type codes (UTC) across 10 AEFs so each possesses equal capabilities.

    • D. 

      Equitably align available Air Force UTCs across 15 AEFs so each possesses equal capabilities.

  • 38. 
    When the air and space expeditionary task force is responsible for sustaining all base operating and support functions, it normally organizes as a/an
    • A. 

      Air and space expeditionary squadron

    • B. 

      Air and space expeditionary group

    • C. 

      Numbered expeditionary air force

    • D. 

      Air and expeditionary wing.

  • 39. 
    What group in the air and space expeditionary force (AEF) construct is the basic warfighting organization of the Air Force and is the building block of the air and space expeditionary task force (AETF)?
    • A. 

      Air and space expeditionary squadron

    • B. 

      Air and space expeditionary element

    • C. 

      Air and space expeditionary group

    • D. 

      Air and space expeditionary wing

  • 40. 
    Once an Airman arrives at a base, he or she is required to report to the
    • A. 

      Financial services office (FSO).

    • B. 

      Military personnel section (MPS).

    • C. 

      Medical treatment facility (MTF).

    • D. 

      Unit deployment manager (UDM).

  • 41. 
    The air and space expeditionary force (AEF) operates on a how many month life cycle?
    • A. 

      14-month

    • B. 

      18-month.

    • C. 

      20-month

    • D. 

      24-month

  • 42. 
    What agency publishes a planning order outlining various milestones necessary to staff and publish the associated Global Force Management allocation plan (GFMAP)?
    • A. 

      Air Staff.

    • B. 

      Joint Staff

    • C. 

      Headquarters Air Force (HAF).

    • D. 

      Department of Defense (DOD).

  • 43. 
    Which capability library contains a fixed capacity that at any given time identifies forces that constitute the total force that has been made available or allocated for scheduling?
    • A. 

      Unit type code (UTC).

    • B. 

      Air expeditionary force (AEF)

    • C. 

      Global Force Management (GFM).

    • D. 

      Unit manpower document (UMD).

  • 44. 
    At any given time, how many air and space expeditionary force (AEF) block(s) and or pair(s) from each tempo band is in the AEF vulnerability period?
    • A. 

      One

    • B. 

      Two

    • C. 

      Four

    • D. 

      Six

  • 45. 
    A guideline used to determine when a unit type code (UTC) must be developed is when
    • A. 

      New equipment needs to be replaced

    • B. 

      New equipment types enter the inventory

    • C. 

      No program changes occur in manpower or equipment

    • D. 

      Deployable units experience no change in either operational concept or mission

  • 46. 
    In addition to Headquarters Air Force (HAF), which agencies usually initiate the development of a unit type code (UTC)?
    • A. 

      Functional area manager (FAM), Direct Reporting Unit (DRU), and Numbered Air Force (NAF).

    • B. 

      Major command (MAJCOM), Field Operating Agency (FOA), and NAF

    • C. 

      FAM, MAJCOM, Air National Guard (ANG), FOA, and DRU

    • D. 

      ANG, FAM, MAJCOM, FOA, and NAF

  • 47. 
    What are the basic building block used in force planning and the deployment of air and space expeditionary task forces?
    • A. 

      Deliberate and Crisis Action Planning Execution Segment (DCAPES).

    • B. 

      Air and space expeditionary force mapping documents

    • C. 

      Time phased force deployment data

    • D. 

      Unit type code

  • 48. 
    Deviations to the air and space expeditionary force (AEF) construct may be implemented on a case-by-case basis with whose approval?
    • A. 

      President.

    • B. 

      Chief of staff

    • C. 

      Secretary of defense.

    • D. 

      Secretary of the Air Force

  • 49. 
    The concept of mobilization is associated with “calling up” Reserve Component forces. What does “calling up” do, if anything, to the active duty’s military capability?
    • A. 

      Increases military capability

    • B. 

      Decreases military capability

    • C. 

      Military capability stays the same

    • D. 

      Enhances the number of Reserve Component forces.

