Pharmacology Of Anesthesia Quiz: Exam!

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1. What is the purpose of giving lidocaine prior to administration of propofol?

Explanation

Lidocaine is often used as a local anesthetic to numb the area before a procedure. In this case, lidocaine is given prior to the administration of propofol to prevent burning upon injection. Propofol is known to cause pain and burning sensation when injected, and lidocaine helps to alleviate this discomfort.

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About This Quiz
Pharmacology Of Anesthesia Quiz: Exam! - Quiz

Pharmacology of anaesthesia quiz: exam! There are different ways that a medical practitioner can mess up while performing anaesthesia, and this is why one needs to know the... see moredifferent drugs that can be used and how. How conversant are you with the most common drugs and how they are used? This quiz is a perfect test and refresher. Do check it out and see how well you do!
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2. Which of the following is a depolarizing muscle relaxant?

Explanation

Succinylcholine is a depolarizing muscle relaxant because it acts by initially depolarizing the motor end plate of the neuromuscular junction, causing muscle contraction, and then prolonging the depolarization, leading to muscle relaxation. This mechanism of action is different from non-depolarizing muscle relaxants like Rocuronium, Mivacurium, and Vecuronium, which block the action of acetylcholine at the neuromuscular junction without causing depolarization.

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3. You are caring for a 82 yr old woman who is about to be induced for surgery. You plan to use propofol for your induction and would plan that….

Explanation

When caring for an elderly patient, it is important to consider age-related changes in drug metabolism and elimination. As individuals age, their liver and kidney function may decline, leading to a decreased ability to process medications. Propofol, being a sedative-hypnotic agent, is metabolized in the liver and excreted by the kidneys. Therefore, in an 82-year-old woman, it is recommended to reduce the dose of propofol by 25-50% to account for potential age-related changes in pharmacokinetics and to minimize the risk of adverse effects or prolonged sedation.

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4. It is perfectly safe to use regional anesthetics on malignant hyperthermia susceptible patients. 

Explanation

Malignant hyperthermia is a potentially life-threatening condition triggered by certain medications used during anesthesia. Regional anesthesia, which involves numbing only a specific region of the body, does not typically involve the use of the specific medications that can trigger malignant hyperthermia. Therefore, it is considered safe to use regional anesthesia on patients who are susceptible to malignant hyperthermia.

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5. Which of the non-barbituate agents has analgesic properties?

Explanation

Ketamine is a non-barbiturate agent that has analgesic properties. It works by blocking N-methyl-D-aspartate (NMDA) receptors in the brain, which reduces the perception of pain. Ketamine is commonly used as an anesthetic and analgesic in both human and veterinary medicine. It is known for its dissociative effects, causing a state of sedation, analgesia, and amnesia. Ketamine is often used in emergency settings and for procedures where pain control is necessary. It is also being studied for its potential use in treating depression and post-traumatic stress disorder.

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6. Hyperthermia is an early sign of MH.

Explanation

Hyperthermia is not an early sign of Malignant Hyperthermia (MH). In fact, hyperthermia is one of the main symptoms of MH and typically occurs later in the progression of the condition. Other early signs of MH include muscle rigidity, increased heart rate, and increased carbon dioxide production. Therefore, the correct answer is False.

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7. This non-barb has a high incidence of emergence delirium, 12%.

Explanation

Ketamine is known to have a high incidence of emergence delirium, which is a state of confusion and agitation that can occur as the patient wakes up from anesthesia. This side effect is more common with ketamine compared to other anesthesia options such as etomidate and propofol. Therefore, ketamine is the correct answer in this case.

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8. Which non-barb induction agent has analgesic and bronchodilator effects?

Explanation

Ketamine is the correct answer because it is a non-barbiturate induction agent that has analgesic and bronchodilator effects. Ketamine is known for its dissociative properties and is often used in anesthesia for its ability to provide both sedation and pain relief. It is also a bronchodilator, meaning it can help relax the muscles in the airways and improve breathing. Propofol is a barbiturate and does not have analgesic or bronchodilator effects. Etomidate is also a non-barbiturate induction agent, but it does not have analgesic or bronchodilator effects either.

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9. It is perfectly safe to use regional anesthetics on malignant hyperthermia susceptible patients. 

Explanation

Regional anesthetics can be safely used on patients who are susceptible to malignant hyperthermia. Malignant hyperthermia is a rare but potentially life-threatening condition triggered by certain medications used during general anesthesia. Regional anesthesia, such as epidural or spinal anesthesia, does not involve the use of these triggering medications and therefore does not pose a risk to patients with malignant hyperthermia susceptibility. Therefore, it is safe to use regional anesthetics on such patients.

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10. Which of the following has the shortest duration of action?

Explanation

Succinylcholine has the shortest duration of action among the given options. This is because succinylcholine is a depolarizing neuromuscular blocking agent that rapidly binds to the acetylcholine receptors at the neuromuscular junction and causes a brief period of muscle paralysis. Its effects are short-lived, typically lasting only a few minutes, making it suitable for short procedures or rapid sequence intubation. In contrast, Vecuronium, Rocuronium, and Pancuronium are non-depolarizing neuromuscular blocking agents that have longer durations of action.

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11. This non-barb will increase salivation, inclusion of a antisialagogue is recommended.

Explanation

Ketamine is the correct answer because it is a known antisialagogue, meaning it reduces salivation. The question states that a non-barb (non-barbiturate) will increase salivation, so in order to counteract this effect, an antisialagogue should be used. Ketamine fits this criteria and is commonly used in medical settings for its anesthetic properties and ability to reduce salivation.

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12. You  were  a very good SRNA this morning and drew up all your drugs, including the propofol, at 6:15 am.  At the last minute your first case of the day was cancelled and you did not get another case until 1:30 pm. Can you still use your propofol on this patient?

Explanation

good for 6 hours in a syringe. good for 12 hours if gtt

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13. Propofol is metabolized extensively in the liver, as well as in the lungs and other sites. How will hepatic disease affect the half life of Propofol?

Explanation

N&P 132, effects can be prolonged but not contraindicated

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14. Whta is MOA of Ketamine?

Explanation

Ketamine's mechanism of action involves non-competitive antagonist binding to the phencyclidine recognition site on the NMDA receptor and also acts on opioid receptors. This means that ketamine blocks the activity of the NMDA receptor, which is involved in pain perception, learning, and memory. Additionally, it interacts with opioid receptors, which are involved in pain modulation and can contribute to ketamine's analgesic effects. This dual action on both NMDA and opioid receptors contributes to ketamine's anesthetic and analgesic properties.

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15. If you give your pt an intubating dose of succynocholine and they have a MH reaction, what type of muscle rigidity can you see prior to actually intubating the patient?

Explanation

Prior to intubating a patient who is experiencing a malignant hyperthermia (MH) reaction after receiving an intubating dose of succinylcholine, you may observe muscle rigidity in the masseter muscles. This is because succinylcholine can trigger MH in susceptible individuals, leading to uncontrolled muscle contractions and rigidity. The masseter muscles, which are responsible for chewing and closing the jaw, may become rigid and tense in this situation.

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16. What is an appropriate intubating dose of Succinylcholine?

Explanation

An appropriate intubating dose of Succinylcholine is 1-1.5 mg/kg.

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17. Dantrolene should be continued for ____ Hours post MH episode.

