VTNE Practice Exam
49 Questions
| Attempts: 194
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Questions and Answers
- 1.
Rattlesnake envenomation produces this type of poikilocyte:
- A.
Spherocytes
- B.
Echinocytes
- C.
Acanthocytes
- D.
Schistocytes
Correct Answer
B. EchinocytesExplanation
Echinocytes are small, crenated (shrunken) erythrocytes characterized by the presence of 10-30 spikes or spicules on their outer membrane. Normally they are most numerous within the first 24 hours of envenomation, before the development of clinical signs, and will affect almost 100% of the red blood cells. After 2-3 days, the echinocytes steadily decrease in number and eventually become absent on a blood smear. It is important to note, however, that in some animals echinocytes do not appear at all following envenomation and that appropriate medical therapy will still need to be implemented.Rate this question:
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- 2.
Over-the-counter nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) such as ibuprofen, naproxen, and aspirin represent a leading cause of toxicoses in small animals. What is their common mechanism of action?
- A.
Bone marrow suppression
- B.
Smooth muscle contraction
- C.
Prostaglandin synthesis inhibition
- D.
Vasodilation of renal vessels
Correct Answer
C. Prostaglandin synthesis inhibitionExplanation
Prostaglandins are chemicals that mediate an array of normal physiologic functions such as platelet aggregation, renal blood flow, and gastric acid production. In addition, they protect the cells lining the gastrointestinal (GI) tract from noxious chemicals. When over-the-counter NSAIDs are mistakenly given or accidentally ingested in large quantities, they work to inhibit prostaglandin synthesis, which can potentially lead to a myriad of life-threatening problems such as GI ulceration, clotting abnormalities, and kidney failure.
It is important to note that the toxic dose of any NSAID can vary between animals depending on individual sensitivities, and actual manifestation of clinical signs (melena, vomiting, etc) can be delayed by up to 4 days following ingestion. This being said, many owners do not seek out veterinary care unless clinical signs are present and only after the damage has already been done. Thus, it is important to recommend to clients who may have administered or suspect that their animals have ingested any NSAID that their animal be seen immediately for a consultation.Rate this question:
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- 3.
Improper handling or restraint of rabbits can result in this common injury:
- A.
Diaphragmatic hernia
- B.
Spinal fracture or luxation
- C.
Splenic rupture
- D.
Skull fracture
Correct Answer
B. Spinal fracture or luxationExplanation
Rabbits that are allowed to frantically kick, whether confined in a cage or while being restrained, or rabbits that are dropped can fracture or dislocate their lumbar vertebrae. The result is hind limb paresis or paralysis that only rarely responds to emergency medical therapy.
When handled or restrained, rabbits need to have their hind end fully supported. This can be accomplished with a “football” hold, whereby the rabbit’s head is tucked into the handler’s arm with one hand, and the other hand supports its hind end. If rabbits are kept at the clinic and become too excited in a cage, then they will need to be moved to a small carrier to prevent excessive movement.Rate this question:
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- 4.
Which small mammal has a high risk of dystocia if bred after 6 months of age?
- A.
Chinchilla
- B.
Rabbit
- C.
Guinea Pig
- D.
Ferret
Correct Answer
C. Guinea PigExplanation
The pubic symphysis of guinea pigs fuses together between 7 and 8 months of age and is normally not an issue with nonbreeding females. Guinea pigs that are acquired for breeding purposes, however, and are bred after 6 months of age will experience difficult labor and possibly dystocia if they are unable to separate the symphysis during parturition.Rate this question:
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- 5.
Animals poisoned with ethylene glycol (antifreeze) often have large numbers of these crystals in the urine:
- A.
Struvite
- B.
Ammonium biurate
- C.
Cystine
- D.
Calcium Oxalate
Correct Answer
D. Calcium OxalateExplanation
Calcium oxalate monohydrate urolithiasis is a common occurrence in animals that have ingested antifreeze (ethylene glycol). It occurs as a result of ethylene glycol metabolism in the liver, the end products of which are several potentially lethal toxic metabolites, one of which is oxalate. These metabolites direct their toxic effects on the kidneys by destroying renal epithelial cells as well as by obstructing the renal tubules, which ultimately results in acute renal failure.Rate this question:
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- 6.
