The Anesthesia Quiz: How Does IT Work?

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  • 1/94 Questions

    Which of the following benzodiazepines is most commonly used during the preoperative period and for IV conscious sedation?

    • Diazepam
    • Lorazepam
    • Midazolam
    • Alprazolam
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About This Quiz

The anaesthesia quiz: how does it work? Different drugs have a certain effect on the body when introduced into the system, and this is why not every anaesthesia drug will have the same outcome when used. Do you know some of the intended results expected when a person is put under? This quiz will not only refresh your memory on some of the ways to administer anaesthesia but desired results as well. Check it out!

The Anesthesia Quiz: How Does IT Work? - Quiz

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  • 2. 

    What drug would you choose to treat a pt with a benzodiazepine overdose?

    • Flumazenil, slow titration of 0.2 mg doses IV

    • Narcan, slow titration of 1-4mcg/kg

    • Flurazepam 15-30 mg

    • Just wait it out.

    Correct Answer
    A. Flumazenil, slow titration of 0.2 mg doses IV
    Explanation
    Flumazenil is the correct answer for treating a patient with a benzodiazepine overdose because it is a specific benzodiazepine receptor antagonist. By administering slow titration of 0.2 mg doses intravenously, Flumazenil can competitively inhibit the effects of benzodiazepines, reversing their sedative and respiratory depressant effects. This helps to restore the patient's consciousness and respiratory function. It is important to administer Flumazenil slowly to avoid precipitating withdrawal symptoms or seizures in patients who are physically dependent on benzodiazepines.

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  • 3. 

    The drug most commonly prescribed to treat opioid overdose is?

    • Flumazenil

    • Nalbuphine

    • Naloxone

    • Butorphanol

    Correct Answer
    A. Naloxone
    Explanation
    Naloxone is the drug most commonly prescribed to treat opioid overdose. It is an opioid receptor antagonist that rapidly reverses the effects of opioids, such as respiratory depression and sedation. Naloxone works by binding to opioid receptors in the brain, displacing the opioids and blocking their effects. It is administered as an injection or nasal spray and can quickly restore normal breathing and consciousness in individuals experiencing an opioid overdose. Flumazenil, Nalbuphine, and Butorphanol are not commonly used to treat opioid overdose but may have other medical uses.

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  • 4. 

    The dose of Benzodiazepines required to reach a desired clinical endpoint is increased in the elderly compared to the younger patient.

    • True

    • False

    Correct Answer
    A. False
    Explanation
    The statement is false. The dose of Benzodiazepines required to reach a desired clinical endpoint is actually decreased in the elderly compared to the younger patient. This is because the elderly population is more sensitive to the effects of Benzodiazepines, and they are at a higher risk of experiencing adverse effects and drug interactions. Therefore, lower doses are typically prescribed to the elderly to achieve the desired therapeutic effect while minimizing potential harm.

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  • 5. 

    Define Affinity:

    • Inhibit or block responses caused by an agonist

    • Drugs which alter the physiology of a cell by binding to plasma membrane or intracellular receptors

    • The strength of binding between drug and receptor

    • Binds to a site other than the agonist-binding domain

    Correct Answer
    A. The strength of binding between drug and receptor
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "the strength of binding between drug and receptor." Affinity refers to the attraction or bonding between a drug and its target receptor. It measures how strongly the drug binds to the receptor, which ultimately determines the effectiveness of the drug in producing a response. Higher affinity means a stronger binding, leading to a more potent and longer-lasting effect.

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  • 6. 

    Sodium Thiopental is a contraindication in which patients?

    • History of neurologic distrubances

    • History of hemolytic amenia

    • Acute intermittent porphyria

    • Immunosuppression

    Correct Answer
    A. Acute intermittent porphyria
    Explanation
    Sodium Thiopental is contraindicated in patients with Acute intermittent porphyria. This is because Sodium Thiopental can induce an acute attack of porphyria in susceptible individuals. Acute intermittent porphyria is a genetic disorder that affects the production of heme, leading to the accumulation of porphyrins in the body. The use of Sodium Thiopental in these patients can trigger an episode of porphyria, which can cause severe abdominal pain, neurological symptoms, and potentially life-threatening complications. Therefore, it is important to avoid the use of Sodium Thiopental in patients with a history of acute intermittent porphyria.

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  • 7. 

    How are barbituate metabolized?