Explanation

Dantrolene should be continued for 24 hours post MH episode. This is because Malignant Hyperthermia (MH) is a life-threatening condition that can occur during anesthesia. Dantrolene is the drug of choice for treating and preventing MH. It works by inhibiting calcium release from the sarcoplasmic reticulum in skeletal muscle cells. Continuing Dantrolene for 24 hours after the episode helps to ensure that the patient remains stable and prevents any further complications or recurrence of MH symptoms.

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18. This non-barb hypnotic is good for patients with a history of PONV.

Explanation

Etomidate and Ketamine increase the incidence of PONV, Propofol is an antiemetic.

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19. Which non-barb can supress adrenal cortical function?

Explanation

Etomidate is a non-barbiturate anesthetic agent that can suppress adrenal cortical function. It works by inhibiting the production of cortisol, a hormone produced by the adrenal glands. This suppression of adrenal function can be beneficial in certain medical procedures or conditions where decreased cortisol production is desired. Etomidate is commonly used for induction of anesthesia and sedation in critically ill patients. It has a rapid onset of action and a short duration, making it an effective choice for these purposes.

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20. You are the SRNA for Mr. Joe, a 20 yr old male having repair of a torn ACL tendon.  You paralyzed the patient using succinylcholine to intubate, and currently have your Sevo going at 2%. Right as the makes his incision into the patients knee you notice your HR has jumped and the patient is tachycardic. His BP has also jumped up considerably. What does this mean?

Explanation

The sudden increase in heart rate and blood pressure suggests that the patient may be experiencing inadequate anesthesia. Increasing the dose of anesthesia by administering fentanyl and increasing the sevo (sevoflurane) concentration can help deepen the anesthesia and ensure the patient remains adequately sedated throughout the procedure.

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21. Dantrolene should be continued for ____ Hours post MH episode.

Explanation

Dantrolene should be continued for 24 hours post MH episode. This is because malignant hyperthermia (MH) is a potentially life-threatening condition triggered by certain medications used during general anesthesia. Dantrolene is the specific treatment for MH, and it works by inhibiting the release of calcium from the sarcoplasmic reticulum in muscle cells. It is important to continue administering dantrolene for 24 hours after the episode to ensure that the muscles remain relaxed and prevent any recurrence of MH symptoms.

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22. You are the SRNA for a 12 yr old male who is 5’0” and weighs 45 kg. What would be an appropriate intubating dose of  vecuronium?

Explanation

An appropriate intubating dose of vecuronium for a 12-year-old male weighing 45 kg would be 4.5 mg. This dose is calculated based on the patient's weight and is within the appropriate range for intubation.

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23. When caring for children you should ALWAYS give the anticholinergic and the cholinesterase inhibitor together  in one syringe. 

Explanation

It is not recommended to give the anticholinergic and the cholinesterase inhibitor together in one syringe when caring for children. These two medications have different mechanisms of action and should be administered separately to ensure their effectiveness and avoid any potential drug interactions or adverse effects.

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24. Pre-treatment with a non-depolarizer may help to lessen all side effects from succinylcholine except:

Explanation

Pre-treatment with a non-depolarizer muscle relaxant can help reduce the side effects caused by succinylcholine, such as arrhythmias, myalgia, and elevated intraocular pressure. However, it does not have an effect on hyperkalemia, which is an increased level of potassium in the blood. Therefore, pre-treatment with a non-depolarizer cannot lessen the side effect of hyperkalemia caused by succinylcholine.

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25. Which of the following has the longest duration of effect?

Explanation

Pancuronium has the longest duration of effect compared to the other options. It is a long-acting nondepolarizing neuromuscular blocking agent that is used during surgery to relax muscles and facilitate intubation. Its effects can last for several hours, making it suitable for procedures that require prolonged muscle relaxation. Nimbex, Vecuronium, and Succinylcholine are also neuromuscular blocking agents, but they have shorter durations of action compared to Pancuronium.

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26. Which of the non-barbituate agents has the lowest amount of protein binding & works on NMDA receptors?

Explanation

12% protein bound, crosses BBB readily

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27. Pre-treatment with a non-depolarizer may help to lessen all side effects from succinylcholine except:

Explanation

Pre-treatment with a non-depolarizer drug before succinylcholine administration can help reduce the occurrence of side effects such as arrhythmias, myalgia, and elevated intraocular pressure. However, it does not have a significant impact on preventing hyperkalemia, which is an increase in potassium levels in the blood. Therefore, the correct answer is hyperkalemia.

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28. The chemical structure of this drug is 2,6-diisopropylphenol.

Explanation

Propofol is the correct answer because its chemical structure matches the given description of 2,6-diisopropylphenol. This means that propofol is composed of a phenol ring with two isopropyl groups attached at positions 2 and 6. Etomidate and ketamine do not have this specific chemical structure, so they are not the correct answer.

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29. How much glycopyrolate should you give to a patient receiving 3 mg of neostigmine?

Explanation

To reverse the effects of neostigmine, glycopyrolate is administered. The correct answer is 0.6 mg because the recommended dose of glycopyrolate is typically 0.2 mg for every 1 mg of neostigmine. Therefore, if the patient is receiving 3 mg of neostigmine, the appropriate dose of glycopyrolate would be 0.6 mg (3 mg x 0.2 mg).

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30. What is the mechanism of action of non-depolarizing muscle relaxants?

Explanation

Non-depolarizing muscle relaxants work by binding to alpha subunit receptors without activating them. Instead, they block the receptors and prevent acetylcholine from binding, leading to muscle paralysis. This mechanism of action differs from depolarizing muscle relaxants, which cause sustained depolarization by activating alpha subunit receptors.

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31. The non-barbituate agents have short duration of action mainly due to…

Explanation

The non-barbiturate agents have a short duration of action mainly due to redistribution. This means that after the drug is administered, it quickly moves from the bloodstream to other tissues in the body, such as muscle and fat. This redistribution reduces the concentration of the drug in the bloodstream, leading to a decrease in its effects. Redistribution is a key factor in the short duration of action of these agents, as it allows for a rapid decrease in drug concentration and a shorter overall duration of effect.

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32. Hyperthermia is an early sign of MH.

Explanation

Hyperthermia is not an early sign of MH. Malignant Hyperthermia (MH) is a rare but potentially life-threatening condition that can be triggered by certain medications used during anesthesia. Hyperthermia, or high body temperature, is a symptom that occurs later in the progression of MH, rather than being an early sign. Early signs of MH include muscle rigidity, increased heart rate, and increased carbon dioxide production. Therefore, the correct answer is False.

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33. Which of the following muscle relaxants allows you to skip use of a reversal agent?

Explanation

may be skipped to prevent PONV, but not really recommended per lecture, metabolized mostly by plasma cholinesterase, “unlike sux, antagonism w/ cholinesterase inhib will quicken reversal once some response to nerve stimulation becomes apparent, Spontaneous recovery is rapid, neostig profoundly decreases plasma cholinesterase, but moderate levels of miv induced blockade are antagonized readily, edrophonium provides more rapid antag of deep miv induced blockade”

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34. All muscle relaxants are quaternary ammonium compounds that mimic the effects of…

Explanation

Muscle relaxants are quaternary ammonium compounds that mimic the effects of acetylcholine. Acetylcholine is a neurotransmitter that plays a crucial role in muscle contraction. By mimicking its effects, muscle relaxants can help reduce muscle spasms and promote muscle relaxation. Pseudocholinesterase is an enzyme that breaks down acetylcholine, while monocholine is not a known substance. Muscarinic receptors are the receptors that acetylcholine binds to in order to exert its effects. Therefore, the correct answer is acetylcholine.

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35. What is the name of the receptor that is responsible for MH?

