US Air Force Material Management Test Quiz!
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Questions and Answers
- 1.
(601) Who should help a driver back a vehicle into position for offloading?
- A.
Spotter
- B.
In-checker
- C.
Vehicle Assistant
- D.
Transportation Personnel
Correct Answer
A. SpotterExplanation
A spotter should help a driver back a vehicle into position for offloading. A spotter is responsible for guiding the driver and ensuring that they safely maneuver the vehicle into the desired position. They help the driver avoid any obstacles or hazards that may be present during the backing process. This assistance is crucial to prevent accidents and damage to the vehicle or surrounding objects.Rate this question:
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- 2.
(601) Before accepting a shipment, the receiving function representative must ensure that
- A.
All containers are accounted for
- B.
Damaged property is returned to the sending activity
- C.
Discrepancies are turned over to the cargo movement representative
- D.
The carrier annotates the reason for discrepancies on the receipt document
Correct Answer
A. All containers are accounted forExplanation
The receiving function representative must ensure that all containers are accounted for before accepting a shipment. This means that they need to check and confirm that all containers that were supposed to be included in the shipment are present and have been received. This is important to ensure that nothing is missing or lost during the transportation process. By verifying the number of containers, the representative can ensure that the shipment is complete and accurate.Rate this question:
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- 3.
(602) What type of receipt must be processed before all others?
- A.
Routine
- B.
Priority
- C.
Equipment
- D.
MICAP
Correct Answer
D. MICAPExplanation
MICAP stands for "Materiel Issue Control Activity Priority." It refers to a type of receipt that must be processed before all others. This type of receipt is given the highest priority due to its critical nature. It involves urgent requests for essential equipment or supplies needed for immediate use. Processing MICAP receipts promptly ensures that necessary resources are provided without delay, minimizing any potential disruptions or delays in operations.Rate this question:
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- 4.
(602) Why are segregated, specialized holding areas necessary for items such as hazardous materiels or pilferable items?
- A.
Priority processing
- B.
Safety or security reasons
- C.
Minimize materiel handling
- D.
Protection from the weather
Correct Answer
B. Safety or security reasonsExplanation
Segregated, specialized holding areas are necessary for items such as hazardous materials or pilferable items for safety or security reasons. These items may pose a risk to the surrounding environment or individuals if not properly contained and stored. By having designated areas specifically designed to store these items, the risk of accidents or unauthorized access can be minimized. This ensures the safety of personnel and protects the integrity of the items being stored.Rate this question:
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- 5.
(603) Which check is not required by the receiving in-checker?
- A.
NSN
- B.
Warehouse location
- C.
Unit of Issue
- D.
Quantity
Correct Answer
B. Warehouse locationExplanation
The receiving in-checker does not need to check the warehouse location because it is already known and specified. The other checks, such as NSN, unit of issue, and quantity, are necessary to ensure that the correct items are received in the correct quantities. However, the warehouse location is predetermined and does not need to be verified during the receiving process.Rate this question:
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- 6.
(603) The receiving in-checker sends suspected tampered items to the
- A.
Supplier
- B.
Warehouse
- C.
Materiel management inspector
- D.
Cargo movement representative
Correct Answer
C. Materiel management inspectorExplanation
The materiel management inspector is responsible for inspecting and ensuring the quality and integrity of the received items. If the receiving in-checker suspects that an item has been tampered with, they would send it to the materiel management inspector for further investigation and assessment. The inspector has the expertise and knowledge to determine if the item has indeed been tampered with and take appropriate action accordingly.Rate this question:
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- 7.
(604) Before you can access the receipt processing screen, what must you enter on the receipt inquiry screen?
- A.
Quantity
- B.
Stock Number
- C.
Tote Box / Hold Bay Location
- D.
System designator and due-in document number
Correct Answer
D. System designator and due-in document numberExplanation
To access the receipt processing screen, you need to enter the system designator and the due-in document number on the receipt inquiry screen. This information is necessary to identify and locate the specific receipt that needs to be processed. The system designator helps to determine the type of document being received, while the due-in document number is used to track and manage the receipt within the system.Rate this question:
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- 8.
(604) Once the on-hand quantity reaches zero, the due-in detail record is
- A.
Reset
- B.
Deleted
- C.
Updated
- D.
Suspended
Correct Answer
B. DeletedExplanation
When the on-hand quantity reaches zero, it means that there are no more items available in stock. In this scenario, it is logical to delete the due-in detail record because there is no longer a need to track the incoming inventory. Deleting the record helps to keep the inventory management system organized and accurate by removing unnecessary information.Rate this question:
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- 9.
