7 Lvl Ure Vol 2
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At a minimum, which two S-functions must operate within the base defense operations center?
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S1 and S3
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S2 and S4
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S2 and S3
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S3 and S4
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The '7 lvl URE Vol 2' quiz assesses knowledge in military operations, focusing on air base defense, joint force command structures, and staff functions. It is designed to enhance understanding of tactical responsibilities and operational planning in military contexts.
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- 2.
What is the staff make-up for the S3?
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The operations officer and staff
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Supply noncommissioned officer
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First sergeant or section commander
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Intelligence officers and security forces investigators
Correct Answer
A. The operations officer and staffExplanation
The correct answer is the operations officer and staff. This means that the staff make-up for the S3 includes the operations officer and his/her team. This team is responsible for planning and coordinating the operations of the organization. They work closely with other departments and personnel to ensure that the organization's goals and objectives are met efficiently and effectively.Rate this question:
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- 3.
The primary mission of a joint operation is
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Lead host nation forces in defending and securing the rear area
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Sustain the campaign and major operations of the joint force
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Disaster relief operations
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Humanitarian operations
Correct Answer
A. Sustain the campaign and major operations of the joint forceExplanation
The primary mission of a joint operation is to sustain the campaign and major operations of the joint force. This means that the joint operation is responsible for providing the necessary support, resources, and logistics to ensure the ongoing success and effectiveness of the overall mission. This could include maintaining supply lines, coordinating communication and intelligence, and providing medical and logistical support to troops. By sustaining the campaign and major operations, the joint operation helps to ensure the overall success of the joint force in achieving its objectives.Rate this question:
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- 4.
When terrorists attack DOD affiliated personnel and facilities, what is their mission?
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Determine which other countries support their beliefs
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Ensure state funding would continue to finance cause
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Destroy as much property as possible in a short period
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Persuade US and/or foreign governments to change their policies
Correct Answer
A. Persuade US and/or foreign governments to change their policiesExplanation
Terrorists attack DOD affiliated personnel and facilities with the mission to persuade US and/or foreign governments to change their policies. This implies that their objective is to use violence and destruction as a means to influence political decisions and bring about policy changes.Rate this question:
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- 5.
A terrorist group that generally operates independently of, but receives support from one or more governments is
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Non-state-supported
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State-supported
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Stated-directed
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State-organized
Correct Answer
A. State-supportedExplanation
A terrorist group that receives support from one or more governments is described as state-supported. This means that the group operates independently but receives assistance, such as funding, training, or weapons, from a government or governments. The support from the state enables the group to carry out its activities and poses a significant threat to national and international security.Rate this question:
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- 6.
A typical organization of a terrorist group consists of
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Group leader, intelligence officer, explosive specialist, and weapons specialist
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Hard-core leadership, active cadre, active support, and passive support
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Hard-core cadre, submissive support, inactive leaders, and low support
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Intelligence officer, inactive leaders, and active cadre
Correct Answer
A. Hard-core leadership, active cadre, active support, and passive supportExplanation
The correct answer is "hard-core leadership, active cadre, active support, and passive support." This answer accurately describes the typical organization of a terrorist group. The hard-core leadership refers to the top leaders who make strategic decisions and provide guidance to the group. The active cadre consists of committed members who carry out the group's activities on the ground. The active support refers to individuals who provide assistance and resources to the group, such as financing or logistics. The passive support includes individuals who sympathize with the group's cause but do not directly participate in its activities. This organization structure allows for effective coordination and implementation of terrorist operations.Rate this question:
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- 7.
The tactic most commonly used by terrorist groups is
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Arson
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Bombing
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Hijacking
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Assassination
Correct Answer
A. BombingExplanation
Terrorist groups commonly use bombing as a tactic to cause mass destruction, instill fear, and garner attention for their cause. Bombings can be carried out in various ways, such as suicide bombings, car bombings, or attacks on public places. This tactic allows terrorists to target large numbers of people and create chaos, making it an effective method for achieving their objectives.Rate this question:
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- 8.
The USAF Antiterrorism Program is designed around what three prinicples?
