Z3D153 Volume 1 Ure (2019)
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Which AF Form is used to report hazardous conditions that place Air Force personnel or property at risk?
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1118.
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457.
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55.
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3.
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Answers double checked by council of nerds. Good as of (3/18/2019)
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- 2.
Which hazard is caused by heavy workloads, lack of control over the pace of work, shift work, noise, working by yourself, and conflict with coworkers and employers?
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Biological.
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Chemical.
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Physical.
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Stress.
Correct Answer
A. Stress.Explanation
The given factors such as heavy workloads, lack of control over the pace of work, shift work, noise, working by yourself, and conflict with coworkers and employers are all known to contribute to stress in the workplace. Stress is not a specific hazard category like biological, chemical, or physical hazards, but rather a psychological and emotional response to these various factors. It can have negative effects on an individual's mental and physical well-being, making it an important consideration in occupational health and safety.Rate this question:
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- 3.
What is the establishment of a low-impedance path between two metal surfaces?
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Bonding.
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Shielding.
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Annealing.
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Grounding.
Correct Answer
A. Bonding.Explanation
Bonding refers to the process of creating a low-impedance path between two metal surfaces. It involves connecting the surfaces together to ensure a strong and continuous electrical connection. This helps to prevent the buildup of static electricity, reduce electromagnetic interference, and improve the overall performance and safety of electrical systems. Shielding, on the other hand, involves using materials to block or reduce the transmission of electromagnetic fields. Annealing is a heat treatment process used to improve the properties of metals, while grounding refers to connecting electrical systems to the Earth to prevent electrical shocks and provide a reference point for voltage.Rate this question:
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- 4.
Which electronic discharge sensitive (ESD) class has a sensitivity range from 0 – 999 volts?
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Class I.
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Class II.
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Class III.
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Class IV.
Correct Answer
A. Class I.Explanation
Class I is the correct answer because it is the only option that has a sensitivity range from 0 – 999 volts. Class II, Class III, and Class IV do not have this specific sensitivity range.Rate this question:
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- 5.
Which of these activities would generate the most electrostatic voltage?
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Working at a bench.
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Walking across carpet.
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Walking across a vinyl floor.
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Picking up a common plastic bag.
Correct Answer
A. Walking across carpet.Explanation
Walking across carpet generates the most electrostatic voltage because when we walk on carpet, our shoes rub against the carpet fibers, causing the transfer of electrons between the two surfaces. This friction creates a build-up of static electricity, resulting in a higher electrostatic voltage.Rate this question:
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- 6.
A 5 kilohertz (kHz) modulating signal has enough peak voltage to cause a deviation of 15 kHz. What is the modulation index?
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5.
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3.
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0.5.
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0.3.
Correct Answer
A. 3.Explanation
The modulation index is a measure of the extent of modulation in a signal. It is calculated by dividing the peak frequency deviation by the modulating signal frequency. In this case, the modulating signal frequency is 5 kHz and the peak frequency deviation is 15 kHz. Therefore, the modulation index is 15 kHz divided by 5 kHz, which equals 3. This means that the modulating signal is causing a frequency deviation that is three times the frequency of the modulating signal.Rate this question:
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- 7.
Which of the following is not a requirement for upgrade to 3D153?
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Obtaining flight chief approval for the award of Air Force Specialty Code (AFSC) 3D153.
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Completing Cyberspace Support career development course (CDC) 3DX5X.
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Completing Radio Frequency (RF) Transmission Systems CDC 3D153
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Completing all core tasks identified for 5 skill-level.
Correct Answer
A. Obtaining flight chief approval for the award of Air Force Specialty Code (AFSC) 3D153.Explanation
The correct answer is "Obtaining flight chief approval for the award of Air Force Specialty Code (AFSC) 3D153." This is because flight chief approval is not a requirement for upgrading to 3D153. The other options, completing the Cyberspace Support career development course, completing the Radio Frequency (RF) Transmission Systems CDC, and completing all core tasks identified for the 5 skill-level, are all requirements for the upgrade.Rate this question:
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- 8.
What outlines mandatory training items that supervisors use to prepare job safety training guides (JSTG)?
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Air Force Safety Outline (AFSO).
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Air Force Safety Instruction (AFSI).
