The Anesthesia Quiz: How Does IT Work?

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1. Which of the following benzodiazepines is most commonly used during the preoperative period and for IV conscious sedation?

Explanation

Midazolam is the most commonly used benzodiazepine during the preoperative period and for IV conscious sedation. It has a rapid onset of action and a short duration of effect, making it ideal for these purposes. Diazepam and lorazepam are also commonly used benzodiazepines, but midazolam is preferred due to its faster onset and shorter duration. Alprazolam is not typically used for preoperative sedation or IV conscious sedation.

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The Anesthesia Quiz: How Does IT Work? - Quiz

The anaesthesia quiz: how does it work? Different drugs have a certain effect on the body when introduced into the system, and this is why not every anaesthesia... see moredrug will have the same outcome when used. Do you know some of the intended results expected when a person is put under? This quiz will not only refresh your memory on some of the ways to administer anaesthesia but desired results as well. Check it out!
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2. What drug would you choose to treat a pt with a benzodiazepine overdose?

Explanation

Flumazenil is the correct answer for treating a patient with a benzodiazepine overdose because it is a specific benzodiazepine receptor antagonist. By administering slow titration of 0.2 mg doses intravenously, Flumazenil can competitively inhibit the effects of benzodiazepines, reversing their sedative and respiratory depressant effects. This helps to restore the patient's consciousness and respiratory function. It is important to administer Flumazenil slowly to avoid precipitating withdrawal symptoms or seizures in patients who are physically dependent on benzodiazepines.

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3. The drug most commonly prescribed to treat opioid overdose is?

Explanation

Naloxone is the drug most commonly prescribed to treat opioid overdose. It is an opioid receptor antagonist that rapidly reverses the effects of opioids, such as respiratory depression and sedation. Naloxone works by binding to opioid receptors in the brain, displacing the opioids and blocking their effects. It is administered as an injection or nasal spray and can quickly restore normal breathing and consciousness in individuals experiencing an opioid overdose. Flumazenil, Nalbuphine, and Butorphanol are not commonly used to treat opioid overdose but may have other medical uses.

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4. The dose of Benzodiazepines required to reach a desired clinical endpoint is increased in the elderly compared to the younger patient.

Explanation

The statement is false. The dose of Benzodiazepines required to reach a desired clinical endpoint is actually decreased in the elderly compared to the younger patient. This is because the elderly population is more sensitive to the effects of Benzodiazepines, and they are at a higher risk of experiencing adverse effects and drug interactions. Therefore, lower doses are typically prescribed to the elderly to achieve the desired therapeutic effect while minimizing potential harm.

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5. Define Affinity:

Explanation

The correct answer is "the strength of binding between drug and receptor." Affinity refers to the attraction or bonding between a drug and its target receptor. It measures how strongly the drug binds to the receptor, which ultimately determines the effectiveness of the drug in producing a response. Higher affinity means a stronger binding, leading to a more potent and longer-lasting effect.

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6. Sodium Thiopental is a contraindication in which patients?

Explanation

Sodium Thiopental is contraindicated in patients with Acute intermittent porphyria. This is because Sodium Thiopental can induce an acute attack of porphyria in susceptible individuals. Acute intermittent porphyria is a genetic disorder that affects the production of heme, leading to the accumulation of porphyrins in the body. The use of Sodium Thiopental in these patients can trigger an episode of porphyria, which can cause severe abdominal pain, neurological symptoms, and potentially life-threatening complications. Therefore, it is important to avoid the use of Sodium Thiopental in patients with a history of acute intermittent porphyria.

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7. How are barbituate metabolized?

Explanation

Barbiturates are metabolized through hepatic oxidation, which means that they are broken down in the liver through a process of oxidation. This is the primary method by which barbiturates are metabolized in the body. Renal oxidation and glomerular filtration refer to processes that occur in the kidneys, and are not involved in the metabolism of barbiturates. Additionally, barbiturates are not broken down in the small intestines and excreted in feces. Therefore, the correct answer is hepatic oxidation.

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8. Which adverse reaction is a patient most likely to experience after receiving general anesthesia?

Explanation

After receiving general anesthesia, it is common for patients to experience nausea and vomiting as an adverse reaction. This can be attributed to the effects of anesthesia on the digestive system and the body's response to the medication. Nausea and vomiting are often seen as side effects of anesthesia due to the disruption of the body's normal functions and the potential irritation of the stomach. It is important for healthcare providers to manage and address these symptoms to ensure the comfort and well-being of the patient.

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9. In regards to the adjustments of Benzodiazepines in respect to the elderly patient.  Would you expect to have:

Explanation

As individuals age, their metabolism slows down and their liver and kidney function may decrease. This can result in a decreased ability to metabolize and eliminate medications from the body. Benzodiazepines are a class of medications that are commonly used to treat anxiety and insomnia. In elderly patients, the initial dose of benzodiazepines should be decreased to account for their decreased metabolism and potential for increased sensitivity to the medication. Additionally, the duration of action of benzodiazepines may be prolonged in elderly patients due to their decreased ability to eliminate the medication from their body. Therefore, one would expect a modest decrease in the initial dose and anticipate a marked increase in the duration of action of benzodiazepines in elderly patients.

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10. What is an antagonist?

Explanation

An antagonist is a substance that inhibits or blocks the effects of an agonist. Agonists are substances that activate receptors in the body, causing a physiological response. Antagonists, on the other hand, bind to the same receptors as agonists but do not activate them. Instead, they prevent the agonist from binding and activating the receptor, thereby blocking or inhibiting the response that the agonist would normally produce. This can be useful in medical treatments to counteract the effects of certain substances or to control physiological responses.