(605) Which of the following is not a category of receipt discrepancies?
- A.
Quantity
- B.
Documentation
- C.
Misidentified items
- D.
Serviceable / Undamaged items
Correct Answer
D. Serviceable / Undamaged itemsExplanation
The given answer, "Serviceable / Undamaged items," is not a category of receipt discrepancies. Receipt discrepancies typically refer to issues related to quantity, documentation, and misidentified items. Serviceable/undamaged items do not fall under the category of receipt discrepancies as they do not involve any issues or discrepancies in the receipt of the items.Rate this question:
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- 10.
(605) What action must be taken on the receipt document for an overage receipt?
- A.
Send the items to inspection
- B.
Send the items to the receiving supervisor
- C.
Circle the incorrect quantity and put the correct quantity above it
- D.
Circle the incorrect quantity and put the overage quantity above it
Correct Answer
C. Circle the incorrect quantity and put the correct quantity above itExplanation
When there is an overage receipt, it means that the quantity received is more than what was expected. To address this, the correct action is to circle the incorrect quantity on the receipt document and indicate the correct quantity above it. This ensures that the discrepancy is noted and the correct quantity is recorded for accurate inventory management.Rate this question:
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- 11.
(605) Whose responsibility is it to identify or verify the identity of a misidentified item?
- A.
Item manager
- B.
Maintenance
- C.
In-checker
- D.
Inspector
Correct Answer
D. InspectorExplanation
The responsibility to identify or verify the identity of a misidentified item lies with the inspector. As an inspector, it is their duty to carefully examine and assess the item to ensure that it is correctly identified. They are trained to spot any discrepancies or errors in the identification process and take appropriate action to rectify the situation. This role is crucial in maintaining accuracy and preventing any potential issues or complications that may arise from misidentified items.Rate this question:
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- 12.
(605) When processing misidentified property, what TEX code is required on the receipt input?
- A.
J
- B.
P
- C.
Q
- D.
Z
Correct Answer
C. QExplanation
The correct answer is Q.Rate this question:
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- 13.
(605) When an item is received with a hidden defect, what code is assigned to process the receipt?
- A.
Transaction exception code P
- B.
Transaction exception code Z
- C.
Supply condition code P
- D.
Supply condition code Z
Correct Answer
B. Transaction exception code ZExplanation
When an item is received with a hidden defect, the code assigned to process the receipt is Transaction exception code Z. This code is used to indicate that there is an issue or exception with the transaction, specifically related to the received item having a hidden defect.Rate this question:
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- 14.
(606) What TEX code is used to process a recoverable item (XF/XD) FOB if the organization no longer requires the item and it is not on that organization’s accountable record?
- A.
*
- B.
+
- C.
-
- D.
@
Correct Answer
B. +Explanation
The plus sign (+) in TEX code is used to process a recoverable item (XF/XD) FOB if the organization no longer requires the item and it is not on that organization's accountable record.Rate this question:
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- 15.
(607) Which materiel management individuals are authorized to determine the condition of property for the supply account?
- A.
In-checkers
- B.
Storage personnel
- C.
Inventory personnel
- D.
Materiel management inspectors
Correct Answer
D. Materiel management inspectorsExplanation
Materiel management inspectors are authorized to determine the condition of property for the supply account. They are responsible for conducting inspections and assessments to ensure that the property is in good condition and meets the required standards. They have the expertise and knowledge to identify any issues or defects in the property and take appropriate actions to rectify them. Their role is crucial in maintaining the quality and integrity of the supply account.Rate this question:
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- 16.
(607) What three things are used to identify an item?
- A.
Reference number, part number, and stock number
- B.
Stock number, nomenclature, and item description
- C.
Stock number, item description, and specifications
- D.
Reference number, stock number, and item description
Correct Answer
D. Reference number, stock number, and item descriptionExplanation
The three things used to identify an item are the reference number, stock number, and item description. The reference number helps to uniquely identify the item and is often used for tracking purposes. The stock number is a specific number assigned to the item for inventory management. The item description provides details about the item's characteristics and features. Together, these three pieces of information help to accurately identify and differentiate the item from others.Rate this question:
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- 17.
(607) What condition tag is used to identify new, used, repaired, or reconditioned serviceable materiel?
- A.
DD Form 1574
- B.