  • 50. 
    The concept of mobilization can be associated with all activities necessary for the orderly transition of both active and Reserve Component forces from peacetime to
    • A. 

      Partial mobilization

    • B. 

      Full mobilization.

    • C. 

      Wartime posture

    • D. 

      Reconstitution.

  • 51. 
    Which is not a Title 10 United States Code (Title 10 U.S.C) most often used term for mobilization?
    • A. 

      Partial.

    • B. 

      Spatial.

    • C. 

      Total.

    • D. 

      Full.

  • 52. 
    If the president or Congress expanded the active Armed Forces up to 1,000,000 members, not to exceed 24 consecutive months, they elected what type of mobilization?
    • A. 

      Full.

    • B. 

      Total.

    • C. 

      Spatial.

    • D. 

      Partial.

  • 53. 
    Which of the following is not a tenet that describes the characteristics of a successful mobilization?
    • A. 

      Having an objective

    • B. 

      Ensuring timeliness.

    • C. 

      Being subjective

    • D. 

      Being flexible

  • 54. 
    The mobilization tenet necessary to develop an appropriate response in a crisis, overcome unforeseen problems, and provide protection of the force and equipment while adapting to uncertainties and adjusting to the idea of war describes
    • A. 

      Having an objective

    • B. 

      Ensuring timeliness

    • C. 

      Being subjective

    • D. 

      Being flexible

  • 55. 
    Which mobilization tenet is achieved through rapid needs assessment, efficient mobilization procedures, and frequent exercises to test and improve procedures?
    • A. 

      Having an objective

    • B. 

      Ensuring timeliness

    • C. 

      Being subjective.

    • D. 

      Being flexible

  • 56. 
    Days that are allocated, or put aside, for use by Air Force Reserve and Air National Guard officers, noncommissioned officers, and Airmen are commonly referred to as
    • A. 

      Military personnel appropriation man-days

    • B. 

      Noncommissioned officers man-days

    • C. 

      Reserve man-days

    • D. 

      Guard man-days

  • 57. 
    Military personnel appropriations (MPA) man-day tours usually include a maximum of how many travel days?
    • A. 

      One-day

    • B. 

      Two-day.

    • C. 

      Three-day.

    • D. 

      Four-day

  • 58. 
    When performing military personnel appropriation man-days, Airmen and their families are entitled to the same medical care as active-duty personnel as long as their orders specify a period of
    • A. 

      28 days or greater

    • B. 

      29 days or greater

    • C. 

      30 days or greater

    • D. 

      31 days or greater

  • 59. 
    When the Secretary of the Air Force authorizes deactivation of an Air Reserve Component (Guard and Reserve), the authority may be delegated to the
    • A. 

      Wing commanders

    • B. 

      Squadron commanders

    • C. 

      Major command commanders

    • D. 

      Numbered Air Force commanders

  • 60. 
    The process of terminating orders, notifying individuals or units, and transferring individuals or units from federal active duty status to their previous reserve status describes
    • A. 

      Demobilization.

    • B. 

      Deactivation

    • C. 

      Separation

    • D. 

      Discharge.

  • 61. 
    In regards to special orders and travel vouchers, deactivation or demobilization is documented by using which date?
    • A. 

      Date on the mobilization orders

    • B. 

      Demobilization date authorized from tour completion by the applicable commander.

    • C. 

      Demobilization date authorized by the applicable MAJCOM on the DD Form 214.

    • D. 

      Deactivation date authorized by the secretary of the Air Force and the DD Form 214

  • 62. 
    If activated personnel experience personal, financial, or medical hardship caused by mobilization, early deactivation, or demobilization, they can request to
    • A. 

      Remain on active duty until they reach 20 years of service

    • B. 

      Remain on active duty until they reach 15 years of service

    • C. 

      Remain on active duty up to the original activation period

    • D. 

      Return to civilian status immediately

  • 63. 
    Once the military personnel section receives the hardship package, reviews the package, and requests a report individual person (RIP), how many days do they have to forward the package to the appropriate agency?
    • A. 

      Three duty days

    • B. 

      Three calendar days

    • C. 