Which of the following statements regarding dermatophyte test medium (DTM) is TRUE?
- A.
Sample DTM jars should be closed tightly to prevent the introduction of saprophytic fungi.
- B.
Dermatophytes rapidly change the color of the DTM agar to red in as little as 3-5 days.
- C.
Samples should be placed in an incubator for 1-2 weeks.
- D.
All of the above.
Correct Answer
B. Dermatophytes rapidly change the color of the DTM agar to red in as little as 3-5 days.Explanation
Dermatophytes can quickly change the color of the DTM agar to red in as few as 3-5 days, and before growth can be visualized by the naked eye. The caps on these samples need to be secured loosely to permit the flow of air into the sample, thus allowing growth of the dermatophyte. The sample should be kept at room temperature in a place where it can be easily seen and evaluated each day.Rate this question:
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- 7.
In a nonrebreathing system, which of the following has the most influence on the amount of carbon dioxide (CO2) rebreathed?
- A.
Fresh gas flow rate
- B.
CO2 absorbent
- C.
Scavenger system
- D.
Design of rebreathing system
Correct Answer
A. Fresh gas flow rateExplanation
In a nonrebreathing system, there is no CO2 absorption, so the clearance of CO2 is dependent on the use of high fresh gas flow rates (200-300 mL/kg/min). These rates are required to prevent buildup of CO2, which can lead to the rebreathing of exhaled air. Flow rates below 200 mL/kg/min will result in the accumulation and rebreathing of exhaled gases, and the potential for the development of hypoxemia and hypercarbemia.Rate this question:
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- 8.
What will happen to a patient if the positive-pressure-relief (pop-off) valve is accidentally left closed during anesthesia?
- A.
Pressure will build up in the system and the patient will not be able to exhale.
- B.
The lungs will rupture causing a pneumothorax, a life-threatening emergency
- C.
Venous return to the heart will be compromised.
- D.
All of the above.
- E.
A pop-off valve that is accidentally left closed during anesthesia can have catastrophic repercussions. Pressure will build up in the system, and as a result, the patient will not be able to exhale. If pressure continues to build in the thorax, there will be inadequate venous return to the heart. Ultimately, a patient could suffer a ruptured lung and subsequent pneumothorax. Thus, it is EXTREMELY important to remember to open a pop-off valve that has been closed, and always put the anesthetic machine away with the valve in the open position.
Correct Answer
D. All of the above. -
- 9.
An increase in heart rate that is accompanied with normal P-QRS-T complexes on electrocardiogram (ECG), and occurs as a result of increased activity of the sinoatrial (SA) node is termed:
- A.
Ventricular tachycardia
- B.
Atrial fibrillation
- C.
Sinus tachycardia
- D.
Atrial tachycardia
Correct Answer
C. Sinus tachycardiaExplanation
Sinus tachycardia is an increase in heart rate that can occur due to a variety of physiologic (ie, exercise, pain, fear), pharmacologic (drugs such as atropine, epinephrine, acepromazine) or pathologic influences (ie, anemia, heart failure, shock). The heart remains under the control of a normal SA node and the P-QRS-T complexes appear normal.Rate this question:
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- 10.
What drug is the emetic of choice in canines?
- A.
Xylazine
- B.
Apomorphine
- C.
Hydrogen peroxide
- D.
Syrup of ipecac
Correct Answer
B. ApomorphineExplanation
B: Apomorphine is the most reliable and effective drug for the induction of emesis in canines. When administered intravenously or intramuscularly, apomorphine can produce emesis in a matter of minutes. It is also available in a tablet form that can be crushed and a small amount placed in the conjunctival sac.
Xylazine is an effective and fast-acting (1-2 minutes) emetic in cats.
Hydrogen peroxide can induce vomiting in dogs by irritating the gastric mucosa. Results, however, are often not immediate and may not occur at all.
Syrup of ipecac can also induce vomiting in dogs, but only after 15-30 minutes following administration. It must reach the intestine before it exerts is effects.Rate this question:
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- 11.