DD Form 1575
- C.
DD Form 1576
- D.
DD Form 1577
Correct Answer
A. DD Form 1574Explanation
The correct answer is DD Form 1574. DD Form 1574 is used to identify new, used, repaired, or reconditioned serviceable materiel.Rate this question:
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- 18.
(607) What is the purpose of the AF Form 2032?
- A.
Updates inspection data
- B.
Identifies condemned items
- C.
Identifies property turned over to maintenance
- D.
Identifies property in stock that has been suspended
Correct Answer
A. Updates inspection dataExplanation
The purpose of the AF Form 2032 is to update inspection data.Rate this question:
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- 19.
(608) For what type of change is an FCH TRIC used?
- A.
Status
- B.
Identity
- C.
Condition
- D.
Serviceability
Correct Answer
B. IdentityExplanation
An FCH TRIC is used for a change related to identity. This could refer to a change in personal information such as name, address, or contact details. It could also refer to a change in identification documents or credentials. The FCH TRIC is likely a form or process specifically designed to handle these types of changes and ensure that accurate and up-to-date identity information is maintained.Rate this question:
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- 20.
(608) An organizational refusal would be a customer’s responsibility if the
- A.
Property was misidentified
- B.
Customer failed to cancel the due-out
- C.
Property delivered was an unsuitable substitute
- D.
Quantity issued was in excess of what the customer ordered
Correct Answer
B. Customer failed to cancel the due-outExplanation
If the customer failed to cancel the due-out, it means that they did not notify the organization that they no longer needed the property. This would result in the organization refusing to take responsibility for the property, as it was the customer's responsibility to cancel the due-out in order to avoid unnecessary delivery or storage costs.Rate this question:
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- 21.
(609) When deficiencies are noted during a scheduled warehouse surveillance, within how many days does the inspector conduct a follow-up inspection?
- A.
2
- B.
5
- C.
7
- D.
10
Correct Answer
D. 10Explanation
When deficiencies are noted during a scheduled warehouse surveillance, the inspector conducts a follow-up inspection within 10 days. This allows the inspector to assess whether the noted deficiencies have been addressed and corrected by the warehouse management. Conducting a follow-up inspection within a relatively short timeframe ensures that any identified issues are promptly resolved, maintaining the safety and efficiency of the warehouse operations.Rate this question:
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- 22.
(609) Who schedules and accomplishes an aggressive surveillance inspection program for all items in storage?
- A.
Inspector
- B.
Logistics manager
- C.
Accountable officer
- D.
Warehouse supervisor
Correct Answer
A. InspectorExplanation
The correct answer is "Inspector." An inspector is responsible for scheduling and carrying out surveillance inspections for all items in storage. They ensure that the items are being properly stored and maintained, and that any necessary repairs or improvements are made. The inspector plays a crucial role in maintaining the quality and condition of the stored items.Rate this question:
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- 23.
(610) Where are all unresolved supply discrepancy reports forwarded to when additional help is needed?
- A.
MAJCOM
- B.
Stock control function
- C.
Accountable officer
- D.
Item manager
Correct Answer
A. MAJCOMExplanation
Unresolved supply discrepancy reports are forwarded to the MAJCOM (Major Command) when additional help is needed. The MAJCOM is responsible for overseeing and coordinating the operations of multiple subordinate units within a specific geographical area. By forwarding the reports to the MAJCOM, it ensures that the appropriate level of authority and resources are involved in resolving the supply discrepancies. The MAJCOM can then allocate the necessary support and guidance to address the issues and ensure timely resolution.Rate this question:
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- 24.
(610) Which materiel management function evaluates and controls incoming SDR?
- A.
Receiving
- B.
Inspection
- C.
Procedures
- D.
Stock control
Correct Answer
C. ProceduresExplanation
The correct answer is "Procedures." Procedures refer to the set of guidelines and protocols that are followed to evaluate and control incoming SDR (Supply Discrepancy Report). These procedures ensure that the incoming SDR is properly assessed and managed in the materiel management process. Receiving involves physically receiving the items, inspection involves checking the quality and condition of the items, and stock control involves managing and monitoring the inventory levels. However, none of these functions specifically evaluate and control incoming SDR, which is why the correct answer is procedures.Rate this question:
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- 25.
(611) At what temperature must a refrigerated storage chill space be maintained?
- A.
Between 50 and 60°F
- B.
Between 32 and 50°F
- C.
Below 32°F
- D.
