Z3D153 Volume 1 Ure (2019)
Answers double checked by council of nerds. Good as of (3/18/2019)
Questions and Answers
- 1.
Which of the following is not a function of the sections within the career field training plan (CFETP) part I?
- A.
Indicates resource constraints
- B.
Identifies the specialty training standard (STS).
- C.
Explains the purpose of the CFETP and how it is to be used.
- D.
Identifies duties and responsibilities, skill and career progression, and career field path.
Correct Answer
B. Identifies the specialty training standard (STS).Explanation
The sections within the career field training plan (CFETP) part I serve various functions such as indicating resource constraints, explaining the purpose of the CFETP and how it is to be used, and identifying duties and responsibilities, skill and career progression, and career field path. However, identifying the specialty training standard (STS) is not a function of these sections. The STS is typically a separate document that outlines the specific training requirements and standards for a particular specialty within the career field.Rate this question:
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- 2.
Which of the following is not a requirement for upgrade to 3D153?
- A.
Obtaining flight chief approval for the award of Air Force Specialty Code (AFSC) 3D153.
- B.
Completing Cyberspace Support career development course (CDC) 3DX5X.
- C.
Completing Radio Frequency (RF) Transmission Systems CDC 3D153
- D.
Completing all core tasks identified for 5 skill-level.
Correct Answer
A. Obtaining flight chief approval for the award of Air Force Specialty Code (AFSC) 3D153.Explanation
The correct answer is "Obtaining flight chief approval for the award of Air Force Specialty Code (AFSC) 3D153." This is because flight chief approval is not a requirement for upgrading to 3D153. The other options, completing the Cyberspace Support career development course, completing the Radio Frequency (RF) Transmission Systems CDC, and completing all core tasks identified for the 5 skill-level, are all requirements for the upgrade.Rate this question:
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- 3.
Which 3D career field installs, supports, and maintains servers or other computer systems
- A.
Knowledge Operations Management (3D0X1).
- B.
Cyber Systems Operations (3D0X2).
- C.
Spectrum Operations (3D1X2)
- D.
Cyber Surety (3D0X3)
Correct Answer
B. Cyber Systems Operations (3D0X2).Explanation
Cyber Systems Operations (3D0X2) is the correct answer because this career field involves the installation, support, and maintenance of servers or other computer systems. This job requires expertise in managing and troubleshooting computer networks, ensuring their smooth operation and security. Knowledge Operations Management (3D0X1) involves managing information and records, while Spectrum Operations (3D1X2) deals with operating and maintaining communication systems. Cyber Surety (3D0X3) focuses on ensuring the security and integrity of computer systems.Rate this question:
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- 4.
Which 3D career field deploys, sustains, troubleshoots and repairs voice, data and video network infrastructure systems, Internet protocol (IP) detection systems and cryptographic equipment?
- A.
Radio Frequency Transmission Systems (3D1X3).
- B.
Cyber Transport Systems (3D1X2).
- C.
Spectrum Operations (3D1X4).
- D.
Client Systems (3D1X1).
Correct Answer
B. Cyber Transport Systems (3D1X2).Explanation
Cyber Transport Systems (3D1X2) is the correct answer because this career field involves deploying, sustaining, troubleshooting, and repairing voice, data, and video network infrastructure systems, as well as internet protocol detection systems and cryptographic equipment. This job requires expertise in maintaining and securing network systems, making it a suitable choice for individuals interested in working with network infrastructure and cybersecurity.Rate this question:
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- 5.
What outlines mandatory training items that supervisors use to prepare job safety training guides (JSTG)?
- A.
Air Force Safety Outline (AFSO).
- B.
Air Force Safety Instruction (AFSI).
- C.
Job safety training outline (JSTO).
- D.
Job safety training instruction (JSTI).
Correct Answer
C. Job safety training outline (JSTO).Explanation
The correct answer is Job safety training outline (JSTO). This is because the question is asking for the document that outlines mandatory training items for supervisors to use in preparing job safety training guides. The other options, Air Force Safety Outline (AFSO), Air Force Safety Instruction (AFSI), and Job safety training instruction (JSTI), do not specifically pertain to the creation of job safety training guides. Therefore, JSTO is the most appropriate choice.Rate this question:
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- 6.