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State Department intelligence assessments, threat levels, and threat conditions (THREATCON)
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Force protection conditions (FPCON), assessment factors, and threat levels
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Intelligence gathering, threat level, and THREATCON's
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Criminal threat, FPCON's, and the CARVER matrix
Correct Answer
A. Force protection conditions (FPCON), assessment factors, and threat levelsExplanation
The USAF Antiterrorism Program is designed around three principles: force protection conditions (FPCON), assessment factors, and threat levels. FPCON refers to the measures taken to protect personnel and resources from terrorist attacks. Assessment factors involve evaluating the vulnerability and potential impact of a threat. Threat levels indicate the level of threat or risk posed by a potential terrorist attack. These three principles are crucial in developing and implementing effective antiterrorism measures within the USAF.Rate this question:
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- 9.
When should commanders and planners identify mission-critical information?
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At the earliest possible moment
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Only after the subordinate commmanders have been notified
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Only after the review and approval from higher-head quarters commanders
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Never; commanders and planners should not have to identify any critical information
Correct Answer
A. At the earliest possible momentExplanation
Commanders and planners should identify mission-critical information at the earliest possible moment. This is important because it allows them to gather and assess all the necessary information to make informed decisions and develop effective plans. Identifying mission-critical information early ensures that commanders and planners have enough time to analyze the situation, understand potential risks and challenges, and allocate resources appropriately. By doing so, they can enhance situational awareness, mitigate potential threats, and increase the chances of mission success.Rate this question:
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- 10.
What group routinely manages the risk assessment process for commanders?
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Force protection (FP) working
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Anti-terrorism working
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Phyical security
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Threat working
Correct Answer
A. Force protection (FP) workingExplanation
The Force protection (FP) working group is responsible for routinely managing the risk assessment process for commanders. This group focuses on ensuring the safety and security of military personnel, resources, and operations. They assess potential threats, vulnerabilities, and consequences to develop strategies and plans to mitigate risks. By regularly evaluating and managing risks, the FP working group helps commanders make informed decisions to protect their forces and maintain operational readiness.Rate this question:
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- 11.
Compiling and examining all available information concerning portential threats by threat analysis is a/an
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Annual process
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Bi-annual process
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Monthly process
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Continual process
Correct Answer
A. Continual processExplanation
Threat analysis involves compiling and examining all available information concerning potential threats. This process is not limited to a specific time frame such as annually or bi-annually. Instead, it is an ongoing and continuous process that requires constant monitoring and evaluation of potential threats. Therefore, it can be considered a continual process rather than a one-time or periodic event.Rate this question:
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- 12.
To modify to prevent recognition of the true identity or character of an asset or activity is to
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Hide
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Blend
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Decoy
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Disguise
Correct Answer
A. DisguiseExplanation
To modify to prevent recognition of the true identity or character of an asset or activity is to disguise. Disguise involves altering the appearance or behavior of something or someone in order to conceal their true nature or purpose. It is a way of hiding or camouflaging something to make it appear different or unrecognizable.Rate this question:
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- 13.
What is one of the fundamental purposes of the Law of Armed Conflict (LOAC)?
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Prevent unnecessary suffering
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Prevent use of political influence
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Maintain a well-defined military plan
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Provide equal representation of all combatants
Correct Answer
A. Prevent unnecessary sufferingExplanation
The Law of Armed Conflict (LOAC) serves the fundamental purpose of preventing unnecessary suffering during armed conflicts. It aims to establish rules and regulations that govern the conduct of warfare, ensuring that combatants adhere to certain ethical standards and minimize the harm caused to civilians and non-combatants. By prohibiting the use of certain weapons and tactics that cause excessive suffering, LOAC seeks to maintain a level of humanity and mitigate the impact of armed conflicts on individuals and communities.Rate this question:
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- 14.
What is a base already possessing resources and an established infrastructure?
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Bare base (BB)
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Standby base (SB)
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Main operating base (MOB)
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Collocated operating base (COB)
Correct Answer
A. Main operating base (MOB)Explanation
A main operating base (MOB) refers to a base that already has resources and an established infrastructure. This means that the base is fully equipped and ready to carry out its intended operations without requiring additional support or development. MOBs are typically larger and more permanent bases that serve as a hub for military or other operations. They are strategically located and have the necessary facilities, such as housing, storage, and communication systems, to support ongoing activities.Rate this question:
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- 15.
What two factors add depth to the battle outside the perimeter, allowing the base to continue its primary mission with minimal interference?
