A Practice Test On Anesthesia! Trivia Quiz

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  • 1/85 Questions

    Which of the following benzodiazepines is most commonly used during the preoperative period and for IV conscious sedation?

    • Diazepam
    • Lorazepam
    • Midazolam
    • Alprazolam
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About This Quiz

A practice test on anaesthesia trivia quiz! There are different types of drugs given to a patient so that they can be unconscious or some parts of their body made numb of feeling. In some instances, not drugs but gasses are used. As an aspiring anaesthetic, how much do you know about different benzodiazepines, their effect as well as consumption in different types of patients? This quiz will help you find out!

A Practice Test On Anesthesia! Trivia Quiz - Quiz

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  • 2. 

    What medication would you give to treat an opioid overdose?

    • Flumazenil, slow titration of 0.2 mg doses

    • Nubain 10-20 mg

    • Lithium

    • Narcan 1-4 mcg/kg

    Correct Answer
    A. Narcan 1-4 mcg/kg
    Explanation
    Narcan, also known as naloxone, is the medication used to treat an opioid overdose. It is administered in doses of 1-4 mcg/kg. Narcan works by binding to opioid receptors in the brain and blocking the effects of opioids, reversing the overdose symptoms and restoring normal breathing. Flumazenil is used to treat benzodiazepine overdoses, Nubain is an opioid analgesic used for pain relief, and lithium is a mood stabilizer used in the treatment of bipolar disorder.

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  • 3. 

    The drug most commonly prescribed to treat opioid overdose is?

    • Flumazenil

    • Nalbuphine

    • Naloxone

    • Butorphanol

    Correct Answer
    A. Naloxone
    Explanation
    Naloxone is the correct answer because it is the drug most commonly prescribed to treat opioid overdose. Naloxone is an opioid receptor antagonist that rapidly reverses the effects of opioids, including respiratory depression, sedation, and hypotension. It works by binding to the opioid receptors in the brain and blocking the effects of opioids. Naloxone is often administered in emergency situations to counteract the potentially life-threatening effects of opioid overdose and restore normal breathing.

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  • 4. 

    What is responsible for the quick awakening associated with a single dose of thiopental?

    • Rapid hepatic oxidation

    • Rapid renal excretion

    • Redistribution

    • Patient respiratory rate

    Correct Answer
    A. Redistribution
    Explanation
    The quick awakening associated with a single dose of thiopental is due to redistribution. Thiopental is a short-acting barbiturate that rapidly distributes from the central nervous system to other tissues in the body, such as muscle and fat. This redistribution decreases the concentration of thiopental in the brain, leading to a rapid awakening.

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  • 5. 

    In regards to the adjustments of Benzodiazepines in respect to the elderly patient.  Would you expect to have:

    • Significant increase in initial dose and anticipate marked decrease in duration of action

    • Modest decrease in initial dose and anticipate marked increase in duration of action

    • No change in dose or frequency or duration from that of an healthy 25 year old patient.

    • None of above

    Correct Answer
    A. Modest decrease in initial dose and anticipate marked increase in duration of action
    Explanation
    As the elderly population is more susceptible to the effects of medications, including benzodiazepines, it is expected that the initial dose of benzodiazepines would be decreased in elderly patients. This is because their bodies may not metabolize the drug as efficiently as a younger individual, leading to a higher risk of adverse effects. Additionally, the duration of action of benzodiazepines is anticipated to increase in elderly patients due to slower clearance of the drug from their system. Therefore, a modest decrease in the initial dose and a marked increase in the duration of action would be expected in elderly patients.

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  • 6. 

    Define Affinity:

    • Inhibit or block responses caused by an agonist

    • Drugs which alter the physiology of a cell by binding to plasma membrane or intracellular receptors

    • The strength of binding between drug and receptor

    • Binds to a site other than the agonist-binding domain

    Correct Answer
    A. The strength of binding between drug and receptor
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "the strength of binding between drug and receptor." Affinity refers to the degree of attraction or binding between a drug and its receptor. It indicates how strongly a drug binds to a specific receptor site, which can affect the drug's potency and efficacy. A higher affinity means a stronger binding, resulting in a more potent drug-receptor interaction.

