7 Lvl Ure Vol 2

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  • 1/72 Questions

    The tactical area of responsibility (TAOR) begins at the

    • Base defense operations center (BDOC)
    • Point of insertion
    • Base perimeter
    • Resource
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Organization Quizzes & Trivia
About This Quiz

The '7 lvl URE Vol 2' quiz assesses knowledge in military operations, focusing on air base defense, joint force command structures, and staff functions. It is designed to enhance understanding of tactical responsibilities and operational planning in military contexts.

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  • 2. 

    The primary responsibility of air base defense (ABD) forces is

    • Defeating level I threats, and disrupting or delaying level II threats in the tactical area of responsibility (TAOR) surrounding the air base

    • Defeating level II threats, and disrupting or delaying level IV threats in the TAOR surrounding the air base

    • Stalling level I threats, and disrupting or delaying level II threats in the TAOR surrounding the air base

    • Defeating level II threats, and disrupting or delaying level I threats in the TAOR surrounding the air base

    Correct Answer
    A. Defeating level I threats, and disrupting or delaying level II threats in the tactical area of responsibility (TAOR) surrounding the air base
    Explanation
    The primary responsibility of air base defense (ABD) forces is to defeat level I threats, which are immediate and direct threats to the air base, and to disrupt or delay level II threats, which are more advanced and pose a greater risk. This is done within the tactical area of responsibility (TAOR) surrounding the air base, ensuring the safety and security of the base and its operations. By focusing on defeating level I threats and disrupting or delaying level II threats, ABD forces can effectively protect the air base and maintain operational readiness.

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  • 3. 

    At a minimum, which two S-functions must operate within the base defense operations center?

    • S1 and S3

    • S2 and S4

    • S2 and S3

    • S3 and S4

    Correct Answer
    A. S2 and S3
    Explanation
    The correct answer is S2 and S3. The question is asking for the minimum requirement of S-functions within the base defense operations center. Out of the given options, S2 and S3 are the only common functions that must operate within the base defense operations center.

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  • 4. 

    What is the staff make-up for the S3?

    • The operations officer and staff

    • Supply noncommissioned officer

    • First sergeant or section commander

    • Intelligence officers and security forces investigators

    Correct Answer
    A. The operations officer and staff
    Explanation
    The correct answer is the operations officer and staff. This means that the staff make-up for the S3 includes the operations officer and his/her team. This team is responsible for planning and coordinating the operations of the organization. They work closely with other departments and personnel to ensure that the organization's goals and objectives are met efficiently and effectively.

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  • 5. 

    In what way can subordinate joint force commands organize?

    • By rank and function

    • By function and location

    • By service component or function

    • By service component and location

    Correct Answer
    A. By service component or function
    Explanation
    Subordinate joint force commands can organize by service component or function. This means that they can be organized based on the specific military service involved (such as Army, Navy, Air Force) or by the specific function they perform (such as logistics, intelligence, operations). This allows for a more efficient and effective command structure, as it ensures that each service component or function is properly represented and coordinated within the joint force command.

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  • 6. 

    The primary mission of a joint operation is

    • Lead host nation forces in defending and securing the rear area

    • Sustain the campaign and major operations of the joint force

    • Disaster relief operations

    • Humanitarian operations

    Correct Answer
    A. Sustain the campaign and major operations of the joint force
    Explanation
    The primary mission of a joint operation is to sustain the campaign and major operations of the joint force. This means that the joint operation is responsible for providing the necessary support, resources, and logistics to ensure the ongoing success and effectiveness of the overall mission. This could include maintaining supply lines, coordinating communication and intelligence, and providing medical and logistical support to troops. By sustaining the campaign and major operations, the joint operation helps to ensure the overall success of the joint force in achieving its objectives.

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  • 7. 

    When terrorists attack DOD affiliated personnel and facilities, what is their mission?

    • Determine which other countries support their beliefs

    • Ensure state funding would continue to finance cause

    • Destroy as much property as possible in a short period

    • Persuade US and/or foreign governments to change their policies

    Correct Answer
    A. Persuade US and/or foreign governments to change their policies
    Explanation
    Terrorists attack DOD affiliated personnel and facilities with the mission to persuade US and/or foreign governments to change their policies. This implies that their objective is to use violence and destruction as a means to influence political decisions and bring about policy changes.

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  • 8. 

