Z3D153 Volume 1 Ure (2019)

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1. Which AF Form is used to report hazardous conditions that place Air Force personnel or property at risk?

Explanation

The correct answer is 457. This is because AF Form 457, also known as the USAF Hazard Report, is specifically used to report hazardous conditions that could potentially endanger Air Force personnel or property. This form allows individuals to document and report any unsafe conditions, near misses, or accidents, ensuring that appropriate actions can be taken to mitigate risks and prevent future incidents.

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Z3D153 Volume 1 Ure (2019) - Quiz

Answers double checked by council of nerds. Good as of (3/18/2019)

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2. Which hazard is caused by heavy workloads, lack of control over the pace of work, shift work, noise, working by yourself, and conflict with coworkers and employers?

Explanation

The given factors such as heavy workloads, lack of control over the pace of work, shift work, noise, working by yourself, and conflict with coworkers and employers are all known to contribute to stress in the workplace. Stress is not a specific hazard category like biological, chemical, or physical hazards, but rather a psychological and emotional response to these various factors. It can have negative effects on an individual's mental and physical well-being, making it an important consideration in occupational health and safety.

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3. What is the establishment of a low-impedance path between two metal surfaces?

Explanation

Bonding refers to the process of creating a low-impedance path between two metal surfaces. It involves connecting the surfaces together to ensure a strong and continuous electrical connection. This helps to prevent the buildup of static electricity, reduce electromagnetic interference, and improve the overall performance and safety of electrical systems. Shielding, on the other hand, involves using materials to block or reduce the transmission of electromagnetic fields. Annealing is a heat treatment process used to improve the properties of metals, while grounding refers to connecting electrical systems to the Earth to prevent electrical shocks and provide a reference point for voltage.

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4. Which electronic discharge sensitive (ESD) class has a sensitivity range from 0 – 999 volts?

Explanation

Class I is the correct answer because it is the only option that has a sensitivity range from 0 – 999 volts. Class II, Class III, and Class IV do not have this specific sensitivity range.

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5. Which of these activities would generate the most electrostatic voltage?

Explanation

Walking across carpet generates the most electrostatic voltage because when we walk on carpet, our shoes rub against the carpet fibers, causing the transfer of electrons between the two surfaces. This friction creates a build-up of static electricity, resulting in a higher electrostatic voltage.

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6. A 5 kilohertz (kHz) modulating signal has enough peak voltage to cause a deviation of 15 kHz. What is the modulation index? 

Explanation

The modulation index is a measure of the extent of modulation in a signal. It is calculated by dividing the peak frequency deviation by the modulating signal frequency. In this case, the modulating signal frequency is 5 kHz and the peak frequency deviation is 15 kHz. Therefore, the modulation index is 15 kHz divided by 5 kHz, which equals 3. This means that the modulating signal is causing a frequency deviation that is three times the frequency of the modulating signal.

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7. Which of the following is not a requirement for upgrade to 3D153?

Explanation

The correct answer is "Obtaining flight chief approval for the award of Air Force Specialty Code (AFSC) 3D153." This is because flight chief approval is not a requirement for upgrading to 3D153. The other options, completing the Cyberspace Support career development course, completing the Radio Frequency (RF) Transmission Systems CDC, and completing all core tasks identified for the 5 skill-level, are all requirements for the upgrade.

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8. What outlines mandatory training items that supervisors use to prepare job safety training guides (JSTG)?

Explanation

The correct answer is Job safety training outline (JSTO). This is because the question is asking for the document that outlines mandatory training items for supervisors to use in preparing job safety training guides. The other options, Air Force Safety Outline (AFSO), Air Force Safety Instruction (AFSI), and Job safety training instruction (JSTI), do not specifically pertain to the creation of job safety training guides. Therefore, JSTO is the most appropriate choice.

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9. What are the three main functions of grounding?

Explanation

Grounding serves three main functions: personnel safety, equipment protection, and noise reduction. Personnel safety is achieved by providing a pathway for electrical current to flow to the ground, preventing electric shocks. Equipment protection is ensured by grounding, as it helps to dissipate excess electrical energy and prevent damage to sensitive equipment. Additionally, grounding helps in reducing electrical noise or interference, thereby improving the overall performance of electrical systems.

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10. Little or no variations in the strength of the interfering signal when moving the receiving antenna for short distance normally indicates

Explanation

Little or no variations in the strength of the interfering signal when moving the receiving antenna for a short distance normally indicates enemy jamming. This is because enemy jammers often use high-power signals that are transmitted from fixed locations. As a result, when the receiving antenna is moved, the distance between the jammer and the antenna changes, but the signal strength remains relatively constant. In contrast, internal interference, radio receiver trouble, and unintentional interference would typically result in varying signal strength as the antenna is moved.

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11. What power line fault category is symptomatic of a total loss of utility power? 

Explanation

A blackout is a complete loss of utility power, resulting in a total absence of electricity. During a blackout, all electrical devices and systems connected to the power grid are unable to function. This is different from other power line faults such as sag, spike, or noise, which may cause temporary disruptions or fluctuations in power supply but do not result in a complete loss of utility power.

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12. Which identity management process uses a fingerprint to authenticate a user? 

