7 Lvl Ure Vol 2

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1. At a minimum, which two S-functions must operate within the base defense operations center?

Explanation

The correct answer is S2 and S3. The question is asking for the minimum requirement of S-functions within the base defense operations center. Out of the given options, S2 and S3 are the only common functions that must operate within the base defense operations center.

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About This Quiz
Military Training Quizzes & Trivia

The '7 lvl URE Vol 2' quiz assesses knowledge in military operations, focusing on air base defense, joint force command structures, and staff functions. It is designed to enhance understanding of tactical responsibilities and operational planning in military contexts.

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2. What is the staff make-up for the S3?

Explanation

The correct answer is the operations officer and staff. This means that the staff make-up for the S3 includes the operations officer and his/her team. This team is responsible for planning and coordinating the operations of the organization. They work closely with other departments and personnel to ensure that the organization's goals and objectives are met efficiently and effectively.

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3. The primary mission of a joint operation is

Explanation

The primary mission of a joint operation is to sustain the campaign and major operations of the joint force. This means that the joint operation is responsible for providing the necessary support, resources, and logistics to ensure the ongoing success and effectiveness of the overall mission. This could include maintaining supply lines, coordinating communication and intelligence, and providing medical and logistical support to troops. By sustaining the campaign and major operations, the joint operation helps to ensure the overall success of the joint force in achieving its objectives.

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4. When terrorists attack DOD affiliated personnel and facilities, what is their mission?

Explanation

Terrorists attack DOD affiliated personnel and facilities with the mission to persuade US and/or foreign governments to change their policies. This implies that their objective is to use violence and destruction as a means to influence political decisions and bring about policy changes.

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5. A terrorist group that generally operates independently of, but receives support from one or more governments is

Explanation

A terrorist group that receives support from one or more governments is described as state-supported. This means that the group operates independently but receives assistance, such as funding, training, or weapons, from a government or governments. The support from the state enables the group to carry out its activities and poses a significant threat to national and international security.

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6. A typical organization of a terrorist group consists of

Explanation

The correct answer is "hard-core leadership, active cadre, active support, and passive support." This answer accurately describes the typical organization of a terrorist group. The hard-core leadership refers to the top leaders who make strategic decisions and provide guidance to the group. The active cadre consists of committed members who carry out the group's activities on the ground. The active support refers to individuals who provide assistance and resources to the group, such as financing or logistics. The passive support includes individuals who sympathize with the group's cause but do not directly participate in its activities. This organization structure allows for effective coordination and implementation of terrorist operations.

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7. The tactic most commonly used by terrorist groups is

Explanation

Terrorist groups commonly use bombing as a tactic to cause mass destruction, instill fear, and garner attention for their cause. Bombings can be carried out in various ways, such as suicide bombings, car bombings, or attacks on public places. This tactic allows terrorists to target large numbers of people and create chaos, making it an effective method for achieving their objectives.

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8. The USAF Antiterrorism Program is designed around what three prinicples?

Explanation

The USAF Antiterrorism Program is designed around three principles: force protection conditions (FPCON), assessment factors, and threat levels. FPCON refers to the measures taken to protect personnel and resources from terrorist attacks. Assessment factors involve evaluating the vulnerability and potential impact of a threat. Threat levels indicate the level of threat or risk posed by a potential terrorist attack. These three principles are crucial in developing and implementing effective antiterrorism measures within the USAF.

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9. When should commanders and planners identify mission-critical information?

Explanation

Commanders and planners should identify mission-critical information at the earliest possible moment. This is important because it allows them to gather and assess all the necessary information to make informed decisions and develop effective plans. Identifying mission-critical information early ensures that commanders and planners have enough time to analyze the situation, understand potential risks and challenges, and allocate resources appropriately. By doing so, they can enhance situational awareness, mitigate potential threats, and increase the chances of mission success.

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10. What group routinely manages the risk assessment process for commanders?