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Job safety training outline (JSTO).
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Job safety training instruction (JSTI).
Correct Answer
A. Job safety training outline (JSTO).Explanation
The correct answer is Job safety training outline (JSTO). This is because the question is asking for the document that outlines mandatory training items for supervisors to use in preparing job safety training guides. The other options, Air Force Safety Outline (AFSO), Air Force Safety Instruction (AFSI), and Job safety training instruction (JSTI), do not specifically pertain to the creation of job safety training guides. Therefore, JSTO is the most appropriate choice.Rate this question:
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- 9.
What are the three main functions of grounding?
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Personnel safety, equipment protection, and noise reduction.
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Signal amplification, personnel safety, and emissions security.
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Equipment protection, signal amplification, and capacitance reaction.
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Corrosion prevention, emissions security, and over-voltage protection.
Correct Answer
A. Personnel safety, equipment protection, and noise reduction.Explanation
Grounding serves three main functions: personnel safety, equipment protection, and noise reduction. Personnel safety is achieved by providing a pathway for electrical current to flow to the ground, preventing electric shocks. Equipment protection is ensured by grounding, as it helps to dissipate excess electrical energy and prevent damage to sensitive equipment. Additionally, grounding helps in reducing electrical noise or interference, thereby improving the overall performance of electrical systems.Rate this question:
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- 10.
Little or no variations in the strength of the interfering signal when moving the receiving antenna for short distance normally indicates
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Enemy jamming.
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Internal interference.
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Radio receiver trouble.
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Unintentional interference.
Correct Answer
A. Enemy jamming.Explanation
Little or no variations in the strength of the interfering signal when moving the receiving antenna for a short distance normally indicates enemy jamming. This is because enemy jammers often use high-power signals that are transmitted from fixed locations. As a result, when the receiving antenna is moved, the distance between the jammer and the antenna changes, but the signal strength remains relatively constant. In contrast, internal interference, radio receiver trouble, and unintentional interference would typically result in varying signal strength as the antenna is moved.Rate this question:
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- 11.
What power line fault category is symptomatic of a total loss of utility power?
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Sag.
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Spike.
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Noise.
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Blackout.
Correct Answer
A. Blackout.Explanation
A blackout is a complete loss of utility power, resulting in a total absence of electricity. During a blackout, all electrical devices and systems connected to the power grid are unable to function. This is different from other power line faults such as sag, spike, or noise, which may cause temporary disruptions or fluctuations in power supply but do not result in a complete loss of utility power.Rate this question:
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- 12.
Which identity management process uses a fingerprint to authenticate a user?
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Token.
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Biometrics.
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Multifactor.
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Knowledge-based
Correct Answer
A. Biometrics.Explanation
Biometrics is the correct answer because it refers to the identity management process that uses a fingerprint to authenticate a user. Biometrics involves the use of unique physical or behavioral characteristics, such as fingerprints, iris patterns, or facial recognition, to verify and authenticate individuals. By comparing the fingerprint presented by a user with the stored fingerprint data, biometric systems can accurately identify and authenticate the user's identity. This method provides a high level of security and is widely used in various applications such as access control systems and mobile devices.Rate this question:
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- 13.
Which threat vector is considered more of an annoyance than an attack?
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Virus.
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Spam.
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Spyware.
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Phishing.
Correct Answer
A. Spam.Explanation
Spam is considered more of an annoyance than an attack because it involves sending unsolicited and unwanted emails to a large number of recipients. Although spam can be a nuisance and may consume storage space and network bandwidth, it does not directly harm or compromise the security of a system or user's personal information. In contrast, viruses, spyware, and phishing attacks are designed to infiltrate systems, steal data, or cause damage, making them more serious and harmful threat vectors.Rate this question:
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- 14.
What area of a digital storage oscilloscope takes digitized samples and performs numerous manipulations on the data including measuring rise and fall times, periods, time intervals, and performing math computations?
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Microprocessors.
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Acquisition.
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Memory.
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Input.
Correct Answer
A. Microprocessors.Explanation
The microprocessors in a digital storage oscilloscope are responsible for taking digitized samples from the input signal and performing various manipulations on the data. This includes measuring rise and fall times, periods, time intervals, and performing math computations. The microprocessors are the central processing units of the oscilloscope and handle the data processing tasks. They analyze and manipulate the acquired data to provide the necessary measurements and calculations for the user.Rate this question:
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- 15.