Explanation

Biometrics is the correct answer because it refers to the identity management process that uses a fingerprint to authenticate a user. Biometrics involves the use of unique physical or behavioral characteristics, such as fingerprints, iris patterns, or facial recognition, to verify and authenticate individuals. By comparing the fingerprint presented by a user with the stored fingerprint data, biometric systems can accurately identify and authenticate the user's identity. This method provides a high level of security and is widely used in various applications such as access control systems and mobile devices.

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13. Which threat vector is considered more of an annoyance than an attack? 

Explanation

Spam is considered more of an annoyance than an attack because it involves sending unsolicited and unwanted emails to a large number of recipients. Although spam can be a nuisance and may consume storage space and network bandwidth, it does not directly harm or compromise the security of a system or user's personal information. In contrast, viruses, spyware, and phishing attacks are designed to infiltrate systems, steal data, or cause damage, making them more serious and harmful threat vectors.

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14. What area of a digital storage oscilloscope takes digitized samples and performs numerous manipulations on the data including measuring rise and fall times, periods, time intervals, and performing math computations? 

Explanation

The microprocessors in a digital storage oscilloscope are responsible for taking digitized samples from the input signal and performing various manipulations on the data. This includes measuring rise and fall times, periods, time intervals, and performing math computations. The microprocessors are the central processing units of the oscilloscope and handle the data processing tasks. They analyze and manipulate the acquired data to provide the necessary measurements and calculations for the user.

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15. Which 3D career field deploys, sustains, troubleshoots and repairs voice, data and video network infrastructure systems, Internet protocol (IP) detection systems and cryptographic equipment?

Explanation

Cyber Transport Systems (3D1X2) is the correct answer because this career field involves deploying, sustaining, troubleshooting, and repairing voice, data, and video network infrastructure systems, as well as internet protocol detection systems and cryptographic equipment. This job requires expertise in maintaining and securing network systems, making it a suitable choice for individuals interested in working with network infrastructure and cybersecurity.

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16. Which section of a horizontal cable duct is used for signal and control cables?

Explanation

The upper section of a horizontal cable duct is used for signal and control cables. This section is typically designated for these types of cables to ensure proper organization and separation from other types of cables. It allows for easy access and maintenance of signal and control cables, making it the appropriate choice for their installation.

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17. Why should the number of splices be controlled during fiber optic installation?

Explanation

Controlling the number of splices during fiber optic installation is important to minimize transmission loss. Splices are points where two fiber optic cables are joined together, and each splice introduces a certain amount of signal loss. By keeping the number of splices to a minimum, the overall transmission loss can be reduced, ensuring that the signal travels efficiently and effectively through the fiber optic network. This helps to maintain the quality and reliability of the transmitted data or signals.

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18. The facility ground subsystem to uses surge arrestors is the

Explanation

The facility ground subsystem utilizes surge arrestors as a means of lightning protection. Surge arrestors are designed to divert excess electrical energy caused by lightning strikes away from sensitive equipment and into the ground, thus protecting the facility from potential damage. This ensures that any surge of electricity caused by a lightning strike is safely directed away from the facility, preventing electrical equipment from being damaged or destroyed.

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19. Which of the following statements is true concerning shielding? 

Explanation

The correct answer is "Sensitive equipment will be located within the shielded barrier." This means that sensitive equipment, which is susceptible to electromagnetic interference, will be placed inside an area that is shielded to protect it from such interference. This ensures that the equipment functions properly without any external disturbances.

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20. What type of uninterruptible power supply (UPS) has traditionally been referred to as "offline" by technicians?

Explanation

Passive standby is the type of uninterruptible power supply (UPS) that has traditionally been referred to as "offline" by technicians. This type of UPS operates by allowing the connected equipment to receive power directly from the main utility source. In the event of a power outage or disturbance, the UPS switches to battery power to provide temporary backup. It is called "offline" because it is not continuously converting power and is only activated when needed, making it a more cost-effective option for certain applications.

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21. What are the three general categories used to produce modulation in radio frequency (RF) transmission today? 

Explanation

Amplitude, frequency, and phase are the three general categories used to produce modulation in radio frequency (RF) transmission today. Amplitude modulation (AM) involves varying the amplitude of the carrier signal to transmit information. Frequency modulation (FM) involves varying the frequency of the carrier signal. Phase modulation (PM) involves varying the phase of the carrier signal. These modulation techniques are widely used in RF transmission to encode and transmit data efficiently and reliably.

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22. Which type of cable is the hardest to splice?

Explanation

Single mode fiber is the hardest to splice because it has a smaller core size compared to multimode fibers. This smaller core size results in a higher level of precision and expertise required during the splicing process. Additionally, single mode fibers have a lower tolerance for misalignment, making the splicing process more challenging.

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23. What physical security implementation will ensure continuous operation of critical network equipment? 

Explanation

An uninterruptible power supply (UPS) is a physical security implementation that ensures continuous operation of critical network equipment. It provides backup power in the event of a power outage or disruption, allowing the equipment to continue functioning without interruption. This is crucial for maintaining the availability and reliability of network equipment, preventing downtime and potential data loss. Data encryption, virtual private networks, and network management systems do not directly address the issue of continuous operation during power disruptions, making them less suitable for this specific purpose.

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24. When using an ohmmeter to take a resistance reading, what preliminary precaution should you take? 