    • Hepatic Oxidation

    • Renal oxidation

    • Glomerular filtration

    • Broken down in small intestines and excreted in feces

    Correct Answer
    A. Hepatic Oxidation
    Explanation
    Barbiturates are metabolized through hepatic oxidation, which means that they are broken down in the liver through a process of oxidation. This is the primary method by which barbiturates are metabolized in the body. Renal oxidation and glomerular filtration refer to processes that occur in the kidneys, and are not involved in the metabolism of barbiturates. Additionally, barbiturates are not broken down in the small intestines and excreted in feces. Therefore, the correct answer is hepatic oxidation.

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  • 8. 

    Which adverse reaction is a patient most likely to experience after receiving general anesthesia?

    • Nauseau & Vomiting

    • Seizures

    • Cyanosis

    • Increased HR

    Correct Answer
    A. Nauseau & Vomiting
    Explanation
    After receiving general anesthesia, it is common for patients to experience nausea and vomiting as an adverse reaction. This can be attributed to the effects of anesthesia on the digestive system and the body's response to the medication. Nausea and vomiting are often seen as side effects of anesthesia due to the disruption of the body's normal functions and the potential irritation of the stomach. It is important for healthcare providers to manage and address these symptoms to ensure the comfort and well-being of the patient.

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  • 9. 

    In regards to the adjustments of Benzodiazepines in respect to the elderly patient.  Would you expect to have:

    • Significant increase in initial dose and anticipate marked decrease in duration of action

    • Modest decrease in initial dose and anticipate marked increase in duration of action

    • No change in dose or frequency or duration from that of an healthy 25 year old patient.

    • None of above

    Correct Answer
    A. Modest decrease in initial dose and anticipate marked increase in duration of action
    Explanation
    As individuals age, their metabolism slows down and their liver and kidney function may decrease. This can result in a decreased ability to metabolize and eliminate medications from the body. Benzodiazepines are a class of medications that are commonly used to treat anxiety and insomnia. In elderly patients, the initial dose of benzodiazepines should be decreased to account for their decreased metabolism and potential for increased sensitivity to the medication. Additionally, the duration of action of benzodiazepines may be prolonged in elderly patients due to their decreased ability to eliminate the medication from their body. Therefore, one would expect a modest decrease in the initial dose and anticipate a marked increase in the duration of action of benzodiazepines in elderly patients.

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  • 10. 

    What is an antagonist?

    • Inhibit or block responses caused by an agonist

    • A drug which alters the physiology of a cell by binding to plasma membrane or intracellular receptors

    • Biochemical messengers, often called 2ndmessengers

    • The strength of binding between drug and receptor

    Correct Answer
    A. Inhibit or block responses caused by an agonist
    Explanation
    An antagonist is a substance that inhibits or blocks the effects of an agonist. Agonists are substances that activate receptors in the body, causing a physiological response. Antagonists, on the other hand, bind to the same receptors as agonists but do not activate them. Instead, they prevent the agonist from binding and activating the receptor, thereby blocking or inhibiting the response that the agonist would normally produce. This can be useful in medical treatments to counteract the effects of certain substances or to control physiological responses.

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  • 11. 

    What medication would you give to treat an opioid overdose?

    • Flumazenil, slow titration of 0.2 mg doses

    • Nubain 10-20 mg

    • Lithium

    • Narcan 1-4 mcg/kg

    Correct Answer
    A. Narcan 1-4 mcg/kg
    Explanation
    Narcan (Naloxone) is the medication used to treat an opioid overdose. It is administered in a dose of 1-4 mcg/kg. Narcan works by binding to the opioid receptors in the brain, blocking the effects of opioids and reversing the respiratory depression caused by an overdose. This helps to restore normal breathing and prevent death from opioid overdose. Flumazenil is used to reverse the effects of benzodiazepine overdose, Nubain is an opioid analgesic, and lithium is a mood stabilizer used in the treatment of bipolar disorder.

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  • 12. 

    Which of the following is NOT a pharmacological effect of benzodiazepines?

    • Amnesia

    • Anxiolysis

    • Analgesia

    • Anticonvulsant

    Correct Answer
    A. Analgesia
    Explanation
    Benzodiazepines are a class of drugs that are commonly used for their anxiolytic (reducing anxiety), amnesic (causing memory loss), and anticonvulsant (preventing seizures) effects. However, they are not typically used for their analgesic (pain-relieving) properties. Therefore, analgesia is not a pharmacological effect of benzodiazepines.

