2S051 CDC Material Management Quiz! Trivia

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1. What information must be annotated on all documentation for small arms?

Explanation

All documentation for small arms must include the serial number. This is a unique identifier assigned to each individual firearm, allowing for easy tracking and identification. The serial number is essential for record-keeping, inventory management, and tracing the ownership history of the weapon. It helps authorities in investigating crimes, tracking stolen firearms, and ensuring accountability in the use and transfer of small arms.

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About This Quiz
2S051 CDC Material Management Quiz! Trivia - Quiz

This 2S051 CDC Material Management Quiz assesses knowledge of Air Force material management duties, responsibilities, and logistics processes. It covers AFMAN 36-2101 guidelines, roles in material management, and... see morethe impact of decisions in an enterprise-wide context, ideal for enhancing operational understanding. see less

2. Management notices can easiley be readily identified by what letters preceding the management code and phrase?

Explanation

Management notices can easily be readily identified by the letters "MGT" preceding the management code and phrase. This abbreviation is commonly used to represent the word "management" and is often used in various contexts to indicate information or actions related to the management of a particular organization or system. Therefore, when these letters are present before a management code or phrase, it indicates that the notice is specifically related to management matters.

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3. What are the two types of open storage areas?

Explanation

The correct answer is "Improved and unimproved." Open storage areas can be classified into two types based on their condition and level of development. "Improved" storage areas refer to those that have undergone enhancements or modifications to make them more suitable for storage purposes. These improvements may include the addition of infrastructure, such as fencing, lighting, or pavement. On the other hand, "unimproved" storage areas are those that have not undergone any significant modifications and may lack proper infrastructure or organization.

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4. Markings found on containers that do NOT apply to presently packaged materiels need to be ______

Explanation

When markings on containers do not apply to the currently packaged materials, they need to be obliterated. This means that the markings should be removed or erased to avoid confusion or misinterpretation. By obliterating the markings, it ensures that the containers are properly labeled and that there is no misleading information that could potentially lead to accidents or mistakes.

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5. Who should help a driver back a vehicle into position for offloading?

Explanation

A spotter should help a driver back a vehicle into position for offloading. A spotter is someone who assists the driver by guiding them and providing directions to ensure the safe and accurate positioning of the vehicle. They help the driver avoid obstacles, maintain proper alignment, and prevent any potential accidents or damage during the backing maneuver. The spotter's role is crucial in ensuring the efficient and safe offloading of the vehicle.

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6. Which LRS flight is reponsible for stocking , storing, issueing, managing, inverntorying, and shipping DOD supplies and equipment?

Explanation

Materiel Management is responsible for stocking, storing, issuing, managing, inventorying, and shipping DOD supplies and equipment. This department handles all aspects of the supply chain, ensuring that the necessary materials are available when needed and properly managed. They oversee the inventory, track shipments, and ensure that supplies are distributed efficiently to meet mission requirements.

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7. What type of materiel management source documents are NOT placed in a permanent codument file?

Explanation

Source documents with file indicator D are not placed in a permanent document file.

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8. Warehouse stockrooms are sequenced from___

Explanation

Warehouse stockrooms are sequenced from left to right and front to rear in order to create an organized and efficient system for storing and retrieving items. This sequencing allows for easy navigation and reduces the time and effort required to locate specific items within the stockroom. By following a consistent left to right and front to rear sequence, warehouse staff can quickly and accurately fulfill orders and maintain inventory control.

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9. The practice of storing items in a way that causes a loss of storage space is called _____

Explanation

Honeycombing refers to the practice of storing items in a way that causes a loss of storage space. This term is commonly used in logistics and warehousing industries to describe inefficient storage practices where empty spaces are left between items, resulting in wasted storage capacity.

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10. What is the largest subdivision of the AFMAN 23-110?

Explanation

The correct answer is "Volume". In the AFMAN 23-110, the largest subdivision is the volume. A volume is a larger division that contains multiple sections, parts, and paragraphs. It is used to organize and categorize information in a comprehensive manner.

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11. How are hyperlinks identified in the AFMAN23-110?

Explanation

In the AFMAN23-110, hyperlinks are identified by blue text.

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12. How many characters make up a NSN?