Explanation

Before using an ohmmeter to take a resistance reading, it is important to disconnect the power from the circuit being tested. This precaution is necessary to ensure the safety of the person taking the reading and to prevent any potential damage to the meter or the circuit. By disconnecting the power, the risk of electric shock or short circuits is minimized, allowing for accurate and safe resistance measurements to be taken.

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25. What active test is selected to determine if a network node is connected or responding? 

Explanation

The correct answer is Packet internetwork groper (PING). PING is a commonly used network utility that sends a small packet of data to a network node and waits for a response. If a response is received, it indicates that the node is connected and responding. PING is used to test network connectivity and troubleshoot network issues.

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26. The minimum milliamperes (mA) of current that result in cardiac arrest and can cause death is?

Explanation

A current of 50 mA is considered the minimum milliamperes that can result in cardiac arrest and potentially cause death. This level of current can disrupt the normal electrical activity of the heart, leading to ventricular fibrillation or other life-threatening arrhythmias. It is important to note that individual factors, such as overall health and body resistance, can influence the exact threshold for cardiac arrest.

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27. Within how many hours must a medical exam be conducted if non-ionizing radiation overexposure occurs?

Explanation

If non-ionizing radiation overexposure occurs, a medical exam must be conducted within 72 hours. This is because non-ionizing radiation can have harmful effects on the body, and prompt medical attention is necessary to assess any potential damage and provide appropriate treatment. Waiting longer than 72 hours may result in delayed diagnosis or treatment, which could worsen the health effects of overexposure. Therefore, it is crucial to conduct the medical exam within this time frame to ensure timely intervention and minimize the risk to the individual's health.

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28. Which type of label will have machine printed markings of indelible ink?

Explanation

Adhesive labels are the type of labels that can have machine printed markings of indelible ink. Adhesive labels are commonly used in various industries for labeling purposes, and they can be easily printed with permanent ink that cannot be easily removed or smudged. This ensures that the markings on the labels remain clear and legible even in harsh environments or when exposed to various substances. Special foil, cable sheath, and heat shrink tubing are not typically used for machine printed markings with indelible ink.

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29. What power line fault category is symptomatic of a short term decrease in voltage levels? 

Explanation

A sag is a power line fault category that is symptomatic of a short-term decrease in voltage levels. It occurs when there is a momentary drop in voltage, usually caused by a fault in the power system. This can lead to a decrease in power quality and can affect the performance of electrical equipment connected to the power line. Sags are typically characterized by a noticeable but temporary decrease in voltage levels.

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30. What is the narrow frequency band between adjacent stations used to prevent frequency modulated sidebands from overlapping? 

Explanation

A guard band is a narrow frequency band that is used to prevent frequency modulated sidebands from overlapping between adjacent stations. It acts as a buffer zone or prevention field, ensuring that there is enough space between the frequencies of different stations to avoid interference and maintain clear communication.

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31. Quantization in the pulse code modulation process is  

Explanation

Quantization in the pulse code modulation process involves placing an infinite number of amplitude values into a finite number of values. This means that the continuous time signal is converted into a discrete time signal by approximating the signal's amplitude to the nearest available level. This is necessary because digital systems can only represent a limited number of discrete values, so quantization helps to reduce the amount of data needed to represent the signal accurately.

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32. What two error detection methods, when used together, are 98 percent effective in detecting errors? 

Explanation

VRC and LRC are two error detection methods that, when used together, are 98 percent effective in detecting errors. Vertical Redundancy Check (VRC) involves adding a parity bit to each character to detect errors in individual characters. Longitudinal Redundancy Check (LRC) involves adding a parity bit to each group of characters to detect errors in the overall message. By combining these two methods, errors at both the individual character level and the overall message level can be detected, resulting in a high level of effectiveness in error detection.

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33. Two types of network cables are

Explanation

The correct answer is straight through and crossover. Straight through cables are used to connect devices of different types, such as a computer to a switch or a router. The wires at one end of the cable are arranged in the same order as the wires at the other end. On the other hand, crossover cables are used to connect devices of the same type, such as a computer to another computer or a switch to another switch. The wires at one end of the cable are arranged in a different order from the wires at the other end, allowing the devices to communicate effectively.

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34. What type of error is the result of a bit not positioned where it should be? 

Explanation

Bit slip is the correct answer because it refers to the error that occurs when a bit is not positioned where it should be. This can happen in data transmission when bits are shifted or slipped out of their correct positions, resulting in errors in the received data. Cyclic redundancy check, bipolar violation, and frame are not relevant to this specific error.

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35. What test equipment combines the operations of many test instruments into a single compact unit?

Explanation

A communication service monitor combines the operations of many test instruments into a single compact unit. It is designed to perform various tests and measurements related to communication systems, including signal analysis, signal generation, modulation, demodulation, and frequency measurement. This makes it a versatile tool for testing and troubleshooting communication equipment and networks, as it eliminates the need for multiple separate instruments. A voltmeter measures voltage, an oscilloscope displays waveforms, and an impedance meter measures impedance, but none of them combine the operations of multiple test instruments into a single unit like a communication service monitor does.

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36. Which 3D career field installs, supports, and maintains servers or other computer systems

Explanation

Cyber Systems Operations (3D0X2) is the correct answer because this career field involves the installation, support, and maintenance of servers or other computer systems. This job requires expertise in managing and troubleshooting computer networks, ensuring their smooth operation and security. Knowledge Operations Management (3D0X1) involves managing information and records, while Spectrum Operations (3D1X2) deals with operating and maintaining communication systems. Cyber Surety (3D0X3) focuses on ensuring the security and integrity of computer systems.