Below 0°F
Correct Answer
B. Between 32 and 50°FExplanation
A refrigerated storage chill space must be maintained between 32 and 50°F. This temperature range ensures that the food or other perishable items stored in the space are kept at a safe temperature to prevent spoilage and bacterial growth. Temperatures below 32°F may freeze the items, while temperatures above 50°F may allow bacteria to grow and cause foodborne illnesses.Rate this question:
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- 26.
(611) What are the two types of open storage areas?
- A.
Surfaced and graded
- B.
Graded and covered
- C.
Graded and improved
- D.
Improved and unimproved
Correct Answer
D. Improved and unimprovedExplanation
The two types of open storage areas are improved and unimproved. Improved storage areas are those that have been modified or enhanced in some way to make them more suitable for storage purposes, such as adding pavement, fencing, or lighting. Unimproved storage areas, on the other hand, are not modified or enhanced and may lack basic infrastructure or amenities.Rate this question:
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- 27.
(611) What protects items placed in open storage from wet ground conditions?
- A.
Concrete
- B.
Drainage
- C.
Steel mats
- D.
Crushed stone
Correct Answer
B. DrainageExplanation
Drainage protects items placed in open storage from wet ground conditions by providing a system for water to flow away from the area. This helps to prevent water from pooling and soaking the items, keeping them dry and protected.Rate this question:
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- 28.
(611) What is a major disadvantage in the use of unimproved open storage?
- A.
Adverse weather
- B.
Wet ground conditions
- C.
Slipping on steel mat toppings
- D.
Limited use of MHE
Correct Answer
D. Limited use of MHEExplanation
The major disadvantage in the use of unimproved open storage is the limited use of Material Handling Equipment (MHE). Unimproved open storage areas lack proper infrastructure and organization, making it difficult for MHE to operate efficiently. This limitation can result in slower and less effective handling of materials, leading to decreased productivity and potential delays in operations.Rate this question:
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- 29.
(612) The basic resource of any materiel management and distribution operation is the
- A.
Materiel handling equipment
- B.
Gross space available
- C.
Storage space
- D.
Storage plan
Correct Answer
C. Storage spaceExplanation
The correct answer is "storage space." In any materiel management and distribution operation, having sufficient storage space is crucial. This is because storage space is the basic resource that allows for the organization and proper storage of materials and products. Without adequate storage space, it would be difficult to effectively manage and distribute the materiel, leading to inefficiencies and potential disruptions in the operation.Rate this question:
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- 30.
(612) When planning a warehouse layout, what type of space must be kept to a minimum so as to increase storage space and utilization?
- A.
Bin rows
- B.
Work areas
- C.
Bulk storage
- D.
Special storage
Correct Answer
B. Work areasExplanation
When planning a warehouse layout, it is important to keep work areas to a minimum in order to increase storage space and utilization. Work areas take up valuable space that could otherwise be used for storing inventory. By minimizing work areas, more space can be allocated for storage, allowing for greater storage capacity and efficiency in the warehouse.Rate this question:
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- 31.
(613) Warehouse stockrooms are sequenced from
- A.
Left to right only
- B.
Right to left only
- C.
Left to right and front to rear
- D.
Right to left and rear to front
Correct Answer
C. Left to right and front to rearExplanation
Warehouse stockrooms are typically sequenced from left to right and front to rear in order to optimize efficiency and organization. This sequencing allows for easier navigation and retrieval of items, as well as maximizing the use of space within the stockroom. By following a consistent left to right and front to rear sequence, employees can quickly locate and access the desired items without wasting time or effort. This method also helps in maintaining an accurate inventory system, as it ensures that items are consistently stored and accounted for in a systematic manner.Rate this question:
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- 32.
(613) What designator is used to identify the storage level in a warehouse location?
- A.
Single number
- B.
Single capital letter
- C.
Two-position number
- D.
Two-position capital letters
Correct Answer
B. Single capital letterExplanation
A single capital letter is used to identify the storage level in a warehouse location. This designator helps to distinguish different levels of storage within the warehouse, making it easier to locate and retrieve items. Using a single capital letter allows for a simple and efficient system of organization, as it provides a clear and concise identifier for each storage level.Rate this question:
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- 33.
(613) What is used to identify a bin subdivision in the warehouse location code 05C045F056D?
- A.
045
- B.
056
- C.
F
- D.
D
Correct Answer
D. DExplanation
The letter "D" is used to identify a bin subdivision in the warehouse location code 05C045F056D.Rate this question:
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- 34.