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  • 13. 

    Which benzodiazepine is primarily used for induction of anesthesia?

    • Midazolam

    • Propofol

    • Thiopental

    • Etomidate

    Correct Answer
    A. Midazolam
    Explanation
    Midazolam is primarily used for induction of anesthesia because it has a rapid onset of action and a short duration of effect. It is a benzodiazepine that acts as a sedative and anxiolytic, making it suitable for preoperative sedation and anesthesia induction. Midazolam is commonly used in combination with other medications to achieve a smooth and comfortable induction of anesthesia, as well as to provide amnesia during surgical procedures.

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  • 14. 

    When doing a pre-op evaluation for a pt you notice the pt has low albumin levels. How would this effect the amount of Midazolam given to the pt for pre-medication?

    • You would need to increase the amount given in order to reach the desired effect

    • You would not change the dose at all.

    • You would decrease the amount of drug given since this pt may be at risk for overdose.

    Correct Answer
    A. You would decrease the amount of drug given since this pt may be at risk for overdose.
    Explanation
    Low albumin levels can affect the distribution of drugs in the body. Albumin is a protein that helps transport drugs in the bloodstream. When albumin levels are low, there is less protein available to bind to drugs, leading to an increased concentration of free, unbound drug in the bloodstream. This means that the same dose of a drug can have a stronger effect in a patient with low albumin levels compared to a patient with normal levels. Therefore, to avoid the risk of overdose, the amount of Midazolam given to a patient with low albumin levels should be decreased.

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  • 15. 

    Which of the following is not a cerebral effect of benzodiazepines?

    • Reduce CMRO2 & CBF

    • Increase the seizure threshold to prevent seizure

    • Anti-anxiety & sedative effects

    • Direct Analgesic Effects

    Correct Answer
    A. Direct Analgesic Effects
    Explanation
    Benzodiazepines are a class of drugs that are commonly used for their sedative, anxiolytic (anti-anxiety), and anticonvulsant properties. They work by enhancing the effects of a neurotransmitter called gamma-aminobutyric acid (GABA) in the brain, which leads to a decrease in neuronal activity. However, benzodiazepines do not have direct analgesic effects, meaning they do not directly relieve pain. This is why the correct answer is "Direct Analgesic Effects."

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  • 16. 

    What is the MOA of opioids?

    • Act at stereospecific receptors at presynaptic and postsynaptic sites in the central nervous system. mimic the endogenous endorphines to inhibit pain transmission.

    • Receptor binding enhances the inhibitory effects of various neurotransmitter by facilitating GABA receptor binding.

    • Depression of the reticulcar activating system, suppression of excitatory neurotranmitters and enhancement of inhibitory neurotransmitters.

    Correct Answer
    A. Act at stereospecific receptors at presynaptic and postsynaptic sites in the central nervous system. mimic the endogenous endorphines to inhibit pain transmission.
    Explanation
    Opioids act at stereospecific receptors at presynaptic and postsynaptic sites in the central nervous system. They mimic the endogenous endorphins to inhibit pain transmission. This means that opioids bind to specific receptors in the nervous system, both before and after the synapse, and imitate the natural pain-relieving substances produced by the body. By doing so, opioids are able to block the transmission of pain signals, providing analgesic effects.

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  • 17. 

    What is responsible for the pain reaction elicited when diazepam is given IM?

    • Any IM injection is painful

    • Ethyl alcohol component

    • Propylene glycol component

    • Solubility component

    Correct Answer
    A. Propylene glycol component
    Explanation
    Propylene glycol is responsible for the pain reaction elicited when diazepam is given intramuscularly (IM). Propylene glycol is a solvent that is commonly used in pharmaceutical formulations to enhance drug solubility. However, it can cause irritation and pain at the injection site. Therefore, when diazepam is administered IM, the propylene glycol component in the formulation can cause discomfort and pain.

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  • 18. 

    A  barbituate with an oxygen atom on the #2 carbon would be called a...

    • Thiobarbituates

    • Malobarbituates

    • Pentabarbituates

    • Oxybarbituate

    Correct Answer
    A. Oxybarbituate
    Explanation
    An oxybarbituate would be a barbituate compound that contains an oxygen atom on the #2 carbon. The prefix "oxy-" indicates the presence of an oxygen atom. Therefore, the correct answer is oxybarbituate.

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  • 19. 

    What is the MOA of Benzo's?