      Five duty days

    • D. 

      Five calendar days

  • 64. 
    During natural disasters or national emergencies, the ability to quickly assess the status of Air Force Airmen, Department of the Air Force, nonappropriated funds civilians, and families is critical to resuming normal
    • A. 

      Response time.

    • B. 

      Operations.

    • C. 

      Procedures

    • D. 

      Functions.

  • 65. 
    Whose responsibility is it to make sure an up-to-date unit recall roster is maintained and forwarded to the installation command post?
    • A. 

      Installation deployment function.

    • B. 

      Personnel readiness function

    • C. 

      Unit deployment manager.

    • D. 

      Commander

  • 66. 
    Why is it important to maintain a communications-out recall roster?
    • A. 

      Local communications may be inoperative or overloaded

    • B. 

      It is easier to go and find people rather than call them on the phone

    • C. 

      The communications squadron requires a communications-out recall roster

    • D. 

      The wing commander requires all squadrons to maintain a communications-out roster

  • 67. 
    After a catastrophic event, accountability of personnel occurs within the Air Force Personnel Accountability Assessment System (AFPAAS) when
    • A. 

      Affected personnel report to their place of duty

    • B. 

      Affected personnel report their whereabouts in AFPAAS

    • C. 

      All members are notified that a natural disaster is imminent

    • D. 

      All members update, review, or change their information in AFPAAS

  • 68. 
    When announced by the Joint Staff or Air Force leadership, which crisis action team (CAT) has the responsibility to direct personnel accountability and assessment in support of real-world or exercise events?
    • A. 

      Group CAT.

    • B. 

      Air Force CAT.

    • C. 

      Wing CAT/A1.

    • D. 

      MAJCOM CAT/A1

  • 69. 
    In regards to the Air Force personnel accountability assessment system (AFPAAS), which agency serves as the primary distribution and collection point for information regarding impacted threatened personnel?
    • A. 

      HQ AFPC/DPSOA

    • B. 

      HQ AFPC/DPSIA

    • C. 

      HQ AFPC/PRC

    • D. 

      HQ A&FRC

  • 70. 
    In regards to the Air Force personnel accountability assessment system, which agency has the responsibility for scheduling case management training through the Defense Connect Online (DCO) with Space and Naval Warfare System Center (SPAWAR)?
    • A. 

      HQ AFPC/DPSOA.

    • B. 

      HQ AFPC/DPSIA.

    • C. 

      HQ AFPC/PRC.

    • D. 

      HQ A&FRC

  • 71. 
    Within the Air Force personnel accountability assessment system (AFPAAS), who has the ability and access to complete a needs assessment on behalf of Airmen or family members?
    • A. 

      Supervisor.

    • B. 

      First Sergeant

    • C. 

      Unit deployment manager

    • D. 

      Commanding officer representative

  • 72. 
    What type of evacuation plan must individuals maintain in anticipation of national crisis or natural disasters?
    • A. 

      Ready and actionable

    • B. 

      Realistic and predictable

    • C. 

      Realistic and actionable

    • D. 

      Ready and executable

  • 73. 
    The installation personnel readiness element (IPR) serves as the military personnel sections (MPS) war planner for personnel
    • A. 

      Deployments, exercises, contingencies, and rotational matters.

    • B. 

      Deployments, contingencies, and assignment limitation codes.

    • C. 

      Exercises, assignment limitation codes, and deployments

    • D. 

      Assignment limitation codes, deployments, and rotational matters

  • 74. 
    To provide the most accurate accountability, what procedures must the personnel deployment function (PDF) establish for augmenting personnel?
    • A. 

      Replacement.

    • B. 

      Transitioning.

    • C. 

      In-processing

    • D. 

      Out-processing

  • 75. 
    Who has jurisdiction over the personnel control center (PCC)?
    • A. 

      Wing/Installation commander

    • B. 

      Mission support group commander.

    • C. 

      Force support squadron commander

    • D. 

      Military personnel section commander

  • 76. 
    During an exercise, inspection, or a disaster control exercise, who serves as the personnel control center (PCC) or personnel readiness center (PRC) reporting directly to the battle staff?
    • A. 