Which AF Form is used to report hazardous conditions that place Air Force personnel or property at risk?
- A.
1118.
- B.
457.
- C.
55.
- D.
3.
Correct Answer
B. 457.Explanation
The correct answer is 457. This is because AF Form 457, also known as the USAF Hazard Report, is specifically used to report hazardous conditions that could potentially endanger Air Force personnel or property. This form allows individuals to document and report any unsafe conditions, near misses, or accidents, ensuring that appropriate actions can be taken to mitigate risks and prevent future incidents.Rate this question:
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- 7.
Which hazard is caused by heavy workloads, lack of control over the pace of work, shift work, noise, working by yourself, and conflict with coworkers and employers?
- A.
Biological.
- B.
Chemical.
- C.
Physical.
- D.
Stress.
Correct Answer
D. Stress.Explanation
The given factors such as heavy workloads, lack of control over the pace of work, shift work, noise, working by yourself, and conflict with coworkers and employers are all known to contribute to stress in the workplace. Stress is not a specific hazard category like biological, chemical, or physical hazards, but rather a psychological and emotional response to these various factors. It can have negative effects on an individual's mental and physical well-being, making it an important consideration in occupational health and safety.Rate this question:
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- 8.
Which Air Force program provides a means of reporting hazards that involve flight, ground, weapons, or space safety?
- A.
Ground safety program.
- B.
Hazard reporting program.
- C.
Hazard communication program.
- D.
Ground safety mishap prevention program.
Correct Answer
B. Hazard reporting program.Explanation
The correct answer is "Hazard reporting program." This program is designed to provide a means for reporting any hazards that involve flight, ground, weapons, or space safety. It allows individuals to report any potential dangers or risks in order to prevent accidents or mishaps. This program plays a crucial role in maintaining safety and preventing any potential harm within the Air Force.Rate this question:
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- 9.
To prevent manual handling hazards, utilize team lifting when lifting items that weigh more than how many pounds?
- A.
25.
- B.
50.
- C.
75.
- D.
100.
Correct Answer
A. 25.Explanation
To prevent manual handling hazards, team lifting should be utilized when lifting items that weigh more than 25 pounds. This is because lifting heavy objects alone can put excessive strain on an individual's muscles and joints, leading to injuries such as sprains, strains, or even more severe conditions like herniated disks. By using team lifting techniques, the weight of the object can be distributed among multiple individuals, reducing the risk of injury and ensuring safe lifting practices.Rate this question:
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- 10.
The minimum milliamperes (mA) of current that result in cardiac arrest and can cause death is?
- A.
100 mA.
- B.
75 mA.
- C.
50 mA.
- D.
25 mA.
Correct Answer
C. 50 mA.Explanation
A current of 50 mA is considered the minimum milliamperes that can result in cardiac arrest and potentially cause death. This level of current can disrupt the normal electrical activity of the heart, leading to ventricular fibrillation or other life-threatening arrhythmias. It is important to note that individual factors, such as overall health and body resistance, can influence the exact threshold for cardiac arrest.Rate this question:
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- 11.
Within how many hours must a medical exam be conducted if non-ionizing radiation overexposure occurs?
- A.
24.
- B.
48.
- C.
72.
- D.
96.
Correct Answer
C. 72.Explanation
If non-ionizing radiation overexposure occurs, a medical exam must be conducted within 72 hours. This is because non-ionizing radiation can have harmful effects on the body, and prompt medical attention is necessary to assess any potential damage and provide appropriate treatment. Waiting longer than 72 hours may result in delayed diagnosis or treatment, which could worsen the health effects of overexposure. Therefore, it is crucial to conduct the medical exam within this time frame to ensure timely intervention and minimize the risk to the individual's health.Rate this question:
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- 12.
Which technical order (TO) publication series covers standard Air Force installation practices?
- A.
TO 31–20 series.
- B.
TO 61–20 series.
- C.
TO 31–10 series.
- D.
TO 61–10 series.