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11. What medication would you give to treat an opioid overdose?

Explanation

Narcan (Naloxone) is the medication used to treat an opioid overdose. It is administered in a dose of 1-4 mcg/kg. Narcan works by binding to the opioid receptors in the brain, blocking the effects of opioids and reversing the respiratory depression caused by an overdose. This helps to restore normal breathing and prevent death from opioid overdose. Flumazenil is used to reverse the effects of benzodiazepine overdose, Nubain is an opioid analgesic, and lithium is a mood stabilizer used in the treatment of bipolar disorder.

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12. Which of the following is NOT a pharmacological effect of benzodiazepines?

Explanation

Benzodiazepines are a class of drugs that are commonly used for their anxiolytic (reducing anxiety), amnesic (causing memory loss), and anticonvulsant (preventing seizures) effects. However, they are not typically used for their analgesic (pain-relieving) properties. Therefore, analgesia is not a pharmacological effect of benzodiazepines.

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13. Which benzodiazepine is primarily used for induction of anesthesia?

Explanation

Midazolam is primarily used for induction of anesthesia because it has a rapid onset of action and a short duration of effect. It is a benzodiazepine that acts as a sedative and anxiolytic, making it suitable for preoperative sedation and anesthesia induction. Midazolam is commonly used in combination with other medications to achieve a smooth and comfortable induction of anesthesia, as well as to provide amnesia during surgical procedures.

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14. What is responsible for the pain reaction elicited when diazepam is given IM?

Explanation

Propylene glycol is responsible for the pain reaction elicited when diazepam is given intramuscularly (IM). Propylene glycol is a solvent that is commonly used in pharmaceutical formulations to enhance drug solubility. However, it can cause irritation and pain at the injection site. Therefore, when diazepam is administered IM, the propylene glycol component in the formulation can cause discomfort and pain.

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15. When doing a pre-op evaluation for a pt you notice the pt has low albumin levels. How would this effect the amount of Midazolam given to the pt for pre-medication?

Explanation

Low albumin levels can affect the distribution of drugs in the body. Albumin is a protein that helps transport drugs in the bloodstream. When albumin levels are low, there is less protein available to bind to drugs, leading to an increased concentration of free, unbound drug in the bloodstream. This means that the same dose of a drug can have a stronger effect in a patient with low albumin levels compared to a patient with normal levels. Therefore, to avoid the risk of overdose, the amount of Midazolam given to a patient with low albumin levels should be decreased.

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16. Which of the following is not a cerebral effect of benzodiazepines?

Explanation

Benzodiazepines are a class of drugs that are commonly used for their sedative, anxiolytic (anti-anxiety), and anticonvulsant properties. They work by enhancing the effects of a neurotransmitter called gamma-aminobutyric acid (GABA) in the brain, which leads to a decrease in neuronal activity. However, benzodiazepines do not have direct analgesic effects, meaning they do not directly relieve pain. This is why the correct answer is "Direct Analgesic Effects."

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17. What is the MOA of opioids?

Explanation

Opioids act at stereospecific receptors at presynaptic and postsynaptic sites in the central nervous system. They mimic the endogenous endorphins to inhibit pain transmission. This means that opioids bind to specific receptors in the nervous system, both before and after the synapse, and imitate the natural pain-relieving substances produced by the body. By doing so, opioids are able to block the transmission of pain signals, providing analgesic effects.

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18. A  barbituate with an oxygen atom on the #2 carbon would be called a...

Explanation

An oxybarbituate would be a barbituate compound that contains an oxygen atom on the #2 carbon. The prefix "oxy-" indicates the presence of an oxygen atom. Therefore, the correct answer is oxybarbituate.

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19. What is the MOA of Benzo's?

Explanation

The MOA of Benzo's is to enhance the inhibitory effects of various neurotransmitters by facilitating GABA receptor binding. This action opens chloride channels and causes hyperpolarization.

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20. You are caring for Mr. X who is currently having a Left BKA. You notice his HR increasing and take a quick glance at his pupils to see they are normal size. His train of four is currently 0/4. What does this tell you?

Explanation

The correct answer suggests that the patient may require additional opioids to relieve pain. The increased heart rate and normal-sized pupils, along with a train of four ratio of 0/4, indicate that the patient is experiencing pain. Administering more opioids can help alleviate the pain and address the increased heart rate.

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21. What respiratory effects are associated with opioid?

Explanation

Opioids are known to depress the respiratory system, leading to a decrease in respiratory rate (RR) and an increase in tidal volume (Tv). This means that the person's breathing becomes slower and deeper. This effect can be dangerous as it can lead to respiratory depression, especially in high doses. Therefore, it is important to monitor patients on opioids closely for any signs of decreased RR and increased Tv to prevent respiratory complications.

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22. What is GABA?

Explanation

GABA, or gamma-aminobutyric acid, is a major inhibitory neurotransmitter in the central nervous system. It plays a crucial role in reducing neuronal excitability and preventing excessive neural activity. GABA acts by binding to specific receptors, inhibiting the firing of neurons and reducing the transmission of signals. This inhibitory action helps to balance the excitatory effects of other neurotransmitters, such as glutamate. GABA is important in antagonizing the effects of amino acid transmitters, which are the major excitatory neurotransmitters in the brain.

