Volume 5. Jet Engine Troubleshooting, Operation, Testing, And Damage Analysis

97 Questions

Settings
Please wait...
Military Quizzes & Trivia

Military questions


Questions and Answers
  • 1. 
    After reviewing the aircraft/engine forms, where should you begin troubleshooting?
    • A. 

      Discuss problem with other journeymen in the shop

    • B. 

      Check each part of every system

    • C. 

      Examine the most complex unit

    • D. 

      Observe gauge indications

  • 2. 
    All of the options listed below are proper troubleshooting practices except
    • A. 

      Checking the applicable trouble areas

    • B. 

      Understanding the fucnction of each engine unit

    • C. 

      Performing easy checks, then going to more difficult checks

    • D. 

      Inspecting other areas after isolating the trouble between points

  • 3. 
    Aircraft power plant and engine intermediate maintenance technical order (TO) contain information on troubleshootin. This information is presented in the form of
    • A. 

      Fix-it diagrams

    • B. 

      Power plant charts

    • C. 

      Mechanical drawings

    • D. 

      Troubleshooting charts

  • 4. 
    To become an expert troubleshooter, you must
    • A. 

      Be a 7-level

    • B. 

      Have at least 5 years experience

    • C. 

      Attend college courses in troubleshootin techniques

    • D. 

      Understand th function of each unit within each system

  • 5. 
    The F100-PW-220 engine monitoring system component that acquires fault data from the digital electonic engine control (DEEC) and logs the faults with the time of their occurrence is the
    • A. 

      Data collection unit (DCU)

    • B. 

      Ground station unit (GSU)

    • C. 

      Engine analyzer unit (EAU)

    • D. 

      Engine diagnostic unit (EDU)

  • 6. 
    An understanding of the operating principles of engine instruments will help you decide
    • A. 

      If an engine should be removed from an aircraft

    • B. 

      If the engine should be sent to the test cell

    • C. 

      The meanings of the instrument readings

    • D. 

      What tools are required for maintenance

  • 7. 
    Most engine montioring guages and instruments require some type of
    • A. 

      Electrical valve to the indicator

    • B. 

      Metal tubing for electron flow

    • C. 

      Radio frequency transmitter

    • D. 

      Transmitter and indicator

  • 8. 
    • A. 

      Exhaust gas

    • B. 

      Turbine inlet

    • C. 

      Combustion inlet

    • D. 

      Fan turbine inlet

  • 9. 
    A typical jet engine exhaust gas temperaure (EGT) indicating system contains thermocouples, leads, an indicator, and
    • A. 

      A resistor

    • B. 

      A turbine inlet

    • C. 

      A control valve

    • D. 

      An exhaust duct

  • 10. 
    The engine fuel-flow indicating system of most jet powered aircraft contains a fuel-flow
    • A. 

      Transmitter and a float valve

    • B. 

      Control valve and a float valve

    • C. 

      Transmitter adn a fuel-flow indicator

    • D. 

      Control valve and a fuel-flow transcriber

  • 11. 
    The fuel system component of a jet engine that operates by using water wheel concept is the
    • A. 

      Fuel-flow generator

    • B. 

      Fuel-flow indicator

    • C. 

      Fuel-flow transmitter

    • D. 

      Fuel remaining counter

  • 12. 
    The fuel-flow indicator indicates the rate of fuel-flow as
    • A. 

      Pounds per hour

    • B. 

      Gallons per hour

    • C. 

      Pounds per minute

    • D. 

      Gallons per second

  • 13. 
    Two units that work together to indicate that the oil system is operating correctly are the oil pressure
    • A. 

      Transmitter and indicator

    • B. 

      Relief valve and indicator

    • C. 

      Relief valve and transmitter

    • D. 

      Synchronous unit and indicator

  • 14. 
    The oil pressure indicator receives an electrical signal from the
    • A. 

      Gyro

    • B. 

      Transmitter

    • C. 

      Hydraulic unit

    • D. 

      Synchronous unit

  • 15. 
    The two primary units of the tachometer indicating system are the tachometer generator and tachometer
    • A. 