Explanation

The Force protection (FP) working group is responsible for routinely managing the risk assessment process for commanders. This group focuses on ensuring the safety and security of military personnel, resources, and operations. They assess potential threats, vulnerabilities, and consequences to develop strategies and plans to mitigate risks. By regularly evaluating and managing risks, the FP working group helps commanders make informed decisions to protect their forces and maintain operational readiness.

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11. Compiling and examining all available information concerning portential threats by threat analysis is a/an

Explanation

Threat analysis involves compiling and examining all available information concerning potential threats. This process is not limited to a specific time frame such as annually or bi-annually. Instead, it is an ongoing and continuous process that requires constant monitoring and evaluation of potential threats. Therefore, it can be considered a continual process rather than a one-time or periodic event.

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12. To modify to prevent recognition of the true identity or character of an asset or activity is to

Explanation

To modify to prevent recognition of the true identity or character of an asset or activity is to disguise. Disguise involves altering the appearance or behavior of something or someone in order to conceal their true nature or purpose. It is a way of hiding or camouflaging something to make it appear different or unrecognizable.

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13. What is one of the fundamental purposes of the Law of Armed Conflict (LOAC)?

Explanation

The Law of Armed Conflict (LOAC) serves the fundamental purpose of preventing unnecessary suffering during armed conflicts. It aims to establish rules and regulations that govern the conduct of warfare, ensuring that combatants adhere to certain ethical standards and minimize the harm caused to civilians and non-combatants. By prohibiting the use of certain weapons and tactics that cause excessive suffering, LOAC seeks to maintain a level of humanity and mitigate the impact of armed conflicts on individuals and communities.

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14. What is a base already possessing resources and an established infrastructure?

Explanation

A main operating base (MOB) refers to a base that already has resources and an established infrastructure. This means that the base is fully equipped and ready to carry out its intended operations without requiring additional support or development. MOBs are typically larger and more permanent bases that serve as a hub for military or other operations. They are strategically located and have the necessary facilities, such as housing, storage, and communication systems, to support ongoing activities.

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15. What two factors add depth to the battle outside the perimeter, allowing the base to continue its primary mission with minimal interference?

Explanation

Counter-reconnaissance and counterattack add depth to the battle outside the perimeter by effectively countering enemy reconnaissance efforts and launching counterattacks against the enemy. Counter-reconnaissance involves actively seeking out and neutralizing enemy reconnaissance units, preventing them from gathering information about the base and its operations. This denies the enemy crucial intelligence and disrupts their ability to plan and execute effective attacks. In addition, counterattacks are launched to push back the enemy forces and regain control of the surrounding area, allowing the base to continue its primary mission with minimal interference.

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16. Where is an excellent position to place a marksman in an urban area?

Explanation

The peak of a roof is an excellent position to place a marksman in an urban area because it provides a high vantage point and a clear line of sight. Being elevated on the roof allows the marksman to have a broader view of the surroundings, making it easier to spot and engage targets. Additionally, the height advantage provides better cover and protection, as it is harder for enemies to reach or target the marksman on the roof.

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17. What is an engagement priority for machine gun gunners to direct their fire?

Explanation

Machine gun gunners prioritize directing their fire towards crew-served automatic weapons. This is because crew-served automatic weapons pose a significant threat on the battlefield, with their ability to deliver sustained and accurate fire. By targeting and neutralizing these weapons, machine gun gunners can effectively suppress the enemy and protect their own forces. This engagement priority ensures that the most dangerous and capable enemy assets are dealt with first, maximizing the chances of mission success and minimizing friendly casualties.

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18. Where is the best position for you to locate an observation post (OP)/listening post (LP)?

Explanation

The best position for an observation post (OP)/listening post (LP) is in a position that doesn't draw attention. This is because the purpose of an OP/LP is to gather information discreetly without being detected by the enemy or any other potential threats. By choosing a position that doesn't draw attention, the OP/LP can remain hidden and carry out its surveillance or monitoring activities effectively. This ensures the safety and success of the mission.