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37. To prevent manual handling hazards, utilize team lifting when lifting items that weigh more than how many pounds?

Explanation

To prevent manual handling hazards, team lifting should be utilized when lifting items that weigh more than 25 pounds. This is because lifting heavy objects alone can put excessive strain on an individual's muscles and joints, leading to injuries such as sprains, strains, or even more severe conditions like herniated disks. By using team lifting techniques, the weight of the object can be distributed among multiple individuals, reducing the risk of injury and ensuring safe lifting practices.

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38. Which technical order (TO) publication series covers standard Air Force installation practices?

Explanation

The TO 31-10 series covers standard Air Force installation practices. This publication series provides guidelines and instructions for the installation of various equipment, systems, and infrastructure in Air Force installations. It includes information on electrical systems, plumbing, heating and cooling, construction practices, and other installation-related topics. It is a comprehensive resource for Air Force personnel involved in installation and maintenance activities.

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39. Who determines if local checklists and/or work cards are required for equipment?

Explanation

The flight commander/chief is responsible for determining if local checklists and/or work cards are required for equipment. They have the authority and knowledge to assess the specific needs and requirements of the equipment and ensure that appropriate checklists and work cards are in place. This role is crucial in maintaining safety and efficiency in the operation of equipment within a flight.

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40. What power line fault category is more typically referred to as electromagnetic interference(EMI) and radio frequency interference (RFI)?

Explanation

Electromagnetic interference (EMI) and radio frequency interference (RFI) are both forms of electrical disturbances that can affect the performance of electronic devices. These disturbances are often caused by external sources such as power lines. The term "noise" is commonly used to describe these types of interference, as they manifest as unwanted signals or disturbances in the electrical system. Therefore, the correct answer is "Noise."

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41. When using forward error control as a method of error correction, where does error correction take place?

Explanation

When using forward error control as a method of error correction, error correction takes place at the receiving end. Forward error control involves adding redundant information to the transmitted data, which allows the receiver to detect and correct errors. The receiving end analyzes the received data and compares it to the redundant information to identify and correct any errors that may have occurred during transmission. This ensures that the received data is accurate and reliable.

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42. An optical transmitter is comprised of

Explanation

The correct answer is a driver, optical source, and fiber optic pigtail. An optical transmitter is a device that converts electrical signals into optical signals for transmission through fiber optic cables. The driver is responsible for converting the electrical signals into a format suitable for the optical source, which generates the optical signals. The fiber optic pigtail is used to connect the optical source to the fiber optic cable, allowing the optical signals to be transmitted.

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43. Which device has multiport connectivity that directs data between nodes on a network?

Explanation

Routers are devices that have multiport connectivity and are designed to direct data between nodes on a network. They analyze the network's addressing scheme and determine the best path for data packets to reach their destination. Routers also provide security by creating a barrier between different networks, allowing for the filtering and control of network traffic. Therefore, routers are the correct answer for this question.

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44. Virtual private networks (VPNs) allow the AF to extend network resources across a/an 

Explanation

VPNs allow the AF to extend network resources across a public network. This means that the AF can securely access and utilize network resources from any location, even if they are not physically connected to the network. By using encryption and tunneling protocols, VPNs ensure that data transmitted over the public network remains secure and private. This allows the AF to connect to resources on the public network as if they were directly connected to it, providing flexibility and accessibility.

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45. When using a multimeter, which option should be used if the display is unreadable due to fluctuations? 

Explanation

When using a multimeter, the display hold option should be used if the display is unreadable due to fluctuations. This option allows the multimeter to freeze the reading on the display, allowing the user to easily read and record the measurement without being affected by any fluctuations in the signal. This is especially useful when dealing with rapidly changing or unstable readings.

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46. Which mode of triggering an oscilloscope causes a trace to be drawn on the screen at all times, whether there is an input signal or not? 

Explanation

The Auto mode of triggering an oscilloscope causes a trace to be drawn on the screen at all times, regardless of whether there is an input signal or not. This mode is useful when the input signal is intermittent or when the user wants to continuously monitor the waveform display. It automatically adjusts the trigger level and timebase to maintain a stable display, even in the absence of a signal.

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47. Which oscilloscope probe is essentially just a shielded piece of wire

Explanation

The correct answer is Passive 1:1. A passive 1:1 oscilloscope probe is essentially just a shielded piece of wire. It does not have any active components or amplifiers. It is used to measure signals without introducing any significant loading or distortion to the circuit under test.

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48. The Institute of Electrical and Electronics Engineers (IEEE) has recommended a ground resistance value of 

Explanation

The Institute of Electrical and Electronics Engineers (IEEE) recommends a ground resistance value of 5 ohms or less. This is because a low ground resistance is essential for the proper functioning of electrical systems. A high ground resistance can lead to voltage fluctuations, electrical noise, and safety hazards. Therefore, it is important to maintain a ground resistance value of 5 ohms or less to ensure the efficient and safe operation of electrical equipment.

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49. When transmitter decibel (dB) power is doubled, it has increased by 

Explanation

When the transmitter decibel (dB) power is doubled, it results in an increase of 3 dB. This is because the decibel scale is logarithmic, and a doubling of power corresponds to an increase of 3 dB.