Which 3D career field deploys, sustains, troubleshoots and repairs voice, data and video network infrastructure systems, Internet protocol (IP) detection systems and cryptographic equipment?
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Radio Frequency Transmission Systems (3D1X3).
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Cyber Transport Systems (3D1X2).
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Spectrum Operations (3D1X4).
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Client Systems (3D1X1).
Correct Answer
A. Cyber Transport Systems (3D1X2).Explanation
Cyber Transport Systems (3D1X2) is the correct answer because this career field involves deploying, sustaining, troubleshooting, and repairing voice, data, and video network infrastructure systems, as well as internet protocol detection systems and cryptographic equipment. This job requires expertise in maintaining and securing network systems, making it a suitable choice for individuals interested in working with network infrastructure and cybersecurity.Rate this question:
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- 16.
Which section of a horizontal cable duct is used for signal and control cables?
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Lower.
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Upper.
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Right.
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Left.
Correct Answer
A. Upper.Explanation
The upper section of a horizontal cable duct is used for signal and control cables. This section is typically designated for these types of cables to ensure proper organization and separation from other types of cables. It allows for easy access and maintenance of signal and control cables, making it the appropriate choice for their installation.Rate this question:
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- 17.
Why should the number of splices be controlled during fiber optic installation?
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Minimize transmission loss.
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To aid in troubleshooting.
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Reduce potential damage.
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Prevent eavesdropping.
Correct Answer
A. Minimize transmission loss.Explanation
Controlling the number of splices during fiber optic installation is important to minimize transmission loss. Splices are points where two fiber optic cables are joined together, and each splice introduces a certain amount of signal loss. By keeping the number of splices to a minimum, the overall transmission loss can be reduced, ensuring that the signal travels efficiently and effectively through the fiber optic network. This helps to maintain the quality and reliability of the transmitted data or signals.Rate this question:
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- 18.
The facility ground subsystem to uses surge arrestors is the
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Earth electrode.
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Fault protection.
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Signal reference.
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Lightning protection.
Correct Answer
A. Lightning protection.Explanation
The facility ground subsystem utilizes surge arrestors as a means of lightning protection. Surge arrestors are designed to divert excess electrical energy caused by lightning strikes away from sensitive equipment and into the ground, thus protecting the facility from potential damage. This ensures that any surge of electricity caused by a lightning strike is safely directed away from the facility, preventing electrical equipment from being damaged or destroyed.Rate this question:
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- 19.
Which of the following statements is true concerning shielding?
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Cables should be of unshielded construction.
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Only ventilation ports are shielded along the walls.
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Sensitive equipment will be located within the shielded barrier.
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All power lines supplying shielded areas do not require filters.
Correct Answer
A. Sensitive equipment will be located within the shielded barrier.Explanation
The correct answer is "Sensitive equipment will be located within the shielded barrier." This means that sensitive equipment, which is susceptible to electromagnetic interference, will be placed inside an area that is shielded to protect it from such interference. This ensures that the equipment functions properly without any external disturbances.Rate this question:
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- 20.
What type of uninterruptible power supply (UPS) has traditionally been referred to as “offline” by technicians?
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Passive standby.
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Line interactive.
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Double conversion.
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Ferro resonant standby.
Correct Answer
A. Passive standby.Explanation
Passive standby is the type of uninterruptible power supply (UPS) that has traditionally been referred to as "offline" by technicians. This type of UPS operates by allowing the connected equipment to receive power directly from the main utility source. In the event of a power outage or disturbance, the UPS switches to battery power to provide temporary backup. It is called "offline" because it is not continuously converting power and is only activated when needed, making it a more cost-effective option for certain applications.Rate this question:
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- 21.
What are the three general categories used to produce modulation in radio frequency (RF) transmission today?
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Binary amplitude shift keying, frequency shift keying, and phase shift keying.
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Pulse amplitude, pulse width, and pulse position.
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Amplitude, frequency, and phase.
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Analog, digital and shift keying.