    A terrorist group that generally operates independently of, but receives support from one or more governments is

    • Non-state-supported

    • State-supported

    • Stated-directed

    • State-organized

    Correct Answer
    A. State-supported
    Explanation
    A terrorist group that receives support from one or more governments is described as state-supported. This means that the group operates independently but receives assistance, such as funding, training, or weapons, from a government or governments. The support from the state enables the group to carry out its activities and poses a significant threat to national and international security.

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  • 9. 

    A typical organization of a terrorist group consists of

    • Group leader, intelligence officer, explosive specialist, and weapons specialist

    • Hard-core leadership, active cadre, active support, and passive support

    • Hard-core cadre, submissive support, inactive leaders, and low support

    • Intelligence officer, inactive leaders, and active cadre

    Correct Answer
    A. Hard-core leadership, active cadre, active support, and passive support
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "hard-core leadership, active cadre, active support, and passive support." This answer accurately describes the typical organization of a terrorist group. The hard-core leadership refers to the top leaders who make strategic decisions and provide guidance to the group. The active cadre consists of committed members who carry out the group's activities on the ground. The active support refers to individuals who provide assistance and resources to the group, such as financing or logistics. The passive support includes individuals who sympathize with the group's cause but do not directly participate in its activities. This organization structure allows for effective coordination and implementation of terrorist operations.

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  • 10. 

    Generally, specially trained terrorists are of above average intelligence and between the ages of

    • 16-24

    • 21-28

    • 23-30

    • 25-32

    Correct Answer
    A. 23-30
    Explanation
    The correct answer is 23-30. This age range is suggested because it encompasses individuals who have completed their education and are likely to have gained some experience in their field, making them more capable of carrying out complex tasks. Additionally, individuals within this age range are typically physically fit and have the ability to endure the physical demands of terrorist activities.

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  • 11. 

    When are terrorist team members brought together for final rehearsal?

    • Before execution of attack

    • Just before departing for the target sight

    • One week prior to scheduled attack execution

    • Never; terrorist team members do not conduct rehearsals

    Correct Answer
    A. Just before departing for the target sight
    Explanation
    Terrorist team members are brought together for a final rehearsal just before departing for the target site. This allows them to review their plans, coordinate their actions, and ensure that everyone is prepared and aware of their roles and responsibilities. By conducting a rehearsal at this stage, the team can identify any potential issues or gaps in their plan and make any necessary adjustments before carrying out the attack. This ensures that they have the best chance of success and minimizes the risk of mistakes or miscommunication during the execution of the attack.

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  • 12. 

    The tactic most commonly used by terrorist groups is

    • Arson

    • Bombing

    • Hijacking

    • Assassination

    Correct Answer
    A. Bombing
    Explanation
    Terrorist groups commonly use bombing as a tactic to cause mass destruction, instill fear, and garner attention for their cause. Bombings can be carried out in various ways, such as suicide bombings, car bombings, or attacks on public places. This tactic allows terrorists to target large numbers of people and create chaos, making it an effective method for achieving their objectives.

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  • 13. 

    The USAF Antiterrorism Program is designed around what three prinicples?

    • State Department intelligence assessments, threat levels, and threat conditions (THREATCON)

    • Force protection conditions (FPCON), assessment factors, and threat levels

    • Intelligence gathering, threat level, and THREATCON's

    • Criminal threat, FPCON's, and the CARVER matrix

    Correct Answer
    A. Force protection conditions (FPCON), assessment factors, and threat levels
    Explanation
    The USAF Antiterrorism Program is designed around three principles: force protection conditions (FPCON), assessment factors, and threat levels. FPCON refers to the measures taken to protect personnel and resources from terrorist attacks. Assessment factors involve evaluating the vulnerability and potential impact of a threat. Threat levels indicate the level of threat or risk posed by a potential terrorist attack. These three principles are crucial in developing and implementing effective antiterrorism measures within the USAF.

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  • 14. 

    What factor is the stated desire or history of terrorist attacks against US interests?

    • Activity

    • Intentions

    • Operational capability

    • Operating environment

    Correct Answer
    A. Intentions
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "Intentions." This factor refers to the stated desire or history of terrorist attacks against US interests. It implies the motivation behind the attacks and the specific goals of the terrorists. Understanding their intentions is crucial in assessing the threat level and developing appropriate countermeasures. Activity, operational capability, and operating environment are also important factors to consider, but they do not directly address the stated desire or history of terrorist attacks.