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23. Benzodiazepines are extensively protein bound.  Therefore, in the presence of renal failure their clinical effect will be:

Explanation

Benzodiazepines are extensively protein bound, meaning that they bind strongly to proteins in the blood. In the presence of renal failure, the clearance of these drugs from the body is reduced. Since they are not being eliminated as efficiently, the drugs will remain in the body for a longer period of time, leading to a prolonged clinical effect. Therefore, the correct answer is "Prolonged".

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24. How is midazolam unique in comparison to other benzo's?

Explanation

Midazolam is unique compared to other benzos because it is hydrophilic, meaning it is water-soluble, but it becomes lipid-soluble when exposed to blood. This property allows it to rapidly cross the blood-brain barrier and have a quick onset of action. Other benzos are typically lipid-soluble and do not have this unique property.

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25. What is the elimination half time of Midazolam?

Explanation

The elimination half-time of Midazolam is 1-4 hours. This means that it takes 1-4 hours for the concentration of Midazolam in the body to decrease by half. After this time, half of the drug has been eliminated from the body. This information is important for determining the dosing frequency and duration of action of Midazolam.

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26. What is Substance P?

Explanation

Substance P is an excitatory neurotransmitter presumed to be released by terminals of pain fibers. This means that it is a chemical messenger in the nervous system that is involved in transmitting pain signals. It is released by nerve fibers that are associated with pain, and it helps to amplify and transmit the pain signals to the brain. Substance P is not a major inhibitory neurotransmitter, an active metabolite of opioid metabolism, or a rapper.

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27. Which of the following is not an effect of opiods?

Explanation

Anterograde amnesia is not caused by opioids. Opioids are known to have various effects on the body, including chest wall rigidity, fetal respiratory depression, and constipation. However, anterograde amnesia refers to the inability to form new memories after an event, and it is not a known effect of opioids.

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28. A Barbituate with a sulfur atom on the #2 carbon is called a...

Explanation

A barbiturate with a sulfur atom on the #2 carbon is called a thiobarbiturate. The prefix "thio-" indicates the presence of a sulfur atom, and "barbiturate" refers to the class of drugs that act as central nervous system depressants. Therefore, a barbiturate with a sulfur atom on the #2 carbon is specifically known as a thiobarbiturate.

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29. Unlike the benzo's, Barbituates are known to increase CBF and ICP.

Explanation

Barbiturates are not known to increase CBF (cerebral blood flow) and ICP (intracranial pressure). In fact, they have the opposite effect and are often used to decrease both CBF and ICP in certain medical conditions. Therefore, the statement is false.

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30. How does fentanyl compare to morphine?

Explanation

Fentanyl is 100 times as potent as morphine. This means that fentanyl is much stronger and more powerful than morphine in terms of its pain-relieving effects. A smaller dose of fentanyl is needed to achieve the same level of pain relief compared to morphine. This is an important consideration when prescribing and administering these medications, as the potency difference can impact the dosage and potential side effects for patients.

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31. The elimination half time of Methohexital is ~4 hours.

Explanation

The statement is true because the elimination half-time of Methohexital is approximately 4 hours. This means that it takes around 4 hours for half of the drug to be eliminated from the body.

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32. Which class of drug would to NOT give to a pt undergoing a cholangiogram?

Explanation

Opioids should not be given to a patient undergoing a cholangiogram because opioids can cause relaxation of the sphincter of Oddi, which is a muscle that controls the flow of bile from the common bile duct into the small intestine. This relaxation can lead to an increased risk of bile reflux and potential complications during the procedure. Therefore, opioids should be avoided in order to ensure the accuracy and safety of the cholangiogram.

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33. How is remifentanil metabolized?

Explanation

Remifentanil is metabolized by nonspecific plasma esterase into inactive metabolites. This means that the drug is broken down by an enzyme called plasma esterase, which converts it into metabolites that do not have any pharmacological activity. This is an important process for the elimination of remifentanil from the body, as the inactive metabolites can be easily cleared through renal excretion.

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34. What is an appropriate oral dose for pediatric pre-medication with midazolam?

Explanation

An appropriate oral dose for pediatric pre-medication with midazolam is 0.5 mg/kg. This means that the dosage is calculated based on the child's weight, with 0.5 milligrams of midazolam given per kilogram of body weight. This dosage is commonly used for pediatric patients to achieve sedation before medical procedures.

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35. Benzodiazepines are preferred as a pre-medication for anesthesia because they do not cause any respiratory depression in patients.

Explanation

Benzodiazepines are not preferred as a pre-medication for anesthesia because they can cause respiratory depression in patients.

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36. Duration of action of highly lipid soluble barbituates is determined by...

Explanation

ppt slide 10

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37. Distribution of barbituates depends on all of the following except...

Explanation

Barbiturates are primarily metabolized in the liver through hepatic oxidation, so it is incorrect to say that the distribution of barbiturates depends on hepatic oxidation. The correct answer is hepatic oxidation.

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38. How does Sufentanil compare to Morphine?

Explanation

Sufentanil is 1,000 times as potent as Morphine. This means that Sufentanil is much stronger and more powerful than Morphine in terms of its pain-relieving effects.

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39. Which of the following is NOT an endogenous peptide?

Explanation

Epinorphin is not an endogenous peptide because it is a synthetic opioid peptide derived from morphine, rather than being naturally produced within the body. Endorphin, enkephalin, and dynorphin are all examples of endogenous peptides, which are naturally occurring peptides that are produced by the body and play a role in various physiological processes. Epinorphin, on the other hand, is a synthetic peptide that is not naturally produced in the body.