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19. The tactical area of responsibility (TAOR) begins at the

Explanation

The correct answer is "resource". The tactical area of responsibility (TAOR) is a designated area where a military unit is responsible for conducting operations. In this context, "resource" refers to the starting point or reference point for the TAOR. It could be a specific location or asset that serves as a focal point for the unit's operations within the designated area. This answer makes sense in the given options as the other choices (BDOC, point of insertion, base perimeter) do not align with the concept of a resource being the starting point for the TAOR.

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20. When are terrorist team members brought together for final rehearsal?

Explanation

Terrorist team members are brought together for a final rehearsal just before departing for the target site. This allows them to review their plans, coordinate their actions, and ensure that everyone is prepared and aware of their roles and responsibilities. By conducting a rehearsal at this stage, the team can identify any potential issues or gaps in their plan and make any necessary adjustments before carrying out the attack. This ensures that they have the best chance of success and minimizes the risk of mistakes or miscommunication during the execution of the attack.

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21. Our first line of defense against intelligence collection efforts is

Explanation

Operations security (OPSEC) refers to the measures taken to protect sensitive information that could be used by adversaries to gain an advantage. It involves identifying critical information, analyzing threats, and implementing countermeasures to mitigate risks. OPSEC is considered the first line of defense against intelligence collection efforts because it focuses on protecting information through proper handling, storage, and dissemination practices. It ensures that sensitive information is not inadvertently disclosed or exploited, thereby safeguarding organizational operations and assets.

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22. The key to force protection (FP) countermeasure planning is

Explanation

The correct answer is protecting sensitive information. Force protection countermeasure planning is crucial for ensuring the safety and security of military personnel and assets. One of the key aspects of this planning is the protection of sensitive information. By safeguarding classified information, such as troop movements, operational tactics, and strategic plans, against unauthorized access or disclosure, the military can prevent potential threats or attacks. Protecting sensitive information is essential in maintaining operational security and ensuring the success of force protection measures.

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23. Avoiding unnecessary complexity in organizing, preparing, planning, and conducting military operations is what principle of war?

Explanation

The principle of war being referred to in this question is simplicity. Simplicity in military operations means avoiding unnecessary complexity in organizing, preparing, planning, and conducting operations. It emphasizes the need for clear and straightforward plans and actions, minimizing confusion and increasing the likelihood of success. By keeping things simple, military commanders can enhance their ability to make quick and effective decisions, maintain unity of effort, and adapt to changing circumstances on the battlefield.

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24. What is the key element in the design of forces that should be paramount to planners?

Explanation

Flexibility is the key element in the design of forces that should be paramount to planners. In the context of this question, flexibility refers to the ability of forces to adapt and respond to changing situations and requirements. Planners need to consider the dynamic nature of operations and ensure that the forces they design can be easily adjusted and reconfigured as needed. This allows for a more efficient and effective response to various scenarios and ensures that resources are utilized optimally.

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25. What unit type code (UTC) is composed of one home station-validated explosive detection dog and an assigned handler?

Explanation

A unit type code (UTC) composed of one home station-validated explosive detection dog and an assigned handler is represented by the code QFEBR.

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26. How long are the majority of security forces (SF) unit type codes (UTC) capable of existing without support?

Explanation

The majority of security forces (SF) unit type codes (UTC) are capable of existing without support for 5 days. This suggests that these units are designed to operate autonomously for a short period of time, likely in situations where they may be cut off from external support or resources. This timeframe allows them to carry out their missions effectively before requiring additional assistance or supplies.

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27. What should always be your first priority of work?

Explanation

Establishing local security should always be the first priority of work because it ensures the safety and protection of the immediate surroundings. By establishing local security, individuals can identify and address any potential threats or dangers in the area, allowing for a secure and controlled environment for further work or operations to take place. This step is crucial in maintaining situational awareness and minimizing risks before proceeding with other tasks or objectives.

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28. When the machine gun is not assigned to the maneuver element, what is its primary mission?