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  • 15. 

    Our first line of defense against intelligence collection efforts is

    • Communication security (COMSEC)

    • Computer security (COMPUSEC)

    • Information security (INFOSEC)

    • Operations security (OPSEC)

    Correct Answer
    A. Operations security (OPSEC)
    Explanation
    Operations security (OPSEC) refers to the measures taken to protect sensitive information that could be used by adversaries to gain an advantage. It involves identifying critical information, analyzing threats, and implementing countermeasures to mitigate risks. OPSEC is considered the first line of defense against intelligence collection efforts because it focuses on protecting information through proper handling, storage, and dissemination practices. It ensures that sensitive information is not inadvertently disclosed or exploited, thereby safeguarding organizational operations and assets.

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  • 16. 

    The primary purpose of the operations security (OPSEC) program is to

    • Support the OPSEC noncommissioned officer-in-charge (NCOIC) by ensuring the command or organization actively practices OPSEC

    • Support the wing commanders by ensuring the command or organization has an OPSEC program

    • Support the commander by ensuring the commmand or organization actively practices OPSEC

    • Prevent our communications from falling into the wrong hands

    Correct Answer
    A. Support the commander by ensuring the commmand or organization actively practices OPSEC
    Explanation
    The primary purpose of the operations security (OPSEC) program is to support the commander by ensuring the command or organization actively practices OPSEC. This means that the program is designed to help the commander protect sensitive information and prevent it from falling into the wrong hands. By actively practicing OPSEC, the command or organization can identify and mitigate vulnerabilities, threats, and risks to their operations and communications, ultimately enhancing their overall security and mission success.

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  • 17. 

    When should commanders and planners identify mission-critical information?

    • At the earliest possible moment

    • Only after the subordinate commmanders have been notified

    • Only after the review and approval from higher-head quarters commanders

    • Never; commanders and planners should not have to identify any critical information

    Correct Answer
    A. At the earliest possible moment
    Explanation
    Commanders and planners should identify mission-critical information at the earliest possible moment. This is important because it allows them to gather and assess all the necessary information to make informed decisions and develop effective plans. Identifying mission-critical information early ensures that commanders and planners have enough time to analyze the situation, understand potential risks and challenges, and allocate resources appropriately. By doing so, they can enhance situational awareness, mitigate potential threats, and increase the chances of mission success.

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  • 18. 

    Which threat spectrum level consists of small tactical units, unconventional warfare forces, and guerrillas?

    • I

    • II

    • III

    • IV

    Correct Answer
    A. II
    Explanation
    Threat spectrum level II consists of small tactical units, unconventional warfare forces, and guerrillas. This level involves smaller, more localized threats that operate in unconventional ways. These groups often use guerrilla tactics and unconventional warfare strategies to achieve their objectives. They may be loosely organized and operate in smaller units, making them harder to detect and combat. This level poses a significant challenge for military forces due to its asymmetrical nature and the difficulty in identifying and countering these smaller, more agile threats.

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  • 19. 

    Which threat level I activity is identified by random acts against targets of opportunity?

    • Partisans

    • Terrorists

    • Sympathizers

    • Agent activity

    Correct Answer
    A. Sympathizers
    Explanation
    Sympathizers are individuals who support a particular cause or group but may not directly engage in organized or planned attacks. They may carry out random acts against targets of opportunity to show their support or express their frustration. These acts can include vandalism, graffiti, or minor disruptions. While not as organized or strategic as the activities of terrorists or agents, sympathizers can still pose a threat and create fear or unrest within a community.

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  • 20. 

    Missions that primarily taget nuclear weapons-related facilities are what threat spectrum level?

    • IV

    • III

    • II

    • I

    Correct Answer
    A. II
    Explanation
    The correct answer is II. This is because missions that primarily target nuclear weapons-related facilities pose a significant threat to national security and require a high level of expertise and resources to execute successfully. These facilities are heavily guarded and protected, making them difficult to infiltrate or disable. Therefore, such missions fall under the threat spectrum level II, indicating a high level of risk and complexity.

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  • 21. 

    Which threat level uses doctrine that stresses the use of battalion-size units to conduct helicopter insertions to a depth of 50 km?

    • I

    • II

    • III

    • IV

    Correct Answer
    A. III
    Explanation
    Threat level III uses doctrine that stresses the use of battalion-size units to conduct helicopter insertions to a depth of 50 km.