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50. Which Air Force program provides a means of reporting hazards that involve flight, ground, weapons, or space safety?

Explanation

The correct answer is "Hazard reporting program." This program is designed to provide a means for reporting any hazards that involve flight, ground, weapons, or space safety. It allows individuals to report any potential dangers or risks in order to prevent accidents or mishaps. This program plays a crucial role in maintaining safety and preventing any potential harm within the Air Force.

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51. How are connectorized cables labeled?

Explanation

Connectorized cables are labeled by placing the first label within 12 inches of the connector and marking it as "TO". The second label is then placed within two (2) inches of the first label and marked as "FROM". This labeling system helps to clearly identify the direction and endpoints of the cable, making it easier to trace and troubleshoot connections.

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52. The RED designation is used for equipment processing

Explanation

The RED designation is used for clear-text classified information. This means that the equipment processing this information does not encrypt it and the information is classified, meaning it is sensitive and requires protection.

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53. What type of equipment often generates many spurious emissions?

Explanation

Rapid tuning transmitters often generate many spurious emissions. Unlike slow tuning transmitters, which have a slower frequency adjustment process, rapid tuning transmitters can quickly change frequencies. This rapid tuning capability can result in unintended emissions outside of the desired frequency range, known as spurious emissions. These emissions can cause interference with other electronic equipment and can be a concern in certain applications, such as in radio communication systems where strict frequency control is required.

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54. Who is the focal point for emission security (EMSEC) matters at an installation? 

Explanation

The correct answer is Wing information assurance office (WIAO). The WIAO is responsible for ensuring the security of information and communication systems at an installation. They are the focal point for all matters related to emission security (EMSEC), which involves protecting information systems from electromagnetic radiation that could compromise their security. The WIAO works closely with the Information Security Officer (IAO) and the Information Security Program Manager (ISPM) to implement and enforce security measures to safeguard sensitive information. The Communications and Information System Officer (CSO) may also play a role in EMSEC matters, but the WIAO is specifically designated as the focal point for this area.

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55. How many phases of generator power are usually required for industrial and commercialapplications?

Explanation

Industrial and commercial applications typically require three phases of generator power. This is because three-phase power offers a more balanced and efficient distribution of electrical energy compared to single or double phases. Three-phase power systems provide a constant power supply, reduce voltage drop, and allow for the operation of larger motors and equipment. Therefore, three phases of generator power are the standard requirement for industrial and commercial applications.

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56. In telecommunications cable, the "tip" or "primary" wire color group order is

Explanation

The "tip" or "primary" wire color group order in telecommunications cable is white, red, black, yellow, and violet.

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57. Which routing protocol do Internet backbones use? 

Explanation

Internet backbones use the Border Gateway Protocol (BGP) as their routing protocol. BGP is designed to exchange routing information between different autonomous systems (AS) on the internet. It allows routers in different ASs to communicate and make routing decisions based on the best path to reach a destination network. BGP is widely used in large-scale networks, such as internet service provider (ISP) backbones, due to its scalability, robustness, and support for policy-based routing.

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58. What software do video compression circuits use to determine the amount of change that occurs between frames? 

Explanation

Video compression circuits use compression and decompression (codec) algorithms to determine the amount of change that occurs between frames. These algorithms analyze the video data and apply various techniques to reduce redundancy and remove unnecessary information, resulting in a compressed video file. By comparing the frames and encoding the differences, the codec algorithm determines the level of change and applies appropriate compression techniques to optimize the video file size while maintaining acceptable quality.

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59. In real-time sampling, what type of interpolation is used when measuring pulse waves? 

Explanation

In real-time sampling, linear interpolation is used when measuring pulse waves. This means that the values between two consecutive samples are calculated by drawing a straight line between them. This method provides a smooth and continuous representation of the pulse wave, allowing for more accurate measurements and analysis. Other types of interpolation, such as sine interpolation or non-uniform interpolation, may be used in different scenarios depending on the specific requirements of the application. Companding, on the other hand, is a technique used for compressing and expanding the dynamic range of a signal and is not directly related to interpolation in real-time sampling.

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60. Which of the following is not a type of power level displayed by a power meter? 

Explanation

Decibels is not a type of power level displayed by a power meter. Power meters typically measure power levels in units such as dBm, watts, and milliwatts. Decibels, on the other hand, are a unit of measurement used to express the ratio between two power levels and are not a direct measurement of power.

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61. Which of the following is not a function of the sections within the career field training plan (CFETP) part I?

Explanation

The sections within the career field training plan (CFETP) part I serve various functions such as indicating resource constraints, explaining the purpose of the CFETP and how it is to be used, and identifying duties and responsibilities, skill and career progression, and career field path. However, identifying the specialty training standard (STS) is not a function of these sections. The STS is typically a separate document that outlines the specific training requirements and standards for a particular specialty within the career field.

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62. What secondary cell is prone to the memory effect? 

Explanation

Nickel cadmium (NiCd) secondary cells are prone to the memory effect. The memory effect occurs when a battery is repeatedly charged and discharged without being fully discharged. This causes the battery to "remember" the reduced capacity and only provide that amount of power in future cycles. NiCd batteries are particularly susceptible to this effect, which can significantly reduce their overall capacity and performance over time.