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  • 7. 

    Which adverse reaction is a patient most likely to experience after receiving general anesthesia?

    • Nauseau & Vomiting

    • Seizures

    • Cyanosis

    • Increased HR

    Correct Answer
    A. Nauseau & Vomiting
    Explanation
    After receiving general anesthesia, a patient is most likely to experience nausea and vomiting as an adverse reaction. This is a common side effect of anesthesia and can be caused by the drugs used, the disruption of the digestive system, or the body's response to the anesthesia. Nausea and vomiting can also be influenced by factors such as individual sensitivity, the duration of anesthesia, and the type of surgery. It is important for healthcare providers to manage and treat these symptoms to ensure patient comfort and prevent further complications.

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  • 8. 

    What drug would you choose to treat a pt with a benzodiazepine overdose?

    • Flumazenil, slow titration of 0.2 mg doses IV

    • Narcan, slow titration of 1-4mcg/kg

    • Flurazepam 15-30 mg

    • Just wait it out.

    Correct Answer
    A. Flumazenil, slow titration of 0.2 mg doses IV
    Explanation
    Flumazenil is the correct choice for treating a benzodiazepine overdose. It is a selective antagonist of benzodiazepine receptors and can reverse the sedative effects of benzodiazepines. Slow titration of 0.2 mg doses intravenously is recommended to prevent rapid reversal and potential withdrawal symptoms. Narcan is used to reverse opioid overdose, not benzodiazepine overdose. Flurazepam is a benzodiazepine itself and would not be appropriate for treating an overdose. Waiting it out is not a safe or effective treatment option for a benzodiazepine overdose.

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  • 9. 

    Benzodiazepines are extensively protein bound.  Therefore, in the presence of renal failure their clinical effect will be:

    • Shortened

    • Prolonged

    • No significant change.

    Correct Answer
    A. Prolonged
    Explanation
    Benzodiazepines are highly protein bound, meaning they bind strongly to proteins in the blood. In the presence of renal failure, the elimination of drugs from the body can be impaired. Since benzodiazepines are bound to proteins, they may be less available for elimination in renal failure, leading to a prolonged clinical effect. Therefore, the clinical effect of benzodiazepines is likely to be prolonged in the presence of renal failure.

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  • 10. 

    When doing a pre-op evaluation for a pt you notice the pt has low albumin levels. How would this effect the amount of Midazolam given to the pt for pre-medication?

    • You would need to increase the amount given in order to reach the desired effect

    • You would not change the dose at all.

    • You would decrease the amount of drug given since this pt may be at risk for overdose.

    Correct Answer
    A. You would decrease the amount of drug given since this pt may be at risk for overdose.
    Explanation
    Low albumin levels can affect the distribution and metabolism of drugs in the body. Albumin is a protein that binds to many drugs, including Midazolam, and helps transport them throughout the body. When albumin levels are low, there is less protein available to bind to the drug, leading to an increased concentration of free, unbound drug in the bloodstream. This can result in a higher drug effect and an increased risk of overdose. Therefore, to minimize the risk of overdose, the amount of Midazolam given to the patient for pre-medication should be decreased.

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  • 11. 

    What is the elimination half time of Midazolam?

    • 21-37 hours

    • 1-4 hours

    • 10-20 hours

    • 5-10 hours

    Correct Answer
    A. 1-4 hours
    Explanation
    The elimination half-life of Midazolam is 1-4 hours. This means that it takes approximately 1-4 hours for the concentration of Midazolam in the body to decrease by half. After several half-lives, the drug is considered to be effectively eliminated from the body.

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  • 12. 

    Which of the following is NOT a pharmacological effect of benzodiazepines?