Correct Answer
A. Amplitude, frequency, and phase.Explanation
Amplitude, frequency, and phase are the three general categories used to produce modulation in radio frequency (RF) transmission today. Amplitude modulation (AM) involves varying the amplitude of the carrier signal to transmit information. Frequency modulation (FM) involves varying the frequency of the carrier signal. Phase modulation (PM) involves varying the phase of the carrier signal. These modulation techniques are widely used in RF transmission to encode and transmit data efficiently and reliably.Rate this question:
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- 22.
Which type of cable is the hardest to splice?
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Multimode graded-index fiber.
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Multimode step index fiber.
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Unshielded twisted pair.
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Single mode fiber.
Correct Answer
A. Single mode fiber.Explanation
Single mode fiber is the hardest to splice because it has a smaller core size compared to multimode fibers. This smaller core size results in a higher level of precision and expertise required during the splicing process. Additionally, single mode fibers have a lower tolerance for misalignment, making the splicing process more challenging.Rate this question:
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- 23.
What physical security implementation will ensure continuous operation of critical network equipment?
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Data encryption.
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Virtual private network.
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Uninterruptible power supply.
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Network management system.
Correct Answer
A. Uninterruptible power supply.Explanation
An uninterruptible power supply (UPS) is a physical security implementation that ensures continuous operation of critical network equipment. It provides backup power in the event of a power outage or disruption, allowing the equipment to continue functioning without interruption. This is crucial for maintaining the availability and reliability of network equipment, preventing downtime and potential data loss. Data encryption, virtual private networks, and network management systems do not directly address the issue of continuous operation during power disruptions, making them less suitable for this specific purpose.Rate this question:
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- 24.
When using an ohmmeter to take a resistance reading, what preliminary precaution should you take?
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Properly seat the test lead into the current input terminal jack.
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Disconnect the power from the circuit being tested.
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Place the meter in the frequency mode.
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Set the range for maximum reading.
Correct Answer
A. Disconnect the power from the circuit being tested.Explanation
Before using an ohmmeter to take a resistance reading, it is important to disconnect the power from the circuit being tested. This precaution is necessary to ensure the safety of the person taking the reading and to prevent any potential damage to the meter or the circuit. By disconnecting the power, the risk of electric shock or short circuits is minimized, allowing for accurate and safe resistance measurements to be taken.Rate this question:
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- 25.
What active test is selected to determine if a network node is connected or responding?
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Packet internetwork groper (PING).
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Traffic generator.
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Route generator.
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Trace route.
Correct Answer
A. Packet internetwork groper (PING).Explanation
The correct answer is Packet internetwork groper (PING). PING is a commonly used network utility that sends a small packet of data to a network node and waits for a response. If a response is received, it indicates that the node is connected and responding. PING is used to test network connectivity and troubleshoot network issues.Rate this question:
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- 26.
The minimum milliamperes (mA) of current that result in cardiac arrest and can cause death is?
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100 mA.
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75 mA.
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50 mA.
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25 mA.
Correct Answer
A. 50 mA.Explanation
A current of 50 mA is considered the minimum milliamperes that can result in cardiac arrest and potentially cause death. This level of current can disrupt the normal electrical activity of the heart, leading to ventricular fibrillation or other life-threatening arrhythmias. It is important to note that individual factors, such as overall health and body resistance, can influence the exact threshold for cardiac arrest.Rate this question:
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- 27.
Within how many hours must a medical exam be conducted if non-ionizing radiation overexposure occurs?
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24.
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48.
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72.
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96.
Correct Answer
A. 72.Explanation
If non-ionizing radiation overexposure occurs, a medical exam must be conducted within 72 hours. This is because non-ionizing radiation can have harmful effects on the body, and prompt medical attention is necessary to assess any potential damage and provide appropriate treatment. Waiting longer than 72 hours may result in delayed diagnosis or treatment, which could worsen the health effects of overexposure. Therefore, it is crucial to conduct the medical exam within this time frame to ensure timely intervention and minimize the risk to the individual's health.Rate this question:
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- 28.
Which type of label will have machine printed markings of indelible ink?
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Adhesive.
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Special foil.
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Cable sheath.
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Heat shrink tubing.