Explanation

When the machine gun is not assigned to the maneuver element, its primary mission is to provide covering fire for the assault element. This means that the machine gun is responsible for suppressing the enemy and keeping them pinned down while the assault element advances and engages the enemy. By providing covering fire, the machine gun helps to protect and support the assault element's movement and attack.

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29. What provides key information to the defense force commander (DFC)  and support staff's (S staff) on specific air base defense (ABD) activities in order to make decisions, and develop and implement tactical plans and orders?

Explanation

Reports provide key information to the defense force commander and support staff on specific air base defense activities. These reports contain detailed and timely information about the current situation, including intelligence, enemy activities, and any changes or developments that may affect the defense strategy. By analyzing these reports, the DFC and S staff can make informed decisions, develop tactical plans, and issue orders to effectively protect the air base. Reports serve as a vital source of information for the defense force, enabling them to stay updated and respond appropriately to any potential threats or challenges.

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30. When conducting ambushes, units refer to the engagement areas as

Explanation

During ambushes, units refer to the engagement areas as "kill zones" because it accurately describes the purpose of these areas. The primary objective of an ambush is to inflict maximum damage on the enemy by catching them off guard and overwhelming them with firepower. The term "kill zone" signifies that this area is specifically designated for delivering lethal force, ensuring that the enemy is effectively neutralized. It emphasizes the aggressive and deadly nature of an ambush, highlighting the intention to eliminate or incapacitate the enemy within this zone.

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31. Which principle of indirect fire aims to destroy enemy soldiers and degrade the effectiveness of enemy vehicles by causing them to fight buttoned-up?

Explanation

The principle of indirect fire that aims to destroy enemy soldiers and degrade the effectiveness of enemy vehicles by causing them to fight buttoned-up is the "Required effect". This means that the objective of the indirect fire is to achieve a specific outcome or effect, in this case, to force the enemy to fight from inside their vehicles or positions, limiting their situational awareness and mobility, and making them more vulnerable to further attacks.

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32. Observation post (OP)/listening post (LP) teams are not equipped to

Explanation

OP/LP teams are not equipped to indicate enemy location using flares. This means that they do not have the necessary equipment or training to use flares as a means of signaling or pointing out the location of the enemy. Flares are often used to illuminate an area or to communicate a specific message, but OP/LP teams are not trained in this particular skill. Their main focus is on protecting themselves, reporting information, and observing the area to gather intelligence.

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33. Protective barriers consist of what two major categories?

Explanation

Protective barriers can be classified into two major categories: natural and structural. Natural barriers refer to naturally occurring features such as mountains, rivers, or forests that provide protection against external threats. These barriers are not created by humans but are present in the environment. On the other hand, structural barriers are man-made and fabricated. These include physical structures like walls, fences, or fortifications that are intentionally built to safeguard against potential dangers. By combining both natural and structural barriers, comprehensive protection can be achieved against various risks and hazards.

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34. The environment for security forces (SF) personnel working in the entry control facilities (ECF) must be

Explanation

SF personnel working in entry control facilities (ECF) require an environment that is safe and comfortable. This is crucial for their well-being and ability to perform their duties effectively. Safety ensures that they are protected from any potential threats or dangers that may arise in their line of work. Comfort is important to ensure that they can focus on their tasks without distractions or discomfort. It is essential to prioritize the physical and mental well-being of SF personnel to maintain a secure and efficient working environment.

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35. The immediate impression the entry control facility (ECF) must impart through its design is one of

Explanation

The immediate impression that the entry control facility (ECF) must impart through its design is professionalism and commitment. This means that the design of the facility should convey a sense of professionalism, indicating that the facility is well-organized, efficient, and serious about its responsibilities. It should also convey a sense of commitment, showing that the facility is dedicated to its mission and the safety and security of the area it controls. This impression can be achieved through the use of clean and organized spaces, professional signage and branding, and clear and efficient processes for entry and access.