Correct Answer
C. TO 31–10 series.Explanation
The TO 31-10 series covers standard Air Force installation practices. This publication series provides guidelines and instructions for the installation of various equipment, systems, and infrastructure in Air Force installations. It includes information on electrical systems, plumbing, heating and cooling, construction practices, and other installation-related topics. It is a comprehensive resource for Air Force personnel involved in installation and maintenance activities.Rate this question:
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- 13.
Which section of a horizontal cable duct is used for signal and control cables?
- A.
Lower.
- B.
Upper.
- C.
Right.
- D.
Left.
Correct Answer
B. Upper.Explanation
The upper section of a horizontal cable duct is used for signal and control cables. This section is typically designated for these types of cables to ensure proper organization and separation from other types of cables. It allows for easy access and maintenance of signal and control cables, making it the appropriate choice for their installation.Rate this question:
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- 14.
Why should the number of splices be controlled during fiber optic installation?
- A.
Minimize transmission loss.
- B.
To aid in troubleshooting.
- C.
Reduce potential damage.
- D.
Prevent eavesdropping.
Correct Answer
A. Minimize transmission loss.Explanation
Controlling the number of splices during fiber optic installation is important to minimize transmission loss. Splices are points where two fiber optic cables are joined together, and each splice introduces a certain amount of signal loss. By keeping the number of splices to a minimum, the overall transmission loss can be reduced, ensuring that the signal travels efficiently and effectively through the fiber optic network. This helps to maintain the quality and reliability of the transmitted data or signals.Rate this question:
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- 15.
How are connectorized cables labeled?
- A.
The first label is placed within 6 inches of the connector and marked “TO”, and the second isplaced within one (1) inch of the first label and marked “FROM”.
- B.
The first label is placed within 6 inches of the connector and marked “TO”, and the second isplaced within two (2) inches of the first label and marked “FROM”.
- C.
The first label is placed within 12 inches of the connector and marked “TO”, and the second isplaced within one (1) inch of the first label and marked “FROM”.
- D.
The first label is placed within 12 inches of the connector and marked “TO”, and the second isplaced within two (2) inches of the first label and marked “FROM”.
Correct Answer
D. The first label is placed within 12 inches of the connector and marked “TO”, and the second isplaced within two (2) inches of the first label and marked “FROM”.Explanation
Connectorized cables are labeled by placing the first label within 12 inches of the connector and marking it as "TO". The second label is then placed within two (2) inches of the first label and marked as "FROM". This labeling system helps to clearly identify the direction and endpoints of the cable, making it easier to trace and troubleshoot connections.Rate this question:
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- 16.
Which type of label will have machine printed markings of indelible ink?
- A.
Adhesive.
- B.
Special foil.
- C.
Cable sheath.
- D.
Heat shrink tubing.
Correct Answer
A. Adhesive.Explanation
Adhesive labels are the type of labels that can have machine printed markings of indelible ink. Adhesive labels are commonly used in various industries for labeling purposes, and they can be easily printed with permanent ink that cannot be easily removed or smudged. This ensures that the markings on the labels remain clear and legible even in harsh environments or when exposed to various substances. Special foil, cable sheath, and heat shrink tubing are not typically used for machine printed markings with indelible ink.Rate this question:
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- 17.
Who determines if local checklists and/or work cards are required for equipment?
- A.
Supervisor.
- B.
Job control.
- C.
Commander.
- D.
Flight commander/chief.
Correct Answer
D. Flight commander/chief.Explanation
The flight commander/chief is responsible for determining if local checklists and/or work cards are required for equipment. They have the authority and knowledge to assess the specific needs and requirements of the equipment and ensure that appropriate checklists and work cards are in place. This role is crucial in maintaining safety and efficiency in the operation of equipment within a flight.Rate this question:
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- 18.
What are the three main functions of grounding?
- A.
Personnel safety, equipment protection, and noise reduction.
- B.
Signal amplification, personnel safety, and emissions security.
- C.
Equipment protection, signal amplification, and capacitance reaction.
- D.
Corrosion prevention, emissions security, and over-voltage protection.
Correct Answer
A. Personnel safety, equipment protection, and noise reduction.Explanation
Grounding serves three main functions: personnel safety, equipment protection, and noise reduction. Personnel safety is achieved by providing a pathway for electrical current to flow to the ground, preventing electric shocks. Equipment protection is ensured by grounding, as it helps to dissipate excess electrical energy and prevent damage to sensitive equipment. Additionally, grounding helps in reducing electrical noise or interference, thereby improving the overall performance of electrical systems.Rate this question:
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- 19.