      Indicator

    • B. 

      Fuse panel

    • C. 

      Transformer

    • D. 

      Thermocouple

  • 16. 
    The N2 tachometer generator is usually driven from the tachometer drive located on the
    • A. 

      Engine accessory section

    • B. 

      Engine turbine section

    • C. 

      Combustion case

    • D. 

      Fuel control

  • 17. 
    The tachometer indicator is
    • A. 

      An electric direct-drive type instrument

    • B. 

      An electric-magnetic-drag-type instrument

    • C. 

      A mechanical direct-drive-type instument

    • D. 

      A mechanical-magnetic-drag-type instrument

  • 18. 
    The exhaust nozzle position indicating system found on engines with afterburners is important because it
    • A. 

      Helps the pilot determine engine power

    • B. 

      Helps the pilot determine fuel consumption

    • C. 

      Gives the pilot indications of electrical failures

    • D. 

      Aids the pilot in selection of proper altitude levels

  • 19. 
    On engines with afterburners, the position of the exhaust nozzle is converted into an electrical signal by a
    • A. 

      Rheostat

    • B. 

      Rectifier

    • C. 

      Transducer

    • D. 

      Transformer

  • 20. 
    One type of overheat detector unit used on aircraft engines consists of a hollow stailess-steel tube that covers
    • A. 

      One gold contact

    • B. 

      Two silver contacts

    • C. 

      Three bronze contacts

    • D. 

      Four copper contacts

  • 21. 
    Whit is used to indicate the amount of thrust a dual-compressor engine is producing?
    • A. 

      Engine pressure ratio (EPR)

    • B. 

      Exhaust gas temperature (EGT)

    • C. 

      Revolutions per minute (RPM)

    • D. 

      Turbine inlet temperature (TIT)

  • 22. 
    The pressures used in the operationof the engine pressure ration (EPR) system are the
    • A. 

      Engine inlet total pressure and exhaust total pressure

    • B. 

      Exhaust total pressure and turbine inlet total pressure

    • C. 

      Inlet total pressure and compressor discharge total pressure

    • D. 

      Compressor discharge total pressure and trubine inlet total pressure

  • 23. 
    Inlet pressure (Pt2) is transmitted from its sensing point
    • A. 

      Electrically

    • B. 

      Mechanically

    • C. 

      Hydraulically

    • D. 

      Through tubing

  • 24. 
    The test cell exhaust gas temperature (EGT) selector allows selection of
    • A. 

      The EGT parameter for transit speeds

    • B. 

      Accuracy check switch during adjustment

    • C. 

      The EGT indicator to be read in digital or analog

    • D. 

      Individual thermocouple inputs or average of these inputs

  • 25. 
    • A. 

      1 revolutions per minute (RPM)

    • B. 

      2 RPM

    • C. 

      3 RPM

    • D. 

      4 RPM

  • 26. 
    The test cell 1C temperature indicator displays temperatures in degrees Fahrenheit, with a range of
    • A. 

      -100 to +1,000*

    • B. 

      -75 to +1,400*

    • C. 

      -50 to +1,600*

    • D. 

      -25 to +1,800*

  • 27. 
    What type of vibration causes unneccessary engine removals and unwarranted repairs?
    • A. 

      Forced

    • B. 

      Transient

    • C. 

      Unbalanced

    • D. 

      Externally excited

  • 28. 
    What kind of engine vibration does not persist, but comes and goes?
    • A. 

      Forced

    • B. 

      Transient

    • C. 

      Resonance

    • D. 

      Externally excited

  • 29. 
    Forces acting to create vibration in a jet engine present a highly complex pattern. this because the main rotor
    • A. 

      Is a rigid rotor system

    • B. 

      Is both a rigid and flexible system

    • C. 

      Functions as a flexible rotor system

    • D. 

      Acts as an unmeasurable rotation system

  • 30. 
    During vibration analysis, why is it necessary to meausre all parameters to identify a vibration source?
    • A. 

      The compressor rotor is a freely rotating mass

    • B. 

      The main rotor functions as an inflexible system

    • C. 