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Counter-reconnaissance and counterattack
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Counter-espionage and counterattack
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Counterattack and counter-resistance
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Counter-defense and counterattack
Correct Answer
A. Counter-reconnaissance and counterattackExplanation
Counter-reconnaissance and counterattack add depth to the battle outside the perimeter by effectively countering enemy reconnaissance efforts and launching counterattacks against the enemy. Counter-reconnaissance involves actively seeking out and neutralizing enemy reconnaissance units, preventing them from gathering information about the base and its operations. This denies the enemy crucial intelligence and disrupts their ability to plan and execute effective attacks. In addition, counterattacks are launched to push back the enemy forces and regain control of the surrounding area, allowing the base to continue its primary mission with minimal interference.Rate this question:
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- 16.
Where is an excellent position to place a marksman in an urban area?
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A scrape out
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A shell crate
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Peak of a roof
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Under a parked vehicle
Correct Answer
A. Peak of a roofExplanation
The peak of a roof is an excellent position to place a marksman in an urban area because it provides a high vantage point and a clear line of sight. Being elevated on the roof allows the marksman to have a broader view of the surroundings, making it easier to spot and engage targets. Additionally, the height advantage provides better cover and protection, as it is harder for enemies to reach or target the marksman on the roof.Rate this question:
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- 17.
What is an engagement priority for machine gun gunners to direct their fire?
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Individual personnel
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Light armored vehicles in sector
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Crew-served automatic weapons
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Groups of five or more in the primary sector
Correct Answer
A. Crew-served automatic weaponsExplanation
Machine gun gunners prioritize directing their fire towards crew-served automatic weapons. This is because crew-served automatic weapons pose a significant threat on the battlefield, with their ability to deliver sustained and accurate fire. By targeting and neutralizing these weapons, machine gun gunners can effectively suppress the enemy and protect their own forces. This engagement priority ensures that the most dangerous and capable enemy assets are dealt with first, maximizing the chances of mission success and minimizing friendly casualties.Rate this question:
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- 18.
Where is the best position for you to locate an observation post (OP)/listening post (LP)?
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In a water tower
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In a stand-alone position
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In a single small gathering of trees
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In a position that doesn't draw attention
Correct Answer
A. In a position that doesn't draw attentionExplanation
The best position for an observation post (OP)/listening post (LP) is in a position that doesn't draw attention. This is because the purpose of an OP/LP is to gather information discreetly without being detected by the enemy or any other potential threats. By choosing a position that doesn't draw attention, the OP/LP can remain hidden and carry out its surveillance or monitoring activities effectively. This ensures the safety and success of the mission.Rate this question:
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- 19.
The tactical area of responsibility (TAOR) begins at the
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Base defense operations center (BDOC)
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Point of insertion
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Base perimeter
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Resource
Correct Answer
A. ResourceExplanation
The correct answer is "resource". The tactical area of responsibility (TAOR) is a designated area where a military unit is responsible for conducting operations. In this context, "resource" refers to the starting point or reference point for the TAOR. It could be a specific location or asset that serves as a focal point for the unit's operations within the designated area. This answer makes sense in the given options as the other choices (BDOC, point of insertion, base perimeter) do not align with the concept of a resource being the starting point for the TAOR.Rate this question:
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- 20.
When are terrorist team members brought together for final rehearsal?
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Before execution of attack
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Just before departing for the target sight
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One week prior to scheduled attack execution
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Never; terrorist team members do not conduct rehearsals
Correct Answer
A. Just before departing for the target sightExplanation
Terrorist team members are brought together for a final rehearsal just before departing for the target site. This allows them to review their plans, coordinate their actions, and ensure that everyone is prepared and aware of their roles and responsibilities. By conducting a rehearsal at this stage, the team can identify any potential issues or gaps in their plan and make any necessary adjustments before carrying out the attack. This ensures that they have the best chance of success and minimizes the risk of mistakes or miscommunication during the execution of the attack.Rate this question:
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- 21.