Explanation

A NSN (National Stock Number) is a 13-digit numeric code used by NATO countries to identify standardized items of supply. Each NSN consists of four parts: the Federal Supply Group (FSG), the Federal Supply Class (FSC), the country code (CAGE code), and the item number. Therefore, the correct answer is 13, as it accurately represents the number of characters required to make up a NSN.

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13. What two entities make up the NSN?

Explanation

The NSN (National Stock Number) is made up of two entities: the Federal Supply Class (FSC) and the National Item Identification Number (NIIN). The FSC is a four-digit code that categorizes items based on their similarities in terms of function and physical characteristics. The NIIN is a nine-digit number that uniquely identifies each item within a specific FSC. Therefore, the correct answer is Federal Supply Class and NIIN.

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14. The ERRCD for bench stock iems must be____

Explanation

The correct answer is XB3. The ERRCD (Equipment Readiness Reporting Condition Code) for bench stock items refers to the condition code that indicates the readiness status of the items. XB3 is likely the correct answer because it represents a specific condition code that is applicable to bench stock items. However, without further context or information, it is difficult to provide a more detailed explanation.

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15. Local Manufacturing is a term that describes an item ____.

Explanation

Local Manufacturing refers to the process of creating or producing an item within a specific locality or base. In this context, it means that the item is being fabricated or produced by a maintenance activity on the base itself. This suggests that the base has the necessary facilities and resources to manufacture the item internally, rather than relying on external sources or suppliers.

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16. The receiving in-checker sends suspected tampered items to the ___

Explanation

The receiving in-checker is responsible for checking the items received for any signs of tampering. If they suspect that an item has been tampered with, they would send it to the materiel management inspector. The materiel management inspector is trained to thoroughly examine the item and determine if any tampering has occurred. They play a crucial role in ensuring the integrity and safety of the received items.

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17. What protects items placed in open storage from wet ground conditions?

Explanation

Drainage protects items placed in open storage from wet ground conditions by providing a system to remove excess water and prevent it from accumulating around the items. This can be achieved through the use of drains, pipes, or other mechanisms that redirect the water away from the storage area. By ensuring proper drainage, the items are kept dry and protected from potential damage caused by moisture.

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18. What anaylsis method do you use most often for recurring reports or for comparing statistical data with standards and norms?

Explanation

Trend analysis is the most commonly used method for recurring reports or comparing statistical data with standards and norms. This method involves analyzing the data over a period of time to identify patterns, trends, and changes. By examining the data trends, organizations can make informed decisions, identify areas for improvement, and measure performance against benchmarks. Trend analysis helps in understanding the direction and magnitude of changes, making it a valuable tool for monitoring and evaluating performance over time.

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19. Which Expenitonary Logistics 21st Centry (eLOG 21) effect ensures logistics decsoins are made and actions are taken with an understanding of their impact across the entire Air Force?

Explanation

The correct answer is Effect one: Enterprise View. This effect ensures that logistics decisions are made and actions are taken with an understanding of their impact across the entire Air Force. By having an enterprise view, logistics professionals can consider the broader implications and consequences of their decisions, allowing for more effective and efficient resource allocation and management. This helps to avoid siloed thinking and promotes a more holistic approach to logistics operations.

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20. What LRS flight provides centralized command control, planning and execution of all wing deployment operations and the distrubution of cargo, passengers, and personal property?

Explanation

The correct answer is Deployment and Distribution. This flight is responsible for overseeing all wing deployment operations, including the planning, execution, and control of these operations. They also handle the distribution of cargo, passengers, and personal property during these deployments. This flight plays a crucial role in ensuring that all necessary resources and personnel are efficiently and effectively deployed to support mission requirements.

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21. Which check is not required by the receiving in-checker?

Explanation

The receiving in-checker does not need to verify the warehouse location because it is already known and assigned to the specific NSN (National Stock Number) being received. The warehouse location is predetermined and does not need to be checked again during the receiving process. The in-checker only needs to ensure that the correct NSN, unit of issue, and quantity are received and match the information in the system.

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22. Which issue exception code identify health hazard items?

Explanation

The correct answer is 8 9 or M. This is because health hazard items are identified by exception codes 8, 9, or M.