    • Amnesia

    • Anxiolysis

    • Analgesia

    • Anticonvulsant

    Correct Answer
    A. Analgesia
    Explanation
    Benzodiazepines are a class of drugs that are primarily used for their anxiolytic (anxiety-reducing), sedative, hypnotic, and muscle relaxant properties. They are not typically used for their analgesic (pain-relieving) effects. While benzodiazepines may indirectly help with pain by reducing anxiety or muscle tension, they are not directly prescribed for pain relief. Therefore, analgesia is not considered a pharmacological effect of benzodiazepines.

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  • 13. 

    The dose of Benzodiazepines required to reach a desired clinical end point is increased in the elderly compared to the younger patient.

    • True

    • False

    Correct Answer
    A. False
    Explanation
    The statement is false because the dose of Benzodiazepines required to reach a desired clinical end point is actually decreased in the elderly compared to younger patients. This is because the elderly population is more sensitive to the effects of Benzodiazepines due to age-related changes in metabolism and drug clearance. Therefore, a lower dose is needed to achieve the desired therapeutic effect in older patients.

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  • 14. 

    What is an antagonist?

    • Inhibit or block responses caused by an agonist

    • A drug which alters the physiology of a cell by binding to plasma membrane or intracellular receptors

    • Biochemical messengers, often called 2ndmessengers

    • The strength of binding between drug and receptor

    Correct Answer
    A. Inhibit or block responses caused by an agonist
    Explanation
    An antagonist is a substance that inhibits or blocks the responses caused by an agonist. Agonists are substances that activate receptors in the body, while antagonists work against these activations by binding to the receptors without activating them. This prevents the agonist from binding and activating the receptor, thus inhibiting or blocking its responses.

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  • 15. 

    Which of the following is not a cerebral effect of benzodiazepines?

    • Reduce CMRO2 & CBF

    • Increase the seizure threshold to prevent seizure

    • Anti-anxiety & sedative effects

    • Direct Analgesic Effects

    Correct Answer
    A. Direct Analgesic Effects
    Explanation
    Benzodiazepines are a class of drugs that are primarily used for their anxiolytic (anti-anxiety) and sedative effects. They work by enhancing the activity of a neurotransmitter called gamma-aminobutyric acid (GABA) in the brain, which leads to a decrease in neuronal excitability and a calming effect. Benzodiazepines can also increase the seizure threshold, making them useful in the treatment of seizures. However, they do not have direct analgesic effects, meaning they do not directly relieve pain. Therefore, the correct answer is "Direct Analgesic Effects".

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  • 16. 

    Which benzodiazepine is primarily used for induction of anesthesia?

    • Midazolam

    • Propofol

    • Thiopental

    • Etomidate

    Correct Answer
    A. Midazolam
    Explanation
    Midazolam is primarily used for induction of anesthesia due to its fast onset and short duration of action. It is a benzodiazepine that acts as a sedative, anxiolytic, and amnestic agent. It produces sedation and amnesia, making it useful for inducing anesthesia before surgical procedures. Propofol is also commonly used for induction of anesthesia, but it is not a benzodiazepine. Thiopental and etomidate are also used for anesthesia induction, but they are not benzodiazepines.

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  • 17. 

    Sodium Thiopental is a contraindication in which patients?

    • History of neurologic distrubances

    • History of hemolytic amenia

    • Acute intermittent porphyria

    • Immunosuppression

    Correct Answer
    A. Acute intermittent porphyria
    Explanation
    Sodium Thiopental is contraindicated in patients with Acute Intermittent Porphyria. This means that it should not be used in individuals who have this specific medical condition. Acute Intermittent Porphyria is a rare genetic disorder that affects the production of heme, a component of hemoglobin. Using Sodium Thiopental in patients with this condition can lead to a potentially life-threatening exacerbation of symptoms. Therefore, it is important to avoid administering this medication to patients with a history of Acute Intermittent Porphyria.

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  • 18. 

    What is the MOA of Benzos?

    • Blockade of chloride channels leading to depolarization and inhibition of neurotransmitter

    • Inhibition of cyclooxygenase activity

    • Inhibition of GABA receptor binding which leads to degredation of GABA, preventing it from exerting it's effect.