The facility ground subsystem to uses surge arrestors is the
- A.
Earth electrode.
- B.
Fault protection.
- C.
Signal reference.
- D.
Lightning protection.
Correct Answer
D. Lightning protection.Explanation
The facility ground subsystem utilizes surge arrestors as a means of lightning protection. Surge arrestors are designed to divert excess electrical energy caused by lightning strikes away from sensitive equipment and into the ground, thus protecting the facility from potential damage. This ensures that any surge of electricity caused by a lightning strike is safely directed away from the facility, preventing electrical equipment from being damaged or destroyed.Rate this question:
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- 20.
What is the establishment of a low-impedance path between two metal surfaces?
- A.
Bonding.
- B.
Shielding.
- C.
Annealing.
- D.
Grounding.
Correct Answer
A. Bonding.Explanation
Bonding refers to the process of creating a low-impedance path between two metal surfaces. It involves connecting the surfaces together to ensure a strong and continuous electrical connection. This helps to prevent the buildup of static electricity, reduce electromagnetic interference, and improve the overall performance and safety of electrical systems. Shielding, on the other hand, involves using materials to block or reduce the transmission of electromagnetic fields. Annealing is a heat treatment process used to improve the properties of metals, while grounding refers to connecting electrical systems to the Earth to prevent electrical shocks and provide a reference point for voltage.Rate this question:
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- 21.
The RED designation is used for equipment processing
- A.
Unencrypted unclassified information.
- B.
Clear-text unclassified information.
- C.
Encrypted classified information.
- D.
Clear-text classified information.
Correct Answer
D. Clear-text classified information.Explanation
The RED designation is used for clear-text classified information. This means that the equipment processing this information does not encrypt it and the information is classified, meaning it is sensitive and requires protection.Rate this question:
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- 22.
Which electronic discharge sensitive (ESD) class has a sensitivity range from 0 – 999 volts?
- A.
Class I.
- B.
Class II.
- C.
Class III.
- D.
Class IV.
Correct Answer
A. Class I.Explanation
Class I is the correct answer because it is the only option that has a sensitivity range from 0 – 999 volts. Class II, Class III, and Class IV do not have this specific sensitivity range.Rate this question:
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- 23.
Which of these activities would generate the most electrostatic voltage?
- A.
Working at a bench.
- B.
Walking across carpet.
- C.
Walking across a vinyl floor.
- D.
Picking up a common plastic bag.
Correct Answer
B. Walking across carpet.Explanation
Walking across carpet generates the most electrostatic voltage because when we walk on carpet, our shoes rub against the carpet fibers, causing the transfer of electrons between the two surfaces. This friction creates a build-up of static electricity, resulting in a higher electrostatic voltage.Rate this question:
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- 24.
Which distinct region of the electromagnetic pulse is produced by the interactions between the weapon products and the earth’s atmosphere?
- A.
Secondary.
- B.
Radiated.
- C.
Plasma.
- D.
Source.
Correct Answer
D. Source.Explanation
The correct answer is "Source." The source region of the electromagnetic pulse is produced by the interactions between the weapon products and the earth's atmosphere. This is the area where the pulse originates from and is generated by the weapon itself.Rate this question:
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- 25.
What source region electromagnetic pulse region has a primarily vertical electromagnetic pulse electric field and what structures are affected?
- A.
Radiated; antennas and bore site feedhorns.
- B.
Plasma; antennas and bore site feedhorns.
- C.
Secondary; cables and ground wires
- D.
Source; cables and ground wires.
Correct Answer
A. Radiated; antennas and bore site feedhorns.Explanation
The correct answer is "Radiated; antennas and bore site feedhorns." This means that the electromagnetic pulse (EMP) region that originates from a source region has a primarily vertical electric field and affects antennas and bore site feedhorns. This suggests that the EMP is emitted and transmitted through the air, and when it reaches antennas and feedhorns, it can cause interference or damage to these structures.Rate this question:
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- 26.