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23. Which corrosives are incompatible and should be serperated in storage?

Explanation

Acids and alkalis should be separated in storage because they are incompatible. Acids are substances that release hydrogen ions when dissolved in water, while alkalis are substances that release hydroxide ions when dissolved in water. When acids and alkalis come into contact, a neutralization reaction occurs, resulting in the formation of water and a salt. This reaction can be exothermic and may release harmful gases or cause the mixture to become unstable. Therefore, it is important to store acids and alkalis separately to prevent any accidental reactions or hazards.

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24. At what temperature must a refrigerated storage CHILL space be maintained?

Explanation

A refrigerated storage CHILL space must be maintained between 32 and 50 degrees Fahrenheit in order to keep the stored items at a cool but not freezing temperature. This range ensures that the items remain fresh and safe for consumption without the risk of freezing or spoilage.

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25. Which hand-held terminal function allows the user to place items into the warehouse location?

Explanation

The correct answer is "Put Away." This function allows the user to place items into the warehouse location. It is a common term used in inventory management systems to describe the process of storing goods in their designated locations within a warehouse. This function helps ensure efficient organization and easy retrieval of items when needed.

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26. Which type of MOBAG contain chemical warfare defense equipment?

Explanation

MOBAG stands for Mobile Army Surgical Hospital. It is a type of field hospital used by the military. Option C is the correct answer because it states that this type of MOBAG contains chemical warfare defense equipment. This means that MOBAG C is equipped to handle and treat casualties from chemical warfare attacks.

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27. How would the document file name for volume 2, part 2, chapter 3 be indentified in a search of AFMAN 23-110?

Explanation

In a search of AFMAN 23-110, the document file name for volume 2, part 2, chapter 3 would be identified as 020203.

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28. An organizational refusal would be a customer's responsibilty if the ____

Explanation

If the customer fails to cancel the due-out, it means that they did not inform the organization that they no longer require the property. This lack of communication on the customer's part results in the organization still delivering the property, even though it is not needed. Therefore, the responsibility for the organizational refusal falls on the customer in this scenario.

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29. With in how many workdays should ALL Material Management Systems rejects normally be processed?

Explanation

Material Management Systems rejects should normally be processed within 1 workday. This means that any rejected materials should be addressed and resolved within a maximum of 1 business day. This ensures that any issues or problems with the materials are quickly identified and resolved, minimizing any delays or disruptions in the overall material management process. Processing the rejects promptly also helps maintain an efficient and effective material management system, ensuring that only high-quality materials are used in the production or operational processes.

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30. When signed by the property custodian which listing serves as a custody receipt?

Explanation

The custodian authorization/ custody receipt listing serves as a custody receipt when signed by the property custodian. This listing is a document that acknowledges the transfer of custody of property from one person to another. It provides a record of the items entrusted to the custodian and serves as proof of their responsibility for the property.

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31. Before accepting a shipment, the receiving function representative must ensure that ____

Explanation

The receiving function representative must ensure that all containers are accounted for before accepting a shipment. This means that they need to check and confirm that all the containers that were supposed to be included in the shipment are actually present. This is important to ensure that nothing is missing or lost during transit. By verifying the number of containers, the receiving function representative can ensure that the shipment is complete and accurate.

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32. Which class of supply includes weapons?

Explanation

Class II supplies include weapons.

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33. What Materiel Management System process is activated if assets are insuffecient to satisfy the requirment on the requested item?

Explanation

The Materiel Management System process that is activated when there are insufficient assets to satisfy the requirement on the requested item is the "Due-out" process. This process involves recording and tracking items that are requested but not currently available or in stock. It helps to ensure that the requested items are eventually obtained and delivered to fulfill the requirement.

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34. Which action code on an item record inquiry in the Materiel Management System is used to obtain specefic information?

Explanation

The action code "record retrieval" on an item record inquiry in the Materiel Management System is used to obtain specific information. This action allows the user to retrieve detailed records related to a particular item, such as its current status, location, and transaction history. By selecting this option, users can access the specific information they need about an item in the system.

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35. Which chapter in the AFMAN 23-110, volume 2, part 2, identifies the action required to correct the Material Management System rejects created during processing?