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36. You should make restricted areas as small as possible to eliminate the

Explanation

To minimize the need for securing and maintaining unnecessary terrain, it is important to make restricted areas as small as possible. By doing so, the focus can be directed towards protecting and maintaining only the essential areas, reducing the resources and effort required to secure and patrol the region. This approach also ensures that the troops can effectively guard the restricted areas without spreading themselves too thin, allowing for more efficient and effective security measures.

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37. In what way can subordinate joint force commands organize?

Explanation

Subordinate joint force commands can organize by service component or function. This means that they can be organized based on the specific military service involved (such as Army, Navy, Air Force) or by the specific function they perform (such as logistics, intelligence, operations). This allows for a more efficient and effective command structure, as it ensures that each service component or function is properly represented and coordinated within the joint force command.

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38. Generally, specially trained terrorists are of above average intelligence and between the ages of

Explanation

The correct answer is 23-30. This age range is suggested because it encompasses individuals who have completed their education and are likely to have gained some experience in their field, making them more capable of carrying out complex tasks. Additionally, individuals within this age range are typically physically fit and have the ability to endure the physical demands of terrorist activities.

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39. Which threat level I activity is identified by random acts against targets of opportunity?

Explanation

Sympathizers are individuals who support a particular cause or group but may not directly engage in organized or planned attacks. They may carry out random acts against targets of opportunity to show their support or express their frustration. These acts can include vandalism, graffiti, or minor disruptions. While not as organized or strategic as the activities of terrorists or agents, sympathizers can still pose a threat and create fear or unrest within a community.

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40. The capability to reduce the capability of attacking forces and reconnaissance assets through the principles of hide, blend, disguise, and decoy to protect friendly assets and aim points with materials and equipment that alter or obscure part or all of their multispectral signature is

Explanation

The correct answer is camouflage, concealment, and deception (CCD). This refers to the capability of using techniques such as hiding, blending, disguising, and decoying to protect friendly assets and aim points by altering or obscuring their multispectral signature. These techniques are employed to reduce the capability of attacking forces and reconnaissance assets.

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41. What unit type code (UTC) when deployed with UTC's QFEBB and QFEBS, provides HQ staff support for a medium to large (130-180 personnel) deployed security forces (SF) unit?

Explanation

The correct answer is QFEBA. When deployed with UTC's QFEBB and QFEBS, QFEBA provides HQ staff support for a medium to large deployed security forces unit.

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42. During peacetime operation, what unit type code (UTC) would provide the initial security for USAF resources and personnel, conduct convoys, and defend local and other security missions as required?

Explanation

During peacetime operations, the unit type code (UTC) QFEB2 would provide the initial security for USAF resources and personnel, conduct convoys, and defend local and other security missions as required.

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43. What pre-deployment factor is considered a constant?

Explanation

Treaties are considered a constant pre-deployment factor because once they are signed, they remain in effect unless they are renegotiated or terminated. Unlike weather, which can change unpredictably, or intelligence and political climate, which can fluctuate over time, treaties provide a stable framework for international relations and military deployments. Therefore, treaties are a constant factor that military planners can rely on when considering pre-deployment factors.

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44. Fixed bases having well-established perimeters usually have limited

Explanation

Fixed bases with well-established perimeters usually have limited depth. This means that the base is not designed to have extensive underground facilities or multiple layers of defense. Instead, the focus is on securing the perimeter and ensuring that any potential threats are detected and dealt with before they can breach the outer defenses. This approach allows for effective defense within a specific area, but may lack the ability to respond to threats from different directions or to withstand prolonged attacks.

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45. What does not need to be shown on a sketch?

Explanation

The location of the home station flight does not need to be shown on a sketch. A sketch is typically used to depict specific details relevant to a particular situation or objective. In this case, the focus is on observation posts, patrol routes, engagement lines, mines, sensors, and obstacles. The location of the home station flight is not directly related to these elements and therefore does not need to be included in the sketch.