      A change in mechanical condition will not be detected

    • D. 

      Displacement may be the same in two completely differnt problems

  • 31. 
    The two types fo transducers used to measure vibration are
    • A. 

      Velocity and phase accelerometer

    • B. 

      Velocity and displacement accelerometer

    • C. 

      Velocity and piezoelectric accelerometer

    • D. 

      Piezoelctric acceleromether and phase lag transducer

  • 32. 
    • A. 

      Velocity

    • B. 

      Phase log

    • C. 

      Displacement accelerometer

    • D. 

      Piezoelectric accelerometer

  • 33. 
    The filter selector switch on the vibration analyzer is used to
    • A. 

      Provide an exact revolutions per minute (RPM) indication

    • B. 

      Indicate the amplitude of the overall vibration

    • C. 

      Display the frequency of the overall engine

    • D. 

      Allow selection of the necessary filter

  • 34. 
    What is used to support the fan and low pressure turbine?
    • A. 

      Blades

    • B. 

      Bearings

    • C. 

      Brackets

    • D. 

      Bushings

  • 35. 
    • A. 

      Engine trim

    • B. 

      Fan rotor trim balance

    • C. 

      Low-pressure turbine rotor trim balance

    • D. 

      High-pressure turbine rotor trim balance

  • 36. 
    The carbon seal tester simulates the effects of
    • A. 

      Turbine gas flow through the carbon seal

    • B. 

      Having no air pressure on the carbon seal

    • C. 

      Compressor airflow through the carbon seal

    • D. 

      Ambient (outside) pressure on the carbon seal

  • 37. 
    The engine remote trimmer enables you to adjust the
    • A. 

      Fuel enrchment valve without being under the engine

    • B. 

      Fuel flow transmitter while under the engine

    • C. 

      Fuel control without being under the engine

    • D. 

      Fuel pump while under the engine

  • 38. 
    • A. 

      Supervisory control system (SCS) test set

    • B. 

      Mach number (Mn) simulator test set

    • C. 

      Engine start system (ESS) tester

    • D. 

      Remote trimmer

  • 39. 
    • A. 

      Supervisory control system (SCS) test set

    • B. 

      Mach number (Mn) simulator test set

    • C. 

      Engine start system (ESS) tester

    • D. 

      Remote trimmer

  • 40. 
    You cna find written instruction for safe flight line vehicle operations in
    • A. 

      AFI 36-2903

    • B. 

      AFOSH STD 91-100

    • C. 

      The flight line job guide (JG)

    • D. 

      The intermediate maintenance TO

  • 41. 
    The term trim means to adjust the engine systems for optimum performance per the limits in the TO. there are two methods used to trim an engine. they are
    • A. 

      Hydraulic and mechanical

    • B. 

      Hydraulic and electronic

    • C. 

      Manual and electronic

    • D. 

      Manual and mechanical

  • 42. 
    The pressure gauges used for an oil system pressure checks are connected at the
    • A. 

      Inlet side of the oil pump and the vent system

    • B. 

      Output side of the main oil pump and the vent system

    • C. 

      Scavenge pump and the inlet side of oil pressure pump

    • D. 

      Bearing jets and the output side of the oil scavenge pump

  • 43. 
    • A. 

      Fan turbine inlet teperature (FTIT)

    • B. 

      Turbine inlet temperature(TIT)

    • C. 

      Exhaust gas temperature (EGT)

    • D. 

      Intake gas temperture (IGT)

  • 44. 
    • A. 

      Dry motoring

    • B. 

      Wet motoring

    • C. 

      Bleed schedule

    • D. 

      Interface operational

  • 45. 
    Prior to starting the engine when doinga n anti-ice valve operational check on an F-16C/D, place the anti-ice engine switch to
    • A. 

      ON

    • B. 

      OFF

    • C. 

      START

    • D. 

      MANUAL

  • 46. 
    How many primary air silencers are there on aircraft noise suppressors to help reduce turbine whine?
    • A. 

      Two

    • B. 

      Four

    • C. 

      Six

    • D. 

      Eight

  • 47. 
    • A. 

