VTNE Practice Exam (Unfinished)

50 Questions | Total Attempts: 169

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Practice Exam Quizzes & Trivia

The Veterinary Technician National Examination is used to evaluate the competency of entry-level veterinary technicians, so that they can later practice and be credentialed. How much do you know about the examination? Let’s find out.


Questions and Answers
  • 1. 
    • A. 

      Spherocytes

    • B. 

      Echinocytes

    • C. 

      Acanthocytes

    • D. 

      Schistocytes

  • 2. 
    • A. 

      Bone marrow suppression

    • B. 

      Smooth muscle contraction

    • C. 

      Prostaglandin synthesis inhibition

    • D. 

      Vasodilation of renal vessels

  • 3. 
    • A. 

      Diaphragmatic hernia

    • B. 

      Spinal fracture or luxation

    • C. 

      Splenic rupture

    • D. 

      Skull fracture

  • 4. 
    Which small mammal has a high risk of dystocia if bred after 6 months of age?
    • A. 

      Chinchilla

    • B. 

      Rabbit

    • C. 

      Guinea Pig

    • D. 

      Ferret

  • 5. 
    Animals poisoned with ethylene glycol (antifreeze) often have large numbers of these crystals in the urine:
    • A. 

      Struvite

    • B. 

      Ammonium biurate

    • C. 

      Cystine

    • D. 

      Calcium Oxalate

  • 6. 
    Which of the following statements regarding dermatophyte test medium (DTM) is TRUE?
    • A. 

      Sample DTM jars should be closed tightly to prevent the introduction of saprophytic fungi.

    • B. 

      Dermatophytes rapidly change the color of the DTM agar to red in as little as 3-5 days.

    • C. 

      Samples should be placed in an incubator for 1-2 weeks.

    • D. 

      All of the above.

  • 7. 
    In a nonrebreathing system, which of the following has the most influence on the amount of carbon dioxide (CO2) rebreathed?
    • A. 

      Fresh gas flow rate

    • B. 

      CO2 absorbent

    • C. 

      Scavenger system

    • D. 

      Design of rebreathing system

  • 8. 
    What will happen to a patient if the positive-pressure-relief (pop-off) valve is accidentally left closed during anesthesia?
    • A. 

      Pressure will build up in the system and the patient will not be able to exhale.

    • B. 

      The lungs will rupture causing a pneumothorax, a life-threatening emergency

    • C. 

      Venous return to the heart will be compromised.

    • D. 

      All of the above.

    • E. 

      A pop-off valve that is accidentally left closed during anesthesia can have catastrophic repercussions. Pressure will build up in the system, and as a result, the patient will not be able to exhale. If pressure continues to build in the thorax, there will be inadequate venous return to the heart. Ultimately, a patient could suffer a ruptured lung and subsequent pneumothorax. Thus, it is EXTREMELY important to remember to open a pop-off valve that has been closed, and always put the anesthetic machine away with the valve in the open position.

  • 9. 
    An increase in heart rate that is accompanied with normal P-QRS-T complexes on electrocardiogram (ECG), and occurs as a result of increased activity of the sinoatrial (SA) node is termed:
    • A. 

      Ventricular tachycardia

    • B. 

      Atrial fibrillation

    • C. 

      Sinus tachycardia

    • D. 

      Atrial tachycardia

  • 10. 
    • A. 

      Xylazine

    • B. 

      Apomorphine

    • C. 

      Hydrogen peroxide

    • D. 

      Syrup of ipecac

  • 11. 
    A technician is about to administer an intramuscular injection of antibiotic to a box turtle suffering from an aural abscess. Where should the technician administer this injection?
    • A. 

      Front leg

    • B. 

      Back Leg

    • C. 

      None of the above

    • D. 

      A or b

  • 12. 
    • A. 

      The needle should be inserted caudally into the jugular vein in order to match the direction of blood flow.

    • B. 

      The cranial third of the neck should be used to access the jugular vein to avoid accidental entry into the carotid artery

    • C. 

      The medication should be bolused as quickly as possible.

    • D. 

      Arterial versus venous blood cannot be differentiated by color when drawn into a syringe filled with fluid.

  • 13. 
    • A. 

      Shock

    • B. 

      Antifreeze intoxication

    • C. 

      Feline urologic syndrome (FUS).

    • D. 

      Dehydration

  • 14. 
    A 75-pound Labrador Retriever requires 8 mg/kg of injectable phenobarbital for initial treatment of status epilepticus. If the concentration of this drug is 30 mg/mL, how many milliliters should this patient receive?
    • A. 

      9 mL

    • B. 

      20 mL

    • C. 

      60 mL

    • D. 

      18 mL

  • 15. 
    • A. 

      Grids help reduce the amount of scatter radiation.

    • B. 

      Grids are used when the area to be radiographed is equal to or exceeds 10 cm in thickness.

    • C. 

      Grids do not absorb any part of the primary beam.

    • D. 

      Grids improve the quality of the radiograph by increasing contrast.

  • 16. 
    • A. 

      The puppy was immunosuppressed at the time of vaccination and could therefore not mount a sufficient immune response to the vaccines.

    • B. 

      The owner administered the vaccine incorrectly or at inappropriate intervals.

    • C. 

      The vaccine was stored at an improper temperature by the retail store or by the owner, thereby rendering the vaccine ineffective.

    • D. 

      All of the above.

  • 17. 
    • A. 

      There is no universal feline blood type due to the presence of naturally occurring alloantibodies.

    • B. 

      Type A cats have weak anti-B alloantibodies.

    • C. 

      A type AB cat can be safely used as an in-house blood donor.

    • D. 