    • Enhances the inhibitory effects of various neurotransmitter by facilitating GABA receptor binding. This opens chloride channels and causes hyperpolarization.

    Correct Answer
    A. Enhances the inhibitory effects of various neurotransmitter by facilitating GABA receptor binding. This opens chloride channels and causes hyperpolarization.
    Explanation
    Benzos enhance the inhibitory effects of various neurotransmitters by facilitating GABA receptor binding. This action opens chloride channels, causing hyperpolarization. This hyperpolarization inhibits the transmission of signals between neurons, resulting in a calming and sedating effect.

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  • 19. 

    Which of the following is not an effect of opiods?

    • Chest wall rigidity

    • Fetal respiratory depression

    • Anterograde Amnesia

    • Constipation

    Correct Answer
    A. Anterograde Amnesia
    Explanation
    Anterograde amnesia is not an effect of opioids. Opioids primarily act on the central nervous system to relieve pain, induce sedation, and produce respiratory depression. They can also cause side effects such as constipation and chest wall rigidity. However, anterograde amnesia, which refers to the inability to form new memories after an event, is not typically associated with opioid use.

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  • 20. 

    A  barbituate with an oxygen atom on the #2 carbon would be called a...

    • Thiobarbituates

    • Malobarbituates

    • Pentabarbituates

    • Oxybarbituate

    Correct Answer
    A. Oxybarbituate
    Explanation
    An oxybarbiturate is a barbiturate compound that contains an oxygen atom on the #2 carbon. The prefix "oxy-" indicates the presence of an oxygen atom. Barbiturates are a class of drugs that act as central nervous system depressants, and they are commonly used as sedatives, hypnotics, and anesthetics. The presence of an oxygen atom on the #2 carbon in a barbiturate molecule can affect its pharmacological properties, such as its potency and duration of action. Therefore, a barbiturate with an oxygen atom on the #2 carbon would be called an oxybarbiturate.

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  • 21. 

    You are caring for Mr. X who is currently having a Left BKA. You notice his HR increasing and take a quick glance at his pupils to see they are normal size. His train of four is currently 0/4. What does this tell you?

    • He is too light, Increase the sevo.

    • Maybe he could use some more opioids, to relieve pain.

    • Maybe he could use some more paralytic.

    • He needs a little more midazolam, to calm him.

    Correct Answer
    A. Maybe he could use some more opioids, to relieve pain.
    Explanation
    The correct answer suggests that Mr. X may need more opioids to relieve his pain. The increased heart rate and the normal size of his pupils indicate that his pain level may be elevated. Increasing the opioids can help alleviate his pain and potentially reduce his heart rate. The train of four being 0/4 indicates that there is no muscle response to nerve stimulation, which is unrelated to his pain level.

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  • 22. 

    The elimination half time of Methohexital is ~4 hours.

    • True

    • False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    Methohexital has an elimination half-life of approximately 4 hours. This means that it takes around 4 hours for half of the drug to be eliminated from the body. Therefore, the statement "The elimination half-time of Methohexital is ~4 hours" is true.

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  • 23. 

    What respiratory effects are associated with opioid?

    • Chest wall flaccidity

    • Increase RR with decrease Tv

    • Decrease RR and increase Tv

    • Increased response to CO2

    Correct Answer
    A. Decrease RR and increase Tv
    Explanation
    Opioids are known to have respiratory depressant effects. They decrease the respiratory rate (RR) and increase the tidal volume (Tv), which refers to the amount of air inhaled and exhaled during each breath. This combination of decreased RR and increased Tv can lead to respiratory depression, where breathing becomes slow and shallow. This effect can be dangerous, especially in cases of opioid overdose, as it can result in inadequate oxygenation and potentially lead to respiratory arrest.

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  • 24. 

    What is responsible for the pain reaction elicited when diazepam is given IM?

    • Any IM injection is painful

    • Ethyl alcohol component

    • Propylene glycol component

    • Solubility component

    Correct Answer
    A. Propylene glycol component
    Explanation
    The propylene glycol component in diazepam is responsible for the pain reaction elicited when it is given intramuscularly. Propylene glycol is known to cause irritation and discomfort at the injection site, which can result in pain.