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63. What is the advantage of adding more phase shifts? 

Explanation

Adding more phase shifts allows for more information to be encoded within a given bandwidth. By increasing the number of phase shifts, more distinct symbols can be represented, which in turn allows for a higher data rate. This is advantageous because it enables the transmission of more data in a shorter amount of time, increasing overall efficiency and capacity of the communication system.

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64. In asynchronous transmissions, what bit is used by the receiving device to verify that the transmission was received correctly? 

Explanation

Parity is used by the receiving device in asynchronous transmissions to verify that the transmission was received correctly. Parity is a simple error-checking technique where an additional bit is added to each transmitted character. This bit is set to either 0 or 1, depending on the number of 1s in the character. The receiving device then checks if the number of 1s in the received character matches the parity bit. If they don't match, it indicates that an error occurred during transmission.

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65. What is the bandwidth of multimode step-index optical fiber cable?

Explanation

Multimode step-index optical fiber cables have a bandwidth range of 10 MHz to 100 MHz per kilometer. Bandwidth refers to the capacity of the cable to carry data or signals. In this case, the given answer indicates that the cable can transmit signals within the specified frequency range. This range is suitable for transmitting data over short distances, making it ideal for applications such as local area networks (LANs) or video transmission.

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66. What allows transportation of all active virtual LANs (VLAN) between switches using a single physical link?

Explanation

Trunks allow the transportation of all active VLANs between switches using a single physical link. Trunks are a type of network connection that can carry multiple VLANs simultaneously, allowing for efficient use of network resources. By using trunks, switches can send and receive traffic from multiple VLANs over a single connection, simplifying network management and reducing the need for multiple physical links.

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67. Which of the following is not a function that a virtual private network (VPN) concentrator performs? 

Explanation

A virtual private network (VPN) concentrator performs several functions, including managing data transfer across the tunnel, encrypting and decrypting data, and establishing tunnels. However, encapsulating data is not a function of a VPN concentrator. Encapsulation is the process of adding headers and trailers to data packets to ensure secure transmission, which is typically performed by network devices such as routers or switches.

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68. Which vulnerability preventive measure is a small piece of code that software developers create to address the flaws found in the original code of a program? 

Explanation

Patches are a small piece of code that software developers create to address the flaws found in the original code of a program. They are used to fix vulnerabilities and improve the security of the software. Patches are typically released by the software vendor and need to be applied to the software in order to protect against potential attacks or exploits. They are an important preventive measure to ensure the integrity and security of the software.

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69. Who is tasked to provide interference resolution support to the unified commanders? 

Explanation

The Joint Spectrum Center is tasked with providing interference resolution support to the unified commanders. They are responsible for managing and coordinating the use of the electromagnetic spectrum to ensure effective communication and minimize interference between military systems. This includes identifying and resolving any conflicts or issues that may arise in the spectrum usage, ultimately ensuring that the commanders have the necessary spectrum access for their operations.

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70. Reducing modulation to less than 100 percent gives 

Explanation

When modulation is reduced to less than 100 percent, it means that the amplitude of the modulating signal is decreased. This results in a decrease in the amplitude of the sidebands, which are the components of the signal that carry the information. However, the carrier signal, which is the unmodulated signal, remains unaffected by this reduction in modulation. Therefore, there is no reduction in the power of the carrier signal.

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71. In general, you should deny direct dial-in access to a network device by disabling the 

Explanation

Denying direct dial-in access to a network device is important for security purposes. The console port is typically used for local management and configuration of the device, so disabling it would prevent unauthorized access. Interface ports are used for connecting network devices, so disabling them would disrupt network connectivity. Virtual terminal ports are used for remote management, so disabling them would prevent remote access. The auxiliary port, on the other hand, is used for connecting external modems or other devices for remote access, so disabling it would effectively deny direct dial-in access to the network device.

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72. What is the first step in testing ground? 

Explanation

The first step in testing ground is to disconnect the earth electrode under test from its connection to the site. This is important because it ensures that the measurement is accurate and not influenced by any other connections or equipment. By disconnecting the earth electrode, the tester can directly measure the ground resistance without any interference.

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73. A radio frequency generator is used to 

Explanation

A radio frequency generator is used to align telemetry receivers. This means that it is used to adjust and optimize the performance of telemetry receivers, ensuring that they are properly calibrated and functioning correctly. The other options mentioned in the question, such as monitoring odd harmonics, modulating subcarrier oscillators, and checking galvanometer frequency response, are not the primary purposes or functions of a radio frequency generator.

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74. The 10:1 power ratio represented by 1 bel can also be represented by how many decibels (dB)? 

Explanation

The 10:1 power ratio represented by 1 bel can also be represented by 10 decibels (dB). The bel is a logarithmic unit used to compare power levels, and the decibel is a unit derived from the bel. Since 1 bel represents a 10:1 power ratio, each decibel represents a 1:10 ratio. Therefore, 10 decibels would represent a 10:1 power ratio, making it the correct answer.

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75. When the modulating signal and carrier signal are combined within a modulator, the output signal contains 

Explanation

When the modulating signal and carrier signal are combined within a modulator, the output signal contains the carrier signal, as well as the upper sideband and lower sideband. This is because the modulating signal modulates the carrier signal, causing it to shift in frequency and create two additional sidebands. The upper sideband is created when the carrier signal frequency is increased by the modulating signal, while the lower sideband is created when the carrier signal frequency is decreased by the modulating signal. Therefore, the correct answer is carrier, upper sideband, and lower sideband.