Which of the following statements is true concerning shielding?
- A.
Cables should be of unshielded construction.
- B.
Only ventilation ports are shielded along the walls.
- C.
Sensitive equipment will be located within the shielded barrier.
- D.
All power lines supplying shielded areas do not require filters.
Correct Answer
C. Sensitive equipment will be located within the shielded barrier.Explanation
The correct answer is "Sensitive equipment will be located within the shielded barrier." This means that sensitive equipment, which is susceptible to electromagnetic interference, will be placed inside an area that is shielded to protect it from such interference. This ensures that the equipment functions properly without any external disturbances.Rate this question:
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- 27.
Little or no variations in the strength of the interfering signal when moving the receiving antenna for short distance normally indicates
- A.
Enemy jamming.
- B.
Internal interference.
- C.
Radio receiver trouble.
- D.
Unintentional interference.
Correct Answer
A. Enemy jamming.Explanation
Little or no variations in the strength of the interfering signal when moving the receiving antenna for a short distance normally indicates enemy jamming. This is because enemy jammers often use high-power signals that are transmitted from fixed locations. As a result, when the receiving antenna is moved, the distance between the jammer and the antenna changes, but the signal strength remains relatively constant. In contrast, internal interference, radio receiver trouble, and unintentional interference would typically result in varying signal strength as the antenna is moved.Rate this question:
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- 28.
What type of equipment often generates many spurious emissions?
- A.
Slow tuning receiver.
- B.
Rapid tuning receiver.
- C.
Slow tuning transmitter.
- D.
Rapid tuning transmitter.
Correct Answer
D. Rapid tuning transmitter.Explanation
Rapid tuning transmitters often generate many spurious emissions. Unlike slow tuning transmitters, which have a slower frequency adjustment process, rapid tuning transmitters can quickly change frequencies. This rapid tuning capability can result in unintended emissions outside of the desired frequency range, known as spurious emissions. These emissions can cause interference with other electronic equipment and can be a concern in certain applications, such as in radio communication systems where strict frequency control is required.Rate this question:
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- 29.
What man-made noise results from voltage surges, arcing, or corona discharges?
- A.
Relays.
- B.
Lighting.
- C.
Power line.
- D.
Switching equipment.
Correct Answer
C. Power line.Explanation
Voltage surges, arcing, and corona discharges can cause disturbances in power lines, resulting in man-made noise. These disturbances can create fluctuations in the electrical current flowing through the power lines, leading to audible noise. Therefore, the correct answer is power line.Rate this question:
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- 30.
Who is tasked to provide interference resolution support to the unified commanders?
- A.
The operator.
- B.
Joint Spectrum Center.
- C.
Installation spectrum manager.
- D.
Federal Communications Commission.
Correct Answer
B. Joint Spectrum Center.Explanation
The Joint Spectrum Center is tasked with providing interference resolution support to the unified commanders. They are responsible for managing and coordinating the use of the electromagnetic spectrum to ensure effective communication and minimize interference between military systems. This includes identifying and resolving any conflicts or issues that may arise in the spectrum usage, ultimately ensuring that the commanders have the necessary spectrum access for their operations.Rate this question:
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- 31.
Who is the focal point for emission security (EMSEC) matters at an installation?
- A.
Information security officer (IAO).
- B.
Wing information assurance office (WIAO).
- C.
Information security program manager (ISPM).
- D.
Communications and information system officer (CSO).
Correct Answer
B. Wing information assurance office (WIAO).Explanation
The correct answer is Wing information assurance office (WIAO). The WIAO is responsible for ensuring the security of information and communication systems at an installation. They are the focal point for all matters related to emission security (EMSEC), which involves protecting information systems from electromagnetic radiation that could compromise their security. The WIAO works closely with the Information Security Officer (IAO) and the Information Security Program Manager (ISPM) to implement and enforce security measures to safeguard sensitive information. The Communications and Information System Officer (CSO) may also play a role in EMSEC matters, but the WIAO is specifically designated as the focal point for this area.Rate this question:
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- 32.
What plays a major role in a conductor’s ability to minimizing compromising emanations?
- A.
Distance and angles.
- B.
Distance and separation.