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46. Because the danger increases with the size of the weapons, how should artillery be used when integrating indirect suppressive fires to support the breach and assault?

Explanation

Artillery should be used to isolate the objective when integrating indirect suppressive fires to support the breach and assault. By targeting enemy positions away from the breach site, the artillery can create a buffer zone and prevent reinforcements from reaching the objective. This strategy helps to weaken the enemy's defenses and pave the way for a successful breach and assault operation.

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47. A "call for fire" is a message

Explanation

The correct answer is "prepared by the observer" because a "call for fire" is a message that is created and sent by the observer on the ground to request artillery or air support. The observer is responsible for accurately describing the target and providing all necessary information for the fire mission. The flight leader, unit, and observer may be involved in the process, but ultimately it is the observer who prepares the message.

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48. What placement allows for redundancy in observation and better sector coverage?

Explanation

The placement that allows for redundancy in observation and better sector coverage is "In-depth." This placement implies a thorough and comprehensive examination of a particular area or subject, ensuring that all aspects are thoroughly covered. By adopting an in-depth approach, redundancy in observation is achieved, as multiple perspectives and angles are considered, leading to a more comprehensive understanding of the subject matter. Additionally, better sector coverage is facilitated as all relevant aspects and sectors are explored in detail, leaving no gaps or areas unaddressed.

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49. A relatively secure area that allows for positive identification of personnel and vehicles is defined as

Explanation

A search area is a relatively secure area that allows for positive identification of personnel and vehicles. This means that it is a designated space where thorough searches can be conducted to ensure that only authorized individuals and vehicles are present. It implies that there are measures in place to verify the identity of individuals and the legitimacy of vehicles entering the area, enhancing security and preventing unauthorized access.

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50. The primary purpose of the operations security (OPSEC) program is to

Explanation

The primary purpose of the operations security (OPSEC) program is to support the commander by ensuring the command or organization actively practices OPSEC. This means that the program is designed to help the commander protect sensitive information and prevent it from falling into the wrong hands. By actively practicing OPSEC, the command or organization can identify and mitigate vulnerabilities, threats, and risks to their operations and communications, ultimately enhancing their overall security and mission success.

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51. Commanders do not use rules of engagement (ROE) to ensure operations

Explanation

Rules of engagement (ROE) are guidelines that outline the circumstances and limitations under which military forces can engage in combat. They are primarily used to ensure that military operations are conducted in accordance with international law and national policy goals. While commanders may use various tools and strategies to meet manning standards, the use of rules of engagement is not directly related to this objective. Therefore, the correct answer is that commanders do not use rules of engagement to meet manning standards.

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52. What operations are key to assembling an acurate picture of the battle space?

Explanation

Intelligence operations are key to assembling an accurate picture of the battle space. Ground defense refers to the protection of military installations on land, while clandestine operations involve secret or covert activities. Aerial operations pertain to activities conducted in the air. However, it is intelligence operations that gather and analyze information from various sources to provide a comprehensive understanding of the battle space, including enemy capabilities, intentions, and vulnerabilities. Intelligence enables effective decision-making and planning, ensuring the success of military operations.

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53. What is not an example of a routine in defense measure?

Explanation

Assigning sectors of fire is not an example of a routine in defense measure because it is a tactical decision made during combat operations, rather than a regular task or procedure. Routine defense measures typically involve activities such as personal hygiene, sanitation, rest, relief, rotation, weapons maintenance, and cleaning schedules. These routines are designed to maintain the readiness and effectiveness of the defense force on a regular basis.

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54. In terms of engagement ranges, machine guns in the base-of-fire element may find themselves firing at targets within how many meters of the element?

Explanation

In terms of engagement ranges, machine guns in the base-of-fire element may find themselves firing at targets within 800 meters of the element. This suggests that the effective range of the machine guns is up to 800 meters, meaning they are capable of engaging targets within that distance.