      Transfusion of a type B cat with type A blood can produce a potentially fatal acute hemolytic crisis.

  • 18. 
    Alkaline urine does not result from, nor is produced by
    • A. 

      Diets rich in vegetable products.

    • B. 

      A urinary tract infection with urease producing bacteria (ie, Staph or Proteus).

    • C. 

      Time (>1 hr the voided sample stands at room temperature).

    • D. 

      Diets consisting of milk or animal products.

  • 19. 
    What type of drug is activated charcoal?
    • A. 

      Laxative

    • B. 

      Cathartic

    • C. 

      Purgative

    • D. 

      Adsorbent and Protectant

  • 20. 
    Which of the following is NOT a function of diazepam?
    • A. 

      Anxiolytic

    • B. 

      Anticonvulsant

    • C. 

      Analgesic

    • D. 

      Muscle relaxant

  • 21. 
    What is the earliest day of gestation that a small animal pregnancy can be confirmed using ultrasound?
    • A. 

      Day 5

    • B. 

      Day 11

    • C. 

      Day 20

    • D. 

      Day 45

  • 22. 
    The components of fresh whole blood remain effective for up to:
    • A. 

      1 hour

    • B. 

      2 hours

    • C. 

      8 hours

    • D. 

      12 hours

  • 23. 
    What type of injection should be avoided in meat-producing animals?
    • A. 

      SC

    • B. 

      IV

    • C. 

      IM

    • D. 

      IP

  • 24. 
    What is ultimately responsible for the resolution of an ultrasound image?
    • A. 

      Patient size

    • B. 

      Gain

    • C. 

      Transducer frequency

    • D. 

      Power

  • 25. 
    • A. 

      Ventricular tachycardia

    • B. 

      Ventricular fibrillation

    • C. 

      Ventricular premature complexes

    • D. 

      Accelerated idioventricular rhythm

  • 26. 
    What is the most commonly encountered diet-related illness in pet hedgehogs?
    • A. 

      Rickets

    • B. 

      Obesity

    • C. 

      Hepatic lipidosis

    • D. 

      Periodontal disease

  • 27. 
    In ultrasonography, this artifact is produced when soundwaves are unable to traverse certain types of tissue or anomalies, such as bone or calculi:
    • A. 

      Distance enhancement

    • B. 

      Reverberation

    • C. 

      Acoustic shadowing

    • D. 

      Mirror image

  • 28. 
    • A. 

      Ketamine

    • B. 

      Propofol

    • C. 

      Fentanyl

    • D. 

      Etomidate

  • 29. 
    Etomidate should not be administered in repeated boluses because it is a hypertonic solution. What term best describes the changes a red blood cell (RBC) undergoes when introduced into a hypertonic solution?
    • A. 

      Autoagglutination

    • B. 

      Hemolysis

    • C. 

      Crenation

    • D. 

      Rouleaux formation

  • 30. 
    • A. 

      The nasogastric tube should be guided into the dorsal meatus of the horse’s nasal passages.

    • B. 

      When placed properly, the tube can be seen on the left side of the horse’s neck as it passes through the esophagus and into the stomach.

    • C. 

      Force should NEVER be used at any time during nasogastric intubation.

    • D. 

      A horse could potentially die from gastric rupture when its stomach is overfilled with large volumes of medication or fluid delivered through a nasogastric tube

  • 31. 
    • A. 

      Large numbers of casts in urine usually indicate active renal disease.

    • B. 

      Casts will dissolve in alkaline urine.

    • C. 

      Casts contain material in their matrix that was present in the renal tubule when the cast was formed.

    • D. 

      All of the above.

  • 32. 
    Which of the following is the most common oropharyngeal tumor in canines?
    • A. 

      Fibrosarcoma

    • B. 

      Squamous cell carcinoma

    • C. 

      Malignant melanoma

    • D. 

      Ameloblastoma

  • 33. 
    A
    • A. 

      A

    • B. 

      A

    • C. 

      A

    • D. 

      A

  • 34. 
    A
    • A. 

      A

    • B. 

      A

    • C. 

      A

    • D. 

      A

  • 35. 
    A
    • A. 

      A

    • B. 

      A

    • C. 

      A

    • D. 

      A

  • 36. 
    A
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      A

    • B. 

      A

    • C. 

      A

    • D. 

      A

  • 37. 
    A
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      A

    • B. 

      A

    • C. 

      A

    • D. 

      A

  • 38. 
    A
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      A

    • B. 

      A

    • C. 

      A

    • D. 

      A

  • 39. 
    A
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      A

    • B. 

      A

    • C. 

      A

    • D. 

      A

  • 40. 
    A
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      A

    • B. 

      A

    • C. 

      A

    • D. 

      A

  • 41. 
    A
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      A

    • B. 

      A

    • C. 

      A

    • D. 

      A

  • 42. 
    A
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      A

    • B. 

      A

    • C. 

      A

    • D. 

      A

  • 43. 
    A
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      A

    • B. 

      A

    • C. 

      A

    • D. 

      A

  • 44. 
    A
    • A. 

      A

    • B. 

      A

    • C. 

      A

    • D. 

      A

  • 45. 
    A
    • A. 

      A

    • B. 

      A

    • C. 

      A

    • D. 

      Aa

  • 46. 
    A
    • A. 

      A

    • B. 

      A

    • C. 

      A

    • D. 

      A

  • 47. 
    A
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    • B. 

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  • 48. 
    A
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    • C. 

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    • D. 

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  • 49. 
    A
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    • C. 

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    • D. 

      A

  • 50. 
    A
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    • B. 

      A

    • C. 

      A

    • D. 

      A