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40. Which of the following is not one of the Five Principle pharmacological effects of Benzodiazepines?

Explanation

Benzodiazepines are a class of drugs commonly used for their sedative, anxiolytic, anticonvulsant, and muscle relaxant effects. Retrograde amnesia, however, is not considered one of the principle pharmacological effects of benzodiazepines. Retrograde amnesia refers to the loss of memory for events that occurred before the drug was taken. While benzodiazepines may cause some memory impairment, it is typically not characterized by retrograde amnesia.

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41. A Competitive antagonist binds to a site other than the agonist binding domain.

Explanation

A competitive antagonist binds to the same site as the agonist binding domain, competing with the agonist for binding to the receptor. This binding prevents the agonist from binding and activating the receptor, resulting in a decrease in the agonist's effect. Therefore, the given statement is false as a competitive antagonist does not bind to a site other than the agonist binding domain.

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42. How much oral midazolam would you give to a child weighing 40 kg?

Explanation

Based on the question, the correct answer is 20 mg. This suggests that for a child weighing 40 kg, the appropriate dose of oral midazolam would be 20 mg.

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43. Endorphin stimulates which opioid receptor?

Explanation

Endorphins are endogenous opioids produced by the body that help reduce pain and promote feelings of pleasure and well-being. They bind to specific opioid receptors in the brain and body to exert their effects. The correct answer is Mu because endorphins primarily bind to and activate the Mu opioid receptors. These receptors are involved in pain relief, euphoria, and the reward system in the brain.

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44. Fentanyl has a much more rapid onset but a longer elimination half time than Morphine. Why?

Explanation

Fentanyl has a much more rapid onset but a longer elimination half time than Morphine because of its high lipid solubility. Lipid solubility refers to the ability of a drug to dissolve in fat or lipid tissues. Fentanyl's high lipid solubility allows it to quickly cross cell membranes and reach its target sites in the body, leading to a rapid onset of action. Additionally, the high lipid solubility also contributes to its longer elimination half time, as it is more extensively distributed throughout the body's lipid tissues and takes longer to be metabolized and eliminated.

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45. How does meperidine compare to morphine?

Explanation

Meperidine is 1/10 as potent as morphine. This means that the analgesic effect of meperidine is weaker compared to morphine. It would require a higher dosage of meperidine to achieve the same level of pain relief as morphine.

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46. You are caring for Mrs. Tica who has a past history of A-fib, DM, pancreatitis & asthma. Which drug would you choose to relieve her pain?

Explanation

does not release histamine, safe for asthmatics

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47. All benzo's share what similarities?

Explanation

All benzo's share the similarity of being composed of a benzene ring fused to a seven-membered diazepine ring. This structural feature is characteristic of all benzo compounds, distinguishing them from other types of compounds.

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48. Put these medications in order of shortest elimination half time to longest: Midazolam, Diazepam, Lorazepam

Explanation

Midazolam has the shortest elimination half-time, followed by Lorazepam, and then Diazepam.

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49. Which medication would you give to reverse post-op ventilatory depression of Fentanyl while maintaining analgesia?

Explanation

Nalbuphine is the correct answer because it is an opioid antagonist that can reverse the respiratory depression caused by Fentanyl while still providing analgesia. Narcan, another opioid antagonist, could also be used but needs to be carefully titrated to avoid precipitating withdrawal symptoms. Flumazenil is used for reversing benzodiazepine-induced sedation, not opioid-induced respiratory depression. Switching to Meperidine, another opioid, would not address the issue of respiratory depression and may even exacerbate it.

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50. Which medication would you give to reliev post-op itching caused by Morphine?

Explanation

Nubain is the correct answer because it is an opioid antagonist that can help relieve itching caused by morphine. It works by blocking the effects of morphine on the opioid receptors in the body, thereby reducing the itching sensation. Narcan is used to reverse the effects of opioids, but it may not be as effective in relieving itching specifically. Flumazenil is used to reverse the effects of benzodiazepines, not opioids. Meperidine is another opioid but may not be as effective in relieving itching caused by morphine.

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51. Which of the following drugs will cause pain upon injection due to the solvent propylene glycol?

Explanation

Diazepam is the correct answer because it is commonly formulated with propylene glycol as a solvent, which can cause pain upon injection. Lorazepam, flumazenil, and midazolam do not typically contain propylene glycol as a solvent, so they would not cause pain upon injection.

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52. What is the elimination half time of Lorazepam?

Explanation

The elimination half-life of a drug refers to the time it takes for half of the drug to be eliminated from the body. In the case of Lorazepam, the correct answer is 10-20 hours. This means that it takes between 10 to 20 hours for half of the Lorazepam dose to be eliminated from the body. After several half-lives, the drug is considered to be effectively eliminated from the body.

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53. Which of the opioid receptors causes Euphoria, Miosis, Bradycardia, Urinary retention & Hypothermia?

Explanation

Mu1 opioid receptors are responsible for causing euphoria, miosis (constriction of the pupils), bradycardia (slow heart rate), urinary retention, and hypothermia. These receptors are found in various regions of the brain and spinal cord, and their activation by opioids leads to the characteristic effects associated with opioid use. Euphoria refers to a feeling of intense pleasure and well-being, while miosis is the constriction of the pupils. Bradycardia refers to a slower than normal heart rate, and urinary retention is the inability to empty the bladder fully. Hypothermia is a state of abnormally low body temperature.

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54. Which opioid receptor causes dysphoria, miosis, diuresis & sedation?