      Command post.

    • B. 

      Group control center

    • C. 

      Military personnel section.

    • D. 

      Installation personnel readiness element

  • 77. 
    The installation personnel readiness element (IPR) provides all of the following personnel support for contingency operations (PERSCO) team training except
    • A. 

      Developing training templates for Deliberate and Crisis Action Planning Segment

    • B. 

      Training on the reclama and shortfall process and executing personnel data system updates

    • C. 

      Providing PERSCO team chief with information concerning plans, exercises, and deployments

    • D. 

      Training the PERSCO teams, personnel readiness center, and the personnel deployment function personnel to operate the Deliberate and Crisis Action Planning Segment

  • 78. 
    What document is used to monitor force build-up, identify unfilled positions, and initiate replacement actions?
    • A. 

      Employment requirements manning document

    • B. 

      Deployment requirements manning document

    • C. 

      Deployment schedule of events document

    • D. 

      Unit personnel manning document.

  • 79. 
    Maintaining accountability over all personnel on the ground and at their deployed and designated geographically separated locations, regardless of status, according to component command policies describes what type of accountability?
    • A. 

      Tasked wing.

    • B. 

      Transient

    • C. 

      Strength

    • D. 

      Unit.

  • 80. 
    Interchanging and recording of information between the individual, other agencies, and the personnel function necessary to ensure timely, accurate, and reception of personnel resources describes
    • A. 

      Personnel support.

    • B. 

      Personnel reporting

    • C. 

      Preparation of movement

    • D. 

      Preparation for deployment.

  • 81. 
    If a member’s legal, fiscal, morale, and informational needs are not being met, what responsibility is the personnelist not fulfilling?
    • A. 

      Physical health

    • B. 

      Spiritual health.

    • C. 

      Personal support

    • D. 

      Personnel development

  • 82. 
    Personnel from what organization are eligible for assignment to the personnel support for contingency operations (PERSCO) team?
    • A. 

      Services squadron.

    • B. 

      Force support squadron

    • C. 

      Mission support group

    • D. 

      Deployed logistics section

  • 83. 
    When selecting personnel for the personnel support for contingency operations (PERSCO) team, the PERSCO team chief, military personnel section, and commander must select the
    • A. 

      Least qualified personnel so they can be trained while deployed.

    • B. 

      Most junior trained personnel

    • C. 

      Most senior trained personnel

    • D. 

      Most qualified personnel

  • 84. 
    Who has overall responsibility for Air Force personnel readiness and accountability programs and directives?
    • A. 

      HQ AFPC/DPC.

    • B. 

      HQ AFPC/DPW.

    • C. 

      HQ USAF/A1PR

    • D. 

      HQ AFPC/DPWR

  • 85. 
    Which activity is considered the reach back enabler that plans and delivers versatile Air and Space power to the right place at the right time to support commander Air Force forces’ (COMAFFOR) mission needs?
    • A. 

      HQ AFPC/DPC

    • B. 

      HQ AFPC/DPW

    • C. 

      HQ USAF/A1PR

    • D. 

      HQ AFPC/DPWR

  • 86. 
    Which activity serves as the office of primary responsibility (OPR) for deployment availability codes and duty status reporting programs?
    • A. 

      HQ AFPC/DPC.

    • B. 

      HQ AFPC/DPW

    • C. 

      HQ USAF/A1PR

    • D. 

      HQ AFPC/DPWR.

  • 87. 
    Overseeing air and space expeditionary force unit type code reporting tool (ART) to ensure postured personnel unit type codes (UTC) meet all deployment capabilities is the responsibility of the
    • A. 

      Combatant command J–1 Directorate

    • B. 

      Force support squadron commander

    • C. 

      Mission support group commander

    • D. 

      Wing commander

  • 88. 
    Making sure that military personnel section (MPS) provides prompt support to deployed commanders and base personnel during contingency, wartime, exercise, and emergency operations is the responsibility of the
    • A. 

      Military personnel section commander.