- C.
Induction and grounding.
- D.
Induction and impedance.
Correct Answer
A. Distance and angles.Explanation
Distance and angles play a major role in a conductor's ability to minimize compromising emanations. By increasing the distance between the conductor and potential sources of interference, the likelihood of electromagnetic radiation and signal leakage is reduced. Additionally, adjusting the angles at which the conductor is positioned can help to further minimize the potential for compromising emanations. Therefore, both distance and angles are important factors in ensuring the security and integrity of a conductor's signals.Rate this question:
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- 33.
What secondary cell is prone to the memory effect?
- A.
Nickel cadmium.
- B.
Carbon zinc.
- C.
Lead-acid.
- D.
Lithium.
Correct Answer
A. Nickel cadmium.Explanation
Nickel cadmium (NiCd) secondary cells are prone to the memory effect. The memory effect occurs when a battery is repeatedly charged and discharged without being fully discharged. This causes the battery to "remember" the reduced capacity and only provide that amount of power in future cycles. NiCd batteries are particularly susceptible to this effect, which can significantly reduce their overall capacity and performance over time.Rate this question:
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- 34.
What power line fault category is symptomatic of a short term decrease in voltage levels?
- A.
Sag.
- B.
Spike.
- C.
Noise.
- D.
Blackout.
Correct Answer
A. Sag.Explanation
A sag is a power line fault category that is symptomatic of a short-term decrease in voltage levels. It occurs when there is a momentary drop in voltage, usually caused by a fault in the power system. This can lead to a decrease in power quality and can affect the performance of electrical equipment connected to the power line. Sags are typically characterized by a noticeable but temporary decrease in voltage levels.Rate this question:
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- 35.
What power line fault category is symptomatic of a total loss of utility power?
- A.
Sag.
- B.
Spike.
- C.
Noise.
- D.
Blackout.
Correct Answer
D. Blackout.Explanation
A blackout is a complete loss of utility power, resulting in a total absence of electricity. During a blackout, all electrical devices and systems connected to the power grid are unable to function. This is different from other power line faults such as sag, spike, or noise, which may cause temporary disruptions or fluctuations in power supply but do not result in a complete loss of utility power.Rate this question:
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- 36.
What power line fault category is more typically referred to as electromagnetic interference(EMI) and radio frequency interference (RFI)?
- A.
Sag.
- B.
Spike.
- C.
Noise.
- D.
Blackout.
Correct Answer
C. Noise.Explanation
Electromagnetic interference (EMI) and radio frequency interference (RFI) are both forms of electrical disturbances that can affect the performance of electronic devices. These disturbances are often caused by external sources such as power lines. The term "noise" is commonly used to describe these types of interference, as they manifest as unwanted signals or disturbances in the electrical system. Therefore, the correct answer is "Noise."Rate this question:
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- 37.
What type of uninterruptible power supply (UPS) has traditionally been referred to as “offline” by technicians?
- A.
Passive standby.
- B.
Line interactive.
- C.
Double conversion.
- D.
Ferro resonant standby.
Correct Answer
A. Passive standby.Explanation
Passive standby is the type of uninterruptible power supply (UPS) that has traditionally been referred to as "offline" by technicians. This type of UPS operates by allowing the connected equipment to receive power directly from the main utility source. In the event of a power outage or disturbance, the UPS switches to battery power to provide temporary backup. It is called "offline" because it is not continuously converting power and is only activated when needed, making it a more cost-effective option for certain applications.Rate this question:
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- 38.
What type of uninterruptible power supply (UPS) uses a transformer or inductor between the utility power source and the load to correct or filter some variations in input power?
- A.
Passive standby.
- B.
Line interactive.
- C.
Double conversion.
- D.
Ferro resonant standby.
Correct Answer
B. Line interactive.Explanation
A line interactive uninterruptible power supply (UPS) uses a transformer or inductor between the utility power source and the load to correct or filter some variations in input power. This type of UPS is able to regulate voltage and provide some level of power conditioning, making it suitable for protecting sensitive electronic equipment from power fluctuations. It is different from passive standby and ferro resonant standby UPSs, which do not have this feature. Double conversion UPSs, on the other hand, provide the highest level of power protection by continuously converting AC power to DC and then back to AC, ensuring a clean and stable power output.Rate this question:
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- 39.