Explanation

Ryanodine is the correct answer because it is the name of the receptor that is responsible for malignant hyperthermia (MH). Ryanodine receptors are located on the sarcoplasmic reticulum of skeletal muscle cells and play a crucial role in regulating calcium release during muscle contraction. Mutations in the ryanodine receptor gene can lead to abnormal calcium release, which can trigger MH, a potentially life-threatening condition characterized by muscle rigidity, high fever, and metabolic acidosis.

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36. Https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=c1JzCDqt3BM

Explanation

The given answer "All of the above" is correct because the statement "Love it" indicates that the person enjoyed the video, "Now I have that song stuck in my head" suggests that the person found the song memorable or catchy, and the phrase "All of the above" implies that both statements are true. Therefore, all three statements express positive sentiments towards the video.

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37. How do we prevent the muscarinic effects of cholinesterase inhibitors?

Explanation

Concurrently administering an anticholinergic drug can help prevent the muscarinic effects of cholinesterase inhibitors. Anticholinergic drugs work by blocking the action of acetylcholine, the neurotransmitter responsible for the muscarinic effects. By blocking the action of acetylcholine, the anticholinergic drug can counteract the excessive stimulation caused by cholinesterase inhibitors, thereby preventing the muscarinic effects such as increased salivation, sweating, and gastrointestinal distress.

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38. Which of the following will increase your ICP?

Explanation

Ketamine is a dissociative anesthetic that can increase intracranial pressure (ICP) due to its sympathomimetic effects. It stimulates the release of catecholamines, which can cause vasoconstriction and increase cerebral blood flow, leading to an increase in ICP. Propofol and etomidate, on the other hand, are both sedative-hypnotic agents that have minimal effects on ICP and may even decrease it. Therefore, the correct answer is Ketamine.

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39. You are the SRNA for a patient with a known pseudocholinesterase deficiency who needs a rapid sequence induction due to past medical history of GERD which is poorly controlled. The patient weighs 80 kg. What medication would you choose for this induction?

Explanation

Rocuronium would be the medication of choice for this induction because the patient has a known pseudocholinesterase deficiency. Succinylcholine, which is commonly used for rapid sequence inductions, is contraindicated in patients with pseudocholinesterase deficiency as it can lead to prolonged paralysis. Mivacurium is also not recommended in this case because it is metabolized by pseudocholinesterase. Therefore, Rocuronium, a non-depolarizing muscle relaxant, would be the safest option for this patient.

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40. For a patient who is borderline tachycardic it is recommended to administer neostigmine without glycopyrolate. 

Explanation

It is not recommended to administer neostigmine without glycopyrolate for a patient who is borderline tachycardic. The use of neostigmine can cause an increase in heart rate, and glycopyrolate is typically administered along with neostigmine to counteract this effect and prevent further tachycardia. Therefore, it is false to say that it is recommended to administer neostigmine without glycopyrolate in this situation.

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41. What is the mechanism of action of the cholinesterase inhibitors?

Explanation

The mechanism of action of cholinesterase inhibitors is the inhibition of the hydrolysis of acetylcholine, which leads to increased availability of acetylcholine at its sites of action. This allows for enhanced cholinergic neurotransmission and can be beneficial in conditions such as Alzheimer's disease, where there is a deficiency of acetylcholine. By inhibiting the breakdown of acetylcholine, cholinesterase inhibitors help to maintain higher levels of this neurotransmitter in the brain, improving cognitive function.

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42. Regaining 4/4 twitches after administration of a non-depolarizing muscle relaxant means that you no longer need to administer a reversal agent. 

Explanation

Regaining 4/4 twitches after administration of a non-depolarizing muscle relaxant does not necessarily mean that you no longer need to administer a reversal agent. The reversal agent is still required to fully reverse the effects of the muscle relaxant and restore normal muscle function.

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43. You can safely administer glycopyrolate without a cholinesterase inhibitor.

Explanation

Glycopyrrolate is an anticholinergic medication that works by blocking the action of acetylcholine, a neurotransmitter that is involved in various bodily functions. Cholinesterase inhibitors, on the other hand, work by inhibiting the breakdown of acetylcholine, thereby increasing its levels in the body. Since glycopyrrolate works by blocking acetylcholine, it can be safely administered without a cholinesterase inhibitor.

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44. Acetylcholine is rapidly metabolized by acetylcholinesterase to…. (Two answers)

Explanation

Acetylcholine is a neurotransmitter that is involved in the transmission of signals between nerve cells. It is rapidly metabolized by an enzyme called acetylcholinesterase. This enzyme breaks down acetylcholine into its two components: acetic acid and choline. Acetic acid is a simple organic acid, while choline is an essential nutrient that is important for various functions in the body, including the synthesis of acetylcholine itself. Therefore, the correct answers are acetic acid and choline.

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45. What is the mechanism of action of succinylcholine?

Explanation

Succinylcholine works by binding to and activating alpha subunit receptors, which leads to sustained depolarization. This sustained depolarization prevents the muscle from repolarizing, causing paralysis.

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46. Which of the following agents is eliminated via Hoffman Elimination?

Explanation

Atracurium is eliminated via Hoffman elimination. Hoffman elimination is a chemical reaction that occurs in the body and is responsible for the breakdown and elimination of certain drugs. Atracurium is a neuromuscular blocking agent that is commonly used during surgery to relax muscles. It undergoes Hoffman elimination, which involves the breaking of a specific chemical bond in the drug molecule, leading to its breakdown and elimination from the body. This is different from the other agents listed, such as Mivacurium, Pancuronium, and Rocuronium, which are eliminated through different mechanisms.

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47. When can your reversal agents be administered?

Explanation

The reversal agents can be administered when you have at least 1 out of 4 twitches. This means that there should be some muscle movement present before the reversal agents are given. It implies that the patient is not fully paralyzed and there is still some level of muscle function. Administering the reversal agents in this scenario can help to reverse the effects of the anesthesia and restore muscle movement.

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48. The mixing of Lidocaine w/ Propofol may result in coalescence of oil droplets which may pose risk of pulmonary embolism.

Explanation

S&H 155

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49. This non-barb has a chemical structure of carboxylated imidazole-containing compound that (like versed) is water solule at acidic pH and lipid soluble at physiologic pH.

Explanation

Etomidate is the correct answer because it is a carboxylated imidazole-containing compound that exhibits water solubility at acidic pH and lipid solubility at physiologic pH. This property allows it to easily cross cell membranes and distribute throughout the body. Etomidate is commonly used as an intravenous anesthetic due to its rapid onset and short duration of action. It works by enhancing the inhibitory effects of GABA, a neurotransmitter that reduces neuronal activity and produces sedation and anesthesia.

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50. Why is gylcopyrolate the anticholinergic agent of choice for neostigmine?

Explanation

Glycopyrrolate is the anticholinergic agent of choice for neostigmine because its onset of action is very similar to neostigmine. This means that both drugs start working at around the same time, allowing for a more balanced and coordinated effect. This is important in situations where neostigmine is used to reverse the effects of neuromuscular blockade, as the simultaneous action of glycopyrrolate helps to prevent excessive cholinergic stimulation and maintain a more stable heart rate.

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51. You are the SRNA for a 58 yr old female having open heart surgery. She is 5’4” and  70 kg. What would be an appropriate intubating dose of pancuronium?

Explanation

An appropriate intubating dose of pancuronium for a 58-year-old female undergoing open heart surgery would be 7 mg. This dose is determined based on the patient's weight, which is 70 kg. Pancuronium is a neuromuscular blocking agent used during surgery to induce muscle relaxation and facilitate intubation. The dosage is calculated based on the patient's weight to ensure optimal effect and minimize the risk of adverse effects.