    • B. 

      Force support squadron commander

    • C. 

      Chief, military personnel section

    • D. 

      Installation deployment officer

  • 89. 
    The requirements in specific contingency situations must be continuously monitored and reviewed by the
    • A. 

      Combatant commander

    • B. 

      Joint forces commander

    • C. 

      Support command personnel planner

    • D. 

      Component command personnel planner

  • 90. 
    Which phase begins once a real-world situation develops requiring Air Force personnel and resources to respond?
    • A. 

      Planning

    • B. 

      Execution

    • C. 

      Sustainment

    • D. 

      Initial arrival

  • 91. 
    During an increased readiness posture, personnel support for contingency operations (PERSCO) team members must be able to arrive at their assigned military personnel section within the timelines outlined in the
    • A. 

      Time phased force deployment data

    • B. 

      Designed operation capability response time

    • C. 

      Deployments manning requirements document

    • D. 

      Air Force Instruction 10–215, PERSCO Operations

  • 92. 
    Personnel support for contingency operations (PERSCO) team must arrive at the military personnel section (MPS) within six hours of the original alert order or deployment notification as
    • A. 

      Ready-to-perform personnel deployment function

    • B. 

      Ready-to-conduct inventory of supply kits

    • C. 

      Ready-to-deploy.

    • D. 

      Ready-to-train.

  • 93. 
    The current operations plan or concept plan should be reviewed, if available, to prepare for personnel support for contingency operations (PERSCO) team deployment requirements upon receipt of a (n)
    • A. 

      Warning order.

    • B. 

      Execution order

    • C. 

      Evacuation order

    • D. 

      Deployment order.

  • 94. 
    Who has the responsibility to ensure the equipment custodian (EC) completes an annual inventory of supplies and equipment?
    • A. 

      Chief, Military personnel section

    • B. 

      NCOIC, Installation personnel readiness element.

    • C. 

      Force support squadron unit deployment manager

    • D. 

      Personnel support for contingency operations team chief.

  • 95. 
    Equipment custodian (EC) for personnel support for contingency operation (PERSCO), logistics force packaging system (LOGFOR) equipment and Deliberate and Crisis Action Planning and Execution Segment is appointed by the
    • A. 

      Military personnel section commander.

    • B. 

      Force support squadron commander

    • C. 

      Military personnel section chief

    • D. 

      Installation deployment officer.

  • 96. 
    Which unit type code (UTC) is considered or called the personnel support for contingency operation (PERSCO) accountability team and is the only stand alone PERSCO team?
    • A. 

      RFPF1.

    • B. 

      RFPF2.

    • C. 

      RFPF3

    • D. 

      RFPF4.

  • 97. 
    It is imperative the personnel support for contingency operation team maintain a hard copy of the accountability file because
    • A. 

      The electronic information may not be correct

    • B. 

      The files management clerk requires a hard copy

    • C. 

      The TDY commander may request some accountability information

    • D. 

      Electronic information can be lost at any time due to equipment malfunction

  • 98. 
    During the reception process, the personnel support for contingency operation (PERSCO) team is required to collect what documents?
    • A. 

      Two copies of the contingency/exercise/deployment orders and a completed AF Form 245.

    • B. 

      Three copies of the contingency/exercise/deployment orders and a blank AF Form 245.

    • C. 

      Two copies of the member’s immunization letter and a completed AF Form 245.

    • D. 

      Three copies of the member’s immunization letter and a blank AF Form 245

  • 99. 
    Personnel support for contingency operation (PERSCO) team will coordinate with all deployed support agencies and become involved in the process on how, when, and where to most efficiently process personnel when the
    • A. 

      Reception control center is not established

    • B. 

      Accountability actions are under control.

    • C. 

      Need for replacement forces is low.

    • D. 

      Projected aircraft is landing.

  • 100. 
    Which phase is a transition phase from a build-up or surge phase, where the majority of the main operating force has arrived and completed in-processing actions?
    • A. 

      Planning

    • B. 

      Execution

    • C. 

      Sustainment

    • D. 

      Redeployment.