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  • 25. 

    All benzos share what similarities?

    • All are highly alkaline solutions

    • Composed of a benzene ring fused to a seven-membered diazepine ring

    • They are safe to be given during pregnancy

    • Composed of malonic acid and urea

    Correct Answer
    A. Composed of a benzene ring fused to a seven-membered diazepine ring
    Explanation
    The correct answer states that all benzos share the similarity of being composed of a benzene ring fused to a seven-membered diazepine ring. This means that the chemical structure of all benzos includes these two components. This structural similarity is what classifies them as benzodiazepines and distinguishes them from other compounds.

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  • 26. 

    Describe the metabolism and excretion of the benzodiazepines?

    • Metabolized by liver and excreted in the urine

    • Metabolized in kidneys and excreted in feces

    • Metabolized by liver and excreted in feces

    • Metabolized in kidneys and excreted by urine

    Correct Answer
    A. Metabolized by liver and excreted in the urine
    Explanation
    Benzodiazepines are metabolized by the liver, meaning that the liver breaks them down into different compounds. These metabolites are then eliminated from the body through the urine, indicating that they are excreted in the urine. This process allows the body to eliminate the benzodiazepines and their metabolites, ensuring that they do not accumulate in the body.

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  • 27. 

    A Barbituate with a sulfur atom on the #2 carbon is called a...

    • Thiobarbituates

    • Oxybarbituates

    • Pentabarbituate

    • Sulbarbituates

    Correct Answer
    A. Thiobarbituates
    Explanation
    A barbiturate with a sulfur atom on the #2 carbon is called a thiobarbiturate. The prefix "thio-" indicates the presence of a sulfur atom. Barbiturates are a class of drugs that act as central nervous system depressants, and the addition of a sulfur atom on the #2 carbon changes the chemical properties of the compound, resulting in a thiobarbiturate. Oxybarbituates, pentabarbituate, and sulbarbituates are not correct terms to describe a barbiturate with a sulfur atom on the #2 carbon.

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  • 28. 

    How is midazolam unique in comparison to other benzos?

    • It is the only benzo safe to give to pregnant women.

    • Is known to cause pain upon injection, but has minimal respiratory depression

    • It is hydrophilic and becomes lipid soluble upon exposure to blood.

    • It is not highly protein bound like the other benzo's and thus more is available for use by the body.

    Correct Answer
    A. It is hydrophilic and becomes lipid soluble upon exposure to blood.
    Explanation
    Midazolam is unique in comparison to other benzos because it is hydrophilic and becomes lipid soluble upon exposure to blood. This means that it can easily cross the blood-brain barrier and have a rapid onset of action. Other benzos may not have the same ability to become lipid soluble, which can affect their pharmacokinetics and efficacy.

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  • 29. 

    How does fentanyl compare to morphine?

    • 1/10 as potent

    • 10 times as potent

    • 100 times as potent

    • 1000 times as potent

    Correct Answer
    A. 100 times as potent
    Explanation
    Fentanyl is 100 times as potent as morphine. This means that fentanyl is much stronger and more powerful than morphine in terms of its pain-relieving effects. A smaller dose of fentanyl is required to achieve the same level of pain relief as a larger dose of morphine. This potency difference is important to consider when prescribing and administering these medications, as it can impact the effectiveness and potential side effects of the drugs.

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  • 30. 

    What is the MOA of opioids?

    • Act at stereospecific receptors at presynaptic and postsynaptic sites in the central nervous system. mimic the endogenous endorphines to inhibit pain transmission.

    • Receptor binding enhances the inhibitory effects of various neurotransmitter by facilitating GABA receptor binding.

    • Depression of the reticulcar activating system, suppression of excitatory neurotranmitters and enhancement of inhibitory neurotransmitters.