Explanation

Chapter 7 in AFMAN 23-110, volume 2, part 2 identifies the action required to correct the Material Management System rejects created during processing.

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36. The Consilidated Inventorty Adjustment Document (1AD) Register (M10) must contain an entry for each adjustment transaction appearing on what two categories?

Explanation

The Consolidated Inventory Adjustment Document (1AD) Register (M10) must contain an entry for each adjustment transaction appearing on categories D04 and D06. This means that any adjustment transaction that falls under these two categories should be recorded in the register.

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37. What is the purpose of the shipment-suspense program?

Explanation

The purpose of the shipment-suspense program is to ensure that an item has been shipped. This program is designed to track and monitor the status of shipments, ensuring that they have been successfully sent out to the intended recipients. It helps in verifying that the shipping process has been completed and allows for effective management of inventory and customer satisfaction.

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38. In Discoverer, what function allows youb to transfer data to other application formats?

Explanation

The correct answer is Export. In Discoverer, the Export function allows you to transfer data to other application formats. This means you can save the data from Discoverer in a format that can be opened and used in other applications, such as Excel or a database program. This is useful for sharing or analyzing the data in different ways outside of Discoverer.

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39. When planning a warehouse layout, what type of space must be kept to a minimum so as to increase storage abd utilization?

Explanation

When planning a warehouse layout, it is important to keep work areas to a minimum in order to increase storage and utilization. Work areas take up valuable space that could be used for storage, so minimizing them allows for more efficient use of the warehouse. By reducing the amount of space dedicated to work areas, more room can be allocated for storing goods, maximizing storage capacity and increasing overall efficiency.

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40. What is the TRIC code used for an automated reverse-post transaction?

Explanation

The TRIC code 1AM is used for an automated reverse-post transaction.

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41. Shelf life assets are tracked in the MICAS by_____.

Explanation

Shelf life assets, which are items that have a limited lifespan or expiration date, are tracked in the MICAS system using the contract/lot number. This number helps to identify the specific batch or lot of the asset, allowing for better management of inventory and ensuring that items are used or disposed of before their expiration date. Tracking shelf life assets by contract/lot number also enables easier recall or replacement of expired items if necessary.

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42. What process verifies that the user has placed an item in the correct location in the warehouse?

Explanation

The process of "Put Away" verifies that the user has placed an item in the correct location in the warehouse. This process involves taking the item from its current location and placing it in its designated storage location within the warehouse. By completing the "Put Away" process, the user ensures that the item is correctly positioned and organized within the warehouse, making it easier to locate and retrieve when needed.

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43. Under the CTH system, which option displays a list of abbreviated histories on your terminal screen or in print?

Explanation

Under the CTH system, the option "Abbreviated format (option A)" displays a list of abbreviated histories on your terminal screen or in print. This means that selecting this option will provide a condensed version of the histories, allowing for a quicker and more concise overview of the information.

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44. Which of the following is NOT a factor to consider when operating MHHS to ensure unsafe incidents are eliminated?

Explanation

When operating MHHS (Mobile Hydraulic Hand System), it is crucial to consider various factors to ensure the elimination of unsafe incidents. Factors such as operational deficiencies, workload breakdown, and general layout are all important considerations. However, cost is not directly related to the safety of operating MHHS. While cost may indirectly impact safety by influencing the availability of resources or maintenance, it is not a factor that directly contributes to the elimination of unsafe incidents. Therefore, cost is the correct answer as it does not fall under the factors to consider for ensuring safety.

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45. Which program in the Material Management Systems takes control of processing an error deteced during processing of a transaction?

Explanation

The program in the Material Management Systems that takes control of processing an error detected during processing of a transaction is the "Reject" program. This program is responsible for handling and managing any errors or issues that occur during the processing of a transaction, ensuring that the transaction is not completed and appropriate action is taken to resolve the error.

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46. What CD-ROM based research system can be used to cross relate part numbers and stock numbers?

Explanation

FEDLOG is the correct answer because it is a CD-ROM based research system that can be used to cross relate part numbers and stock numbers. It is a comprehensive cataloging system used by the US Department of Defense to manage and track their supply chain. FEDLOG allows users to access information about various parts and supplies, including their part numbers and stock numbers, making it a useful tool for cross-referencing and inventory management.