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76. The significance the amount of ones have in a data bit pattern when using vertical redundancy check (VRC) is that it determines 

Explanation

The significance of the amount of ones in a data bit pattern when using vertical redundancy check (VRC) is that it determines the parity. Parity refers to the property of having an even or odd number of ones in a data sequence. The VRC uses this property to detect errors in transmission by adding an extra bit (parity bit) to the data. The parity bit is set to make the total number of ones (including the parity bit) either even or odd. If the number of ones in the received data does not match the expected parity, it indicates that an error has occurred during transmission.

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77. Simple network management protocol (SNMP) is a tool used by network administrators to manage network performance, investigate and solve network problems, and help plan for 

Explanation

SNMP is a tool used by network administrators to manage network performance, investigate and solve network problems, and help plan for future growth. It allows administrators to monitor and gather information about network devices and their performance, helping them identify areas that need improvement or expansion. By using SNMP, administrators can make informed decisions about network upgrades and enhancements to accommodate the organization's future needs and growth.

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78. Which of the following is not a basic SNMP command? 

Explanation

The SNMP (Simple Network Management Protocol) is used to manage and monitor network devices. The basic SNMP commands include Write, Read, and Trap. The Write command is used to modify the configuration of network devices, the Read command is used to retrieve information from network devices, and the Trap command is used to send notifications or alerts to a network management system. However, the Get command is not a basic SNMP command. It is used to retrieve a specific value or information from a network device.

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79. What plays a major role in a conductor's ability to minimizing compromising emanations? 

Explanation

Distance and angles play a major role in a conductor's ability to minimize compromising emanations. By increasing the distance between the conductor and potential sources of interference, the likelihood of electromagnetic radiation and signal leakage is reduced. Additionally, adjusting the angles at which the conductor is positioned can help to further minimize the potential for compromising emanations. Therefore, both distance and angles are important factors in ensuring the security and integrity of a conductor's signals.

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80. The amount of effect or change that the intelligence has on the carrier in an amplitude modulated signal is expressed as the 

Explanation

The amount of effect or change that the intelligence has on the carrier in an amplitude modulated signal is expressed as the percent of modulation. This is because the percent of modulation represents the percentage of change in the carrier signal caused by the intelligence signal. It indicates the strength or intensity of the modulating signal in relation to the carrier signal. A higher percent of modulation means a greater impact on the carrier signal, while a lower percent of modulation means a lesser impact. Therefore, the percent of modulation is the correct answer to express the amount of effect or change in an amplitude modulated signal.

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81. A short section of single fiber cable that has a connector at each end is called a

Explanation

A short section of single fiber cable that has a connector at each end is called a patch cord. Patch cords are used to connect different devices or components within a network, allowing for easy and quick connections. They are commonly used in data centers, telecommunications, and computer networking to establish temporary or permanent connections between devices such as computers, switches, routers, and servers. Patch cords are designed to be durable and reliable, providing a stable and efficient connection between devices.

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82. What function is not part of the communication service monitor? 

Explanation

An analog multimeter is not part of the communication service monitor because it is used to measure electrical quantities such as voltage, current, and resistance, and does not have the capability to monitor or analyze communication signals. The other options, including the radio frequency generator, oscilloscope, and receiver, are all components commonly found in a communication service monitor and are used for different purposes such as generating signals, visualizing waveforms, and receiving and analyzing communication signals.

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83. What man-made noise results from voltage surges, arcing, or corona discharges? 

Explanation

Voltage surges, arcing, and corona discharges can cause disturbances in power lines, resulting in man-made noise. These disturbances can create fluctuations in the electrical current flowing through the power lines, leading to audible noise. Therefore, the correct answer is power line.

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84. Plug-in elements of the wattmeter are selected based on the 

Explanation

The correct answer is frequency and power to be measured. This is because the plug-in elements of the wattmeter are chosen based on the specific frequency and power levels that need to be measured. Different frequencies and power levels require different plug-in elements to accurately measure the wattage.

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85. What operational capability of the communication service monitor produce sine, square and triangle waveforms? 

Explanation

The operational capability of a communication service monitor that produces sine, square, and triangle waveforms is the function generator. A function generator is a versatile electronic device that can generate various types of waveforms, including sine waves, square waves, and triangle waves. It is commonly used in testing and troubleshooting electronic circuits and communication systems.

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86. If an error should occur, what transmission is lost in an synchronous transmission? 

Explanation

In synchronous transmission, data is sent in blocks. If an error occurs during transmission, it means that one block of data is lost. This can happen due to various reasons such as noise, interference, or a problem in the transmission medium. The loss of a block of data can result in errors or missing information at the receiving end.

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87. What type of error is the result of two successive logic one pulses of the same polarity that violates alternate mark inversion coding rules? 

Explanation

A bipolar violation is the result of two successive logic one pulses of the same polarity that violates alternate mark inversion coding rules. In alternate mark inversion coding, logic one pulses are represented by alternating positive and negative voltage levels. However, if two successive logic one pulses of the same polarity occur, it violates this coding rule and is known as a bipolar violation. This can lead to errors in data transmission and reception.

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88. What component on a protocol analyzer process the frames based on the selected test and user configuration inputs? 