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55. Proper machine gun placement maximizes fire in

Explanation

Proper machine gun placement maximizes fire in width and depth. This means that the machine gun is positioned in such a way that it covers a wide area horizontally (width) and has a deep reach into the enemy's territory (depth). This allows for maximum coverage and effectiveness in suppressing enemy forces and controlling the battlefield. By covering a wide area and having a deep reach, the machine gun can engage multiple targets and prevent the enemy from advancing or flanking.

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56. The primary responsibility of air base defense (ABD) forces is

Explanation

The primary responsibility of air base defense (ABD) forces is to defeat level I threats, which are immediate and direct threats to the air base, and to disrupt or delay level II threats, which are more advanced and pose a greater risk. This is done within the tactical area of responsibility (TAOR) surrounding the air base, ensuring the safety and security of the base and its operations. By focusing on defeating level I threats and disrupting or delaying level II threats, ABD forces can effectively protect the air base and maintain operational readiness.

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57. What factor is the stated desire or history of terrorist attacks against US interests?

Explanation

The correct answer is "Intentions." This factor refers to the stated desire or history of terrorist attacks against US interests. It implies the motivation behind the attacks and the specific goals of the terrorists. Understanding their intentions is crucial in assessing the threat level and developing appropriate countermeasures. Activity, operational capability, and operating environment are also important factors to consider, but they do not directly address the stated desire or history of terrorist attacks.

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58. Which threat spectrum level consists of small tactical units, unconventional warfare forces, and guerrillas?

Explanation

Threat spectrum level II consists of small tactical units, unconventional warfare forces, and guerrillas. This level involves smaller, more localized threats that operate in unconventional ways. These groups often use guerrilla tactics and unconventional warfare strategies to achieve their objectives. They may be loosely organized and operate in smaller units, making them harder to detect and combat. This level poses a significant challenge for military forces due to its asymmetrical nature and the difficulty in identifying and countering these smaller, more agile threats.

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59. Missions that primarily taget nuclear weapons-related facilities are what threat spectrum level?

Explanation

The correct answer is II. This is because missions that primarily target nuclear weapons-related facilities pose a significant threat to national security and require a high level of expertise and resources to execute successfully. These facilities are heavily guarded and protected, making them difficult to infiltrate or disable. Therefore, such missions fall under the threat spectrum level II, indicating a high level of risk and complexity.

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60. Which threat level uses doctrine that stresses the use of battalion-size units to conduct helicopter insertions to a depth of 50 km?

Explanation

Threat level III uses doctrine that stresses the use of battalion-size units to conduct helicopter insertions to a depth of 50 km.

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61. When establishing base sectors, you must ensure critical resources and areas are

Explanation

When establishing base sectors, it is important to evenly group critical resources and areas. This ensures a balanced distribution of these resources and areas throughout the sectors, preventing any one sector from being overloaded or lacking in essential resources. By evenly grouping these resources and areas, the base sectors can operate efficiently and effectively, maximizing their potential and minimizing any vulnerabilities.

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62. What should necessitate the need to dig hasty firing positions in the field?

Explanation

When you have made contact with the enemy, it is important to dig hasty firing positions in the field to provide immediate protection and cover for your troops. This allows them to engage the enemy while minimizing their exposure and vulnerability. By quickly digging firing positions, soldiers can take advantage of the natural terrain and create a defensive position that offers both concealment and protection. This helps to increase their chances of survival and success in the face of enemy fire.

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63. The authority for establishing a national defense area (NDA) is shown with

Explanation

A temporary sign is the authority for establishing a national defense area (NDA). This implies that the sign serves as an official indication or declaration of the NDA boundaries. It is likely that the sign contains relevant information and instructions regarding the NDA, such as restrictions, access limitations, or specific rules to be followed within the area. The temporary nature of the sign suggests that the NDA might not be a permanent establishment, but rather a temporary measure in response to a particular situation or event.

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64. What should the defense force commander (DFC) consider in the sectorization scheme to provide maximum protection for base critical resources?