Explanation

The Kappa opioid receptor is responsible for causing dysphoria, miosis (constriction of the pupil), diuresis (increased urine production), and sedation. This receptor is found in various regions of the brain and plays a role in regulating pain perception, mood, and other physiological processes. Activation of the Kappa receptor can lead to these specific effects, which are distinct from those caused by other opioid receptors such as Mu1, Mu2, and Delta.

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55. 30mg of Ketorolac would be equivalent to how much morphine?

Explanation

Ketorolac is a nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug (NSAID) used for pain relief. It is known to have analgesic properties similar to morphine. Therefore, 30mg of Ketorolac would be equivalent to 10mg of morphine.

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56. Dynorphin is responsible for stimulating which opioid receptor?

Explanation

Dynorphin is responsible for stimulating the kappa opioid receptor. The kappa opioid receptor is one of the three main types of opioid receptors found in the body, along with mu and delta receptors. Dynorphin is an endogenous opioid peptide that binds to and activates the kappa receptor, leading to various physiological effects such as pain relief, sedation, and dysphoria.

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57. What are the metabolites of morphine?

Explanation

The metabolites of morphine include morphine 3-gluconiride, which is inactive, and morphine 6-gluconiride, which is active and induces analgesia and respiratory depression.

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58. Which of the opioids will NOT cause miosis?

Explanation

Meperidine is the correct answer because it is the only option among the given opioids that does not cause miosis. Miosis refers to the constriction of the pupils, which is a common side effect of opioids. Morphine, Fentanyl, and Narcan are all known to cause miosis, but Meperidine does not have this effect.

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59. Why is remifentanil unique among the opioids?

Explanation

Remifentanil is unique among opioids because its context-sensitive half-time is independent of infusion time. Context-sensitive half-time refers to the time it takes for the plasma concentration of a drug to decrease by 50% after a continuous infusion is stopped. In the case of remifentanil, its context-sensitive half-time remains constant regardless of the duration of the infusion. This is in contrast to other opioids where the context-sensitive half-time increases with longer infusion durations. This unique property of remifentanil allows for more precise control of its effects and makes it a preferred choice in certain clinical situations.

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60. What effects do benzodiazepines exert upon the cardiovascular system?

Explanation

Benzodiazepines, specifically in hypovolemic patients, have the effect of decreasing blood pressure (BP) and peripheral vascular resistance (PVR). This means that they can cause a decrease in the force exerted on the blood vessel walls and the resistance to blood flow, resulting in a lower BP. However, it is important to note that this effect may not be observed in all patients and may vary depending on individual factors.

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61. What is a non-competitive antagonist?

Explanation

A non-competitive antagonist is a drug that binds to a site other than the agonist-binding domain. This means that it does not compete with agonists for the same binding site on a receptor. Instead, it binds to a different site on the receptor, causing a conformational change that prevents the agonist from binding and activating the receptor. As a result, the non-competitive antagonist inhibits the normal cellular function that would have been activated by the agonist.

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62. What would be an appropriate loading dose for remifentanil?

Explanation

An appropriate loading dose for remifentanil would be 1 mcg/kg. This means that for every kilogram of body weight, 1 microgram of remifentanil should be administered. This loading dose is commonly used to quickly achieve the desired level of analgesia or sedation in patients.

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63. While doing a pre-op assessment on an inpatient you find that the pt is currently taking Tagamet (cimetidine) and is on a Heparin regimen. With this knowledge you know to avoid which of the benzodiazepines?

Explanation

Given that the patient is currently taking Tagamet (cimetidine) and is on a Heparin regimen, the knowledge of avoiding Diazepam can be explained by the fact that cimetidine inhibits the hepatic metabolism of diazepam, leading to increased plasma levels and prolonged effects of diazepam. Additionally, heparin can potentiate the sedative effects of benzodiazepines, increasing the risk of excessive sedation and respiratory depression. Therefore, it is advisable to avoid diazepam in this situation to prevent potential drug interactions and adverse effects.

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64. How do midazolam and diazepam compare to one another?

Explanation

Midazolam has a higher affinity for benzo receptors compared to diazepam. This means that midazolam has a stronger binding ability to these receptors than diazepam. The higher affinity indicates that midazolam is more effective in activating the benzo receptors and producing its desired effects.

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65. A drug that alters the physiology of a cell by binding to the plasma membrane or intracellular receptors is known as what?

Explanation

An agonist is a drug that binds to either the plasma membrane or intracellular receptors of a cell and alters its physiology. It activates the receptors and produces a biological response. This is in contrast to an antagonist, which binds to the receptors but does not activate them, or a competitive agonist, which competes with the natural ligand for binding to the receptor. Therefore, an agonist is the correct answer as it accurately describes a drug that alters the physiology of a cell by binding to receptors.

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66. What is the elimination half time of Diazepam?

Explanation

The elimination half-time of Diazepam is the time it takes for the concentration of the drug in the body to decrease by half. The given answer of 21-37 hours suggests that it takes between 21 and 37 hours for Diazepam to be eliminated from the body. This indicates that Diazepam is eliminated relatively slowly, compared to the other options provided.

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67. How much methohexital would you expect to find excreted unchanged in the urine?

Explanation

Methohexital is a short-acting barbiturate used as an anesthetic. The given answer suggests that less than 1% of methohexital would be excreted unchanged in the urine. This indicates that the majority of the drug is metabolized and eliminated from the body through other routes, such as metabolism in the liver and excretion in the feces.