    • Blockade of chloride channels leading to depolarization and inhibition of neurotransmitter

    • Inhibition of cyclooxygenase activity

    • Inhibition of GABA receptor binding which leads to degredation of GABA, preventing it from exerting it's effect.

    • Enhances the inhibitory effects of various neurotransmitter by facilitating GABA receptor binding. This opens chloride channels and causes hyperpolarization.

    Correct Answer
    A. Enhances the inhibitory effects of various neurotransmitter by facilitating GABA receptor binding. This opens chloride channels and causes hyperpolarization.
    Explanation
    The MOA of Benzo's is to enhance the inhibitory effects of various neurotransmitters by facilitating GABA receptor binding. This action opens chloride channels and causes hyperpolarization.

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  • 20. 

    What respiratory effects are associated with opioid?

    • Chest wall flaccidity

    • Increase RR with decrease Tv

    • Decrease RR and increase Tv

    • Increased response to CO2

    Correct Answer
    A. Decrease RR and increase Tv
    Explanation
    Opioids are known to depress the respiratory system, leading to a decrease in respiratory rate (RR) and an increase in tidal volume (Tv). This means that the person's breathing becomes slower and deeper. This effect can be dangerous as it can lead to respiratory depression, especially in high doses. Therefore, it is important to monitor patients on opioids closely for any signs of decreased RR and increased Tv to prevent respiratory complications.

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  • 21. 

    You are caring for Mr. X who is currently having a Left BKA. You notice his HR increasing and take a quick glance at his pupils to see they are normal size. His train of four is currently 0/4. What does this tell you?

    • He is too light, Increase the sevo.

    • Maybe he could use some more opioids, to relieve pain.

    • Maybe he could use some more paralytic.

    • He needs a little more midazolam, to calm him.

    Correct Answer
    A. Maybe he could use some more opioids, to relieve pain.
    Explanation
    The correct answer suggests that the patient may require additional opioids to relieve pain. The increased heart rate and normal-sized pupils, along with a train of four ratio of 0/4, indicate that the patient is experiencing pain. Administering more opioids can help alleviate the pain and address the increased heart rate.

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  • 22. 

    What is GABA?

    • The major excitatory neurotransmitter and is important in agonizing the effects of amino acid transmitter.

    • Proteins or glycoproteins that are present on the cell surface, on an organelle within the cell, or in the cytoplasm.

    • The major inhibitory neurotransmitter and is important in antagonizing the effects of amino acid transmitter.

    • Refers to the portion of the chemical structured composed of a benzene ring fused to a seven-membered diazepine ring

    Correct Answer
    A. The major inhibitory neurotransmitter and is important in antagonizing the effects of amino acid transmitter.
    Explanation
    GABA, or gamma-aminobutyric acid, is a major inhibitory neurotransmitter in the central nervous system. It plays a crucial role in reducing neuronal excitability and preventing excessive neural activity. GABA acts by binding to specific receptors, inhibiting the firing of neurons and reducing the transmission of signals. This inhibitory action helps to balance the excitatory effects of other neurotransmitters, such as glutamate. GABA is important in antagonizing the effects of amino acid transmitters, which are the major excitatory neurotransmitters in the brain.

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  • 23. 

    Benzodiazepines are extensively protein bound.  Therefore, in the presence of renal failure their clinical effect will be:

    • Shortened

    • Prolonged

    • No significant change.

    Correct Answer
    A. Prolonged
    Explanation
    Benzodiazepines are extensively protein bound, meaning that they bind strongly to proteins in the blood. In the presence of renal failure, the clearance of these drugs from the body is reduced. Since they are not being eliminated as efficiently, the drugs will remain in the body for a longer period of time, leading to a prolonged clinical effect. Therefore, the correct answer is "Prolonged".

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  • 24. 

    How is midazolam unique in comparison to other benzo's?

    • It is the only benzo safe to give to pregnant women.

    • Is known to cause pain upon injection, but has minimal respiratory depression

    • It is hydrophilic and becomes lipid soluble upon exposure to blood.

    • It is not highly protein bound like the other benzo's and thus more is available for use by the body.

    Correct Answer
    A. It is hydrophilic and becomes lipid soluble upon exposure to blood.
    Explanation
    Midazolam is unique compared to other benzos because it is hydrophilic, meaning it is water-soluble, but it becomes lipid-soluble when exposed to blood. This property allows it to rapidly cross the blood-brain barrier and have a quick onset of action. Other benzos are typically lipid-soluble and do not have this unique property.