(613) What letter or symbol is entered in the “Warehouse Location Delete Flag” field when deleting a warehouse location?
- A.
R
- B.
D
- C.
#
- D.
*
Correct Answer
D. *Explanation
The correct answer is "*". When deleting a warehouse location, the "*" symbol is entered in the "Warehouse Location Delete Flag" field. This symbol is commonly used to indicate a deletion or removal action in various systems and databases.Rate this question:
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- 35.
(613) What supply product is used to clear the warehouse location suspense file?
- A.
Document log
- B.
Transaction log
- C.
Central locator listing
- D.
Daily document register (D04)
Correct Answer
D. Daily document register (D04)Explanation
The daily document register (D04) is used to clear the warehouse location suspense file. This register keeps track of all the documents that are processed daily, including those that are stored in the warehouse location suspense file. By consulting the daily document register, warehouse personnel can ensure that all the necessary documents have been accounted for and properly cleared from the suspense file, maintaining accurate inventory records and preventing any discrepancies or errors in the warehouse.Rate this question:
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- 36.
(614) Within how many workdays of the start of a cycle inventory should the storage activity complete scheduled validations?
- A.
3
- B.
7
- C.
10
- D.
14
Correct Answer
C. 10Explanation
Within 10 workdays of the start of a cycle inventory, the storage activity should complete scheduled validations. This means that the storage activity has a maximum of 10 workdays to finish the necessary checks and verifications for the cycle inventory. It is important for the validations to be completed within this timeframe to ensure the accuracy and efficiency of the inventory management process.Rate this question:
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- 37.
(614) How many days before the start of a warehouse validation is a warehouse validation parameter input prepared?
- A.
1
- B.
3
- C.
5
- D.
7
Correct Answer
A. 1Explanation
The correct answer is 1 because the question is asking how many days before the start of a warehouse validation the parameter input is prepared. Since the answer is 1, it means that the parameter input is prepared one day before the start of the warehouse validation.Rate this question:
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- 38.
(615) The practice of storing items in a way that causes a loss of storage space is called
- A.
Honeycombing
- B.
Cross stacking
- C.
Mezzanine storage
- D.
Potential vacant space
Correct Answer
A. HoneycombingExplanation
Honeycombing refers to the practice of storing items in a way that causes a loss of storage space. This means that there are gaps or voids left between items, resulting in inefficient use of the available storage area. This can occur when items are not stacked or arranged properly, leaving empty spaces that could have been utilized for storage. Honeycombing can lead to wasted space and reduced storage capacity, making it important to optimize storage methods to maximize efficiency.Rate this question:
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- 39.
(615) Markings found on containers that do not apply to presently packaged materials need to be
- A.
Saved as historical data
- B.
Obliterated
- C.
Recycled
- D.
Ignored
Correct Answer
B. ObliteratedExplanation
Markings found on containers that do not apply to presently packaged materials need to be obliterated. This means that any markings or labels that are no longer relevant or accurate should be removed or erased. This is important to ensure that there is no confusion or misinformation about the contents of the container. By obliterating these markings, it helps to maintain the integrity and accuracy of the packaging.Rate this question:
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- 40.
(616) Which TRIC identifies a warehouse change document for an indicative data change?
- A.
FCD
- B.
FIC
- C.
FCH
- D.
1SC
Correct Answer
B. FICExplanation
The TRIC "FIC" identifies a warehouse change document for an indicative data change.Rate this question:
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- 41.
(616) What TRIC identifies items that have been misidentified by the manufacturer?
- A.
FCC
- B.
FCI
- C.
FCH
- D.
FCU
Correct Answer
C. FCHExplanation
The correct answer is FCH. TRIC is a system used by the Department of Defense to track and identify items. In this context, the TRIC system identifies items that have been misidentified by the manufacturer.Rate this question:
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- 42.
(617) Which phrase on an issue or shipment document requires you to validate the serviceable balance of property in location?
- A.
ZERO BAL
- B.
SERV BAL = 0
- C.
SERV BAL = 1
- D.
INSUFFICIENT BAL
Correct Answer
B. SERV BAL = 0Explanation
The phrase "SERV BAL = 0" on an issue or shipment document requires you to validate the serviceable balance of property in the location. This means that you need to ensure that the serviceable balance of the property in that specific location is equal to zero.Rate this question:
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- 43.
(617) Which scenario is an example of a warehouse refusal?
- A.