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52. The majority of incidences of MH occur in patients under 15.

Explanation

The correct answer is true because the statement states that the majority of incidences of MH occur in patients under 15. This implies that more cases of MH are observed in individuals below the age of 15 compared to those above that age.

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53. What would be an appropriate dose of reversal agent for a 23 yr old female weighing 50 kg?

Explanation

not-available-via-ai

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54. What is an appropriate intubating dose of Rocuronium?

Explanation

An appropriate intubating dose of Rocuronium is 0.6-1.2 mg/kg. This range of dosage is commonly used for intubation, as it provides effective muscle relaxation for the procedure. Using a higher dose may lead to prolonged paralysis, while using a lower dose may result in inadequate muscle relaxation. Therefore, the recommended range of 0.6-1.2 mg/kg ensures optimal conditions for intubation.

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55. What is the maximum dose of Dantrolene which can be given to a 10 yr old child weighing 30 kg?

Explanation

The maximum dose of Dantrolene that can be given to a 10-year-old child weighing 30 kg is 300 mg. This dosage is determined based on the child's weight and age, as well as the recommended dosage guidelines for Dantrolene. It is important to adhere to the maximum dosage to ensure the safety and effectiveness of the medication.

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56. What is an appropriate induction dose of propofol for a 50 yr old male who is 5’10” and weighs 80 kg?

Explanation

1.5-2.5mg/kg

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57. What are the common side effects of Dantrolene?

Explanation

The common side effects of Dantrolene include muscle weakness, difficulty swallowing or choking, pulmonary edema, anaphylaxis, and rhabdomyolysis. Therefore, the correct answer is "All of the above." These side effects can occur when taking Dantrolene, and it is important to be aware of them and seek medical attention if any of these symptoms occur.

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58. What is an appropriate intubating dose of Atracurium?

Explanation

An appropriate intubating dose of Atracurium is 0.4-0.5 mg/kg.

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59. What would be an appropriate intubating dose of Atracurium for a 5’1” 48 yr old female weight 60 kg?

Explanation

An appropriate intubating dose of Atracurium for a patient is typically calculated based on their weight. In this case, the patient weighs 60 kg. The recommended dose of Atracurium is usually around 0.5-0.6 mg/kg. Therefore, for a 60 kg patient, the appropriate dose would be around 30-36 mg. The closest option to this range is 30 mg, which makes it the correct answer.

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60. Which drugs are potentiated by dantrolene? 

Explanation

Dantrolene is a muscle relaxant that works by inhibiting calcium release from the sarcoplasmic reticulum in skeletal muscle, leading to muscle relaxation. It is specifically used to treat malignant hyperthermia and muscle spasticity. Dantrolene has been found to potentiate the effects of neuromuscular blockers like vecuronium. This means that when dantrolene is administered along with vecuronium, the muscle relaxant effect of vecuronium is enhanced, leading to a greater degree of muscle relaxation. This can be beneficial in certain medical situations where a stronger muscle relaxant effect is desired.

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61. What is the maximum dose of Dantrolene which can be given to a 10 yr old child weighing 30 kg?

Explanation

The maximum dose of Dantrolene that can be given to a 10-year-old child weighing 30 kg is 300 mg. This dosage is determined based on the weight of the child and the recommended dosage guidelines for Dantrolene. It is important to adhere to the recommended dosage to ensure the safety and effectiveness of the medication.

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62. You are the SRNA for a patient with a known pseudocholinesterase deficiency who needs a rapid sequence induction due to past medical history of GERD which is poorly controlled. The patient weighs 80 kg. What medication would you choose for this induction?

Explanation

The patient has a known pseudocholinesterase deficiency, which means they have a decreased ability to metabolize succinylcholine. Succinylcholine is typically used for rapid sequence induction, but in this case, it would lead to prolonged muscle relaxation due to the patient's deficiency. Therefore, an alternative medication should be chosen. Rocuronium is a non-depolarizing muscle relaxant that does not rely on pseudocholinesterase for metabolism. It is a suitable choice for rapid sequence induction in this patient.

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63. Which of the following non-barbituate agents do we use as a racemic mixture?

Explanation

Ketamine is the correct answer because it is commonly used as a racemic mixture. A racemic mixture is a combination of equal amounts of two enantiomers, or mirror-image forms, of a compound. Ketamine is a dissociative anesthetic that is known for its analgesic and sedative effects. It is often used in surgical procedures and emergency medicine.

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64. What drug could you give to decrease the incidence of emergence delirum in patients receiving ketamine?

Explanation

Versed, also known as midazolam, is a drug that could be given to decrease the incidence of emergence delirium in patients receiving ketamine. Emergence delirium is a common side effect of ketamine anesthesia, characterized by confusion, agitation, and hallucinations upon awakening from anesthesia. Versed is a benzodiazepine sedative that can help reduce these symptoms and provide a smoother transition from anesthesia to wakefulness. It has sedative, amnestic, and anxiolytic properties, making it an effective choice for managing emergence delirium in patients undergoing ketamine anesthesia.

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65. You are the SRNA for a 16 yr old boy coming in for appendectomy. After administering succinylcholine to the pt you can not open the patients mouth the intubate him. What should you do next?

Explanation

The correct answer is to immediately notify the MD and send an ABG and labs to assess for MH and cancel the case. This is because the inability to open the patient's mouth after administering succinylcholine may be indicative of a rare but potentially life-threatening condition called malignant hyperthermia (MH). MH is a hypermetabolic reaction to certain triggering agents, such as succinylcholine, and can lead to muscle rigidity, hyperthermia, acidosis, and other systemic complications. Prompt recognition and management of MH is crucial to prevent further complications and ensure patient safety.

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66. What is an appropriate intubating dose of Atracurium?

Explanation

An appropriate intubating dose of Atracurium is 0.4-0.5 mg/kg.

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67. How is Etomidate metabolized?

Explanation

Etomidate is metabolized by hepatic microsomal enzymes. Hepatic microsomal enzymes are responsible for the metabolism of various drugs in the liver. They break down the drug into smaller molecules that can be easily eliminated from the body. In the case of etomidate, these enzymes play a crucial role in its metabolism, ensuring its elimination from the body. This information is important for understanding the pharmacokinetics and clearance of etomidate in patients.

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68. What is the recommended dose of neostigmine?

Explanation

The recommended dose of neostigmine is 0.08 mg/kg. This means that for every kilogram of body weight, a patient should receive 0.08 mg of neostigmine. This dosage is based on the specific characteristics of neostigmine and its desired effects in the body. It is important to follow the recommended dose to ensure the safe and effective use of the medication.

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69. At what percentage of blockade by non-depolarizing muscle relaxants would you achieve surgical relaxation?

Explanation

Surgical relaxation is achieved when the muscles are completely relaxed, allowing for easy manipulation during surgery. Non-depolarizing muscle relaxants work by blocking the action of acetylcholine at the neuromuscular junction, leading to muscle relaxation. The percentage of blockade refers to the degree of inhibition of muscle contraction. Therefore, to achieve surgical relaxation, a high percentage of blockade is required. Among the given options, 90% blockade by non-depolarizing muscle relaxants would provide the necessary level of muscle relaxation for surgery.

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70. What would be a proper  IV induction dose for ketamine on a patient who is 5’9” and 80 kg?

Explanation

1-2mg/kg

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71. You are caring for a 60 yr old male going in for removal of abdominal mass.  He is 6’0” and 90 kg, what would be an appropriate intubating dose of succinylcholine?