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47. MOBAGs can be built ahead of time and stored using what method?

Explanation

MOBAGs can be built ahead of time and stored using the method of tariff-sizing. Tariff-sizing refers to the process of determining the appropriate size or quantity of items based on predetermined tariffs or rates. In the context of MOBAGs, tariff-sizing would involve determining the optimal number of bags to be built and stored in order to meet demand and minimize costs. This method ensures that the right amount of MOBAGs are available when needed, without excessive storage or wastage.

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48. Who is responsible for ensuring that all local resources are exhausted prior to submitting a MICAP requistion to the source of supply?

Explanation

Both Materiel Management and Maintenance are responsible for ensuring that all local resources are exhausted prior to submitting a MICAP requisition to the source of supply. This means that both departments need to work together to exhaust all available resources and options before requesting additional supplies from the source of supply.

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49. An automatic adjustment for a pilferable item occurs when the record balance does not agree with the recount quantity and the dollar value of the adjustment is at least less then ___

Explanation

An automatic adjustment for a pilferable item occurs when the record balance does not agree with the recount quantity and the dollar value of the adjustment is at least less than $100. This means that if the discrepancy in the record balance and the actual quantity of the item is less than $100, an automatic adjustment will be made to correct the balance.

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50. The intent of Enterprise Asset Visibility component is to provide complete visibility of Air Force _______

Explanation

The intent of the Enterprise Asset Visibility component is to provide complete visibility of Air Force owned assets. This means that the component aims to give a comprehensive view of all the assets that belong to the Air Force. It includes assets that are directly owned by the Air Force and not those that are sourced or acquired from external parties. The focus is on ensuring visibility and tracking of the assets that are under the direct ownership and control of the Air Force.

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51. The decision to transfer MRSP rest with the host and the ____.

Explanation

The decision to transfer MRSP rests with the host and the gaining MAJCOM. This means that the host, who currently has control over the MRSP, and the gaining MAJCOM, who will be receiving control over the MRSP, are the ones responsible for making the decision regarding the transfer. The losing Accountable officer and losing MAJCOM are not directly involved in this decision-making process.

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52. What letter or symbol is entered in the "Warehouse Location Delete Flag" field when deleting a warehouse location?

Explanation

The asterisk (*) symbol is entered in the "Warehouse Location Delete Flag" field when deleting a warehouse location. This symbol is commonly used in computer systems to indicate a wildcard or a placeholder. In this context, it likely signifies that the warehouse location is being marked for deletion, allowing the system to recognize and handle the deletion request accordingly.

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53. What supply product is used to clear the warehouse location suspense file?

Explanation

The daily document register (D04) is used to clear the warehouse location suspense file. This register keeps track of all the documents and transactions that occur on a daily basis. By using this register, the warehouse can ensure that all the items in the suspense file are properly accounted for and cleared. The daily document register helps in maintaining an accurate record of the warehouse's activities and ensures that there are no discrepancies or missing items in the location suspense file.

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54. Which materiel management individuals are authorized to determine the condition of property for the supply account?

Explanation

Materiel management inspectors are authorized to determine the condition of property for the supply account. These individuals are specifically trained and responsible for inspecting and evaluating the condition of materials and equipment. They have the knowledge and expertise to assess the quality, functionality, and overall condition of the property. This ensures that only items in good condition are included in the supply account, preventing the distribution of faulty or damaged goods.

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55. In support of the eLOG21 intergrated processes, which is NOT a resource?

Explanation

In the context of eLOG21 integrated processes, technology is not considered a resource. Resources typically refer to tangible assets such as finances, acquisition (procurement), and infrastructure. Technology, on the other hand, is a tool or system that supports the utilization of these resources and enhances the overall process efficiency and effectiveness.

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56. Which class of supply includes ammunition?

Explanation

Class V includes ammunition.

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57. How many days prior to the expiration date should type II self-life items be schedules for serviceablitity testing?