Explanation

The central processing unit (CPU) on a protocol analyzer is responsible for processing the frames based on the selected test and user configuration inputs. It performs the necessary calculations and operations to analyze the frames and extract relevant information. The CPU is the main component that handles the processing and execution of instructions in a protocol analyzer, making it the correct answer in this case.

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89. What active test is selected to see the path that the packets are traveling and the time it takes the packets to compete the trip? 

Explanation

The correct answer is "Trace route." Trace route is a network diagnostic tool used to track the path that packets are taking from one network to another. It shows the routers or hops that the packets pass through and the time it takes for the packets to complete the trip. PING is used to test network connectivity and measure round-trip time, while a traffic generator and route generator are not specifically designed to trace the path of packets.

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90. What component of a protocol analyzer stores all frames based on the user configuration inputs? 

Explanation

A protocol analyzer is a tool used to capture and analyze network traffic. One of its key features is the ability to store frames for later analysis. This storage is done in a component called a buffer. The buffer stores all frames based on the user's configuration inputs, allowing them to capture and examine specific packets of interest. The buffer acts as a temporary storage space, ensuring that no packets are lost during high network traffic situations.

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91. What source region electromagnetic pulse region has a primarily vertical electromagnetic pulse electric field and what structures are affected? 

Explanation

The correct answer is "Radiated; antennas and bore site feedhorns." This means that the electromagnetic pulse (EMP) region that originates from a source region has a primarily vertical electric field and affects antennas and bore site feedhorns. This suggests that the EMP is emitted and transmitted through the air, and when it reaches antennas and feedhorns, it can cause interference or damage to these structures.

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92. What type of uninterruptible power supply (UPS) uses a transformer or inductor between the utility power source and the load to correct or filter some variations in input power?

Explanation

A line interactive uninterruptible power supply (UPS) uses a transformer or inductor between the utility power source and the load to correct or filter some variations in input power. This type of UPS is able to regulate voltage and provide some level of power conditioning, making it suitable for protecting sensitive electronic equipment from power fluctuations. It is different from passive standby and ferro resonant standby UPSs, which do not have this feature. Double conversion UPSs, on the other hand, provide the highest level of power protection by continuously converting AC power to DC and then back to AC, ensuring a clean and stable power output.

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93. What is the first step in the pulse code modulation process? 

Explanation

The first step in the pulse code modulation process is to band limit the analog signal. This means that the signal is filtered to remove any frequencies outside of a certain range, which helps to prevent aliasing and ensure accurate sampling. Once the signal is band limited, it can then be sampled and quantized to create a digital representation.

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94. The output of the oscillator in a frequency modulation (FM) modulator increases in frequency with each 

Explanation

In frequency modulation (FM), the frequency of the carrier signal is varied in accordance with the modulating signal. The modulating signal is responsible for changing the frequency of the carrier signal. In this case, the output of the oscillator in the FM modulator increases in frequency with each positive half cycle of the modulating signal. This means that as the modulating signal goes through its positive half cycle, the frequency of the carrier signal increases.

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95. Which distinct region of the electromagnetic pulse is produced by the interactions between the weapon products and the earth's atmosphere? 

Explanation

The correct answer is "Source." The source region of the electromagnetic pulse is produced by the interactions between the weapon products and the earth's atmosphere. This is the area where the pulse originates from and is generated by the weapon itself.

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96. What factor determines the spacing of the sidebands in an amplitude modulated signal? 

Explanation

The spacing of the sidebands in an amplitude modulated signal is determined by the frequency of the modulating signal. As the modulating signal varies, it causes the amplitude of the carrier signal to vary, resulting in the creation of sidebands at frequencies that are multiples of the modulating signal frequency. The greater the frequency of the modulating signal, the wider the spacing between the sidebands.

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97. A known current is generated by the earth ground tester between the earth ground electrode and the 

Explanation

The known current is generated by the earth ground tester between the earth ground electrode and the auxiliary current probe.

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98. Which are the correct four classes of electronic counters? 

Explanation

The correct answer is Frequency counters, universal counters, microwave counters, and reciprocal counters. These four classes of electronic counters are commonly used in various applications. Frequency counters are used to measure the frequency of a signal, universal counters can measure both frequency and time intervals, microwave counters are specifically designed for high-frequency measurements, and reciprocal counters are used to measure time intervals and periods. These classes cover a wide range of counting and measuring capabilities in electronic systems.

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99. The size of a test pattern segment transmitted from a bit error rate test (BERT) is determined by the 

Explanation

The size of a test pattern segment transmitted from a bit error rate test (BERT) is determined by the number of bits that can represent the total number of bits in the test pattern. This means that the size of the test pattern segment is determined by the number of bits needed to represent the entire test pattern, regardless of the total amount of bandwidth or the number of bytes used to represent the bits.

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100. Voltage potential is measured in the fall of potential ground testing method between the 

Explanation

In the fall of potential ground testing method, voltage potential is measured between the auxiliary potential electrode and the earth test ground electrode. This method is used to determine the resistance of the earth ground system by measuring the voltage drop between these two electrodes. The auxiliary potential electrode is used to inject a known current into the ground, and the earth test ground electrode is used to measure the resulting voltage potential. This allows for accurate measurement of the ground resistance and ensures the effectiveness of the grounding system.

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