A technician is about to administer an intramuscular injection of antibiotic to a box turtle suffering from an aural abscess. Where should the technician administer this injection?
- A.
Front leg
- B.
Back Leg
- C.
None of the above
- D.
A or b
Correct Answer
A. Front legExplanation
The technician should administer the injection in a front leg in order to avoid the renal portal system in the caudal half of the body. The renal portal system is a complex of blood vessels associated with the kidneys. Injections given in the caudal half of the body could potentially be carried to the kidneys before entering the systemic circulation. As a result, the drug may not reach therapeutic levels because a portion may be excreted prematurely. Renal damage could also occur since the drug has not had an opportunity to be metabolized by the body.Rate this question:
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- 12.
Which of the following statements is NOT true regarding jugular intravenous drug administration in horses?
- A.
The needle should be inserted caudally into the jugular vein in order to match the direction of blood flow.
- B.
The cranial third of the neck should be used to access the jugular vein to avoid accidental entry into the carotid artery
- C.
The medication should be bolused as quickly as possible.
- D.
Arterial versus venous blood cannot be differentiated by color when drawn into a syringe filled with fluid.
Correct Answer
C. The medication should be bolused as quickly as possible.Explanation
Caution must always be exercised when performing an intravenous (IV) injection in the jugular vein of horses because the carotid artery lies in close proximity to the jugular vein, and can therefore be mistakenly accessed even by the most experienced technicians. Steps to help minimize this error include utilizing the cranial third of the neck for venipuncture. This is because the artery does not lie in such close proximity to the vein as it does in the more caudal aspect of the neck. Another tactic would be to insert a large bore needle first and watch the blood as it exits the hub. If it is a gentle drip, then the needle is in the vein. If it is a steady, pulsating stream, the needle is in the artery and needs to be readjusted. Once the needle is in the vein, the drug should be administered slowly in order to give the technician or veterinarian ample time to stop the injection in the event of an adverse reaction. For example, sometimes horses move during an injection and cause the needle to be redirected into the carotid artery. If medication is injected into the carotid artery, it travels straight to the brain where it can cause potentially lethal consequences. Thus, it is extremely important not to be overconfident with these injections, and always use good judgment and safe techniques.Rate this question:
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- 13.
Which of the following syndromes will result in a postrenal azotemia?
- A.
Shock
- B.
Antifreeze intoxication
- C.
Feline urologic syndrome (FUS).
- D.
Dehydration
Correct Answer
C. Feline urologic syndrome (FUS).Explanation
Postrenal azotemia results from either an obstruction (ie, foreign body, FUS, neoplasia) in the urinary outflow tract or interruption (ie, rupture, laceration) of the urinary outflow tract leading to the escape of urine into the peritoneal cavity. Early in the course of the disease, lab findings usually demonstrate an increase in both the blood urea nitrogen (BUN) and creatinine values. Urine specific gravity is usually normal. Postrenal azotemia, however, can progress to intrinsic renal disease due to increased pressure in the urinary system or due to a sustained decrease in renal blood flow. The prognosis of postrenal azotemia is good if the underlying cause can be treated or corrected early in the course of disease.Rate this question:
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- 14.
A 75-pound Labrador Retriever requires 8 mg/kg of injectable phenobarbital for initial treatment of status epilepticus. If the concentration of this drug is 30 mg/mL, how many milliliters should this patient receive?
- A.
9 mL
- B.
20 mL
- C.
60 mL
- D.
18 mL
Correct Answer
A. 9 mLExplanation
First, convert pounds to kilograms: 75 lbs * 1 kg/2.2 lbs = 34 kg. Second, calculate how many milligrams of drug the patient requires: 34 kg * 8 mg/kg = 272 mg. Third, calculate the volume that will yield 272 mg of drug: 272 mg * 1 mL/30 mg = 9 mL.Rate this question:
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- 15.
Which of the following statements regarding grids is incorrect?
- A.
Grids help reduce the amount of scatter radiation.
- B.
Grids are used when the area to be radiographed is equal to or exceeds 10 cm in thickness.
- C.
Grids do not absorb any part of the primary beam.
- D.
Grids improve the quality of the radiograph by increasing contrast.