Explanation

not-available-via-ai

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72. What is an appropriate dose of propofol sedation during a MAC case?

Explanation

An appropriate dose of propofol sedation during a MAC case is 25-100 mcg/kg/min. This range ensures that the patient receives a sufficient level of sedation without causing excessive sedation or respiratory depression. It allows for individualized dosing based on the patient's weight and response to the medication. This dosage range is commonly used in MAC cases to provide effective sedation while maintaining patient safety.

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73. Which of the following muscle relaxants would you choose to give to a patient having cardiac surgery in order to counteract the bradycardia caused by narcotics?

Explanation

Pancuronium would be the muscle relaxant of choice to counteract the bradycardia caused by narcotics during cardiac surgery. This is because pancuronium has a sympathomimetic effect, meaning it stimulates the sympathetic nervous system, which can help increase heart rate. Succinylcholine, rocuronium, and mivacurium do not have this sympathomimetic effect and would not be as effective in counteracting bradycardia.

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74. Which of the following patients could you use succinylcholine on?

Explanation

Succinylcholine is a neuromuscular blocking agent that is commonly used during anesthesia. However, it should not be used in patients with a history of Muscular Dystrophy, as they may have an increased risk of developing adverse reactions such as hyperkalemia and malignant hyperthermia. Additionally, succinylcholine should be used with caution in patients with burns, spinal cord injuries, and hyperkalemia, as these conditions can also increase the risk of complications. Therefore, the correct answer is "None of the above" because succinylcholine should not be used in any of the mentioned patient scenarios.

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75. What is an appropriate intubating dose of Vecuronium?

Explanation

The appropriate intubating dose of Vecuronium is .08-0.1 mg/kg.

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76. What test could be done on a patient suspected to have MH?

Explanation

The Caffeine Halothane Test is used to diagnose Malignant Hyperthermia (MH), a potentially life-threatening reaction to certain medications used during general anesthesia. This test involves exposing a muscle sample from the patient to caffeine and halothane in a laboratory setting and observing for abnormal muscle contractions. If the muscle sample contracts abnormally, it indicates a positive result for MH. This test is considered the gold standard for diagnosing MH and is crucial in identifying patients at risk before undergoing anesthesia.

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77. How much can your temperature increase every 5 minutes in MH? (pick best answer)

Explanation

In MH, the temperature can increase by 1-2 degrees Celsius every 5 minutes. This means that the temperature can rise by a significant amount in a short period of time.

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78. A patient with a sulfite allergy should not be given the generic propofol because of the metabisulfite preservative in it, but it is ok to give Diprovan.

Explanation

S&H 155

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79. Ketamine is a NMDA agonist or antagonist?

Explanation

Ketamine is classified as an NMDA antagonist. NMDA receptors are involved in the transmission of pain signals in the brain, and by blocking these receptors, ketamine can effectively reduce pain perception. As an antagonist, ketamine binds to the NMDA receptor and prevents its activation by other substances, thereby inhibiting its function. This mechanism of action contributes to ketamine's analgesic and anesthetic properties.

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80. What is an appropriate intubating dose of Pancuronium?

Explanation

The appropriate intubating dose of Pancuronium is .08-0.1 mg/kg.

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81. You suspect your patient has MH, what do you expect to see on their ABG?

Explanation

The correct answer is CO2 61, BE -11, Ph 7.20. In a patient with MH (malignant hyperthermia), there is an increased production of carbon dioxide (CO2) due to increased muscle metabolism. This leads to respiratory acidosis, which is reflected by an elevated CO2 level. The base excess (BE) is negative, indicating metabolic acidosis. The pH is decreased, indicating acidemia. Therefore, the ABG values in the given answer are consistent with the expected findings in a patient with MH.

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82. The MH gene is passed via:

Explanation

The MH gene is passed via an autosomal dominant gene, meaning that only one copy of the gene is needed for the trait to be expressed. This means that if a person inherits the MH gene from one parent, they will have the condition. Autosomal dominant inheritance patterns are characterized by the presence of affected individuals in each generation of a family, as each affected individual has a 50% chance of passing on the gene to their offspring.

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83. What is the half life of Dantrolene?

Explanation

The half-life of a drug refers to the time it takes for half of the drug to be eliminated from the body. In the case of Dantrolene, the correct answer is 6 hours, which means that it takes approximately 6 hours for half of the drug to be eliminated from the body. This information is important for determining the dosing frequency and duration of action of the drug.

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84. Which of the following patients should NOT receive Ketamine? PICK TWO

Explanation

Ketamine is contraindicated in patients with a history of Malignant Hyperthermia and in patients with head trauma. Malignant Hyperthermia is a potentially life-threatening reaction to certain medications, including Ketamine. Head trauma patients may have increased intracranial pressure, and Ketamine can further elevate this pressure. Therefore, these two patients should not receive Ketamine.

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85. Which of the following drugs is metabolized by pseudocholinesterase?

Explanation

Mivacurium is metabolized by pseudocholinesterase. Pseudocholinesterase is an enzyme that breaks down certain drugs, including mivacurium, in the body. This enzyme is responsible for the rapid metabolism of mivacurium, leading to its short duration of action. Other drugs listed, such as atracurium, rocuronium, and vecuronium, are not metabolized by pseudocholinesterase.

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86. Malignant Hyperthermia is a severe reaction which results in ryanodine receptor activation leading to…

Explanation

Malignant Hyperthermia is a severe reaction that occurs due to the activation of ryanodine receptors. This activation leads to an increase in intracellular calcium levels, causing intracellular hypercalcemia.

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87. You are the SRNA for Mrs. Nannit who is currently having a fem pop done. You have used vecuronium to paralyze the patient and she is receiving Desflurane for sedation.  Her heart rate is currently NSR 60, blood pressure is stable, but your ETCO2 is climbing. What should you do?

Explanation

The correct answer is to increase the patient's respiratory rate because hypoventilation is causing the increase in ETCO2. By increasing the respiratory rate, the patient will be able to eliminate more carbon dioxide and prevent further elevation of ETCO2. This will help maintain adequate ventilation and prevent complications associated with hypoventilation.

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88. Which of the following is not at an increased risk for Malignant Hyperthermia?

Explanation

Malignant Hyperthermia (MH) is a potentially life-threatening reaction to certain medications used during general anesthesia. It is an inherited condition, usually passed down from a parent. Patients with Muscular Dystrophy and patients whose mother has MH are at an increased risk for MH because of the genetic component. A patient who had a heat stroke last year while playing outdoors may be at an increased risk for heat-related complications but not specifically for MH. Being immunosuppressed does not directly increase the risk for MH.

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89. You are the SRNA for a patient currently undergoing biopsy and removal and liver mass. You paralyzed the patient with vecuronium and are using Sevoflurance for sedation. You notice your patient suddenly becomes tachycardic and the ETCO2 goes way up. You attempt to increase your RR to decrease ETCO2 but it does not work. At the same time you notice the patients muscles are becoming rigid. What is the FIRST thing you should do now?

Explanation

The correct answer is to call for help and tell the surgeon to stop the procedure. This is the first thing that should be done because the patient's sudden tachycardia, elevated ETCO2, and muscle rigidity may indicate malignant hyperthermia (MH), a potentially life-threatening reaction to certain medications used during anesthesia. MH requires immediate intervention and treatment, including stopping the triggering agents and providing specific medications and interventions. Calling for help and informing the surgeon is crucial in ensuring prompt and appropriate management of the situation.