      Near the bleed area

    • B. 

      To the rear exhaust area

    • C. 

      Against the aircraft fuselage

    • D. 

      Forward of the bleed exhaust area

  • 48. 
    To how many minutes should engine operation in afterburner to be limited when the engine is operated in the aircraft noise suppressor?
    • A. 

      2

    • B. 

      3

    • C. 

      4

    • D. 

      5

  • 49. 
    The hush house exhaust deflector is constructed of
    • A. 

      Flexible soft metal filled with noise reduction material

    • B. 

      Cylinder type tubing filled with noise reduction material

    • C. 

      Panels and air cooling ports filled withnoise reduction material

    • D. 

      Small panel modules filled withnoise reduction material

  • 50. 
    Before moving an aircraft into the hush house, you must inspect the aircraft
    • A. 

      Red streamers

    • B. 

      And its forms

    • C. 

      Flight station

    • D. 

      Forms

  • 51. 
    After running an engine in augmentation in the hush house, the augmentor tube is cooled by running the engine at idle for a period of
    • A. 

      1 minute

    • B. 

      3 minutes

    • C. 

      6 minutes

    • D. 

      9 minutes

  • 52. 
    During an inspection of the hush house you are not required ot check the
    • A. 

      Engine being tested

    • B. 

      Concrete deterioration

    • C. 

      Fire suppression system

    • D. 

      Engine tie-down assemblies

  • 53. 
    In addition to determining the condition of a repaired or overhauled engine, you also test engines
    • A. 

      For training practice

    • B. 

      Inaircraft that have been washed

    • C. 

      That have severe foreign object dame (FOD) damage

    • D. 

      That have been involved in an incident or a mishap

  • 54. 
    • A. 

      Break-in run

    • B. 

      Transient check

    • C. 

      Vibration survey

    • D. 

      Max power engine trim

  • 55. 
    • A. 

      TF39-1C

    • B. 

      F110-GE-129

    • C. 

      F100-PW-220

    • D. 

      F100-PW-229

  • 56. 
    The two types of test cells currently used in the Air Force are
    • A. 

      Fixed and portable

    • B. 

      Single and combined

    • C. 

      Permanent and temporary

    • D. 

      Functional and progressive

  • 57. 
    A portable test cell is not equipped with a
    • A. 

      Control cab

    • B. 

      Thrust trailer

    • C. 

      Miscellaneous equipment kit

    • D. 

      Hydraulically operated pylon mount cradle

  • 58. 
    Hich test cell noise suppressors use water to cool the exhaust gases?
    • A. 

      Fixed

    • B. 

      Portable

    • C. 

      Both fixed and portable

    • D. 

      None

  • 59. 
    Engines are mounted in the fixed test cell on a thrust stand or are suspended
    • A. 

      From cargo straps

    • B. 

      From a cradle mount

    • C. 

      From a tailhook adapter

    • D. 

      On the model 4100 trailer

  • 60. 
    In the fixed test cell, air for the engine intake comes through baffles located on the
    • A. 

      Floor of the test cell

    • B. 

      Ceiling of the test cell

    • C. 

      Side walls of the test cell

    • D. 

      Front doors of the test cell

  • 61. 
    The vertical baffles inteh exhaust stack of the fixed test cell are desighned to remove
    • A. 

      Low-volume sound

    • B. 

      High-volume sound

    • C. 

      Low-frequency sound

    • D. 

      High-frequency sound

  • 62. 
    The portable test cell is not equipped with a
    • A. 

      Fuel trailer

    • B. 

      Thrust trailer

    • C. 

      Control cab trailer

    • D. 

      Model 3000 trailer

  • 63. 
    On the portable test cell, the swivel pads at the bottom of the leveling jacks ont he engine thrust trailer provide for all of the following except
    • A. 

      Levelign the engine being tested

    • B. 

      Removal of the wheel and tire assemblies

    • C. 

      Support the thrust trailer at a high of 80 inches

    • D. 

      Adjustment for rail compatibility with engine transportation trailers

  • 64. 
    The vibration pickups on the portable test cell are cooled by
    • A. 