Correct Answer
C. Grids do not absorb any part of the primary beam.Explanation
C: In radiology, grids are used to help reduce the amount of scatter radiation when radiographing large areas (≥10 cm thick). They are needed because larger subjects require more kVp for penetration, and more kVp produces more scatter radiation, which ultimately results in a poor quality radiograph.
An important fact about grids is that they do indeed absorb some of the primary beam thereby necessitating an increase in exposure. This is accomplished by increasing the mAs before taking the radiograph.Rate this question:
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- 16.
A client brings in his 5-month-old puppy for vomiting and diarrhea of 2-day duration. He indicates that he himself vaccinated the puppy with injectables purchased at a local feed and grain store. He also states that he followed a vaccine protocol described on the Internet. Despite this owner’s good intentions, the puppy tests positive for parvovirus. What is a plausible explanation for this test result?
- A.
The puppy was immunosuppressed at the time of vaccination and could therefore not mount a sufficient immune response to the vaccines.
- B.
The owner administered the vaccine incorrectly or at inappropriate intervals.
- C.
The vaccine was stored at an improper temperature by the retail store or by the owner, thereby rendering the vaccine ineffective.
- D.
All of the above.
Correct Answer
D. All of the above.Explanation
D: The efficacy of any one vaccine is dependent on several variables. First and foremost, it must be stored in the proper conditions once it leaves the manufacturer. As a consumer, it is impossible to know if the store immediately refrigerated the vaccines after they arrived. Also, the consumer must transport the vaccine back home and may do so in less than optimal conditions. Perhaps this individual forgets that the vaccine is in the car, or runs errands on a hot day, thereby further endangering the vaccine’s potency.
If the vaccine does happen to make it home without insult, there are still other variables that could produce a less than optimal immune response once it is injected. For example, the owner could inadvertently inject all the way through the skin, in which case the puppy receives no vaccine at all. If the owner starts the vaccine series too early (before 6 weeks), maternal antibodies will destroy the vaccine. Also, if the puppy is sick or is born with a weak immune system, it may not be able to mount a sufficient antibody response to the vaccine. In all these instances, vaccines will lose their efficacy, which is why it is important to educate the public about the dangers of store-bought vaccines and why exams are recommended before any vaccine is administered.Rate this question:
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- 17.
Which of the following statements regarding feline transfusion medicine is incorrect?
- A.
There is no universal feline blood type due to the presence of naturally occurring alloantibodies.
- B.
Type A cats have weak anti-B alloantibodies.
- C.
A type AB cat can be safely used as an in-house blood donor.
- D.
Transfusion of a type B cat with type A blood can produce a potentially fatal acute hemolytic crisis.
Correct Answer
C. A type AB cat can be safely used as an in-house blood donor.Explanation
C: There are 3 described blood types in cats: A, B, and AB. Blood type A is the most prevalent and is seen in most domestic longhairs and shorthairs. Blood type B is not as common and is seen mostly in purebred cats, but not exclusively. Type AB is very rare and can be present in any cat. All cats have naturally occurring alloantibodies to blood types that are not their own. These antibodies can be very strong, as in the case of type B cats, or weak as with the type A cats. As a result, type B cats will undergo a severe reaction if transfused with type A blood. However, type A cats may not react at all with a transfusion of type B blood, but the transfused blood will only last a few days. Because of the presence of these alloantibodies, there can be no universal feline donor. A type AB cat is no exception.Rate this question:
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- 18.
Alkaline urine does not result from, nor is produced by
- A.
Diets rich in vegetable products.
- B.
A urinary tract infection with urease producing bacteria (ie, Staph or Proteus).
- C.
Time (>1 hr the voided sample stands at room temperature).
- D.
Diets consisting of milk or animal products.
Correct Answer
D. Diets consisting of milk or animal products.Explanation
D: Diets consisting of animal products and/or milk are acid producing and therefore, lower the pH of urine.
Diets rich in vegetable products will produce an alkaline urine sample.
A urine sample that is allowed to stand at room temperature for an hour or more will become alkaline, so these must be checked within 20-30 minutes of collection or at least refrigerated to help prevent the sample from degrading.