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90. You are the SRNA for a 75 yr old female going in for a bowel resection. She is 5’2” and 50 kg. What would be an appropriate intubating dose of Rocuronium?

Explanation

An appropriate intubating dose of Rocuronium for a patient undergoing a bowel resection would be 30 mg. This dose is determined based on the patient's weight, which is 50 kg in this case. The dosage of Rocuronium is typically calculated at 0.6-1.2 mg/kg, depending on various factors such as the patient's age, medical condition, and the desired level of muscle relaxation. In this scenario, a dose of 30 mg falls within the recommended range for a patient of this weight, making it an appropriate choice.

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91. What class of medications is contraindicated in MH?

Explanation

Calcium Channel blockers are contraindicated in Malignant Hyperthermia (MH). MH is a potentially life-threatening condition triggered by certain medications used during anesthesia. Calcium Channel blockers can exacerbate the symptoms of MH by further increasing muscle contractions and elevating body temperature. Therefore, they should be avoided in individuals with MH susceptibility to prevent severe complications.

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92. You have a patient in the PACU who has been receiving morphine and is now itching from the pain medications. What might you give to help relieve the itching?

Explanation

Propofol is a sedative-hypnotic medication that can be used to relieve itching caused by pain medications such as morphine. It has antihistamine properties and can help alleviate itching in the patient. Ketamine and etomidate are not typically used for itching relief, and the higher dose of propofol (50 mg) may be excessive for this purpose. Therefore, the most appropriate option is to administer a lower dose of propofol (10 mg) to help relieve the itching.

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93. What is the most important clinical s/s that would lead you to suspect MH?

Explanation

An increased end-tidal carbon dioxide (ETCO2) level is the most important clinical sign/symptom that would lead to a suspicion of malignant hyperthermia (MH). MH is a rare but potentially life-threatening condition that can occur as a reaction to certain medications used during anesthesia. It is characterized by a rapid increase in body temperature, muscle rigidity, and increased heart rate. However, an increased ETCO2 level is specific to MH and is considered a hallmark sign, as it indicates an abnormal increase in carbon dioxide production due to increased muscle activity. This can help alert healthcare providers to the possibility of MH and prompt immediate intervention.

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94. Which of the following non-barbituate agents would be the BEST choice for a trauma patient?

Explanation

CV stimulant, will increase BP and CO, great for shock and high risk pts, bad for angina, CAD though

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95. What is an appropriate intubating dose of Nimbex?

Explanation

An appropriate intubating dose of Nimbex is 0.15-0.2 mg/kg.

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96. Which of the following agents has the highest degree of protein binding?

Explanation

propofol 95-99% protein bound

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97. What be an appropriate induction dose of propofol for a 75 yr old female who is 5’4” and weighs 75 kg? (Be careful here…)

Explanation

Non-barbituate notes- dose of propofol must be reduced 25-50% in people over the age of 60.

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98. What is the incidence of Malignant hyperthermia in adults?

Explanation

The incidence of Malignant hyperthermia in adults is 1 in 50,000. This means that for every 50,000 adults, one person will experience Malignant hyperthermia.

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99. What is the recommended dose of propofol for maintenance of anesthesia?

Explanation

The recommended dose of propofol for maintenance of anesthesia is 100-300 mcg/kg/min. This dosage range ensures a continuous and steady level of anesthesia throughout the procedure. Using a lower dose may result in inadequate anesthesia, while a higher dose may increase the risk of side effects and complications. Therefore, it is important to administer propofol within the recommended dosage range to ensure optimal patient safety and comfort during anesthesia.

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100. What would be an appropriate starting dose of dantrolene to give to a 2 yr old child weighing 14 kg?

Explanation

An appropriate starting dose of dantrolene for a 2-year-old child weighing 14 kg would be 35 mg. The dosage of dantrolene is typically based on the weight of the patient, and a common starting dose for children is 2-4 mg/kg. In this case, 2 mg/kg would be 28 mg (2 x 14 kg), and 4 mg/kg would be 56 mg (4 x 14 kg). The closest option to these calculations is 35 mg, which falls within the appropriate dosage range for a child of this weight.

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101. Which isomer of ketamine is known to cause delirium and combatance on emergence?

Explanation

The R isomer of ketamine is known to cause delirium and combativeness on emergence.

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102. Which of the non-barbituate agents is unique due to the fact it has no stereoisomers?

Explanation

Propofol is unique among the non-barbiturate agents because it has no stereoisomers. Stereoisomers are molecules that have the same chemical formula and connectivity but differ in the spatial arrangement of atoms. Propofol does not have any mirror-image forms or chiral centers, making it the only option in the given list without stereoisomers. This characteristic of propofol can have implications for its pharmacokinetics and pharmacodynamics.

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103. Which of the following could you give to counteract delirium cause by benzodiazepines and CNS effects of anticholinergic drugs?

Explanation

Physostigmine can be given to counteract delirium caused by benzodiazepines and the central nervous system (CNS) effects of anticholinergic drugs. Physostigmine is a reversible acetylcholinesterase inhibitor, which means it increases the levels of acetylcholine in the brain. This can help to improve cognitive function and reduce delirium symptoms. Neostigmine, edrophonium, and pyridostigmine are also acetylcholinesterase inhibitors, but they are not typically used to counteract delirium.

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104. Succinylcholine is rapidly metabolized to succinylmonocholine which is known to cause:

Explanation

Succinylcholine is a medication that is quickly broken down in the body to form succinylmonocholine. Succinylmonocholine has been found to cause bradycardia, which is a slower than normal heart rate. This means that the correct answer to the question is bradycardia.

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105. Propofol can lead to significant bradycardia that is resistant to atropine. Which of the following drugs would you give?

Explanation

S&H 161

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106. What is the MOA of Etomidate?

Explanation

Etomidate is a GABAa agonist, meaning it acts by binding to and activating GABAa receptors. GABAa receptors are inhibitory receptors in the brain, and their activation leads to an increase in chloride ion influx into neurons, resulting in neuronal inhibition and sedation. Therefore, etomidate's mechanism of action involves enhancing the effects of GABA, the main inhibitory neurotransmitter in the central nervous system.

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107. What is the incidence of Malignant Hyperthermia in children?

Explanation

The incidence of Malignant Hyperthermia in children is 1 in 15,000. This means that out of every 15,000 children, one will develop Malignant Hyperthermia.

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108. Which of the following muscle relaxing agents would be BEST to give to a patient in multi-system organ failure?

Explanation

Mivacurium is metabolized by plasma cholinesterase, independent of direct organ metabolism. Sux is too, but you don't want to give Sux to renal fl.

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109. You are the SRNA for Ms. Cartaya today who has a past medical history of seizures, which are controlled through dilantin. How will this effect your muscle relaxants?

Explanation

The correct answer is "Will shorten the effect of the medication. So will need more." This is because Dilantin, which is used to control seizures, can increase the metabolism of muscle relaxants, leading to a shorter duration of action. As a result, higher doses of muscle relaxants may be required to achieve the desired effect.

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110. Which of the following lab values would not help to confirm diagnosis of Malignant hyperthermia?

Explanation

An elevated serum potassium level (Serum K 6.5), low pH (Ph 7.10), and negative base excess (Base excess -10) are all consistent with the diagnosis of malignant hyperthermia. Malignant hyperthermia is a potentially life-threatening reaction to certain medications used during general anesthesia. It is characterized by rapid onset of high fever, muscle rigidity, and metabolic acidosis. An elevated PCO2 level (PCO2 50) would not help to confirm the diagnosis of malignant hyperthermia as it is not a specific finding associated with this condition.