    Correct Answer
    A. Act at stereospecific receptors at presynaptic and postsynaptic sites in the central nervous system. mimic the endogenous endorphines to inhibit pain transmission.
    Explanation
    Opioids act at stereospecific receptors at presynaptic and postsynaptic sites in the central nervous system. They mimic the endogenous endorphins to inhibit pain transmission. This means that opioids bind to specific receptors in the brain and spinal cord, which helps to reduce the transmission of pain signals. By mimicking the body's natural pain-relieving substances, opioids can effectively relieve pain.

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  • 31. 

    Duration of action of highly lipid soluble barbituates is determined by...

    • Hepatic Oxidation

    • Lipid Solubility

    • Renal Excretion

    • Redistribution

    Correct Answer
    A. Redistribution
    Explanation
    ppt slide 10

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  • 32. 

    How is remifentanil metabolized?

    • 90% metabolized to normeperidine,1/2 as active as a analgesic

    • By nonspecific plasma esterase inactive metabolites

    • Metabolized via conjugation with glucuronic acid

    • Metabolized via hepatic oxidation

    Correct Answer
    A. By nonspecific plasma esterase inactive metabolites
    Explanation
    Remifentanil is metabolized by nonspecific plasma esterase into inactive metabolites. This means that the drug is broken down by enzymes in the plasma into metabolites that do not have any pharmacological activity. This is an important process as it allows for the elimination of the drug from the body, reducing its effects and potential side effects. Metabolism via nonspecific plasma esterase is a common pathway for the breakdown of many drugs in the body.

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  • 33. 

    Which of the following is not one of the Five Principle pharmacological effects of Benzodiazepines?

    • Sedation

    • Anxiolysis

    • Retrograde Amnesia

    • Anticonvulsant

    • Spinal Cord mediated skeletal muscle relaxation

    Correct Answer
    A. Retrograde Amnesia
    Explanation
    Retrograde amnesia is not one of the five principal pharmacological effects of benzodiazepines. The five principle effects are sedation, anxiolysis, anticonvulsant, spinal cord mediated skeletal muscle relaxation, and amnesia. Retrograde amnesia refers to the inability to recall past events, which is not a specific effect of benzodiazepines.

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  • 34. 

    Unlike the benzo's, Barbituates are known to increase CBF and ICP.

    • True

    • False

    Correct Answer
    A. False
    Explanation
    Barbiturates are not known to increase CBF (cerebral blood flow) and ICP (intracranial pressure). In fact, they have the opposite effect by decreasing both CBF and ICP. This is one of the reasons why barbiturates are sometimes used in the management of increased intracranial pressure or cerebral edema. Therefore, the statement that barbiturates increase CBF and ICP is false.

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  • 35. 

    What is Substance P?

    • The major inhibitory neurotransmitter.

    • An active metabolite of opioid metabolism which relieves pain

    • An excitatory neurotransmitter presumed to be released by terminals of pain fibers

    • A rapper?

    Correct Answer
    A. An excitatory neurotransmitter presumed to be released by terminals of pain fibers
    Explanation
    Substance P is an excitatory neurotransmitter that is believed to be released by the terminals of pain fibers. It is involved in the transmission of pain signals in the body. This neurotransmitter plays a role in the regulation of pain perception and is associated with the sensation of pain. It is not a major inhibitory neurotransmitter or an active metabolite of opioid metabolism. The last option, "a rapper," is not a valid explanation for Substance P.

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  • 36. 

    What is the elimination half time of Diazepam?

    • 5-10 hours

    • 1-4 hours

    • 10-20 hours

    • 21-37 hours

    Correct Answer
    A. 21-37 hours
    Explanation
    The elimination half-life of Diazepam is the time it takes for half of the drug to be eliminated from the body. The given answer of 21-37 hours suggests that it takes between 21 and 37 hours for half of the Diazepam to be cleared from the system. This means that it takes a relatively long time for Diazepam to be eliminated from the body compared to the other options provided.

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  • 37. 

    Distribution of barbituates depends on all of the following except...