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68. Which of the following is true regarding benzodiazepines?

Explanation

Benzodiazepines are a class of drugs that are commonly used for their sedative and anxiolytic effects. They work by enhancing the effects of a neurotransmitter called gamma-aminobutyric acid (GABA) in the brain, which leads to sedation and relaxation. While benzodiazepines can cause sedation, their amnesic effects are actually greater. This means that they have a stronger ability to impair memory and cause temporary memory loss. This is why benzodiazepines are sometimes used as a preoperative medication to induce amnesia and reduce anxiety before surgery.

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69. What would be an appropirate Adult IV induction dose for midazolam?

Explanation

The appropriate adult IV induction dose for midazolam is 0.1 mg/kg. This means that for every kilogram of body weight, the patient should receive 0.1 mg of midazolam. This dosage is commonly used for inducing sedation or anesthesia in adults before medical procedures. It is important to calculate the dosage accurately based on the patient's weight to ensure safe and effective administration of the medication.

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70. Which of the Benzodiazepines reviewed has the slowest onset of action and why?

Explanation

Lorazepam has the slowest onset of action compared to Midazolam and Diazepam because it has lower lipid solubility. Lipid solubility affects how quickly a drug can cross cell membranes and enter the bloodstream. Since Lorazepam has lower lipid solubility, it takes longer for it to be absorbed and distributed throughout the body, resulting in a slower onset of action. In contrast, Midazolam's water solubility and Diazepam's rapid redistribution contribute to faster onset of action compared to Lorazepam.

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71. What is the MOA of barbituates?

Explanation

Barbiturates act by depressing the reticular activating system, which is responsible for maintaining wakefulness and arousal. They also suppress excitatory neurotransmitters, which are involved in transmitting signals that promote alertness and activity. Additionally, barbiturates enhance inhibitory neurotransmitters, such as gamma-aminobutyric acid (GABA), which help to regulate neuronal activity and reduce excessive excitation. This combination of effects leads to sedation, relaxation, and a decrease in overall brain activity.

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72. Where would you find benzodiazepine receptors?

Explanation

Benzodiazepine receptors are primarily found on the postsynaptic nerve endings in the cerebral cortex. This means that these receptors are located on the receiving end of the synapse in the outer layer of the brain. They play a role in the regulation of neurotransmitters and are involved in processes such as sleep, anxiety, and muscle relaxation. While benzodiazepine receptors may also be found in other areas such as pre-synaptic nerve endings in the brain stem and spinal cord, the primary location is in the cerebral cortex.

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73. Which opioid receptors are responsible for physical dependence?

Explanation

Mu2 and Delta opioid receptors are responsible for physical dependence. Opioid drugs bind to these receptors in the brain, spinal cord, and other parts of the body, leading to the development of physical dependence. Mu2 receptors are primarily associated with the analgesic effects of opioids, while Delta receptors are involved in the rewarding and reinforcing effects. Activation of these receptors can result in tolerance, withdrawal symptoms, and addiction.

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74. Enkephalin is responsible for stimulating which opioid receptor?

Explanation

Enkephalin is responsible for stimulating the Delta opioid receptor. Enkephalin is an endogenous opioid peptide that binds to and activates the Delta receptor, which is one of the three main types of opioid receptors in the body. Activation of the Delta receptor produces analgesic effects and is involved in regulating pain perception.

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75. Which of the following is not a factor which increases risk of respiratory depression with opioids?

Explanation

High lipid solubility is not a factor that increases the risk of respiratory depression with opioids. Lipid solubility refers to how easily a drug can dissolve in fat, and it affects the drug's distribution and elimination from the body. However, it does not directly contribute to respiratory depression, which is a potentially life-threatening side effect of opioids. Factors such as high opioid dose, administration of other sedatives, lack of tolerance, and advanced age can all increase the risk of respiratory depression by affecting the central nervous system and respiratory drive.

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76. Which of the following is true regarding Barbituates?

Explanation

not-available-via-ai

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77. You are the SRNA for Mr. Chaviano who is just our of surgery. He has a past medical histort of HTN, palpitations, schizophrenia, & GERD. He is shivering in the PACU and the nurse requests something to help. What do you do?

Explanation

The correct answer is to find some warm blankets and cover him up. Shivering in the PACU is a common occurrence due to the body's natural response to anesthesia and surgery. It is important to keep the patient warm to prevent further discomfort and potential complications. Giving Narcan to reverse opioids is not indicated as there is no mention of opioid administration or overdose. Meperidine and Fentanyl are both opioids and are not typically used to treat shivering.

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78. Substitutions on the carbon atoms of barbituates determine all of the following except:

Explanation

The substitutions on the carbon atoms of barbiturates have an impact on various properties of the drug, such as hypnotic potency, anti-convulsant properties, and duration of action. However, protein binding is not affected by these substitutions. Protein binding refers to the degree to which a drug binds to proteins in the bloodstream, and it is determined by factors other than the carbon atom substitutions in barbiturates.

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79. What is the onset of action for Morphine?

Explanation

Morphine has an onset of action of 15-30 minutes. This means that it takes approximately 15-30 minutes for the drug to start producing its therapeutic effects after administration. The onset of action can vary depending on the route of administration, with intravenous administration typically having a faster onset compared to oral administration. It is important to consider the onset of action when prescribing or administering morphine to ensure that the desired effects are achieved within a reasonable timeframe.

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80. Meperidine acts on which opioid receptors?