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  • 25. 

    What is the elimination half time of Midazolam?

    • 21-37 hours

    • 1-4 hours

    • 10-20 hours

    • 5-10 hours

    Correct Answer
    A. 1-4 hours
    Explanation
    The elimination half-time of Midazolam is 1-4 hours. This means that it takes 1-4 hours for the concentration of Midazolam in the body to decrease by half. After this time, half of the drug has been eliminated from the body. This information is important for determining the dosing frequency and duration of action of Midazolam.

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  • 26. 

    What is Substance P?

    • The major inhibitory neurotransmitter.

    • An active metabolite of opioid metabolism which relieves pain

    • An excitatory neurotransmitter presumed to be released by terminals of pain fibers

    • A rapper?

    Correct Answer
    A. An excitatory neurotransmitter presumed to be released by terminals of pain fibers
    Explanation
    Substance P is an excitatory neurotransmitter presumed to be released by terminals of pain fibers. This means that it is a chemical messenger in the nervous system that is involved in transmitting pain signals. It is released by nerve fibers that are associated with pain, and it helps to amplify and transmit the pain signals to the brain. Substance P is not a major inhibitory neurotransmitter, an active metabolite of opioid metabolism, or a rapper.

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  • 27. 

    Which of the following is not an effect of opiods?

    • Chest wall rigidity

    • Fetal respiratory depression

    • Anterograde Amnesia

    • Constipation

    Correct Answer
    A. Anterograde Amnesia
    Explanation
    Anterograde amnesia is not caused by opioids. Opioids are known to have various effects on the body, including chest wall rigidity, fetal respiratory depression, and constipation. However, anterograde amnesia refers to the inability to form new memories after an event, and it is not a known effect of opioids.

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  • 28. 

    A Barbituate with a sulfur atom on the #2 carbon is called a...

    • Thiobarbituates

    • Oxybarbituates

    • Pentabarbituate

    • Sulbarbituates

    Correct Answer
    A. Thiobarbituates
    Explanation
    A barbiturate with a sulfur atom on the #2 carbon is called a thiobarbiturate. The prefix "thio-" indicates the presence of a sulfur atom, and "barbiturate" refers to the class of drugs that act as central nervous system depressants. Therefore, a barbiturate with a sulfur atom on the #2 carbon is specifically known as a thiobarbiturate.

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  • 29. 

    The elimination half time of Methohexital is ~4 hours.

    • True

    • False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    The statement is true because the elimination half-time of Methohexital is approximately 4 hours. This means that it takes around 4 hours for half of the drug to be eliminated from the body.

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  • 30. 

    Unlike the benzo's, Barbituates are known to increase CBF and ICP.

    • True

    • False

    Correct Answer
    A. False
    Explanation
    Barbiturates are not known to increase CBF (cerebral blood flow) and ICP (intracranial pressure). In fact, they have the opposite effect and are often used to decrease both CBF and ICP in certain medical conditions. Therefore, the statement is false.

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  • 31. 

    How does fentanyl compare to morphine?

    • 1/10 as potent

    • 10 times as potent

    • 100 times as potent

    • 1000 times as potent

    Correct Answer
    A. 100 times as potent
    Explanation
    Fentanyl is 100 times as potent as morphine. This means that fentanyl is much stronger and more powerful than morphine in terms of its pain-relieving effects. A smaller dose of fentanyl is needed to achieve the same level of pain relief compared to morphine. This is an important consideration when prescribing and administering these medications, as the potency difference can impact the dosage and potential side effects for patients.

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  • 32. 

    How is remifentanil metabolized?

    • 90% metabolized to normeperidine,1/2 as active as a analgesic

    • By nonspecific plasma esterase inactive metabolites

    • Metabolized via conjugation with glucuronic acid

    • Metabolized via hepatic oxidation

    Correct Answer
    A. By nonspecific plasma esterase inactive metabolites
    Explanation
    Remifentanil is metabolized by nonspecific plasma esterase into inactive metabolites. This means that the drug is broken down by an enzyme called plasma esterase, which converts it into metabolites that do not have any pharmacological activity. This is an important process for the elimination of remifentanil from the body, as the inactive metabolites can be easily cleared through renal excretion.

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  • 33. 

    Which class of drug would to NOT give to a pt undergoing a cholangiogram?