A urinary tract infection with urease producing bacteria will cause an alkaline urine sample because the enzyme urease converts urea to ammonia, which raises pH.Rate this question:
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- 19.
What type of drug is activated charcoal?
- A.
Laxative
- B.
Cathartic
- C.
Purgative
- D.
Adsorbent and Protectant
Correct Answer
D. Adsorbent and ProtectantExplanation
D: Activated charcoal adsorbs to its surface many chemicals, toxins, and drugs in the upper gastrointestinal tract that would otherwise be absorbed systemically.Rate this question:
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- 20.
Which of the following is NOT a function of diazepam?
- A.
Anxiolytic
- B.
Anticonvulsant
- C.
Analgesic
- D.
Muscle relaxant
Correct Answer
C. AnalgesicExplanation
C: Diazepam is a benzodiazepine drug that has several clinical indications. In prescribed doses, it can function as an anxiolytic, a short-duration anticonvulsant, a muscle relaxant, and an appetite stimulant. Diazepam does not, however, provide any analgesia when administered by itself and therefore must be used in conjunction with specific pain-relieving drugs, such as opioids, when used for anesthetic purposes.Rate this question:
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- 21.
What is the earliest day of gestation that a small animal pregnancy can be confirmed using ultrasound?
- A.
Day 5
- B.
Day 11
- C.
Day 20
- D.
Day 45
Correct Answer
C. Day 20Explanation
C: Ultrasonography provides the earliest detection of pregnancy on day 20 of gestation in small animals. At this time the gestational sac should be readily visible.Rate this question:
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- 22.
The components of fresh whole blood remain effective for up to:
- A.
1 hour
- B.
2 hours
- C.
8 hours
- D.
12 hours
Correct Answer
C. 8 hoursExplanation
C: It is always recommended to transfuse fresh whole blood immediately after collection so that the patient reaps the benefits of all the active components (coagulation factors, platelets, etc). If this is not possible, however, the blood may be transfused within the next 6-8 hours and still retain is effectiveness. After 8 hours, the blood will need to be refrigerated to preserve the blood components that are still useful (proteins, cells, Vitamin K dependent clotting factors). Platelets and other more “delicate” coagulation factors in the blood become ineffective over time and with refrigeration.Rate this question:
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- 23.
What type of injection should be avoided in meat-producing animals?
- A.
SC
- B.
IV
- C.
IM
- D.
IP
Correct Answer
C. IMExplanation
C: Bruising is a common sequela of intramuscular injections. Any bruised meat that is found at the time of slaughter will be either trimmed away, if possible, or thrown out all together, which results in a financial loss for the cattle rancher.Rate this question:
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- 24.
What is ultimately responsible for the resolution of an ultrasound image?
- A.
Patient size
- B.
Gain
- C.
Transducer frequency
- D.
Power
Correct Answer
C. Transducer frequencyExplanation
C: The transducer frequency is ultimately responsible for the resolution of the ultrasound image. As frequency increases, the wavelength decreases and shorter wavelengths produce better resolution and overall quality of the image.Rate this question:
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- 25.
On electrocardiograms (ECGs), ectopic foci that discharge prematurely anywhere within the ventricular walls give rise to:
- A.
Ventricular tachycardia
- B.
Ventricular fibrillation
- C.
Ventricular premature complexes
- D.
Accelerated idioventricular rhythm
Correct Answer
C. Ventricular premature complexesExplanation
C: Ventricular premature complexes (VPCs) occur as a result of an ectopic foci that discharge anywhere in the myocardial wall of the ventricle. The impulse is conducted cell-to-cell through the myocardium at a slow rate, versus more quickly through the intended Purkinje system, thereby producing an abnormally wide and bizarre QRS-T complex on ECG. VPCs are commonly seen with primary cardiac disease, secondary to trauma or systemic disease, or secondary to drug therapy.
It is important to understand that they rarely cause any hemodynamic impairment unless they occur frequently, in which case they should be treated to prevent progression to more serious and potentially fatal arrhythmias such as ventricular tachycardia or ventricular fibrillation.Rate this question:
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- 26.
What is the most commonly encountered diet-related illness in pet hedgehogs?
- A.
Rickets
- B.
Obesity
- C.