    • Lipid Solubility

    • Protein binding

    • Hepatic oxidation

    • Degree of ionization

    Correct Answer
    A. Hepatic oxidation
    Explanation
    The distribution of barbiturates depends on factors such as lipid solubility, protein binding, and degree of ionization. Hepatic oxidation, on the other hand, refers to the metabolism of barbiturates in the liver rather than their distribution. Therefore, hepatic oxidation is not a factor that affects the distribution of barbiturates.

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  • 38. 

    Which of the following effects is NOT associated with morphine.

    • Facial Redness

    • Stop Shivering

    • Hypotension

    • All of the above

    Correct Answer
    A. Stop Shivering
    Explanation
    Morphine is a potent painkiller and sedative, commonly used in medical settings. One of the effects associated with morphine is the suppression of the body's natural shivering response. Shivering is a reflex action that helps generate heat and maintain body temperature. However, morphine inhibits this response, leading to a decrease in shivering. Therefore, the correct answer is "Stop Shivering" as it is a known effect associated with morphine.

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  • 39. 

    Fentanyl has a much more rapid onset but a longer elimination half time than Morphine. Why?

    • Because of fentanyl high lipid solubility

    • Because fentanyl is highly protein bound

    • Because Morphine has a much high lipid solubility and thus is excreted more rapidly

    • Because morphine has a much larger Vd.

    Correct Answer
    A. Because of fentanyl high lipid solubility
    Explanation
    Fentanyl has a much more rapid onset and a longer elimination half time compared to Morphine because of its high lipid solubility. This means that fentanyl is able to cross cell membranes more easily and enter the central nervous system quickly, resulting in a faster onset of action. Additionally, the high lipid solubility of fentanyl also leads to a slower elimination from the body, as it is more likely to be stored in fatty tissues and released slowly over time.

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  • 40. 

    Which of the following drugs will cause pain upon injection due to the solvent propylene glycol?

    • Lorazepam

    • Flumazenil

    • Midazolam

    • Diazepam

    Correct Answer
    A. Diazepam
    Explanation
    Diazepam is the correct answer because it is commonly formulated with propylene glycol as a solvent. When injected, propylene glycol can cause pain and irritation at the injection site, leading to discomfort for the patient.

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  • 41. 

    What would be an appropirate Adult IV induction dose for midazolam?

    • 0.5 mg/kg

    • 0.1 mg/kg

    • 2-3 mg

    • 4 mg/kg

    Correct Answer
    A. 0.1 mg/kg
    Explanation
    An appropriate adult IV induction dose for midazolam would be 0.1 mg/kg. This dosage is commonly used for sedation and anesthesia induction in adults. It is important to calculate the dosage based on the individual's weight to ensure safety and effectiveness. Higher doses may lead to excessive sedation or adverse effects, while lower doses may not achieve the desired level of sedation. Therefore, 0.1 mg/kg is a suitable dosage for midazolam induction in adults.

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  • 42. 

    What effects do benzodiazepines exert upon the cardiovascular system?

    • No effect on cardiovascular system, even at high doses.

    • Decrease BP & PVR, especially in hypovolemic pt

    • Decrease ABP, CO & HR

    • Increase HR and decrease SV

    Correct Answer
    A. Decrease BP & PVR, especially in hypovolemic pt
    Explanation
    Benzodiazepines have a depressant effect on the cardiovascular system, leading to a decrease in blood pressure (BP) and peripheral vascular resistance (PVR). This effect is especially pronounced in hypovolemic patients. Additionally, benzodiazepines can decrease arterial blood pressure (ABP), cardiac output (CO), and heart rate (HR). However, they can also increase heart rate (HR) and decrease stroke volume (SV).

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  • 43. 

    Benzodiazepines are preferred as a pre-medication for anesthesia because they do not cause any respiratory depression in patients.

    • True

    • False

    Correct Answer
    A. False
    Explanation
    Benzodiazepines are not preferred as a pre-medication for anesthesia because they can cause respiratory depression in patients.

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  • 44. 

    Which of the following is NOT an endogenous peptide?