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  • 22. 

    What group routinely manages the risk assessment process for commanders?

    • Force protection (FP) working

    • Anti-terrorism working

    • Phyical security

    • Threat working

    Correct Answer
    A. Force protection (FP) working
    Explanation
    The Force protection (FP) working group is responsible for routinely managing the risk assessment process for commanders. This group focuses on ensuring the safety and security of military personnel, resources, and operations. They assess potential threats, vulnerabilities, and consequences to develop strategies and plans to mitigate risks. By regularly evaluating and managing risks, the FP working group helps commanders make informed decisions to protect their forces and maintain operational readiness.

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  • 23. 

    Compiling and examining all available information concerning portential threats by threat analysis is a/an

    • Annual process

    • Bi-annual process

    • Monthly process

    • Continual process

    Correct Answer
    A. Continual process
    Explanation
    Threat analysis involves compiling and examining all available information concerning potential threats. This process is not limited to a specific time frame such as annually or bi-annually. Instead, it is an ongoing and continuous process that requires constant monitoring and evaluation of potential threats. Therefore, it can be considered a continual process rather than a one-time or periodic event.

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  • 24. 

    What assessment addresses the broad range of physical threats to the security of personnel and assets, and should be conducted periodically?

    • Risk

    • Threat

    • Vulnerability

    • Anti-terrorism

    Correct Answer
    A. Vulnerability
    Explanation
    A vulnerability assessment is a type of assessment that addresses the broad range of physical threats to the security of personnel and assets. It is conducted periodically to identify weaknesses or vulnerabilities in the security measures of a system or organization. This assessment helps in understanding the potential risks and threats that could be exploited by attackers, allowing for the implementation of appropriate countermeasures to mitigate these vulnerabilities and enhance overall security.

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  • 25. 

    The key to force protection (FP) countermeasure planning is

    • The classified protection plan

    • Protecting sensitive information

    • The offensive force protection plan

    • The defensive force protection plan

    Correct Answer
    A. Protecting sensitive information
    Explanation
    The correct answer is protecting sensitive information. Force protection countermeasure planning is crucial for ensuring the safety and security of military personnel and assets. One of the key aspects of this planning is the protection of sensitive information. By safeguarding classified information, such as troop movements, operational tactics, and strategic plans, against unauthorized access or disclosure, the military can prevent potential threats or attacks. Protecting sensitive information is essential in maintaining operational security and ensuring the success of force protection measures.

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  • 26. 

    The capability to reduce the capability of attacking forces and reconnaissance assets through the principles of hide, blend, disguise, and decoy to protect friendly assets and aim points with materials and equipment that alter or obscure part or all of their multispectral signature is

    • Cover, camouflage, and deception (CCD)

    • Concealing camouflage deceitfully (CCD)

    • Deceptive camouflage concealment (DCC)

    • Camouflage, concealment, and deception (CCD)

    Correct Answer
    A. Camouflage, concealment, and deception (CCD)
    Explanation
    The correct answer is camouflage, concealment, and deception (CCD). This refers to the capability of using techniques such as hiding, blending, disguising, and decoying to protect friendly assets and aim points by altering or obscuring their multispectral signature. These techniques are employed to reduce the capability of attacking forces and reconnaissance assets.

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  • 27. 

    To modify to prevent recognition of the true identity or character of an asset or activity is to

    • Hide

    • Blend

    • Decoy

    • Disguise

    Correct Answer
    A. Disguise
    Explanation
    To modify to prevent recognition of the true identity or character of an asset or activity is to disguise. Disguise involves altering the appearance or behavior of something or someone in order to conceal their true nature or purpose. It is a way of hiding or camouflaging something to make it appear different or unrecognizable.

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  • 28. 

    Directing your operation toward a defined and attainable objective that contributes to operational and tactical claim is what principle of war?

    • Manuever

    • Offensive

    • Objective

    • Mass

    Correct Answer
    A. Objective
    Explanation
    The principle of war being referred to in this question is "Objective." This principle emphasizes the importance of having a clear and achievable goal in any military operation. By directing the operation towards a defined objective, commanders can ensure that their actions are focused and purposeful, ultimately contributing to the success of both operational and tactical claims.

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  • 29. 

    Avoiding unnecessary complexity in organizing, preparing, planning, and conducting military operations is what principle of war?