      Engine oil

    • B. 

      The atmosphere

    • C. 

      Hydraulic fluid

    • D. 

      The pneumatic system

  • 65. 
    The noise suppressor at a oportable test cell is not equipped with
    • A. 

      A fuel trailer

    • B. 

      An exhaust muffler

    • C. 

      Two ari intake mufflers

    • D. 

      A water tank semitrailer

  • 66. 
    • A. 

      Only need replacement of minor parts

    • B. 

      Be operable with all known discrepancies corrected

    • C. 

      Have the fuel line disconnected from the pump inlet

    • D. 

      Be in need of only minor bits and pieces to be torqued

  • 67. 
    • A. 

      Formation of ice

    • B. 

      Ingestion of rocks

    • C. 

      Ingestion of bolts

    • D. 

      Failure of internal parts

  • 68. 
    • A. 

      Fuel control

    • B. 

      Turbine area

    • C. 

      Inlet to the oil pump

    • D. 

      Inlet to the fuel pump

  • 69. 
    Making general entries on the test cell engine log sheet, what should you do with the engine model and serial number?
    • A. 

      Type these items

    • B. 

      Check past records

    • C. 

      Enter these only after test is complete

    • D. 

      Verify these numbers on the engine data plate

  • 70. 
    To prevent damage to the load cells when you are transfering an engine to the test stand,
    • A. 

      Secure the uppper and lower rails

    • B. 

      Adjust the engine snubber

    • C. 

      Install the load cell shims

    • D. 

      Install lockbolts

  • 71. 
    • A. 

      Inspect the compressor thrust-bearing

    • B. 

      Talk withthe oil analysis program manager

    • C. 

      Review AFTO Form 244, Industrial/Support Equipment Record

    • D. 

      Review AFTO Form 781H, Aerospace Vehicle Flight Status and Maintenance

  • 72. 
    If an engine stalls or surges during a test cell run, you should investigate the
    • A. 

      Ignition exciter

    • B. 

      Oil pressure pump

    • C. 

      Thrust reverser pump

    • D. 

      Variable stator vanes

  • 73. 
    You can get information such as temperature and barometric pressure from equipment at the tecst cell sie or from
    • A. 

      The control tower

    • B. 

      Information on the radio

    • C. 

      The local weather station

    • D. 

      Your immeditate supervisor

  • 74. 
    Responsibility for the proper preventive maintenance of a test cell facility rest with the
    • A. 

      Individuals assigned

    • B. 

      Civil engineer squadron

    • C. 

      Equipment maintenance squadron

    • D. 

      Aerospace ground equipment (AGE) flight

  • 75. 
    • A. 

      Test cell run procedures

    • B. 

      Unit serial number listings

    • C. 

      Monthly requirements listings

    • D. 

      Periodic inspection checklists

  • 76. 
    Defects (such as cracks) that appear on the combustion chamber are aggravated by
    • A. 

      Thermal cycles

    • B. 

      Low cycle fatigue

    • C. 

      Borescope inspections

    • D. 

      Combustion chamber removal

  • 77. 
    Defects (such as cracks) found during combustion chamber borescope inspections
    • A. 

      Are continually monitored as long as they are within limits

    • B. 

      Requried engine removal, even if thay are within limits

    • C. 

      Require welding, even if they are within limits

    • D. 

      Are unacceptable; you must replace the part

  • 78. 
    On a disassembled engine, a visual inspecton of the combustion chamber is preferred over a borescope inspection because
    • A. 

      The borescope may not alway be available

    • B. 

      Removal of the combustion chamber is quicker

    • C. 

      You culd spot defects that have been missed with the borescope

    • D. 

      The limits for a visual inspection are not as tight as those for a borescope

  • 79. 
    Through extensive testin, engine maufacturers determine how long a particular part should last. this known as the
    • A. 

      Anticipated failure rate

    • B. 

      Guaranteed date

    • C. 

      Drop dead date

    • D. 

      Service life

  • 80. 
    Using the wrong cleaning agent on a jet engine part
    • A. 

      Has no effect

    • B. 