Explanation

Type II self-life items should be scheduled for serviceability testing 15 to 45 days prior to the expiration date. This allows enough time to conduct the necessary tests and make any repairs or adjustments if needed before the items expire. Scheduling the testing too close to the expiration date may not leave enough time for any necessary actions to be taken, while scheduling it too far in advance may result in unnecessary testing and potential waste of resources. Therefore, the optimal timeframe for serviceability testing of type II self-life items is between 15 and 45 days prior to expiration.

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58. The equipment custodian uses which AF Form to request non-equipment authorizations inventory data items?

Explanation

The equipment custodian uses AF Form 2005 to request non-equipment authorizations inventory data items.

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59. Productions shecduling of ALL materiel management computer systems reports and listings must be supported by specefic requirements in AFMAN 23-110; and AF Form 2011, Base Supply ADPE Work request; or _____.

Explanation

The correct answer is an approved supplement. In order for the production scheduling of all material management computer systems reports and listings to be supported, it must be accompanied by specific requirements outlined in AFMAN 23-110 and AF Form 2011, Base Supply ADPE Work request, or an approved supplement. This suggests that there may be additional documentation or guidelines that need to be followed in order to effectively schedule and support these reports and listings.

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60. What computer systems provides interchangable and subsititute group information? 

Explanation

The computer system that provides interchangeable and substitute group information is D043B.

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61. To account for all transactions during degraded operations, the proper paperork must be filled out and maintained until the input into the ____.

Explanation

To account for all transactions during degraded operations, the proper paperwork must be filled out and maintained until the input into the Material Management System. The Material Management System is responsible for tracking and managing all materials and inventory within an organization. By inputting the transactions into this system, the organization can ensure that all records are accurate and up-to-date, even during degraded operations. This allows for proper accounting and management of materials, ensuring that nothing is lost or overlooked.

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62. Which Maintenance process updates various basic and support records, such as item records, routing indentifier records, and warehouse locations?

Explanation

Miscellaneous file maintenance is the correct answer because it refers to the process of updating various basic and support records, such as item records, routing identifier records, and warehouse locations. This process involves making changes or additions to these files to ensure accurate and up-to-date information for the maintenance of the system. It is an essential part of the overall maintenance process to keep the system running smoothly and efficiently.

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63. Which special-purpose recoverables authorized maintenance (SPRAM) assets is used to detect or isolate fault or problem in online equipment?

Explanation

Fault isolation spares are special-purpose recoverable authorized maintenance (SPRAM) assets used to detect or isolate faults or problems in online equipment. These spares are specifically designed to aid in the troubleshooting and diagnosis process by providing replacement components or tools that can help identify and isolate the source of the fault or problem. By using fault isolation spares, maintenance personnel can quickly identify and resolve issues, minimizing downtime and ensuring the continued operation of the equipment.

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64. What type of assets receives priority handling throughout the receiving process and is never left unattended?

Explanation

Classified assets receive priority handling throughout the receiving process and are never left unattended. Classified assets refer to sensitive information or materials that are deemed confidential or restricted due to their potential to cause harm or compromise national security if accessed by unauthorized individuals. These assets require strict handling procedures, including secure storage, limited access, and constant monitoring to ensure their protection and prevent any potential breaches or theft.

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65. What is the maximum number of characters for the descriptive nomenclature field on an item record?

Explanation

The maximum number of characters for the descriptive nomenclature field on an item record is 32. This means that the field can hold up to 32 characters of text.

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66. What anaylsis method do you use to satisfy one-time requirements or solve a specefic problem?

Explanation

Special studies are used to satisfy one-time requirements or solve specific problems. This analysis method involves conducting in-depth research and analysis on a particular issue or topic. It may involve gathering data, conducting surveys, interviews, or experiments to gain a deeper understanding of the problem and find potential solutions. Special studies allow for a focused and detailed examination of a specific problem or requirement, helping to develop targeted strategies or recommendations.

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67. What marking indetifies the year of manufacture on an aircraft tire?

Explanation

Color tape is used to identify the year of manufacture on an aircraft tire. This tape is typically placed on the tire during the manufacturing process and each color represents a specific year. By checking the color of the tape, maintenance personnel can easily determine the age of the tire and schedule appropriate inspections or replacements.

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68. What is used to identify a bin subdivison in the warehouse location code 05C045F056D?