How many phases of generator power are usually required for industrial and commercialapplications?
- A.
Single.
- B.
Double.
- C.
Three.
- D.
Four
Correct Answer
C. Three.Explanation
Industrial and commercial applications typically require three phases of generator power. This is because three-phase power offers a more balanced and efficient distribution of electrical energy compared to single or double phases. Three-phase power systems provide a constant power supply, reduce voltage drop, and allow for the operation of larger motors and equipment. Therefore, three phases of generator power are the standard requirement for industrial and commercial applications.Rate this question:
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- 40.
What are the three general categories used to produce modulation in radio frequency (RF) transmission today?
- A.
Binary amplitude shift keying, frequency shift keying, and phase shift keying.
- B.
Pulse amplitude, pulse width, and pulse position.
- C.
Amplitude, frequency, and phase.
- D.
Analog, digital and shift keying.
Correct Answer
C. Amplitude, frequency, and phase.Explanation
Amplitude, frequency, and phase are the three general categories used to produce modulation in radio frequency (RF) transmission today. Amplitude modulation (AM) involves varying the amplitude of the carrier signal to transmit information. Frequency modulation (FM) involves varying the frequency of the carrier signal. Phase modulation (PM) involves varying the phase of the carrier signal. These modulation techniques are widely used in RF transmission to encode and transmit data efficiently and reliably.Rate this question:
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- 41.
When the modulating signal and carrier signal are combined within a modulator, the output signal contains
- A.
Modulating signal, upper sideband, and lower sideband.
- B.
Carrier, upper sideband, and lower sideband.
- C.
Upper sideband and modulating signal.
- D.
Carrier and modulating signal.
Correct Answer
B. Carrier, upper sideband, and lower sideband.Explanation
When the modulating signal and carrier signal are combined within a modulator, the output signal contains the carrier signal, as well as the upper sideband and lower sideband. This is because the modulating signal modulates the carrier signal, causing it to shift in frequency and create two additional sidebands. The upper sideband is created when the carrier signal frequency is increased by the modulating signal, while the lower sideband is created when the carrier signal frequency is decreased by the modulating signal. Therefore, the correct answer is carrier, upper sideband, and lower sideband.Rate this question:
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- 42.
What factor determines the spacing of the sidebands in an amplitude modulated signal?
- A.
Amplitude of the modulating signal.
- B.
Frequency of the modulating signal.
- C.
Amplitude of the carrier signal.
- D.
Frequency of the carrier signal.
Correct Answer
B. Frequency of the modulating signal.Explanation
The spacing of the sidebands in an amplitude modulated signal is determined by the frequency of the modulating signal. As the modulating signal varies, it causes the amplitude of the carrier signal to vary, resulting in the creation of sidebands at frequencies that are multiples of the modulating signal frequency. The greater the frequency of the modulating signal, the wider the spacing between the sidebands.Rate this question:
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- 43.
The amount of effect or change that the intelligence has on the carrier in an amplitude modulated signal is expressed as the
- A.
Percent of modulation.
- B.
Modulation index.
- C.
Bandwidth.
- D.
Deviation.
Correct Answer
A. Percent of modulation.Explanation
The amount of effect or change that the intelligence has on the carrier in an amplitude modulated signal is expressed as the percent of modulation. This is because the percent of modulation represents the percentage of change in the carrier signal caused by the intelligence signal. It indicates the strength or intensity of the modulating signal in relation to the carrier signal. A higher percent of modulation means a greater impact on the carrier signal, while a lower percent of modulation means a lesser impact. Therefore, the percent of modulation is the correct answer to express the amount of effect or change in an amplitude modulated signal.Rate this question:
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- 44.
Reducing modulation to less than 100 percent gives
- A.
More total power.
- B.
A reduction in carrier power.
- C.
No reduction in carrier power.
- D.
A reduction in carrier and sideband power.
Correct Answer
C. No reduction in carrier power.Explanation
When modulation is reduced to less than 100 percent, it means that the amplitude of the modulating signal is decreased. This results in a decrease in the amplitude of the sidebands, which are the components of the signal that carry the information. However, the carrier signal, which is the unmodulated signal, remains unaffected by this reduction in modulation. Therefore, there is no reduction in the power of the carrier signal.Rate this question:
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- 45.