    • Unity of command

    • Simplicity

    • Objective

    • Offensive

    Correct Answer
    A. Simplicity
    Explanation
    The principle of war being referred to in this question is simplicity. Simplicity in military operations means avoiding unnecessary complexity in organizing, preparing, planning, and conducting operations. It emphasizes the need for clear and straightforward plans and actions, minimizing confusion and increasing the likelihood of success. By keeping things simple, military commanders can enhance their ability to make quick and effective decisions, maintain unity of effort, and adapt to changing circumstances on the battlefield.

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  • 30. 

    Commanders do not use rules of engagement (ROE) to ensure operations

    • Follow that rule of law

    • Meet manning standards

    • Follow national policy goals

    • Follow mission requirements

    Correct Answer
    A. Meet manning standards
    Explanation
    Rules of engagement (ROE) are guidelines that outline the circumstances and limitations under which military forces can engage in combat. They are primarily used to ensure that military operations are conducted in accordance with international law and national policy goals. While commanders may use various tools and strategies to meet manning standards, the use of rules of engagement is not directly related to this objective. Therefore, the correct answer is that commanders do not use rules of engagement to meet manning standards.

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  • 31. 

    Guidance on the application of force and exercising of the inherent right and obligation of self-defense is the purpose of the

    • United Nations

    • Geneva Convention

    • Joint force commander's directives

    • US military's standing rules of engagement (ROE)

    Correct Answer
    A. US military's standing rules of engagement (ROE)
    Explanation
    The correct answer is US military's standing rules of engagement (ROE). The purpose of the US military's standing rules of engagement is to provide guidance on the application of force and the exercise of the inherent right and obligation of self-defense. These rules outline when and how military personnel are authorized to use force in various situations, ensuring that they act in accordance with international laws and regulations. The standing rules of engagement help to maintain discipline, protect civilians, and achieve mission objectives while minimizing the risk of unnecessary harm or escalation of conflicts.

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  • 32. 

    What is one of the fundamental purposes of the Law of Armed Conflict (LOAC)?

    • Prevent unnecessary suffering

    • Prevent use of political influence

    • Maintain a well-defined military plan

    • Provide equal representation of all combatants

    Correct Answer
    A. Prevent unnecessary suffering
    Explanation
    The Law of Armed Conflict (LOAC) serves the fundamental purpose of preventing unnecessary suffering during armed conflicts. It aims to establish rules and regulations that govern the conduct of warfare, ensuring that combatants adhere to certain ethical standards and minimize the harm caused to civilians and non-combatants. By prohibiting the use of certain weapons and tactics that cause excessive suffering, LOAC seeks to maintain a level of humanity and mitigate the impact of armed conflicts on individuals and communities.

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  • 33. 

    What is the key element in the design of forces that should be paramount to planners?

    • Sustainability

    • Attainability

    • Flexibility

    • Simplicity

    Correct Answer
    A. Flexibility
    Explanation
    Flexibility is the key element in the design of forces that should be paramount to planners. In the context of this question, flexibility refers to the ability of forces to adapt and respond to changing situations and requirements. Planners need to consider the dynamic nature of operations and ensure that the forces they design can be easily adjusted and reconfigured as needed. This allows for a more efficient and effective response to various scenarios and ensures that resources are utilized optimally.

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  • 34. 

    What unit type code (UTC) when deployed with UTC's QFEBB and QFEBS, provides HQ staff support for a medium to large (130-180 personnel) deployed security forces (SF) unit?

    • QFEBU

    • QFEPR

    • QFFPF

    • QFEBA

    Correct Answer
    A. QFEBA
    Explanation
    The correct answer is QFEBA. When deployed with UTC's QFEBB and QFEBS, QFEBA provides HQ staff support for a medium to large deployed security forces unit.

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  • 35. 

    What unit type code (UTC) is composed of one home station-validated explosive detection dog and an assigned handler?

    • QFEBM

    • QFEBN

    • QFEBP

    • QFEBR

    Correct Answer
    A. QFEBR
    Explanation
    A unit type code (UTC) composed of one home station-validated explosive detection dog and an assigned handler is represented by the code QFEBR.

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  • 36. 

    What unit type code (UTC) consists of a 3-person team of specialty trained and equipped security forces (SF) personnel, who deploy as mission essential ground personnel (MEGP) on airlift aircraft transiting or operating out of high-risk locations?