Hepatic lipidosis
- D.
Periodontal disease
Correct Answer
B. ObesityExplanation
B: Obesity is the most common diet-related illness in pet hedgehogs and may occur as a result of overfeeding, lack of exercise, or high-fat diets. Obesity may lead to poor skin condition, hepatic lipidosis, respiratory and/or immune related disease, as well as skin fold dermatitis. It is therefore important to monitor the animal’s weight frequently and to adjust the amount or type of food fed to the animal accordingly. Rickets and periodontal disease are other types of diet-related illness in hedgehogs that occur in unbalanced diets or diets that lack a hard consistency.Rate this question:
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- 27.
In ultrasonography, this artifact is produced when soundwaves are unable to traverse certain types of tissue or anomalies, such as bone or calculi:
- A.
Distance enhancement
- B.
Reverberation
- C.
Acoustic shadowing
- D.
Mirror image
Correct Answer
C. Acoustic shadowingExplanation
C: Acoustic shadowing is produced when soundwaves fail to travel through certain tissue like bone, or anomalies like bladder or gall stones. Since these soundwaves are completely attenuated, there is a shadow present directly posterior to these types of structures due to an absence of echoes.Rate this question:
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- 28.
What is the anesthetic of choice in patients with cardiac disease?
- A.
Ketamine
- B.
Propofol
- C.
Fentanyl
- D.
Etomidate
Correct Answer
D. EtomidateExplanation
D: Etomidate is a fast acting and short-lived induction agent that produces minimal cardiopulmonary effects, and is therefore the anesthetic of choice in patients with heart disease. Heart rate and rhythm, blood pressure, as well as respiratory rate are all maintained throughout anesthesia. Due to its short duration of action, etomidate is ideal to conduct brief studies such as examination and diagnostics on patients in extreme distress from cardiopulmonary disease that could easily die with any manipulation.Rate this question:
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- 29.
Etomidate should not be administered in repeated boluses because it is a hypertonic solution. What term best describes the changes a red blood cell (RBC) undergoes when introduced into a hypertonic solution?
- A.
Autoagglutination
- B.
Hemolysis
- C.
Crenation
- D.
Rouleaux formation
Correct Answer
C. CrenationExplanation
C: Crenation occurs when RBCs lose water through osmosis because the extracellular fluid is more concentrated (hypertonic) than the intracellular fluid (isotonic).
Hemolysis occurs when RBCs gain water through osmosis because the extracellular fluid is less concentrated (hypotonic) than the intracellular fluid.
Clumping of RBCs is termed autoagglutination and is usually indicative of immune-mediated hemolytic anemia.
RBCs that are clumped or stacked into a linear arrangement create a rouleaux formation (a normal finding in horses).Rate this question:
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- 30.
Which of the following statements regarding equine nasogastric intubation and medication is FALSE?
- A.
The nasogastric tube should be guided into the dorsal meatus of the horse’s nasal passages.
- B.
When placed properly, the tube can be seen on the left side of the horse’s neck as it passes through the esophagus and into the stomach.
- C.
Force should NEVER be used at any time during nasogastric intubation.
- D.
A horse could potentially die from gastric rupture when its stomach is overfilled with large volumes of medication or fluid delivered through a nasogastric tube
Correct Answer
A. The nasogastric tube should be guided into the dorsal meatus of the horse’s nasal passages.Explanation
A: A nasogastric tube placed properly into the ventral meatus will feed easily into the esophagus and meet little resistance along the way, providing there are no obstructions such as tumors or foreign objects.
Excessive force during nasogastric intubation can damage the ethmoturbinates of the equine nasal passages, which will result in an exorbitant amount of bleeding. Force can also rupture the esophagus if there is a foreign body present.
An equine stomach should always be checked for gastric reflux before introducing any water or medication. If an abnormally large amount of ingesta is present in the stomach (this is usually indicated when ingesta flows freely out of the nasogastric tube), then the delivery of medication or water should be postponed until the stomach empties. This will reduce the risk of gastric overfilling and potential rupture.Rate this question:
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- 31.
Which of the following statements regarding urine casts is TRUE?
- A.
Large numbers of casts in urine usually indicate active renal disease.