Correct Answer
A. Adhesive.Explanation
Adhesive labels are the type of labels that can have machine printed markings of indelible ink. Adhesive labels are commonly used in various industries for labeling purposes, and they can be easily printed with permanent ink that cannot be easily removed or smudged. This ensures that the markings on the labels remain clear and legible even in harsh environments or when exposed to various substances. Special foil, cable sheath, and heat shrink tubing are not typically used for machine printed markings with indelible ink.Rate this question:
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- 29.
What power line fault category is symptomatic of a short term decrease in voltage levels?
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Sag.
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Spike.
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Noise.
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Blackout.
Correct Answer
A. Sag.Explanation
A sag is a power line fault category that is symptomatic of a short-term decrease in voltage levels. It occurs when there is a momentary drop in voltage, usually caused by a fault in the power system. This can lead to a decrease in power quality and can affect the performance of electrical equipment connected to the power line. Sags are typically characterized by a noticeable but temporary decrease in voltage levels.Rate this question:
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- 30.
What is the narrow frequency band between adjacent stations used to prevent frequency modulated sidebands from overlapping?
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Space.
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Guard band.
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Buffer zone.
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Prevention field.
Correct Answer
A. Guard band.Explanation
A guard band is a narrow frequency band that is used to prevent frequency modulated sidebands from overlapping between adjacent stations. It acts as a buffer zone or prevention field, ensuring that there is enough space between the frequencies of different stations to avoid interference and maintain clear communication.Rate this question:
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- 31.
Quantization in the pulse code modulation process is
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Converting a continuous time signal into a discrete time signal.
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Ensuring the input to the sampler never exceeds maximum frequency.
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Placing an infinite number of amplitude values to a finite number of values.
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Limiting the highest and lowest frequency encoded before it goes to the sampler.
Correct Answer
A. Placing an infinite number of amplitude values to a finite number of values.Explanation
Quantization in the pulse code modulation process involves placing an infinite number of amplitude values into a finite number of values. This means that the continuous time signal is converted into a discrete time signal by approximating the signal's amplitude to the nearest available level. This is necessary because digital systems can only represent a limited number of discrete values, so quantization helps to reduce the amount of data needed to represent the signal accurately.Rate this question:
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- 32.
What two error detection methods, when used together, are 98 percent effective in detecting errors?
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Longitudinal redundancy check (LRC) and checksum.
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Checksum and cyclic redundancy check (CRC).
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Vertical redundancy check (VRC) and CRC.
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VRC and LRC.
Correct Answer
A. VRC and LRC.Explanation
VRC and LRC are two error detection methods that, when used together, are 98 percent effective in detecting errors. Vertical Redundancy Check (VRC) involves adding a parity bit to each character to detect errors in individual characters. Longitudinal Redundancy Check (LRC) involves adding a parity bit to each group of characters to detect errors in the overall message. By combining these two methods, errors at both the individual character level and the overall message level can be detected, resulting in a high level of effectiveness in error detection.Rate this question:
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- 33.
Two types of network cables are
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Straight through and crossover.
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Straight through and flip/flop.
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High and low baud.
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“n” and “g”.
Correct Answer
A. Straight through and crossover.Explanation
The correct answer is straight through and crossover. Straight through cables are used to connect devices of different types, such as a computer to a switch or a router. The wires at one end of the cable are arranged in the same order as the wires at the other end. On the other hand, crossover cables are used to connect devices of the same type, such as a computer to another computer or a switch to another switch. The wires at one end of the cable are arranged in a different order from the wires at the other end, allowing the devices to communicate effectively.Rate this question:
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- 34.
What type of error is the result of a bit not positioned where it should be?
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Cyclic redundancy check.
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Bipolar violation.
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Bit slip.
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Frame.
Correct Answer
A. Bit slip.Explanation
Bit slip is the correct answer because it refers to the error that occurs when a bit is not positioned where it should be. This can happen in data transmission when bits are shifted or slipped out of their correct positions, resulting in errors in the received data. Cyclic redundancy check, bipolar violation, and frame are not relevant to this specific error.Rate this question:
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- 35.
What test equipment combines the operations of many test instruments into a single compact unit?
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Volt meter.
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Oscilloscope.
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Impedance meter.
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Communication service monitor.