Explanation

The defense force commander (DFC) should consider the entire tactical area of responsibility (TAOR) in the sectorization scheme to provide maximum protection for base critical resources. This means that the DFC should take into account the entire area for which they are responsible in terms of defense and allocate resources accordingly. By considering the TAOR, the DFC can ensure that all potential threats and vulnerabilities within the area are addressed and that the base critical resources are adequately protected.

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65. Against what threat levels can close precision engagement (CPE) add significantly to delaying actions by enhancing the standoff capabilities of defense forces?

Explanation

Close precision engagement (CPE) can significantly enhance the standoff capabilities of defense forces against threat levels II and III. This means that CPE can effectively contribute to delaying actions when facing moderate to high-level threats. By utilizing precise and accurate weaponry, defense forces can engage the enemy from a safe distance, minimizing the risk to their own forces while effectively neutralizing the threat. This capability is particularly valuable in situations where the enemy possesses advanced weaponry or has a significant numerical advantage.

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66. What are two types of obstacles you may encounter?

Explanation

Existing and reinforcing are two types of obstacles that one may encounter. Existing obstacles refer to the barriers or challenges that are already present and need to be overcome. These obstacles could be physical, mental, or emotional in nature. Reinforcing obstacles, on the other hand, are those that are added or intensified over time, making it even more difficult to overcome them. These obstacles may require additional effort, resources, or strategies to navigate and overcome.

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67. What assessment addresses the broad range of physical threats to the security of personnel and assets, and should be conducted periodically?

Explanation

A vulnerability assessment is a type of assessment that addresses the broad range of physical threats to the security of personnel and assets. It is conducted periodically to identify weaknesses or vulnerabilities in the security measures of a system or organization. This assessment helps in understanding the potential risks and threats that could be exploited by attackers, allowing for the implementation of appropriate countermeasures to mitigate these vulnerabilities and enhance overall security.

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68. Directing your operation toward a defined and attainable objective that contributes to operational and tactical claim is what principle of war?

Explanation

The principle of war being referred to in this question is "Objective." This principle emphasizes the importance of having a clear and achievable goal in any military operation. By directing the operation towards a defined objective, commanders can ensure that their actions are focused and purposeful, ultimately contributing to the success of both operational and tactical claims.

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69. Guidance on the application of force and exercising of the inherent right and obligation of self-defense is the purpose of the

Explanation

The correct answer is US military's standing rules of engagement (ROE). The purpose of the US military's standing rules of engagement is to provide guidance on the application of force and the exercise of the inherent right and obligation of self-defense. These rules outline when and how military personnel are authorized to use force in various situations, ensuring that they act in accordance with international laws and regulations. The standing rules of engagement help to maintain discipline, protect civilians, and achieve mission objectives while minimizing the risk of unnecessary harm or escalation of conflicts.

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70. What unit type code (UTC) consists of a 3-person team of specialty trained and equipped security forces (SF) personnel, who deploy as mission essential ground personnel (MEGP) on airlift aircraft transiting or operating out of high-risk locations?

Explanation

The correct answer is GFEPR. The question is asking for the unit type code (UTC) that consists of a 3-person team of specialty trained and equipped security forces personnel. The UTC also deploys as mission essential ground personnel on airlift aircraft in high-risk locations. Out of the given options, GFEPR is the only code that fits this description.

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71. What is the main mission of the machine gun?

Explanation

The main mission of the machine gun is to protect and defend through defensive and offensive missions. This means that the machine gun is used to provide firepower and suppressive fire against enemy forces, both in defensive positions and during offensive operations. It plays a crucial role in ensuring the safety and security of military personnel and critical resources by engaging and neutralizing enemy threats.

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72. What three subordinate areas are search areas divided into?

Explanation

The search areas are divided into three subordinate areas: personnel, vehicle, and reaction force. This means that when conducting a search, these three areas are the focus and consideration. The personnel area refers to searching for individuals, the vehicle area refers to searching for any vehicles that may be involved, and the reaction force area refers to searching for any potential threats or actions that may require a response.

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