- B.
Casts will dissolve in alkaline urine.
- C.
Casts contain material in their matrix that was present in the renal tubule when the cast was formed.
- D.
All of the above.
Correct Answer
D. All of the above.Explanation
D: Casts are formed by the slow movement of material in the renal tubules and are molded by the tubular lumen. Casts are comprised predominantly of a protein matrix that also contains substances that were present in the tubule when the cast was formed, such as hyaline, white or red blood cells, or epithelial cells. When present in large numbers, they indicate active renal disease. Few casts, however, may not be significant, especially if not found on repeat sediment exams.
Casts readily dissolve in alkaline urine, so it is imperative that urine samples be evaluated immediately before the urine chemistry changes.Rate this question:
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- 32.
Which of the following is the most common oropharyngeal tumor in canines?
- A.
Fibrosarcoma
- B.
Squamous cell carcinoma
- C.
Malignant melanoma
- D.
Ameloblastoma
Correct Answer
A. FibrosarcomaExplanation
C: Malignant melanoma is the most common oropharyngeal tumor in dogs and is usually located on the gingiva or on the buccal or labial mucosa. It may or may not be pigmented. Metastasis is very common with malignant melanoma (50% or more of cases), as is bone invasion (66% of cases), so preliminary diagnostics to determine stage of disease is recommended. Treatment usually involves a combination of surgical excision, radiation, immunotherapy, and/or chemotherapy. These treatments, however, still only afford a guarded prognosis.Rate this question:
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- 33.
A
- A.
A
- B.
A
- C.
A
- D.
A
Correct Answer
A. AExplanation
D: Cutaneous larval migrans is a zoonotic disease in humans that is caused by the burrowing and migration of hookworm larvae intracutaneously, resulting in an intense dermatitis. Children who play in the dirt as well as people who are exposed to infected soil (gardeners, utility workers) are at risk of hookworm infection. These larvae migrate for long periods of time, and may penetrate into deeper tissues.
The zoonotic potential of many parasites necessitates the adoption of a comprehensive deworming program in any clinic. Technicians play a vital role in providing clients with vital information regarding these parasites so they can make informed decisions regarding the health of their pets and their families.Rate this question:
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- 34.
A
- A.
A
- B.
A
- C.
A
- D.
A
Correct Answer
A. AExplanation
C: The periodontal ligament is composed of connective fibers that serve to anchor the tooth root to the alveolar bone. In addition to this function, the periodontal ligament also provides nutrients to the alveolar bone and cementum through a network of arterioles, and also serves as a “shock absorber” during mastication.Rate this question:
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- 35.
A
- A.
A
- B.
A
- C.
A
- D.
A
Correct Answer
A. AExplanation
D: Dental polishing represents an integral part of the dental prophylaxis. Polishing decreases total tooth surface area by smoothing the enamel that was roughened and made irregular by the scaling process. By decreasing this surface area, polishing decreases the rate of plaque and calculus reattachment.Rate this question:
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- 36.
A
- A.
A
- B.
A
- C.
A
- D.
A
Correct Answer
A. AExplanation
D: Mechanical scalers are an indispensable instrument during any prophylaxis and must be used properly to avoid accidental heat damage to the tooth surface. The amount of heat generated by the scaler can be reduced by using large amounts of water during the scaling process to cool the teeth, limiting the time spent on each tooth to only 5-10 seconds a piece, and only using the scaler at the speed that is recommended for the particular unit. In addition, it also helps not to use excessive force with the scaler, which can also create heat and further damage the enamel, possibly exposing the pulp.Rate this question:
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- 37.
A
- A.
A
- B.
A
- C.
A
- D.
A
Correct Answer
A. AExplanation
B: Iris scissors are small, fine, delicate scissors that are reserved for precise surgeries, usually involving the eye. Spencer scissors are used to remove sutures. Mayo scissors are common in surgery for cutting dense, thick tissue. Metzenbaum scissors are also used in surgery for delicate tissue dissection.Rate this question:
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- 38.
A
- A.
A
- B.
A
- C.
A
- D.