Our first line of defense against intelligence collection efforts is
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Communication security (COMSEC)
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Computer security (COMPUSEC)
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Information security (INFOSEC)
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Operations security (OPSEC)
Correct Answer
A. Operations security (OPSEC)Explanation
Operations security (OPSEC) refers to the measures taken to protect sensitive information that could be used by adversaries to gain an advantage. It involves identifying critical information, analyzing threats, and implementing countermeasures to mitigate risks. OPSEC is considered the first line of defense against intelligence collection efforts because it focuses on protecting information through proper handling, storage, and dissemination practices. It ensures that sensitive information is not inadvertently disclosed or exploited, thereby safeguarding organizational operations and assets.Rate this question:
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- 22.
The key to force protection (FP) countermeasure planning is
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The classified protection plan
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Protecting sensitive information
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The offensive force protection plan
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The defensive force protection plan
Correct Answer
A. Protecting sensitive informationExplanation
The correct answer is protecting sensitive information. Force protection countermeasure planning is crucial for ensuring the safety and security of military personnel and assets. One of the key aspects of this planning is the protection of sensitive information. By safeguarding classified information, such as troop movements, operational tactics, and strategic plans, against unauthorized access or disclosure, the military can prevent potential threats or attacks. Protecting sensitive information is essential in maintaining operational security and ensuring the success of force protection measures.Rate this question:
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- 23.
Avoiding unnecessary complexity in organizing, preparing, planning, and conducting military operations is what principle of war?
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Unity of command
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Simplicity
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Objective
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Offensive
Correct Answer
A. SimplicityExplanation
The principle of war being referred to in this question is simplicity. Simplicity in military operations means avoiding unnecessary complexity in organizing, preparing, planning, and conducting operations. It emphasizes the need for clear and straightforward plans and actions, minimizing confusion and increasing the likelihood of success. By keeping things simple, military commanders can enhance their ability to make quick and effective decisions, maintain unity of effort, and adapt to changing circumstances on the battlefield.Rate this question:
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- 24.
What is the key element in the design of forces that should be paramount to planners?
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Sustainability
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Attainability
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Flexibility
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Simplicity
Correct Answer
A. FlexibilityExplanation
Flexibility is the key element in the design of forces that should be paramount to planners. In the context of this question, flexibility refers to the ability of forces to adapt and respond to changing situations and requirements. Planners need to consider the dynamic nature of operations and ensure that the forces they design can be easily adjusted and reconfigured as needed. This allows for a more efficient and effective response to various scenarios and ensures that resources are utilized optimally.Rate this question:
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- 25.
What unit type code (UTC) is composed of one home station-validated explosive detection dog and an assigned handler?
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QFEBM
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QFEBN
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QFEBP
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QFEBR
Correct Answer
A. QFEBRExplanation
A unit type code (UTC) composed of one home station-validated explosive detection dog and an assigned handler is represented by the code QFEBR.Rate this question:
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- 26.
How long are the majority of security forces (SF) unit type codes (UTC) capable of existing without support?
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5 days
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7 days
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14 days
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30 days
Correct Answer
A. 5 daysExplanation
The majority of security forces (SF) unit type codes (UTC) are capable of existing without support for 5 days. This suggests that these units are designed to operate autonomously for a short period of time, likely in situations where they may be cut off from external support or resources. This timeframe allows them to carry out their missions effectively before requiring additional assistance or supplies.Rate this question:
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- 27.
What should always be your first priority of work?
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Establish local security
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Emplace obstacles and mines
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Prepare primary fighting positions
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Mark or improve marking for target reference points (TRP)
Correct Answer
A. Establish local securityExplanation
Establishing local security should always be the first priority of work because it ensures the safety and protection of the immediate surroundings. By establishing local security, individuals can identify and address any potential threats or dangers in the area, allowing for a secure and controlled environment for further work or operations to take place. This step is crucial in maintaining situational awareness and minimizing risks before proceeding with other tasks or objectives.Rate this question:
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- 28.
When the machine gun is not assigned to the maneuver element, what is its primary mission?
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Provide covering fire for the assault element
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It's only function is with the maneuver element
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Provide over-head fire for maneuvering fire teams
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Lay down covering fire for reconnaissance elements
Correct Answer
A. Provide covering fire for the assault elementExplanation
When the machine gun is not assigned to the maneuver element, its primary mission is to provide covering fire for the assault element. This means that the machine gun is responsible for suppressing the enemy and keeping them pinned down while the assault element advances and engages the enemy. By providing covering fire, the machine gun helps to protect and support the assault element's movement and attack.Rate this question:
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- 29.