The output of the oscillator in a frequency modulation (FM) modulator increases in frequency with each
- A.
Positive half cycle of the carrier.
- B.
Negative half cycle of the carrier.
- C.
Positive half cycle of the modulating signal.
- D.
Negative half cycle of the modulating signal.
Correct Answer
C. Positive half cycle of the modulating signal.Explanation
In frequency modulation (FM), the frequency of the carrier signal is varied in accordance with the modulating signal. The modulating signal is responsible for changing the frequency of the carrier signal. In this case, the output of the oscillator in the FM modulator increases in frequency with each positive half cycle of the modulating signal. This means that as the modulating signal goes through its positive half cycle, the frequency of the carrier signal increases.Rate this question:
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- 46.
A 5 kilohertz (kHz) modulating signal has enough peak voltage to cause a deviation of 15 kHz. What is the modulation index?
- A.
5.
- B.
3.
- C.
0.5.
- D.
0.3.
Correct Answer
B. 3.Explanation
The modulation index is a measure of the extent of modulation in a signal. It is calculated by dividing the peak frequency deviation by the modulating signal frequency. In this case, the modulating signal frequency is 5 kHz and the peak frequency deviation is 15 kHz. Therefore, the modulation index is 15 kHz divided by 5 kHz, which equals 3. This means that the modulating signal is causing a frequency deviation that is three times the frequency of the modulating signal.Rate this question:
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- 47.
What is the narrow frequency band between adjacent stations used to prevent frequency modulated sidebands from overlapping?
- A.
Space.
- B.
Guard band.
- C.
Buffer zone.
- D.
Prevention field.
Correct Answer
B. Guard band.Explanation
A guard band is a narrow frequency band that is used to prevent frequency modulated sidebands from overlapping between adjacent stations. It acts as a buffer zone or prevention field, ensuring that there is enough space between the frequencies of different stations to avoid interference and maintain clear communication.Rate this question:
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- 48.
What is the advantage of adding more phase shifts?
- A.
Easier detection.
- B.
Smaller bit error rate.
- C.
Better signal-to-noise ratio.
- D.
Higher data rates within a given bandwidth.
Correct Answer
D. Higher data rates within a given bandwidth.Explanation
Adding more phase shifts allows for more information to be encoded within a given bandwidth. By increasing the number of phase shifts, more distinct symbols can be represented, which in turn allows for a higher data rate. This is advantageous because it enables the transmission of more data in a shorter amount of time, increasing overall efficiency and capacity of the communication system.Rate this question:
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- 49.
What is the first step in the pulse code modulation process?
- A.
Discrete amplitudes are assigned to the sampling pulses.
- B.
A binary code number is assigned to the sample.
- C.
The quantizer limits the amplitude of the pulses.
- D.
The analog signal is band limited.
Correct Answer
D. The analog signal is band limited.Explanation
The first step in the pulse code modulation process is to band limit the analog signal. This means that the signal is filtered to remove any frequencies outside of a certain range, which helps to prevent aliasing and ensure accurate sampling. Once the signal is band limited, it can then be sampled and quantized to create a digital representation.Rate this question:
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- 50.
Quantization in the pulse code modulation process is
- A.
Converting a continuous time signal into a discrete time signal.
- B.
Ensuring the input to the sampler never exceeds maximum frequency.
- C.
Placing an infinite number of amplitude values to a finite number of values.
- D.
Limiting the highest and lowest frequency encoded before it goes to the sampler.
Correct Answer
C. Placing an infinite number of amplitude values to a finite number of values.Explanation
Quantization in the pulse code modulation process involves placing an infinite number of amplitude values into a finite number of values. This means that the continuous time signal is converted into a discrete time signal by approximating the signal's amplitude to the nearest available level. This is necessary because digital systems can only represent a limited number of discrete values, so quantization helps to reduce the amount of data needed to represent the signal accurately.Rate this question:
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Mar 21, 2023Quiz Edited by
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Mar 12, 2019Quiz Created by
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