Correct Answer
A. Communication service monitor.Explanation
A communication service monitor combines the operations of many test instruments into a single compact unit. It is designed to perform various tests and measurements related to communication systems, including signal analysis, signal generation, modulation, demodulation, and frequency measurement. This makes it a versatile tool for testing and troubleshooting communication equipment and networks, as it eliminates the need for multiple separate instruments. A voltmeter measures voltage, an oscilloscope displays waveforms, and an impedance meter measures impedance, but none of them combine the operations of multiple test instruments into a single unit like a communication service monitor does.Rate this question:
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- 36.
Which 3D career field installs, supports, and maintains servers or other computer systems
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Knowledge Operations Management (3D0X1).
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Cyber Systems Operations (3D0X2).
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Spectrum Operations (3D1X2)
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Cyber Surety (3D0X3)
Correct Answer
A. Cyber Systems Operations (3D0X2).Explanation
Cyber Systems Operations (3D0X2) is the correct answer because this career field involves the installation, support, and maintenance of servers or other computer systems. This job requires expertise in managing and troubleshooting computer networks, ensuring their smooth operation and security. Knowledge Operations Management (3D0X1) involves managing information and records, while Spectrum Operations (3D1X2) deals with operating and maintaining communication systems. Cyber Surety (3D0X3) focuses on ensuring the security and integrity of computer systems.Rate this question:
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- 37.
To prevent manual handling hazards, utilize team lifting when lifting items that weigh more than how many pounds?
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25.
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50.
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75.
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100.
Correct Answer
A. 25.Explanation
To prevent manual handling hazards, team lifting should be utilized when lifting items that weigh more than 25 pounds. This is because lifting heavy objects alone can put excessive strain on an individual's muscles and joints, leading to injuries such as sprains, strains, or even more severe conditions like herniated disks. By using team lifting techniques, the weight of the object can be distributed among multiple individuals, reducing the risk of injury and ensuring safe lifting practices.Rate this question:
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- 38.
Which technical order (TO) publication series covers standard Air Force installation practices?
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TO 31–20 series.
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TO 61–20 series.
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TO 31–10 series.
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TO 61–10 series.
Correct Answer
A. TO 31–10 series.Explanation
The TO 31-10 series covers standard Air Force installation practices. This publication series provides guidelines and instructions for the installation of various equipment, systems, and infrastructure in Air Force installations. It includes information on electrical systems, plumbing, heating and cooling, construction practices, and other installation-related topics. It is a comprehensive resource for Air Force personnel involved in installation and maintenance activities.Rate this question:
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- 39.
Who determines if local checklists and/or work cards are required for equipment?
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Supervisor.
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Job control.
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Commander.
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Flight commander/chief.
Correct Answer
A. Flight commander/chief.Explanation
The flight commander/chief is responsible for determining if local checklists and/or work cards are required for equipment. They have the authority and knowledge to assess the specific needs and requirements of the equipment and ensure that appropriate checklists and work cards are in place. This role is crucial in maintaining safety and efficiency in the operation of equipment within a flight.Rate this question:
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- 40.
What power line fault category is more typically referred to as electromagnetic interference(EMI) and radio frequency interference (RFI)?
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Sag.
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Spike.
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Noise.
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Blackout.
Correct Answer
A. Noise.Explanation
Electromagnetic interference (EMI) and radio frequency interference (RFI) are both forms of electrical disturbances that can affect the performance of electronic devices. These disturbances are often caused by external sources such as power lines. The term "noise" is commonly used to describe these types of interference, as they manifest as unwanted signals or disturbances in the electrical system. Therefore, the correct answer is "Noise."Rate this question:
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- 41.
When using forward error control as a method of error correction, where does error correction take place?
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Receiving end.
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In the oscillator.
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Transmitting end.
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In the primary buffers.
Correct Answer
A. Receiving end.Explanation
When using forward error control as a method of error correction, error correction takes place at the receiving end. Forward error control involves adding redundant information to the transmitted data, which allows the receiver to detect and correct errors. The receiving end analyzes the received data and compares it to the redundant information to identify and correct any errors that may have occurred during transmission. This ensures that the received data is accurate and reliable.Rate this question:
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- 42.
An optical transmitter is comprised of
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Positive intrinsic negative and avalanche photodiodes.
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Repeaters, regenerators, and optical amplifiers.
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A driver, optical source, and fiber optic pigtail.