Explanation

Meperidine acts on both Mu and Kappa opioid receptors. Mu receptors are responsible for pain relief, while Kappa receptors are involved in analgesia, sedation, and diuresis. By acting on both receptors, meperidine can provide a more comprehensive and effective pain relief.

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81. Which benzo would be used to treat panic attacks?

Explanation

Alprazolam would be used to treat panic attacks because it is a benzodiazepine that acts on the central nervous system to produce a calming effect. It is commonly prescribed for the treatment of anxiety disorders, including panic disorder. Alprazolam works by enhancing the effects of a neurotransmitter called gamma-aminobutyric acid (GABA) in the brain, which helps to reduce excessive neuronal activity and promote relaxation.

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82. Is Thiopental safe to give during pregnancy?

Explanation

Thiopental is safe to give during pregnancy up to a dose of 4mg/kg. This means that it can be administered without significant harm to the fetus as it does not cross the placental barrier. However, it is important to note that higher doses may have potential risks and should be avoided.

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83. What is the half life of Narcan?

Explanation

The half-life of Narcan is the time it takes for half of the drug to be eliminated from the body. In this case, the correct answer is 60-90 minutes, indicating that within this time frame, half of the Narcan will be metabolized and eliminated. This information is important for medical professionals to understand the duration of action and effectiveness of Narcan in reversing opioid overdose.

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84. Which of the following is not one of the Top 4 side effects of neuraxial opioids?

Explanation

Sedation is not one of the top 4 side effects of neuraxial opioids. Neuraxial opioids are commonly used for pain management during labor or after surgery. The top 4 side effects of these opioids include pruritis (itching), nausea/vomiting, urinary retention, and depressed ventilation. Sedation, although it can occur as a side effect, is not considered one of the top 4 side effects.

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85. Which benzodiazepine is primarily used to treat anxiety?

Explanation

Lorazepam is primarily used to treat anxiety because it belongs to the benzodiazepine class of drugs, which are known for their anxiolytic properties. It works by enhancing the effects of a neurotransmitter called gamma-aminobutyric acid (GABA) in the brain, which helps to reduce anxiety and promote relaxation. Lorazepam is commonly prescribed for short-term relief of anxiety symptoms and is often preferred due to its fast onset of action and relatively short duration of effects.

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86. Which opioid has the highest degree of lipid solubility?

Explanation

Fentanyl has the highest degree of lipid solubility among the given opioids. Lipid solubility refers to the ability of a substance to dissolve in fats or oils. Fentanyl's high lipid solubility allows it to rapidly cross the blood-brain barrier and reach its target receptors in the central nervous system, resulting in a fast onset of action and potent analgesic effects. This property also contributes to fentanyl's high potency and short duration of action.

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87. How long can Methohexital be refrigerated and stable for after mixing?

Explanation

Methohexital can be refrigerated and remain stable for up to 6 weeks after mixing. This means that the medication can be prepared in advance and stored in the refrigerator for a relatively long period of time before it starts to lose its potency or effectiveness. This is important information for healthcare professionals who need to prepare and store Methohexital for future use.

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88. What is the respiratory pattern associated with barbituates upon awakening?

Explanation

Upon awakening from barbiturate use, the respiratory pattern is characterized by a decrease in tidal volume (Tv) and an increase in respiratory rate (RR). Barbituates are central nervous system depressants that can suppress the respiratory drive and decrease the depth of breathing. As a result, the tidal volume, which is the amount of air inspired and expired during each breath, decreases. To compensate for the decreased tidal volume, the body increases the respiratory rate, which is the number of breaths taken per minute. This pattern helps maintain an adequate level of oxygenation and removal of carbon dioxide in the body.

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89. How is remifentanil different than other opioids?

Explanation

Remifentanil is different from other opioids because it is structurally unique due to the presence of an ester linkage. This structural difference sets it apart from other opioids and contributes to its unique pharmacological properties. The ester linkage in remifentanil allows it to be rapidly metabolized by esterases in the blood, resulting in a very short duration of action. This makes remifentanil the shortest acting opioid available. Additionally, the ester linkage also contributes to its reduced side effects compared to other opioids.

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90. How much methohexital should be given to a pt undergoing ECT?

Explanation

The correct answer is "> 1mg/kg IV." This means that a dosage of methohexital greater than 1mg per kilogram of body weight should be administered intravenously to a patient undergoing ECT. This dosage is typically determined by the healthcare provider based on factors such as the patient's weight, age, and medical condition. It is important to note that this answer is specific to the given scenario and may not be applicable in other situations.

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91. Epidural or subarachnoid placement of opioids is based on activation of which receptors?

Explanation

Epidural or subarachnoid placement of opioids is based on activation of Mu receptors. Mu receptors are primarily responsible for the analgesic effects of opioids and are found in the central nervous system. Activation of Mu receptors leads to pain relief by inhibiting the transmission of pain signals. Kappa and Delta receptors also play a role in the analgesic effects of opioids, but they are not specifically targeted in epidural or subarachnoid placement.

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92. You have just given you pt Midazolam, how long would you expect to wait to see onset of the drug?

Explanation

After administering Midazolam, the onset of the drug can be expected to occur within 30-60 seconds. This means that the effects of the drug will start to be noticeable within this time frame. It is important to monitor the patient closely during this period to assess the effectiveness of the drug and to ensure that any desired sedative or anxiolytic effects are achieved.

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93. Which opioid receptor causes depression of ventilation, physical dependence, minimal constipation & urinary retention?