Explanation

The letter "D" is used to identify a bin subdivision in the warehouse location code 05C045F056D.

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69. What Matereil Management computer listing do you use to reconcile communications security and weapons assets?

Explanation

The correct answer is Weapon/COMSEC Reconciliation (R46). This computer listing is used to reconcile communications security and weapons assets. It helps in ensuring that the inventory of weapons and communications security equipment matches the records, thereby helping to maintain accurate and up-to-date information about these assets. It aids in identifying any discrepancies or discrepancies in the inventory and allows for necessary adjustments or corrections to be made.

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70. What Document identification code indicates a denial to a redistribution order sent by Air For Material Command item managers?

Explanation

The document identification code "B7*" indicates a denial to a redistribution order sent by Air For Material Command item managers.

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71. Supply difficulty for the Air Force-managed items are reported on what AF Form?

Explanation

not-available-via-ai

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72. How many major type of inquires are there in a Materiel Management System?

Explanation

There are four major types of inquiries in a Materiel Management System.

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73. Which product of the MAterial Management System is used to ensure rejects are processed in a timely manner?

Explanation

D818 is the correct answer because it is the product of the Material Management System that is specifically designed to ensure that rejects are processed in a timely manner.

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74. Who deteremines who will process controlled TRIC codes and inform the computer operations terminal security manager which controlled the TRICs each user  ID is authorized to process?

Explanation

Individual flight chiefs and terminal security monitors determine who will process controlled TRIC codes and inform the computer operations terminal security manager which controlled TRICs each user ID is authorized to process.

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75. Which listing is an important tool for monitoring status and maintaining visibility of due-in from maintenance (DIFM) assets?

Explanation

D23 is the correct answer because it is stated that it is an important tool for monitoring status and maintaining visibility of due-in from maintenance (DIFM) assets. This suggests that D23 is a listing or system that helps track the status and visibility of assets that are due for maintenance.

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76. All shipments nad transfers processed through LRS produce what type detail?

Explanation

All shipments and transfers processed through LRS produce shipment-suspense or shipped-not-credited (SNC) details. This means that any items or equipment that are shipped or transferred through LRS are recorded in the shipment-suspense or shipped-not-credited category until they are properly credited or accounted for. This helps in tracking and managing the inventory and ensures that all items are properly accounted for in the system.

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77. When researching a physical overage, what is the maximum number of months from the current date do you go to the last inventory adjustment?

Explanation

When researching a physical overage, it is necessary to go back to the last inventory adjustment to identify any discrepancies. The maximum number of months from the current date that one should go back is 12. This allows for a comprehensive analysis of the inventory adjustments and ensures that any overages are accurately identified and resolved.

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78. Who is responsible for issuing all user and customer identification numbers and privileges and for maintaining the database, restoring files, initilazing the Radio Frequency (RF) network, and the Materiel Management Systems interface?

Explanation

The System Administrator is responsible for issuing all user and customer identification numbers and privileges and for maintaining the database, restoring files, initializing the Radio Frequency (RF) network, and the Materiel Management Systems interface. They have the authority and expertise to manage these tasks efficiently and ensure the smooth functioning of the system.

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79. What designator is used to identify the storage level in a warehouse location?

Explanation

A single capital letter is used to identify the storage level in a warehouse location. This designator helps to categorize and organize the storage areas within the warehouse. Using a single capital letter makes it easier to distinguish between different levels and ensures consistency in the identification system. It is a simple and efficient way to label and locate items within the warehouse, facilitating smooth operations and effective inventory management.

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80. Whose responsibility is it to identify or verify the identity of a misidentified item?

Explanation

The responsibility of identifying or verifying the identity of a misidentified item lies with the inspector. Inspectors are typically trained professionals who are responsible for examining and evaluating items for quality, accuracy, and adherence to standards. They play a crucial role in ensuring that items are correctly identified and meet the required specifications. By carefully inspecting the items, the inspector can identify any misidentifications and take appropriate actions to rectify the issue.

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81. WHich SHipment exception code is used for assets forzen-do not ship?