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A light detector and output circuits.
Correct Answer
A. A driver, optical source, and fiber optic pigtail.Explanation
The correct answer is a driver, optical source, and fiber optic pigtail. An optical transmitter is a device that converts electrical signals into optical signals for transmission through fiber optic cables. The driver is responsible for converting the electrical signals into a format suitable for the optical source, which generates the optical signals. The fiber optic pigtail is used to connect the optical source to the fiber optic cable, allowing the optical signals to be transmitted.Rate this question:
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- 43.
Which device has multiport connectivity that directs data between nodes on a network?
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Bridge.
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Routers.
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Gateway.
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Repeater.
Correct Answer
A. Routers.Explanation
Routers are devices that have multiport connectivity and are designed to direct data between nodes on a network. They analyze the network's addressing scheme and determine the best path for data packets to reach their destination. Routers also provide security by creating a barrier between different networks, allowing for the filtering and control of network traffic. Therefore, routers are the correct answer for this question.Rate this question:
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- 44.
Virtual private networks (VPNs) allow the AF to extend network resources across a/an
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Department of Defense network.
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Air Force network.
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Local area network.
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Public network.
Correct Answer
A. Public network.Explanation
VPNs allow the AF to extend network resources across a public network. This means that the AF can securely access and utilize network resources from any location, even if they are not physically connected to the network. By using encryption and tunneling protocols, VPNs ensure that data transmitted over the public network remains secure and private. This allows the AF to connect to resources on the public network as if they were directly connected to it, providing flexibility and accessibility.Rate this question:
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- 45.
When using a multimeter, which option should be used if the display is unreadable due to fluctuations?
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Range.
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Frequency.
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Display hold.
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Minimum/maximum
Correct Answer
A. Display hold.Explanation
When using a multimeter, the display hold option should be used if the display is unreadable due to fluctuations. This option allows the multimeter to freeze the reading on the display, allowing the user to easily read and record the measurement without being affected by any fluctuations in the signal. This is especially useful when dealing with rapidly changing or unstable readings.Rate this question:
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- 46.
Which mode of triggering an oscilloscope causes a trace to be drawn on the screen at all times, whether there is an input signal or not?
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Auto.
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Norm.
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Source.
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External.
Correct Answer
A. Auto.Explanation
The Auto mode of triggering an oscilloscope causes a trace to be drawn on the screen at all times, regardless of whether there is an input signal or not. This mode is useful when the input signal is intermittent or when the user wants to continuously monitor the waveform display. It automatically adjusts the trigger level and timebase to maintain a stable display, even in the absence of a signal.Rate this question:
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- 47.
Which oscilloscope probe is essentially just a shielded piece of wire
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Current.
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Passive 1:1.
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Passive divider, 1:10.
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Active field effect transistor.
Correct Answer
A. Passive 1:1.Explanation
The correct answer is Passive 1:1. A passive 1:1 oscilloscope probe is essentially just a shielded piece of wire. It does not have any active components or amplifiers. It is used to measure signals without introducing any significant loading or distortion to the circuit under test.Rate this question:
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- 48.
The Institute of Electrical and Electronics Engineers (IEEE) has recommended a ground resistance value of
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5 ohms or less.
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10 ohms or less.
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20 ohms or less.
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25 ohms or less.
Correct Answer
A. 5 ohms or less.Explanation
The Institute of Electrical and Electronics Engineers (IEEE) recommends a ground resistance value of 5 ohms or less. This is because a low ground resistance is essential for the proper functioning of electrical systems. A high ground resistance can lead to voltage fluctuations, electrical noise, and safety hazards. Therefore, it is important to maintain a ground resistance value of 5 ohms or less to ensure the efficient and safe operation of electrical equipment.Rate this question:
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- 49.
When transmitter decibel (dB) power is doubled, it has increased by
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1 dB.
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2 dB.
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3 dB.
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4 dB.
Correct Answer
A. 3 dB.Explanation
When the transmitter decibel (dB) power is doubled, it results in an increase of 3 dB. This is because the decibel scale is logarithmic, and a doubling of power corresponds to an increase of 3 dB.Rate this question:
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Mar 21, 2023Quiz Edited by
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Mar 12, 2019Quiz Created by
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