    • Benzo's

    • Barbituates

    • Opioids

    Correct Answer
    A. Opioids
    Explanation
    Opioids should not be given to a patient undergoing a cholangiogram because opioids can cause relaxation of the sphincter of Oddi, which is a muscle that controls the flow of bile from the common bile duct into the small intestine. This relaxation can lead to an increased risk of bile reflux and potential complications during the procedure. Therefore, opioids should be avoided in order to ensure the accuracy and safety of the cholangiogram.

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  • 34. 

    What is an appropriate oral dose for pediatric pre-medication with midazolam?

    • 0.5 mg/kg

    • 1 mg/kg

    • 2-3 mg

    • 10 - 20 mcg/ kg

    Correct Answer
    A. 0.5 mg/kg
    Explanation
    An appropriate oral dose for pediatric pre-medication with midazolam is 0.5 mg/kg. This means that the dosage is calculated based on the child's weight, with 0.5 milligrams of midazolam given per kilogram of body weight. This dosage is commonly used for pediatric patients to achieve sedation before medical procedures.

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  • 35. 

    Benzodiazepines are preferred as a pre-medication for anesthesia because they do not cause any respiratory depression in patients.

    • True

    • False

    Correct Answer
    A. False
    Explanation
    Benzodiazepines are not preferred as a pre-medication for anesthesia because they can cause respiratory depression in patients.

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  • 36. 

    Distribution of barbituates depends on all of the following except...

    • Lipid Solubility

    • Protein binding

    • Hepatic oxidation

    • Degree of ionization

    Correct Answer
    A. Hepatic oxidation
    Explanation
    Barbiturates are primarily metabolized in the liver through hepatic oxidation, so it is incorrect to say that the distribution of barbiturates depends on hepatic oxidation. The correct answer is hepatic oxidation.

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  • 37. 

    Duration of action of highly lipid soluble barbituates is determined by...

    • Hepatic Oxidation

    • Lipid Solubility

    • Renal Excretion

    • Redistribution

    Correct Answer
    A. Redistribution
    Explanation
    ppt slide 10

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  • 38. 

    Which of the following is NOT an endogenous peptide?

    • Endorphin

    • Ekephalin

    • Dynorphine

    • Epinorphin

    Correct Answer
    A. Epinorphin
    Explanation
    Epinorphin is not an endogenous peptide because it is a synthetic opioid peptide derived from morphine, rather than being naturally produced within the body. Endorphin, enkephalin, and dynorphin are all examples of endogenous peptides, which are naturally occurring peptides that are produced by the body and play a role in various physiological processes. Epinorphin, on the other hand, is a synthetic peptide that is not naturally produced in the body.

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  • 39. 

    How does Sufentanil compare to Morphine?

    • 1/10 as potent

    • 10 times as potent

    • 100 times as potent

    • 1,000 as potent

    Correct Answer
    A. 1,000 as potent
    Explanation
    Sufentanil is 1,000 times as potent as Morphine. This means that Sufentanil is much stronger and more powerful than Morphine in terms of its pain-relieving effects.

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  • 40. 

    Which of the following is not one of the Five Principle pharmacological effects of Benzodiazepines?

    • Sedation

    • Anxiolysis

    • Retrograde Amnesia

    • Anticonvulsant

    • Spinal Cord mediated skeletal muscle relaxation

    Correct Answer
    A. Retrograde Amnesia
    Explanation
    Benzodiazepines are a class of drugs commonly used for their sedative, anxiolytic, anticonvulsant, and muscle relaxant effects. Retrograde amnesia, however, is not considered one of the principle pharmacological effects of benzodiazepines. Retrograde amnesia refers to the loss of memory for events that occurred before the drug was taken. While benzodiazepines may cause some memory impairment, it is typically not characterized by retrograde amnesia.

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  • 41. 

    A Competitive antagonist binds to a site other than the agonist binding domain.

    • True

    • False

    Correct Answer
    A. False
    Explanation
    A competitive antagonist binds to the same site as the agonist binding domain, competing with the agonist for binding to the receptor. This binding prevents the agonist from binding and activating the receptor, resulting in a decrease in the agonist's effect. Therefore, the given statement is false as a competitive antagonist does not bind to a site other than the agonist binding domain.

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  • 42. 

    How much oral midazolam would you give to a child weighing 40 kg?