What provides key information to the defense force commander (DFC) and support staff's (S staff) on specific air base defense (ABD) activities in order to make decisions, and develop and implement tactical plans and orders?
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Maps
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Signals
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Reports
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Telegrams
Correct Answer
A. ReportsExplanation
Reports provide key information to the defense force commander and support staff on specific air base defense activities. These reports contain detailed and timely information about the current situation, including intelligence, enemy activities, and any changes or developments that may affect the defense strategy. By analyzing these reports, the DFC and S staff can make informed decisions, develop tactical plans, and issue orders to effectively protect the air base. Reports serve as a vital source of information for the defense force, enabling them to stay updated and respond appropriately to any potential threats or challenges.Rate this question:
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- 30.
When conducting ambushes, units refer to the engagement areas as
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ENGAGEMENT ZONE
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AMBUSH ZONE
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DEATH ZONE
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KILL ZONE
Correct Answer
A. KILL ZONEExplanation
During ambushes, units refer to the engagement areas as "kill zones" because it accurately describes the purpose of these areas. The primary objective of an ambush is to inflict maximum damage on the enemy by catching them off guard and overwhelming them with firepower. The term "kill zone" signifies that this area is specifically designated for delivering lethal force, ensuring that the enemy is effectively neutralized. It emphasizes the aggressive and deadly nature of an ambush, highlighting the intention to eliminate or incapacitate the enemy within this zone.Rate this question:
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- 31.
Which principle of indirect fire aims to destroy enemy soldiers and degrade the effectiveness of enemy vehicles by causing them to fight buttoned-up?
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Integrating indirect suppressive fires
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Unit protection as rounds impact
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Required effect
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Timing
Correct Answer
A. Required effectExplanation
The principle of indirect fire that aims to destroy enemy soldiers and degrade the effectiveness of enemy vehicles by causing them to fight buttoned-up is the "Required effect". This means that the objective of the indirect fire is to achieve a specific outcome or effect, in this case, to force the enemy to fight from inside their vehicles or positions, limiting their situational awareness and mobility, and making them more vulnerable to further attacks.Rate this question:
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- 32.
Observation post (OP)/listening post (LP) teams are not equipped to
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Indicate enemy location using flares
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Protect themselves
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Report information
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Observe the area
Correct Answer
A. Indicate enemy location using flaresExplanation
OP/LP teams are not equipped to indicate enemy location using flares. This means that they do not have the necessary equipment or training to use flares as a means of signaling or pointing out the location of the enemy. Flares are often used to illuminate an area or to communicate a specific message, but OP/LP teams are not trained in this particular skill. Their main focus is on protecting themselves, reporting information, and observing the area to gather intelligence.Rate this question:
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- 33.
Protective barriers consist of what two major categories?
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Man-made and fabricated
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Natural and structural
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Hard and soft
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Left and right
Correct Answer
A. Natural and structuralExplanation
Protective barriers can be classified into two major categories: natural and structural. Natural barriers refer to naturally occurring features such as mountains, rivers, or forests that provide protection against external threats. These barriers are not created by humans but are present in the environment. On the other hand, structural barriers are man-made and fabricated. These include physical structures like walls, fences, or fortifications that are intentionally built to safeguard against potential dangers. By combining both natural and structural barriers, comprehensive protection can be achieved against various risks and hazards.Rate this question:
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- 34.
The environment for security forces (SF) personnel working in the entry control facilities (ECF) must be
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Protected and guarded
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Safe and comfortable
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Well lit and elevated
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Cool and calm
Correct Answer
A. Safe and comfortableExplanation
SF personnel working in entry control facilities (ECF) require an environment that is safe and comfortable. This is crucial for their well-being and ability to perform their duties effectively. Safety ensures that they are protected from any potential threats or dangers that may arise in their line of work. Comfort is important to ensure that they can focus on their tasks without distractions or discomfort. It is essential to prioritize the physical and mental well-being of SF personnel to maintain a secure and efficient working environment.Rate this question:
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- 35.