      Could destroy it

    • C. 

      Only causes minor etching

    • D. 

      Is acceptable as long as the part comes clean

  • 81. 
    To borescope the high-pressure turbine (HPT) rotor blades, rotate the rear compressor by using the core engine rotationg device on the
    • A. 

      Variable nozzle

    • B. 

      Accessory gearbox

    • C. 

      Low pressure compressor

    • D. 

      Borescope light guide cable

  • 82. 
    • A. 

      Fix

    • B. 

      Look

    • C. 

      Preinspection

    • D. 

      Home station check (HSC)

  • 83. 
    During what inspection phase are opertional checks made according to the technical order (TO)?
    • A. 

      Fix

    • B. 

      Look

    • C. 

      Preinspection

    • D. 

      Post-inspection

  • 84. 
    A basic post-flight inspection (BPO) is done
    • A. 

      Within the thruflight inspection

    • B. 

      After the first flight of the day

    • C. 

      With the end-of-runway inspection

    • D. 

      After the last flight of the flying period

  • 85. 
    • A. 

      Perodic (PE)

    • B. 

      Basic post-flight (BPO)

    • C. 

      Hourly post-flight

    • D. 

      Home station check (HSC)

  • 86. 
    The home station check (HSC) inspection is a combination of the basic post-flight (BPO) and
    • A. 

      Thruflight

    • B. 

      Pahsed items

    • C. 

      Periodic items

    • D. 

      Hourly post-flight items

  • 87. 
    Whch inspection is conducted by maintenance personnel after an occurrence of a specific or unuaual condition?
    • A. 

      Special

    • B. 

      Calendar

    • C. 

      Acceptance

    • D. 

      Time replacement item

  • 88. 
    A cold compressor stall that occurs at low revolutions per minute (RPM) and is accompanied by a slight ovvertemperature is called
    • A. 

      An incipient

    • B. 

      A thermal

    • C. 

      A partial

    • D. 

      A mild

  • 89. 
    Careless operation of the throttle during emergency system ooperation could cause a compressor stall due to
    • A. 

      A restricted air inlet

    • B. 

      Rapid throttle movement

    • C. 

      A restricted turbine nozzle

    • D. 

      Malfunctioning varable gemetry system

  • 90. 
    Compressor section failure from a chain reaction due to blade-to-blade and blade-to-vane interference is known as
    • A. 

      Circmferential force

    • B. 

      Centrifugal force

    • C. 

      Centripetal force

    • D. 

      Centrifuge force

  • 91. 
    What section of a compressor blade is most likely to fail?
    • A. 

      Near the blade tip

    • B. 

      Near the blade root

    • C. 

      At the trailing edge

    • D. 

      At the leadind edge

  • 92. 
    • A. 

      Rotor out of round

    • B. 

      Roller bearing failure

    • C. 

      Thrust bearing failure

    • D. 

      Incipient compressor stall

  • 93. 
    If the turbine nozzles are burned out uniformly around the whole annulus from an overtemperature condition, this is known as a
    • A. 

      Mild stall condition with normal cooling airflow

    • B. 

      Severe stall condition withnormal cooling airflow

    • C. 

      Mild stall condition with disrpted cooling airflow

    • D. 

      Severe stall condition with disrupted cooling airflow

  • 94. 
    Turbine rotor blade failure usually occurs near the
    • A. 

      Midspan of the blade

    • B. 

      Platform of the blade

    • C. 

      Root of the blade

    • D. 

      Tip of the blade

  • 95. 
    Turnine blade fatigue failure does not result from
    • A. 

      Nicks

    • B. 

      Dents

    • C. 

      Blends

    • D. 

      Scratches

  • 96. 
    • A. 

      Transient vibration

    • B. 

      Partial loss of lubrication

    • C. 

      Complete loss of lubrication

    • D. 

      Stall condition overtemperature

  • 97. 
    Bearing failure from moisture, lack of protective oils, improper handling, or imoproper storage could cause
    • A. 

      Corrosion pitting

    • B. 

      Fatigue pitting

    • C. 

      Brinelling

    • D. 

      Skidding