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111. This non-barb is know to inhibit PLT aggregation.

Explanation

Ketamine is known to inhibit PLT aggregation.

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112. Which of the following is commonly used in the treatment of myasthenia gravis?

Explanation

Pyridostigmine is commonly used in the treatment of myasthenia gravis. Myasthenia gravis is an autoimmune disorder that affects the neuromuscular junction, causing muscle weakness and fatigue. Pyridostigmine is a cholinesterase inhibitor that helps improve muscle strength by increasing the levels of acetylcholine, a neurotransmitter involved in muscle contractions. It works by blocking the enzyme that breaks down acetylcholine, allowing more of it to be available for muscle stimulation. This medication helps to alleviate the symptoms of myasthenia gravis and improve muscle function.

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113. Which of the following is true regarding systemic effects of Anticholinergics? (More than one answer)

Explanation

Anticholinergics inhibit secretions by blocking the action of acetylcholine, a neurotransmitter responsible for stimulating secretions in various parts of the body. They also decrease bladder tone by relaxing the smooth muscles in the bladder, leading to urinary retention. However, anticholinergics do not cause bradycardia or bronchospasm.

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114. What is recommended dose of Edrophonium?

Explanation

The recommended dose of Edrophonium is 0.5-1.0 mg/kg. This means that for every kilogram of body weight, a patient should receive a dose of Edrophonium within this range. It is important to adhere to this recommended dose to ensure safe and effective administration of the medication.

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115. You are caring for Mr. Wren today who has a past medical history of DM, HTN and renal failure. You are asked to choose an appropriate muscle relaxing agents for him. Which do you choose as the BEST agent for Mr. Wren?

Explanation

Sux should be avoided due to hyperkalemia, diabetics should be rapid sequence, Roc is the only other NMB for rapid seq

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116. What would be a proper dose of ketamine to give to a patient who is having pain and weighs 50 kg?

Explanation

0.2-0.8 mg/kg N&P 130

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117. Which of the following will have the most rapid onset?

Explanation

Edrophonium will have the most rapid onset compared to Neostigmine and Pyrdiostigmine. This is because Edrophonium has a shorter duration of action and a faster onset of action compared to the other two drugs. Neostigmine and Pyrdiostigmine have a longer duration of action and a slower onset of action. Therefore, Edrophonium is the correct answer as it will take effect more quickly than the other options.

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118. In a patient with MH, what would you expect their serum myoglobin to be?

Explanation

In a patient with Malignant Hyperthermia (MH), their serum myoglobin levels would be expected to be greater than 170 mcg. This is because MH is a condition characterized by a rapid and severe increase in body temperature, which can lead to muscle breakdown and release of myoglobin into the bloodstream. Elevated levels of serum myoglobin indicate muscle damage, which is a common feature of MH. Therefore, a myoglobin level higher than 170 mcg would be expected in patients with MH.

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119. For which patient would it be inappropriate to use Etomidate? PICK TWO

Explanation

increases evoked potentials, may precipitate sz's, can cause adrenocortical suppression w/ longterm use. decreases IOP, no histamine production

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120. Which of the following is true regarding systemic effects of cholinesterase inhibitors? (more than one answer)

Explanation

Cholinesterase inhibitors are medications that block the activity of the enzyme cholinesterase, which breaks down the neurotransmitter acetylcholine. Decreasing heart rate is a systemic effect of cholinesterase inhibitors because acetylcholine normally stimulates the vagus nerve, which slows down the heart rate. Increasing peristalsis is also a systemic effect of cholinesterase inhibitors because acetylcholine stimulates smooth muscle contractions in the gastrointestinal tract, promoting bowel movements. However, causing bronchodilation and pupillary dilation are not systemic effects of cholinesterase inhibitors.

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121. What would be the most appropriate reversal agent for a child weighing 20 kg?

Explanation

Edrophonium is a short-acting cholinesterase inhibitor that can be used as a reversal agent for neuromuscular blockade. It works by inhibiting the enzyme acetylcholinesterase, which breaks down acetylcholine, allowing acetylcholine to accumulate and compete with the neuromuscular blocking agent. Atropine is a muscarinic antagonist that can be used in combination with edrophonium to prevent excessive muscarinic effects. In this case, edrophonium 20 mg and atropine 0.28 mg would be the most appropriate reversal agents for a child weighing 20 kg.

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122. What is an appropriate intubating dose of Nimbex for a 50 yr old 5’11” male weighing 110 kg?

Explanation

An appropriate intubating dose of Nimbex for a 50 yr old 5’11” male weighing 110 kg is 22 mg. This is determined based on the patient's weight and the recommended dosage guidelines for Nimbex. The dosage may vary depending on the individual's specific needs and medical condition, but in this case, 22 mg is the appropriate dose.

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123. What would be an appropriate induction dose of etomidate for a 58 yr old female who is 5’6” and weighs 90 kg?

Explanation

0.2-0.5mg/kg

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124. What is the recommended dose of Pyridostigmine?

Explanation

The recommended dose of Pyridostigmine is 0.1-0.4 mg/kg. This means that for every kilogram of body weight, the patient should be given a dosage within this range.

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125. Which of the following patients should NOT receive propofol? PICK TWO

Explanation

allergy to egg yolks is contraindicated, not contraindicated in asthma patients M&M 201,

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126. What is the half life of etomidate?

Explanation

The half-life of etomidate is the time it takes for half of the drug to be eliminated from the body. In this case, the correct answer is 2-5 hours, which means that after 2-5 hours, half of the etomidate will be eliminated from the body. This information is important for determining the dosing frequency and duration of action of etomidate in medical settings.

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127. MH affects which types of muscles? (Check all that apply)

Explanation

MH affects smooth muscles and skeletal muscles. Smooth muscles are found in the walls of organs and blood vessels, and they are responsible for involuntary movements. Skeletal muscles, on the other hand, are attached to bones and are responsible for voluntary movements. Cardiac muscles, which are found in the heart, are not affected by MH.

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128. What is the recommended dose of physostigmine?

Explanation

The recommended dose of physostigmine is 0.01-0.03 mg/Kg. This means that for every kilogram of body weight, the patient should be given a dose of physostigmine between 0.01 mg and 0.03 mg. This dose is considered safe and effective for the intended purpose of using physostigmine.

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129. Which agents is known for its HIGH degree of individual variability?

Explanation

Rocuronium is known for its high degree of individual variability. This means that the effects of Rocuronium can vary greatly from person to person. Factors such as age, weight, and overall health can influence how an individual responds to Rocuronium. This variability makes it important for healthcare providers to carefully monitor patients who are receiving Rocuronium to ensure that the appropriate dosage is administered and to minimize any potential adverse effects.

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130. How much atropine would you give to a patient receiving 40mg Edrophoinium?

Explanation

The correct answer is 0.56 mg. Atropine is commonly used as an antidote for Edrophonium, which is a medication used to diagnose and treat myasthenia gravis. The typical recommended dose of atropine is 0.5 to 2.0 mg, depending on the patient's response. In this case, since the patient is receiving 40 mg of Edrophonium, it would be appropriate to administer 0.56 mg of atropine as a starting dose.

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131. You have diagnosed your patient with MH and have found their serum K+ to be 6.8.  How can you treat this? (More than one answer)

Explanation

The correct answers for treating high serum K+ levels (hyperkalemia) include hyperventilation, IV insulin/D50, and calcium chloride or gluconate. Hyperventilation helps to lower K+ levels by shifting it from the extracellular fluid into cells. IV insulin/D50 promotes the uptake of K+ into cells, while calcium chloride or gluconate stabilizes the cell membrane and prevents the release of K+ into the bloodstream. IV Kayexalate is not an appropriate treatment for hyperkalemia and is not mentioned in the correct answers.