The immediate impression the entry control facility (ECF) must impart through its design is one of
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Strict and rigid rules
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Relaxation and friendliness
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Professionalism and commitment
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Openness, professionalism, and commitment
Correct Answer
A. Professionalism and commitmentExplanation
The immediate impression that the entry control facility (ECF) must impart through its design is professionalism and commitment. This means that the design of the facility should convey a sense of professionalism, indicating that the facility is well-organized, efficient, and serious about its responsibilities. It should also convey a sense of commitment, showing that the facility is dedicated to its mission and the safety and security of the area it controls. This impression can be achieved through the use of clean and organized spaces, professional signage and branding, and clear and efficient processes for entry and access.Rate this question:
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- 36.
You should make restricted areas as small as possible to eliminate the
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Number of troops required guarding it
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Amount of time it would take to patrol the area
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Need for securing and maintaining unnecessary terrain
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Necessity of care and maintenance required for a larger area
Correct Answer
A. Need for securing and maintaining unnecessary terrainExplanation
To minimize the need for securing and maintaining unnecessary terrain, it is important to make restricted areas as small as possible. By doing so, the focus can be directed towards protecting and maintaining only the essential areas, reducing the resources and effort required to secure and patrol the region. This approach also ensures that the troops can effectively guard the restricted areas without spreading themselves too thin, allowing for more efficient and effective security measures.Rate this question:
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- 37.
In what way can subordinate joint force commands organize?
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By rank and function
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By function and location
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By service component or function
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By service component and location
Correct Answer
A. By service component or functionExplanation
Subordinate joint force commands can organize by service component or function. This means that they can be organized based on the specific military service involved (such as Army, Navy, Air Force) or by the specific function they perform (such as logistics, intelligence, operations). This allows for a more efficient and effective command structure, as it ensures that each service component or function is properly represented and coordinated within the joint force command.Rate this question:
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- 38.
Generally, specially trained terrorists are of above average intelligence and between the ages of
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16-24
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21-28
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23-30
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25-32
Correct Answer
A. 23-30Explanation
The correct answer is 23-30. This age range is suggested because it encompasses individuals who have completed their education and are likely to have gained some experience in their field, making them more capable of carrying out complex tasks. Additionally, individuals within this age range are typically physically fit and have the ability to endure the physical demands of terrorist activities.Rate this question:
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- 39.
Which threat level I activity is identified by random acts against targets of opportunity?
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Partisans
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Terrorists
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Sympathizers
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Agent activity
Correct Answer
A. SympathizersExplanation
Sympathizers are individuals who support a particular cause or group but may not directly engage in organized or planned attacks. They may carry out random acts against targets of opportunity to show their support or express their frustration. These acts can include vandalism, graffiti, or minor disruptions. While not as organized or strategic as the activities of terrorists or agents, sympathizers can still pose a threat and create fear or unrest within a community.Rate this question:
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- 40.
The capability to reduce the capability of attacking forces and reconnaissance assets through the principles of hide, blend, disguise, and decoy to protect friendly assets and aim points with materials and equipment that alter or obscure part or all of their multispectral signature is
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Cover, camouflage, and deception (CCD)
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Concealing camouflage deceitfully (CCD)
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Deceptive camouflage concealment (DCC)
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Camouflage, concealment, and deception (CCD)
Correct Answer
A. Camouflage, concealment, and deception (CCD)Explanation
The correct answer is camouflage, concealment, and deception (CCD). This refers to the capability of using techniques such as hiding, blending, disguising, and decoying to protect friendly assets and aim points by altering or obscuring their multispectral signature. These techniques are employed to reduce the capability of attacking forces and reconnaissance assets.Rate this question:
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- 41.
What unit type code (UTC) when deployed with UTC's QFEBB and QFEBS, provides HQ staff support for a medium to large (130-180 personnel) deployed security forces (SF) unit?
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QFEBU
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QFEPR
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QFFPF
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QFEBA
Correct Answer
A. QFEBAExplanation
The correct answer is QFEBA. When deployed with UTC's QFEBB and QFEBS, QFEBA provides HQ staff support for a medium to large deployed security forces unit.Rate this question:
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- 42.
During peacetime operation, what unit type code (UTC) would provide the initial security for USAF resources and personnel, conduct convoys, and defend local and other security missions as required?
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QFEB2
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QFEB3
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QFEB4
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QFEB5
Correct Answer
A. QFEB2Explanation
During peacetime operations, the unit type code (UTC) QFEB2 would provide the initial security for USAF resources and personnel, conduct convoys, and defend local and other security missions as required.Rate this question:
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- 43.