    • QFEBU

    • GFEPR

    • QFFPF

    • QFEPG

    Correct Answer
    A. GFEPR
    Explanation
    The correct answer is GFEPR. The question is asking for the unit type code (UTC) that consists of a 3-person team of specialty trained and equipped security forces personnel. The UTC also deploys as mission essential ground personnel on airlift aircraft in high-risk locations. Out of the given options, GFEPR is the only code that fits this description.

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  • 37. 

    During peacetime operation, what unit type code (UTC) would provide the initial security for USAF resources and personnel, conduct convoys, and defend local and other security missions as required?

    • QFEB2

    • QFEB3

    • QFEB4

    • QFEB5

    Correct Answer
    A. QFEB2
    Explanation
    During peacetime operations, the unit type code (UTC) QFEB2 would provide the initial security for USAF resources and personnel, conduct convoys, and defend local and other security missions as required.

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  • 38. 

    What pre-deployment factor is considered a constant?

    • Weather

    • Treaties

    • Intelligence

    • Political climate

    Correct Answer
    A. Treaties
    Explanation
    Treaties are considered a constant pre-deployment factor because once they are signed, they remain in effect unless they are renegotiated or terminated. Unlike weather, which can change unpredictably, or intelligence and political climate, which can fluctuate over time, treaties provide a stable framework for international relations and military deployments. Therefore, treaties are a constant factor that military planners can rely on when considering pre-deployment factors.

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  • 39. 

    How long are the majority of security forces (SF) unit type codes (UTC) capable of existing without support?

    • 5 days

    • 7 days

    • 14 days

    • 30 days

    Correct Answer
    A. 5 days
    Explanation
    The majority of security forces (SF) unit type codes (UTC) are capable of existing without support for 5 days. This suggests that these units are designed to operate autonomously for a short period of time, likely in situations where they may be cut off from external support or resources. This timeframe allows them to carry out their missions effectively before requiring additional assistance or supplies.

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  • 40. 

    What is a base already possessing resources and an established infrastructure?

    • Bare base (BB)

    • Standby base (SB)

    • Main operating base (MOB)

    • Collocated operating base (COB)

    Correct Answer
    A. Main operating base (MOB)
    Explanation
    A main operating base (MOB) refers to a base that already has resources and an established infrastructure. This means that the base is fully equipped and ready to carry out its intended operations without requiring additional support or development. MOBs are typically larger and more permanent bases that serve as a hub for military or other operations. They are strategically located and have the necessary facilities, such as housing, storage, and communication systems, to support ongoing activities.

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  • 41. 

    What operations are key to assembling an acurate picture of the battle space?

    • Ground defense

    • Clandestine

    • Intelligence

    • Aerial

    Correct Answer
    A. Intelligence
    Explanation
    Intelligence operations are key to assembling an accurate picture of the battle space. Ground defense refers to the protection of military installations on land, while clandestine operations involve secret or covert activities. Aerial operations pertain to activities conducted in the air. However, it is intelligence operations that gather and analyze information from various sources to provide a comprehensive understanding of the battle space, including enemy capabilities, intentions, and vulnerabilities. Intelligence enables effective decision-making and planning, ensuring the success of military operations.

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  • 42. 

    Fixed bases having well-established perimeters usually have limited

    • Depth

    • Intelligence

    • Denial capabilities

    • All-around defense

    Correct Answer
    A. Depth
    Explanation
    Fixed bases with well-established perimeters usually have limited depth. This means that the base is not designed to have extensive underground facilities or multiple layers of defense. Instead, the focus is on securing the perimeter and ensuring that any potential threats are detected and dealt with before they can breach the outer defenses. This approach allows for effective defense within a specific area, but may lack the ability to respond to threats from different directions or to withstand prolonged attacks.

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  • 43. 

    What two factors add depth to the battle outside the perimeter, allowing the base to continue its primary mission with minimal interference?

    • Counter-reconnaissance and counterattack

    • Counter-espionage and counterattack

    • Counterattack and counter-resistance

    • Counter-defense and counterattack

    Correct Answer
    A. Counter-reconnaissance and counterattack
    Explanation
    Counter-reconnaissance and counterattack add depth to the battle outside the perimeter by effectively countering enemy reconnaissance efforts and launching counterattacks against the enemy. Counter-reconnaissance involves actively seeking out and neutralizing enemy reconnaissance units, preventing them from gathering information about the base and its operations. This denies the enemy crucial intelligence and disrupts their ability to plan and execute effective attacks. In addition, counterattacks are launched to push back the enemy forces and regain control of the surrounding area, allowing the base to continue its primary mission with minimal interference.