    • Endorphin

    • Ekephalin

    • Dynorphine

    • Epinorphin

    Correct Answer
    A. Epinorphin
    Explanation
    Epinorphin is not an endogenous peptide because it is not naturally produced in the body. Endogenous peptides, such as endorphin, enkephalin, and dynorphin, are naturally occurring peptides that are synthesized and released within the body. Epinorphin, on the other hand, is not produced by the body and is typically synthesized in a laboratory setting.

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  • 45. 

    What are the metabolites of morphine?

    • Morphine 3-gluconiride which is active and induces analgesia and resp depression, & Mophine 6-gluconiride which is inactive

    • Morphine 3-gluconiride & Mophine 6-gluconiride both of which are inactive.

    • Morphine 3-gluconiride which is inactive, & Mophine 6-gluconiride which is active and induces analgesia and resp depression

    • Morphine 3-gluconiride & Mophine 6-gluconiride both of which are active and cause respiratory depression and analgesia

    Correct Answer
    A. Morphine 3-gluconiride which is inactive, & Mophine 6-gluconiride which is active and induces analgesia and resp depression
    Explanation
    The correct answer states that the metabolite of morphine called Morphine 3-gluconiride is inactive, while the metabolite called Mophine 6-gluconiride is active and induces analgesia and respiratory depression. This means that Morphine 3-gluconiride does not have any pharmacological effects, while Mophine 6-gluconiride has the ability to relieve pain and depress respiration.

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  • 46. 

    How does Sufentanil compare to Morphine?

    • 1/10 as potent

    • 10 times as potent

    • 100 times as potent

    • 1,000 as potent

    Correct Answer
    A. 1,000 as potent
    Explanation
    Sufentanil is a synthetic opioid analgesic that is significantly more potent than morphine. The answer choice "1,000 as potent" suggests that Sufentanil is 1,000 times more potent than morphine. This means that a smaller dose of Sufentanil would be required to achieve the same level of pain relief compared to morphine.

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  • 47. 

    Put these medications in order of shortest elimination half time to longest: Midazolam, Diazepam, Lorazepam

    • Midazolam < Diazepam < Lorazepam

    • Diazepam < Lorazepam < Midazolam

    • Lorazepam < Midazolam < Diazepam

    • Midazolam < Lorazepam < Diazepam

    Correct Answer
    A. Midazolam < Lorazepam < Diazepam
    Explanation
    The elimination half-time of a medication refers to the time it takes for half of the drug to be eliminated from the body. In this case, the correct answer is Midazolam < Lorazepam < Diazepam. This means that Midazolam has the shortest elimination half-time, followed by Lorazepam, and then Diazepam.

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  • 48. 

    How much methohexital would you expect to find excreted unchanged in the urine?

    • < 1%

    • 1-3 %

    • 5-10 %

    • 95%

    Correct Answer
    A. < 1%
    Explanation
    Methohexital is a short-acting barbiturate used as an anesthetic. The given answer suggests that less than 1% of the administered dose is expected to be excreted unchanged in the urine. This indicates that a significant portion of the drug is likely to be metabolized or eliminated through other routes, such as hepatic metabolism or fecal excretion.

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  • 49. 

    Which medication would you give to reverse post-op ventilatory depression of Fentanyl while maintaining analgesia?

    • Nalbuphine

    • Narcan, carefully titrated

    • Flumazenil

    • Switch to Meperidine

    Correct Answer
    A. Nalbuphine
    Explanation
    Nalbuphine is the correct answer because it is an opioid antagonist that can reverse the respiratory depression caused by Fentanyl while still providing analgesia. Narcan is also an opioid antagonist, but it should be carefully titrated to avoid complete reversal of analgesia. Flumazenil is a benzodiazepine antagonist and would not be effective in reversing the effects of Fentanyl. Switching to Meperidine is not the appropriate choice as it is another opioid and would not reverse the respiratory depression caused by Fentanyl.

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Quiz Review Timeline (Updated): Mar 22, 2023 +

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  • Current Version
  • Mar 22, 2023
    Quiz Edited by
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  • Oct 29, 2008
    Quiz Created by
    Scottishduffy
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