Wrong part is delivered to a customer
- B.
Item in stock requires a supply deficiency report
- C.
Inquiry shows that the on-hand balance of an asset is zero
- D.
Quantity in location needed to fill an issue request is not sufficient
Correct Answer
D. Quantity in location needed to fill an issue request is not sufficientExplanation
A warehouse refusal occurs when the quantity in the location is not sufficient to fill an issue request. This means that the warehouse is unable to provide the requested quantity of the item, resulting in a refusal to fulfill the request.Rate this question:
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- 44.
(618) Which issue exception codes identify health hazard items?
- A.
3, 6, or N
- B.
E, F, or 7
- C.
8, 9, or M
- D.
H, G, or 8
Correct Answer
C. 8, 9, or MExplanation
Exception codes are used in the transportation of hazardous materials to identify specific items that pose a health hazard. In this case, the correct answer is 8, 9, or M. These codes indicate items that are toxic or infectious substances, which can cause harm to human health.Rate this question:
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- 45.
(618) As a minimum, how often must a utility program be run to identify potentially hazardous item records that do not have an issue exception code or health hazard flag assigned?
- A.
Daily
- B.
Weekly
- C.
Monthly
- D.
Quarterly
Correct Answer
C. MonthlyExplanation
To identify potentially hazardous item records that do not have an issue exception code or health hazard flag assigned, a utility program must be run at least once a month. This frequency ensures that any potential hazards are identified and addressed in a timely manner. Running the program less frequently may result in a delay in identifying these hazards, which could lead to safety issues or other problems.Rate this question:
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- 46.
(618) Which health hazard code indicates an item is a serious hazard and requires special control?
- A.
1
- B.
8
- C.
9
- D.
M
Correct Answer
C. 9Explanation
Health hazard code 9 indicates that an item is a serious hazard and requires special control. This code is used for substances or mixtures that are capable of causing serious health effects, such as carcinogenicity, reproductive toxicity, or respiratory sensitization. It is important to handle and control these items carefully to minimize the risk to human health.Rate this question:
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- 47.
(619) Which corrosives are incompatible and should be separated in storage?
- A.
Peroxyacetic acid and hydrochloric acid
- B.
Organic and nonorganic acid
- C.
Acetic and nonacetic
- D.
Acids and alkalis
Correct Answer
D. Acids and alkalisExplanation
Acids and alkalis should be separated in storage because they are incompatible and can react with each other. Mixing acids and alkalis can result in the release of heat, gases, or even explosions. It is important to store them separately to prevent any accidental reactions and ensure the safety of the storage area.Rate this question:
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- 48.
(619) What type of storage is best suited for pesticides, poisons, and certain batteries?
- A.
High risk
- B.
Flammable
- C.
Corrosive
- D.
Low hazard
Correct Answer
D. Low hazardExplanation
Low hazard storage is best suited for pesticides, poisons, and certain batteries because it indicates that these items do not pose a significant risk or danger. This type of storage typically involves minimal safety precautions and can be safely stored without special considerations or restrictions. Flammable, corrosive, and high-risk storage would not be appropriate for these items as they have the potential to cause fires, explosions, or other hazardous situations.Rate this question:
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- 49.
(620) When chemical and chemical and petroleum products reach their retest dates, what TRIC is input to suspend the outdated materiel on an unserviceable detail and prevent reissue?
- A.
FCA
- B.
FCB
- C.
FCC
- D.
FCD
Correct Answer
C. FCCExplanation
The TRIC FCC is used to suspend outdated chemical and petroleum products on an unserviceable detail and prevent reissue. This means that when these products reach their retest dates, they are no longer considered usable and should not be issued to anyone. Instead, they are flagged as unserviceable and suspended from further use to ensure safety and prevent any potential harm that may arise from using expired materials.Rate this question:
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- 50.
(620) What is the Air Force source for hazardous material data and pollution prevention information?
- A.
AFEMS
- B.
AF-CMOS
- C.
AF-EMIS
- D.
AF-HAZMAT
Correct Answer
C. AF-EMISExplanation
AF-EMIS stands for Air Force Environmental Management Information System. It is the Air Force source for hazardous material data and pollution prevention information. This system provides comprehensive data on hazardous materials and helps in managing and preventing pollution. It is a reliable source for the Air Force to access information related to hazardous materials and pollution prevention measures.Rate this question:
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Mar 16, 2023Quiz Edited by
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Jul 23, 2012Quiz Created by
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