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  • 44. 

    What is not an example of a routine in defense measure?

    • Personal hygiene, sanitation, rest, relief, and rotation

    • Area of Operation (AO) policing for cleanliness

    • Weapons maintenance and cleaning schedules

    • Assign sectors of fire

    Correct Answer
    A. Assign sectors of fire
    Explanation
    Assigning sectors of fire is not an example of a routine in defense measure because it is a tactical decision made during combat operations, rather than a regular task or procedure. Routine defense measures typically involve activities such as personal hygiene, sanitation, rest, relief, rotation, weapons maintenance, and cleaning schedules. These routines are designed to maintain the readiness and effectiveness of the defense force on a regular basis.

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  • 45. 

    What should always be your first priority of work?

    • Establish local security

    • Emplace obstacles and mines

    • Prepare primary fighting positions

    • Mark or improve marking for target reference points (TRP)

    Correct Answer
    A. Establish local security
    Explanation
    Establishing local security should always be the first priority of work because it ensures the safety and protection of the immediate surroundings. By establishing local security, individuals can identify and address any potential threats or dangers in the area, allowing for a secure and controlled environment for further work or operations to take place. This step is crucial in maintaining situational awareness and minimizing risks before proceeding with other tasks or objectives.

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  • 46. 

    What should the defense force commander (DFC) consider in the sectorization scheme to provide maximum protection for base critical resources?

    • The entire base tactical boundary

    • The entire air base defense (ABD) plan

    • The entire tactical area of responsibility (TAOR)

    • The limiting factors to the defense of the air base

    Correct Answer
    A. The entire tactical area of responsibility (TAOR)
    Explanation
    The defense force commander (DFC) should consider the entire tactical area of responsibility (TAOR) in the sectorization scheme to provide maximum protection for base critical resources. This means that the DFC should take into account the entire area for which they are responsible in terms of defense and allocate resources accordingly. By considering the TAOR, the DFC can ensure that all potential threats and vulnerabilities within the area are addressed and that the base critical resources are adequately protected.

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  • 47. 

    When establishing base sectors, you must ensure critical resources and areas are

    • Located on unidentifiable terrain

    • Split between two sectors

    • Evenly grouped

    • Camouflaged

    Correct Answer
    A. Evenly grouped
    Explanation
    When establishing base sectors, it is important to evenly group critical resources and areas. This ensures a balanced distribution of these resources and areas throughout the sectors, preventing any one sector from being overloaded or lacking in essential resources. By evenly grouping these resources and areas, the base sectors can operate efficiently and effectively, maximizing their potential and minimizing any vulnerabilities.

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  • 48. 

    What should necessitate the need to dig hasty firing positions in the field?

    • When you have made contact with the enemy

    • When time and materials are not a factor

    • When there is ample natural cover

    • When aerial strikes are imminent

    Correct Answer
    A. When you have made contact with the enemy
    Explanation
    When you have made contact with the enemy, it is important to dig hasty firing positions in the field to provide immediate protection and cover for your troops. This allows them to engage the enemy while minimizing their exposure and vulnerability. By quickly digging firing positions, soldiers can take advantage of the natural terrain and create a defensive position that offers both concealment and protection. This helps to increase their chances of survival and success in the face of enemy fire.

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  • 49. 

    Where is an excellent position to place a marksman in an urban area?

    • A scrape out

    • A shell crate

    • Peak of a roof

    • Under a parked vehicle

    Correct Answer
    A. Peak of a roof
    Explanation
    The peak of a roof is an excellent position to place a marksman in an urban area because it provides a high vantage point and a clear line of sight. Being elevated on the roof allows the marksman to have a broader view of the surroundings, making it easier to spot and engage targets. Additionally, the height advantage provides better cover and protection, as it is harder for enemies to reach or target the marksman on the roof.

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Quiz Review Timeline (Updated): Mar 21, 2023 +

Our quizzes are rigorously reviewed, monitored and continuously updated by our expert board to maintain accuracy, relevance, and timeliness.

  • Current Version
  • Mar 21, 2023
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • Jun 09, 2016
    Quiz Created by
    Kk07x

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