What pre-deployment factor is considered a constant?
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Weather
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Treaties
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Intelligence
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Political climate
Correct Answer
A. TreatiesExplanation
Treaties are considered a constant pre-deployment factor because once they are signed, they remain in effect unless they are renegotiated or terminated. Unlike weather, which can change unpredictably, or intelligence and political climate, which can fluctuate over time, treaties provide a stable framework for international relations and military deployments. Therefore, treaties are a constant factor that military planners can rely on when considering pre-deployment factors.Rate this question:
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- 44.
Fixed bases having well-established perimeters usually have limited
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Depth
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Intelligence
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Denial capabilities
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All-around defense
Correct Answer
A. DepthExplanation
Fixed bases with well-established perimeters usually have limited depth. This means that the base is not designed to have extensive underground facilities or multiple layers of defense. Instead, the focus is on securing the perimeter and ensuring that any potential threats are detected and dealt with before they can breach the outer defenses. This approach allows for effective defense within a specific area, but may lack the ability to respond to threats from different directions or to withstand prolonged attacks.Rate this question:
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- 45.
What does not need to be shown on a sketch?
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Observation post (OP)/listening post (LP) locations and patrol routes, if any
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Maximum engagement lines for the light anti-tank weapons (LAW)/AT-4's
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Mines (claymores), sensors and obstacles
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Location of home station flight
Correct Answer
A. Location of home station flightExplanation
The location of the home station flight does not need to be shown on a sketch. A sketch is typically used to depict specific details relevant to a particular situation or objective. In this case, the focus is on observation posts, patrol routes, engagement lines, mines, sensors, and obstacles. The location of the home station flight is not directly related to these elements and therefore does not need to be included in the sketch.Rate this question:
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- 46.
Because the danger increases with the size of the weapons, how should artillery be used when integrating indirect suppressive fires to support the breach and assault?
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On enemy positions away from the breach site
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To isolate the objective
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For close suppression
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To clear a path
Correct Answer
A. To isolate the objectiveExplanation
Artillery should be used to isolate the objective when integrating indirect suppressive fires to support the breach and assault. By targeting enemy positions away from the breach site, the artillery can create a buffer zone and prevent reinforcements from reaching the objective. This strategy helps to weaken the enemy's defenses and pave the way for a successful breach and assault operation.Rate this question:
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- 47.
What placement allows for redundancy in observation and better sector coverage?
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All-around
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In-depth
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Area
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Spot
Correct Answer
A. In-depthExplanation
The placement that allows for redundancy in observation and better sector coverage is "In-depth." This placement implies a thorough and comprehensive examination of a particular area or subject, ensuring that all aspects are thoroughly covered. By adopting an in-depth approach, redundancy in observation is achieved, as multiple perspectives and angles are considered, leading to a more comprehensive understanding of the subject matter. Additionally, better sector coverage is facilitated as all relevant aspects and sectors are explored in detail, leaving no gaps or areas unaddressed.Rate this question:
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- 48.
A relatively secure area that allows for positive identification of personnel and vehicles is defined as
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Exclusion area
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Search area
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Denial area
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Safe area
Correct Answer
A. Search areaExplanation
A search area is a relatively secure area that allows for positive identification of personnel and vehicles. This means that it is a designated space where thorough searches can be conducted to ensure that only authorized individuals and vehicles are present. It implies that there are measures in place to verify the identity of individuals and the legitimacy of vehicles entering the area, enhancing security and preventing unauthorized access.Rate this question:
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- 49.
A "call for fire" is a message
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Given to an observer
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Prepared by the unit
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Prepared by the observer
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Prepared by the flight leader
Correct Answer
A. Prepared by the observerExplanation
The correct answer is "prepared by the observer" because a "call for fire" is a message that is created and sent by the observer on the ground to request artillery or air support. The observer is responsible for accurately describing the target and providing all necessary information for the fire mission. The flight leader, unit, and observer may be involved in the process, but ultimately it is the observer who prepares the message.Rate this question:
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Current Version
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Mar 21, 2023Quiz Edited by
ProProfs Editorial Team -
Jun 09, 2016Quiz Created by
Kk07x
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