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What is the purpose of giving lidocaine prior to administration of...
Which of the following is a depolarizing muscle relaxant?
You are caring for a 82 yr old woman who is about to be induced for...
It is perfectly safe to use regional anesthetics on malignant...
Which of the non-barbituate agents has analgesic properties?
Hyperthermia is an early sign of MH.
This non-barb has a high incidence of emergence delirium, 12%.
Which non-barb induction agent has analgesic and bronchodilator...
It is perfectly safe to use regional anesthetics on malignant...
Which of the following has the shortest duration of action?
This non-barb will increase salivation, inclusion of a antisialagogue...
You  were  a very good SRNA this morning and drew up all your drugs,...
Propofol is metabolized extensively in the liver, as well as in the...
Whta is MOA of Ketamine?
If you give your pt an intubating dose of succynocholine and they have...
What is an appropriate intubating dose of Succinylcholine?
Dantrolene should be continued for ____ Hours post MH episode.
This non-barb hypnotic is good for patients with a history of PONV.
Which non-barb can supress adrenal cortical function?
You are the SRNA for Mr. Joe, a 20 yr old male having repair of a torn...
Dantrolene should be continued for ____ Hours post MH episode.
You are the SRNA for a 12 yr old male who is 5’0” and weighs 45...
When caring for children you should ALWAYS give the anticholinergic...
Pre-treatment with a non-depolarizer may help to lessen all side...
Which of the following has the longest duration of effect?
Which of the non-barbituate agents has the lowest amount of protein...
Pre-treatment with a non-depolarizer may help to lessen all side...
The chemical structure of this drug is 2,6-diisopropylphenol.
How much glycopyrolate should you give to a patient receiving 3 mg of...
What is the mechanism of action of non-depolarizing muscle relaxants?
The non-barbituate agents have short duration of action mainly due...
Hyperthermia is an early sign of MH.
Which of the following muscle relaxants allows you to skip use of a...
All muscle relaxants are quaternary ammonium compounds that mimic the...
What is the name of the receptor that is responsible for MH?
Https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=c1JzCDqt3BM
How do we prevent the muscarinic effects of cholinesterase inhibitors?
Which of the following will increase your ICP?
You are the SRNA for a patient with a known pseudocholinesterase...
For a patient who is borderline tachycardic it is recommended to...
What is the mechanism of action of the cholinesterase inhibitors?
Regaining 4/4 twitches after administration of a non-depolarizing...
You can safely administer glycopyrolate without a cholinesterase...
Acetylcholine is rapidly metabolized by acetylcholinesterase to…....
What is the mechanism of action of succinylcholine?
Which of the following agents is eliminated via Hoffman Elimination?
When can your reversal agents be administered?
The mixing of Lidocaine w/ Propofol may result in coalescence of oil...
This non-barb has a chemical structure of carboxylated...
Why is gylcopyrolate the anticholinergic agent of choice for...
You are the SRNA for a 58 yr old female having open heart surgery. She...
The majority of incidences of MH occur in patients under 15.
What would be an appropriate dose of reversal agent for a 23 yr old...
What is an appropriate intubating dose of Rocuronium?
What is the maximum dose of Dantrolene which can be given to a 10 yr...
What is an appropriate induction dose of propofol for a 50 yr old male...
What are the common side effects of Dantrolene?
What is an appropriate intubating dose of Atracurium?
What would be an appropriate intubating dose of Atracurium for a...
Which drugs are potentiated by dantrolene? 
What is the maximum dose of Dantrolene which can be given to a 10 yr...
You are the SRNA for a patient with a known pseudocholinesterase...
Which of the following non-barbituate agents do we use as a racemic...
What drug could you give to decrease the incidence of emergence...
You are the SRNA for a 16 yr old boy coming in for appendectomy. After...
What is an appropriate intubating dose of Atracurium?
How is Etomidate metabolized?
What is the recommended dose of neostigmine?
At what percentage of blockade by non-depolarizing muscle relaxants...
What would be a proper  IV induction dose for ketamine on a patient...
You are caring for a 60 yr old male going in for removal of abdominal...
What is an appropriate dose of propofol sedation during a MAC case?
Which of the following muscle relaxants would you choose to give to a...
Which of the following patients could you use succinylcholine on?
What is an appropriate intubating dose of Vecuronium?
What test could be done on a patient suspected to have MH?
How much can your temperature increase every 5 minutes in MH? (pick...
A patient with a sulfite allergy should not be given the generic...
Ketamine is a NMDA agonist or antagonist?
What is an appropriate intubating dose of Pancuronium?
You suspect your patient has MH, what do you expect to see on their...
The MH gene is passed via:
What is the half life of Dantrolene?
Which of the following patients should NOT receive Ketamine? PICK TWO
Which of the following drugs is metabolized by pseudocholinesterase?
Malignant Hyperthermia is a severe reaction which results in ryanodine...
You are the SRNA for Mrs. Nannit who is currently having a fem pop...
Which of the following is not at an increased risk for Malignant...
You are the SRNA for a patient currently undergoing biopsy and removal...
You are the SRNA for a 75 yr old female going in for a bowel...
What class of medications is contraindicated in MH?
You have a patient in the PACU who has been receiving morphine and is...
What is the most important clinical s/s that would lead you to suspect...
Which of the following non-barbituate agents would be the BEST choice...
What is an appropriate intubating dose of Nimbex?
Which of the following agents has the highest degree of protein...
What be an appropriate induction dose of propofol for a 75 yr old...
What is the incidence of Malignant hyperthermia in adults?
What is the recommended dose of propofol for maintenance of...
What would be an appropriate starting dose of dantrolene to give to a...
Which isomer of ketamine is known to cause delirium and combatance on...
Which of the non-barbituate agents is unique due to the fact it has no...
Which of the following could you give to counteract delirium cause by...
Succinylcholine is rapidly metabolized to succinylmonocholine which is...
Propofol can lead to significant bradycardia that is resistant to...
What is the MOA of Etomidate?
What is the incidence of Malignant Hyperthermia in children?
Which of the following muscle relaxing agents would be BEST to give to...
You are the SRNA for Ms. Cartaya today who has a past medical history...
Which of the following lab values would not help to confirm diagnosis...
This non-barb is know to inhibit PLT aggregation.
Which of the following is commonly used in the treatment of myasthenia...
Which of the following is true regarding systemic effects of...
What is recommended dose of Edrophonium?
You are caring for Mr. Wren today who has a past medical history of...
What would be a proper dose of ketamine to give to a patient who is...
Which of the following will have the most rapid onset?
In a patient with MH, what would you expect their serum myoglobin to...
For which patient would it be inappropriate to use Etomidate? PICK TWO
Which of the following is true regarding systemic effects of...
What would be the most appropriate reversal agent for a child weighing...
What is an appropriate intubating dose of Nimbex for a 50 yr old...
What would be an appropriate induction dose of etomidate for a 58 yr...
What is the recommended dose of Pyridostigmine?
Which of the following patients should NOT receive propofol? PICK TWO
What is the half life of etomidate?
MH affects which types of muscles? (Check all that apply)
What is the recommended dose of physostigmine?
Which agents is known for its HIGH degree of individual variability?
How much atropine would you give to a patient receiving 40mg...
You have diagnosed your patient with MH and have found their serum K+...
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