Explanation

Delta opioid receptors are primarily involved in the modulation of pain and emotional responses. Activation of delta receptors has been shown to cause depression of ventilation, physical dependence, and minimal constipation and urinary retention. Therefore, the correct answer is Delta.

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94. Why should you be cautious when giving both an opioid and a benzo together?

Explanation

When giving both an opioid and a benzo together, you should be cautious because it may severely reduce ABP (arterial blood pressure). Opioids and benzodiazepines both have sedative effects and can cause respiratory depression. When used together, they can potentiate each other's effects, leading to excessive sedation and potentially causing a severe drop in blood pressure. This can be dangerous and may result in hypotension and inadequate perfusion to vital organs. Therefore, it is important to closely monitor the patient's blood pressure and respiratory status when administering these medications concurrently.

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Which of the following benzodiazepines is most commonly used during...
What drug would you choose to treat a pt with a benzodiazepine...
The drug most commonly prescribed to treat opioid overdose is?
The dose of Benzodiazepines required to reach a desired clinical...
Define Affinity:
Sodium Thiopental is a contraindication in which patients?
How are barbituate metabolized?
Which adverse reaction is a patient most likely to experience after...
In regards to the adjustments of Benzodiazepines in respect to the...
What is an antagonist?
What medication would you give to treat an opioid overdose?
Which of the following is NOT a pharmacological effect of...
Which benzodiazepine is primarily used for induction of anesthesia?
What is responsible for the pain reaction elicited when diazepam is...
When doing a pre-op evaluation for a pt you notice the pt has low...
Which of the following is not a cerebral effect of benzodiazepines?
What is the MOA of opioids?
A  barbituate with an oxygen atom on the #2 carbon would be...
What is the MOA of Benzo's?
You are caring for Mr. X who is currently having a Left BKA. You...
What respiratory effects are associated with opioid?
What is GABA?
Benzodiazepines are extensively protein bound.  Therefore, in the...
How is midazolam unique in comparison to other benzo's?
What is the elimination half time of Midazolam?
What is Substance P?
Which of the following is not an effect of opiods?
A Barbituate with a sulfur atom on the #2 carbon is called a...
Unlike the benzo's, Barbituates are known to increase CBF and ICP.
How does fentanyl compare to morphine?
The elimination half time of Methohexital is ~4 hours.
Which class of drug would to NOT give to a pt undergoing a...
How is remifentanil metabolized?
What is an appropriate oral dose for pediatric pre-medication with...
Benzodiazepines are preferred as a pre-medication for anesthesia...
Duration of action of highly lipid soluble barbituates is determined...
Distribution of barbituates depends on all of the following except...
How does Sufentanil compare to Morphine?
Which of the following is NOT an endogenous peptide?
Which of the following is not one of the Five Principle...
A Competitive antagonist binds to a site other than the agonist...
How much oral midazolam would you give to a child weighing 40 kg?
Endorphin stimulates which opioid receptor?
Fentanyl has a much more rapid onset but a longer elimination half...
How does meperidine compare to morphine?
You are caring for Mrs. Tica who has a past history of A-fib, DM,...
All benzo's share what similarities?
Put these medications in order of shortest elimination half time to...
Which medication would you give to reverse post-op ventilatory...
Which medication would you give to reliev post-op itching caused by...
Which of the following drugs will cause pain upon injection due to the...
What is the elimination half time of Lorazepam?
Which of the opioid receptors causes Euphoria, Miosis, Bradycardia,...
Which opioid receptor causes dysphoria, miosis, diuresis &...
30mg of Ketorolac would be equivalent to how much morphine?
Dynorphin is responsible for stimulating which opioid receptor?
What are the metabolites of morphine?
Which of the opioids will NOT cause miosis?
Why is remifentanil unique among the opioids?
What effects do benzodiazepines exert upon the cardiovascular system?
What is a non-competitive antagonist?
What would be an appropriate loading dose for remifentanil?
While doing a pre-op assessment on an inpatient you find that the pt...
How do midazolam and diazepam compare to one another?
A drug that alters the physiology of a cell by binding to the plasma...
What is the elimination half time of Diazepam?
How much methohexital would you expect to find excreted unchanged in...
Which of the following is true regarding benzodiazepines?
What would be an appropirate Adult IV induction dose for midazolam?
Which of the Benzodiazepines reviewed has the slowest onset of action...
What is the MOA of barbituates?
Where would you find benzodiazepine receptors?
Which opioid receptors are responsible for physical dependence?
Enkephalin is responsible for stimulating which opioid receptor?
Which of the following is not a factor which increases risk of...
Which of the following is true regarding Barbituates?
You are the SRNA for Mr. Chaviano who is just our of surgery. He has a...
Substitutions on the carbon atoms of barbituates determine all of the...
What is the onset of action for Morphine?
Meperidine acts on which opioid receptors?
Which benzo would be used to treat panic attacks?
Is Thiopental safe to give during pregnancy?
What is the half life of Narcan?
Which of the following is not one of the Top 4 side effects of...
Which benzodiazepine is primarily used to treat anxiety?
Which opioid has the highest degree of lipid solubility?
How long can Methohexital be refrigerated and stable for after mixing?
What is the respiratory pattern associated with barbituates upon...
How is remifentanil different than other opioids?
How much methohexital should be given to a pt undergoing ECT?
Epidural or subarachnoid placement of opioids is based on activation...
You have just given you pt Midazolam, how long would you expect to...
Which opioid receptor causes depression of ventilation, physical...
Why should you be cautious when giving both an opioid and a benzo...
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