A
Correct Answer
A. AExplanation
B: Rochester-Carmalt forceps are large, crushing, hemostatic forceps that are used to secure tissue bundles containing blood vessels such as uterine stumps or ovarian pedicles.Rate this question:
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- 39.
A
- A.
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D: Instruments are placed in surgical milk following ultrasonic cleaning to keep the instruments lubricated as well as to help prevent the formation of rust. It has no cleaning or sterilizing properties.Rate this question:
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B: The carbon dioxide absorbent needs to be changed after 6-8 hours of use, or every 30 days regardless of how little it has been used. The absorbent serves to “capture” exhaled CO2 and convert it to carbonate. If all the absorbent has been consumed, the patient will start to accumulate CO2 in the bloodstream (hypercapnia), which leads to respiratory acidosis.Rate this question:
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D: A half hitch knot is recommended because it not only allows for easy release in case of an emergency, but also alleviates direct pressure on the skin when it is applied over 2 areas of contact.Rate this question:
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D: When a surgeon requests a drain during a surgical procedure, he/she is anticipating an accumulation of air (dead space) or fluid (ie, pus, serum, blood) in and/or around the surgical site. Procedures or conditions that warrant drain placement include abscesses, removal of large tumors that leave large gaps in muscle or tissue, limb amputation, or wounds that are difficult to clean completely. If drains are not utilized for these types of situations, the surgical site could swell or leak fluid, or continue to be infected, all of which can lead to suture dehiscence and the need for more surgery.Rate this question:
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A: Hydrogen peroxide is a common foaming wound irrigant that should only be used once for the initial cleansing of a contaminated wound. If used repeatedly, hydrogen peroxide can damage the surrounding healthy tissue, which results in delayed wound healing.
Hydrogen peroxide does not possess any significant antimicrobial properties and thus should not be used solely for this purpose. It does, however, have a certain amount of effectiveness against spores.Rate this question:
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B: Chlorhexidine and povidone-iodine scrubs share many properties, however only povidone-iodine scrub is inactivated by alcohol and organic matter such as blood or body fluids.Rate this question:
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B: Electric heating pads are extremely dangerous when used to warm an animal and should never be used. They provide intense, focal areas of heat to which an unconscious animal cannot react, resulting in very painful and necrosing thermal burns.Rate this question:
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B: Butorphanol should not be used in conjunction with fentanyl or any pure opioid agonist because it blocks the receptor (mu) in the brain to which the opioids bind to produce analgesia. Butorphanol is a mixed opioid agonist/antagonist meaning it stimulates certain receptors of the brain (kappa) to produce mild analgesia and moderate sedation, however it blocks the mu receptors, which are responsible for profound analgesia and mild sedation. So, when used together, a patient only receives the fleeting (45 minutes) analgesic effects of butorphanol versus the longer analgesic duration of the other pure opioid agonists, and is therefore experiencing pain most of the time.Rate this question:
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A: Buprenorphine is an opioid analgesic in small animals that is used to control mild to moderate pain. Due to the unusual chemistry of the feline oral cavity, buprenorphine can be administered orally and still retain the same efficacy as an intramuscular or intravenous injection.Rate this question:
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C: Glycopyrrolate is a preanesthetic anticholinergic that prevents or remedies the adverse effects (bradycardia, hypersalivation) of opioids, barbiturates, and dissociative anesthetics such as morphine, thiopental, and ketamine, respectively. As a parasympatholytic drug, glycopyrrolate also functions as a mydriatic, a bronchodilator as well as in inhibitor of intestinal motility. Because glycopyrrolate does not cross significantly through the blood-brain barrier, its effects on the central nervous system are less pronounced. It also should be noted that glycopyrrolate does not cross the placental barrier, which makes it an excellent preanesthetic drug for pregnant animals.Rate this question:
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A: Stay sutures are an invaluable tool for isolating and elevating hollow organs that need to be incised, such as the bladder, intestine, or stomach. They are placed in the serosal surface of these organs on either side of the incision linearly and then secured with mosquito forceps. The organ is then gently elevated out of the abdominal cavity and placed over laparotomy pads, which will catch or reduce any spillage of urine or intestinal material that would otherwise contaminate the surgical area. They allow for better visualization and control over the surgical site.Rate this question:
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