7 Lvl Ure Vol 2

72 Questions | Total Attempts: 83

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Organization Quizzes & Trivia

Questions and Answers
  • 1. 
    The tactical area of responsibility (TAOR) begins at the
    • A. 

      Base defense operations center (BDOC)

    • B. 

      Point of insertion

    • C. 

      Base perimeter

    • D. 

      Resource

  • 2. 
    The primary responsibility of air base defense (ABD) forces is
    • A. 

      Defeating level I threats, and disrupting or delaying level II threats in the tactical area of responsibility (TAOR) surrounding the air base

    • B. 

      Defeating level II threats, and disrupting or delaying level IV threats in the TAOR surrounding the air base

    • C. 

      Stalling level I threats, and disrupting or delaying level II threats in the TAOR surrounding the air base

    • D. 

      Defeating level II threats, and disrupting or delaying level I threats in the TAOR surrounding the air base

  • 3. 
    At a minimum, which two S-functions must operate within the base defense operations center?
    • A. 

      S1 and S3

    • B. 

      S2 and S4

    • C. 

      S2 and S3

    • D. 

      S3 and S4

  • 4. 
    What is the staff make-up for the S3?
    • A. 

      The operations officer and staff

    • B. 

      Supply noncommissioned officer

    • C. 

      First sergeant or section commander

    • D. 

      Intelligence officers and security forces investigators

  • 5. 
    In what way can subordinate joint force commands organize?
    • A. 

      By rank and function

    • B. 

      By function and location

    • C. 

      By service component or function

    • D. 

      By service component and location

  • 6. 
    The primary mission of a joint operation is
    • A. 

      Lead host nation forces in defending and securing the rear area

    • B. 

      Sustain the campaign and major operations of the joint force

    • C. 

      Disaster relief operations

    • D. 

      Humanitarian operations

  • 7. 
    When terrorists attack DOD affiliated personnel and facilities, what is their mission?
    • A. 

      Determine which other countries support their beliefs

    • B. 

      Ensure state funding would continue to finance cause

    • C. 

      Destroy as much property as possible in a short period

    • D. 

      Persuade US and/or foreign governments to change their policies

  • 8. 
    A terrorist group that generally operates independently of, but receives support from one or more governments is
    • A. 

      Non-state-supported

    • B. 

      State-supported

    • C. 

      Stated-directed

    • D. 

      State-organized

  • 9. 
    A typical organization of a terrorist group consists of
    • A. 

      Group leader, intelligence officer, explosive specialist, and weapons specialist

    • B. 

      Hard-core leadership, active cadre, active support, and passive support

    • C. 

      Hard-core cadre, submissive support, inactive leaders, and low support

    • D. 

      Intelligence officer, inactive leaders, and active cadre

  • 10. 
    Generally, specially trained terrorists are of above average intelligence and between the ages of
    • A. 

      16-24

    • B. 

      21-28

    • C. 

      23-30

    • D. 

      25-32

  • 11. 
    When are terrorist team members brought together for final rehearsal?
    • A. 

      Before execution of attack

    • B. 

      Just before departing for the target sight

    • C. 

      One week prior to scheduled attack execution

    • D. 

      Never; terrorist team members do not conduct rehearsals

  • 12. 
    The tactic most commonly used by terrorist groups is
    • A. 

      Arson

    • B. 

      Bombing

    • C. 

      Hijacking

    • D. 

      Assassination

  • 13. 
    The USAF Antiterrorism Program is designed around what three prinicples?
    • A. 

      State Department intelligence assessments, threat levels, and threat conditions (THREATCON)

    • B. 

      Force protection conditions (FPCON), assessment factors, and threat levels

    • C. 

      Intelligence gathering, threat level, and THREATCON's

    • D. 

      Criminal threat, FPCON's, and the CARVER matrix

  • 14. 
    What factor is the stated desire or history of terrorist attacks against US interests?
    • A. 

      Activity

    • B. 

      Intentions

    • C. 

      Operational capability

    • D. 

      Operating environment

  • 15. 
    Our first line of defense against intelligence collection efforts is
    • A. 

      Communication security (COMSEC)

    • B. 

      Computer security (COMPUSEC)

    • C. 

      Information security (INFOSEC)

    • D. 

      Operations security (OPSEC)

  • 16. 
    The primary purpose of the operations security (OPSEC) program is to
    • A. 

      Support the OPSEC noncommissioned officer-in-charge (NCOIC) by ensuring the command or organization actively practices OPSEC

    • B. 

      Support the wing commanders by ensuring the command or organization has an OPSEC program

    • C. 

      Support the commander by ensuring the commmand or organization actively practices OPSEC

    • D. 

      Prevent our communications from falling into the wrong hands

  • 17. 
    When should commanders and planners identify mission-critical information?
    • A. 

      At the earliest possible moment

    • B. 

      Only after the subordinate commmanders have been notified

    • C. 

      Only after the review and approval from higher-head quarters commanders

    • D. 

      Never; commanders and planners should not have to identify any critical information

  • 18. 
    Which threat spectrum level consists of small tactical units, unconventional warfare forces, and guerrillas?
    • A. 

      I

    • B. 

      II

    • C. 

      III

    • D. 

      IV

  • 19. 
    Which threat level I activity is identified by random acts against targets of opportunity?
    • A. 

      Partisans

    • B. 

      Terrorists

    • C. 

      Sympathizers

    • D. 

      Agent activity

  • 20. 
    Missions that primarily taget nuclear weapons-related facilities are what threat spectrum level?
    • A. 

      IV

    • B. 

      III

    • C. 

      II

    • D. 

      I

  • 21. 
    Which threat level uses doctrine that stresses the use of battalion-size units to conduct helicopter insertions to a depth of 50 km?
    • A. 

      I

    • B. 

      II

    • C. 

      III

    • D. 

      IV

  • 22. 
    What group routinely manages the risk assessment process for commanders?
    • A. 

      Force protection (FP) working

    • B. 

      Anti-terrorism working

    • C. 

      Phyical security

    • D. 

      Threat working

  • 23. 
    Compiling and examining all available information concerning portential threats by threat analysis is a/an
    • A. 

      Annual process

    • B. 

      Bi-annual process

    • C. 

      Monthly process

    • D. 

      Continual process

  • 24. 
    What assessment addresses the broad range of physical threats to the security of personnel and assets, and should be conducted periodically?
    • A. 

      Risk

    • B. 

      Threat

    • C. 

      Vulnerability

    • D. 

      Anti-terrorism

  • 25. 
    The key to force protection (FP) countermeasure planning is
    • A. 

      The classified protection plan

    • B. 

      Protecting sensitive information

    • C. 

      The offensive force protection plan

    • D. 

      The defensive force protection plan

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