    • 40 mg

    • 4 mg

    • 20 mg

    • 60 mg

    Correct Answer
    A. 20 mg
    Explanation
    Based on the question, the correct answer is 20 mg. This suggests that for a child weighing 40 kg, the appropriate dose of oral midazolam would be 20 mg.

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  • 43. 

    Endorphin stimulates which opioid receptor?

    • Mu

    • Kappa

    • Delta

    Correct Answer
    A. Mu
    Explanation
    Endorphins are endogenous opioids produced by the body that help reduce pain and promote feelings of pleasure and well-being. They bind to specific opioid receptors in the brain and body to exert their effects. The correct answer is Mu because endorphins primarily bind to and activate the Mu opioid receptors. These receptors are involved in pain relief, euphoria, and the reward system in the brain.

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  • 44. 

    Fentanyl has a much more rapid onset but a longer elimination half time than Morphine. Why?

    • Because of fentanyl high lipid solubility

    • Because fentanyl is highly protein bound

    • Because Morphine has a much high lipid solubility and thus is excreted more rapidly

    • Because morphine has a much larger Vd.

    Correct Answer
    A. Because of fentanyl high lipid solubility
    Explanation
    Fentanyl has a much more rapid onset but a longer elimination half time than Morphine because of its high lipid solubility. Lipid solubility refers to the ability of a drug to dissolve in fat or lipid tissues. Fentanyl's high lipid solubility allows it to quickly cross cell membranes and reach its target sites in the body, leading to a rapid onset of action. Additionally, the high lipid solubility also contributes to its longer elimination half time, as it is more extensively distributed throughout the body's lipid tissues and takes longer to be metabolized and eliminated.

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  • 45. 

    How does meperidine compare to morphine?

    • 1/10 as potent

    • 10 times as potent

    • 100 time as potent

    • 1,000 times as potent

    Correct Answer
    A. 1/10 as potent
    Explanation
    Meperidine is 1/10 as potent as morphine. This means that the analgesic effect of meperidine is weaker compared to morphine. It would require a higher dosage of meperidine to achieve the same level of pain relief as morphine.

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  • 46. 

    All benzo's share what similarities?

    • All are highly alkaline solutions

    • Composed of a benzene ring fused to a seven-membered diazepine ring

    • They are safe to be given during pregnancy

    • Composed of malonic acid and urea

    Correct Answer
    A. Composed of a benzene ring fused to a seven-membered diazepine ring
    Explanation
    All benzo's share the similarity of being composed of a benzene ring fused to a seven-membered diazepine ring. This structural feature is characteristic of all benzo compounds, distinguishing them from other types of compounds.

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  • 47. 

    Put these medications in order of shortest elimination half time to longest: Midazolam, Diazepam, Lorazepam

    • Midazolam < Diazepam < Lorazepam

    • Diazepam < Lorazepam < Midazolam

    • Lorazepam < Midazolam < Diazepam

    • Midazolam < Lorazepam < Diazepam

    Correct Answer
    A. Midazolam < Lorazepam < Diazepam
    Explanation
    Midazolam has the shortest elimination half-time, followed by Lorazepam, and then Diazepam.

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  • 48. 

    You are caring for Mrs. Tica who has a past history of A-fib, DM, pancreatitis & asthma. Which drug would you choose to relieve her pain?

    • Toradol

    • Morphine

    • Ethanol

    • Fentanyl

    Correct Answer
    A. Fentanyl
    Explanation
    does not release histamine, safe for asthmatics

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  • 49. 

    Which medication would you give to reverse post-op ventilatory depression of Fentanyl while maintaining analgesia?

    • Nalbuphine

    • Narcan, carefully titrated

    • Flumazenil

    • Switch to Meperidine

    Correct Answer
    A. Nalbuphine
    Explanation
    Nalbuphine is the correct answer because it is an opioid antagonist that can reverse the respiratory depression caused by Fentanyl while still providing analgesia. Narcan, another opioid antagonist, could also be used but needs to be carefully titrated to avoid precipitating withdrawal symptoms. Flumazenil is used for reversing benzodiazepine-induced sedation, not opioid-induced respiratory depression. Switching to Meperidine, another opioid, would not address the issue of respiratory depression and may even exacerbate it.

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Quiz Review Timeline (Updated): Mar 19, 2023 +

Our quizzes are rigorously reviewed, monitored and continuously updated by our expert board to maintain accuracy, relevance, and timeliness.

  • Current Version
  • Mar 19, 2023
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • Oct 29, 2008
    Quiz Created by
    Scottishduffy

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