Explanation

Shipment exception code 1 is used for assets that are frozen and should not be shipped. This code indicates that there is a specific issue or condition with the assets that prevents them from being shipped, such as being frozen or under a legal hold. It is important to identify and appropriately handle these exceptions to ensure that the assets are not shipped and any necessary actions are taken to resolve the issue.

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82. The duties and responsibilities of each Air Force career field or specialty are described in AFMAN 36-

Explanation

The correct answer is 2101 because AFMAN 36-2101 is the specific Air Force Manual that describes the duties and responsibilities of each Air Force career field or specialty. This manual provides detailed information about the expectations and requirements for individuals in the 2101 career field.

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83. Which process is NOT one of the four supply major processes in the Materiel Managaement Systems?

Explanation

The process of Administration is not one of the four major supply processes in the Materiel Management Systems. The four major processes are Item Accounting, File Maintenance, and Accounting and Finance. Administration, although important, is not specifically categorized as one of the major processes in the system.

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84. Once the on-hand quantity reaches zero, the due-in detail record is ___

Explanation

Once the on-hand quantity reaches zero, the due-in detail record is deleted. This means that when there are no more items available in stock, the record of items that are expected to arrive in the future is removed from the system. This is done because there is no longer a need to track the expected arrival of items that are no longer needed or will not be restocked. Deleting the due-in detail record helps to keep the inventory system accurate and up to date.

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85. Which AF Form is used to request a change to allowance standard or request an item that requires apporval under miscellaneous allowance source code?

Explanation

AF Form 601 is the correct answer because it is the form used to request a change to allowance standard or request an item that requires approval under miscellaneous allowance source code. This form is specifically designed for this purpose and is the appropriate form to use when making such requests.

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86. What type of storage is best suited for pesticides, posions, and certain batteries?

Explanation

The correct answer is "Low hazard" because pesticides, poisons, and certain batteries are typically not highly flammable, corrosive, or pose a significant risk. While they may still require proper storage and handling, they are generally considered to have a lower level of hazard compared to other substances.

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87. Which type of  warehouse equipment is part of SAS?

Explanation

General purpose shelves are part of SAS because they are a type of warehouse equipment that can be used to store a wide range of items. They are versatile and can be adjusted to different heights and configurations to accommodate various products. General purpose shelves are commonly used in warehouses to organize and store goods, making them an essential part of SAS.

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88. Which listing is used perform the due-in from maintenance (DIFM) reconciliation?

Explanation

The listing used to perform the due-in from maintenance (DIFM) reconciliation is D23.

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89. The annotated forecast listing of all computer requirement is retuened to the computer room production scheduler by which workday?

Explanation

The annotated forecast listing of all computer requirements is returned to the computer room production scheduler on the 15th workday.

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90. What term is used to describe XD items that are candidates for two-level repair?

Explanation

Depot-level reparables are used to describe XD items that are candidates for two-level repair. These items require more extensive repairs and are typically sent to a central depot for maintenance and refurbishment. This term distinguishes them from shop repairables, which are items that can be repaired at a lower level, such as a local shop or maintenance facility. Equipment reparables and two-level reparables do not accurately describe the specific category of items that are candidates for two-level repair.

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91. What action must be taken on the receipt document for an overage receipt?

Explanation

The correct action to be taken on the receipt document for an overage receipt is to circle the incorrect quantity and put the correct quantity above it. This ensures that the discrepancy in quantity is clearly highlighted and corrected, allowing for accurate record-keeping and inventory management.

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92. What source of supply consists of venders from the local communitity?

Explanation

The correct answer is local purchases. This source of supply consists of vendors from the local community, meaning that the organization procures goods and services from local suppliers within the community. This helps to support the local economy and builds a sense of community engagement and support.

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93. Which report is transmitted to the application sourse of supply to report the initiation termination, or change to a MICAP condition?

Explanation

The correct answer is MICAP report (B9*). This report is transmitted to the application source of supply to report the initiation, termination, or change to a MICAP (Mission Capability) condition. It provides information about the status of critical items needed for mission readiness, allowing the application source of supply to take appropriate actions to ensure the availability of these items.

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94. What does the Pull process involve?

Explanation

The Pull process involves issuing property from the warehouse. This means that when a customer requests a specific item, it is retrieved from the warehouse and given to the customer. The Pull process is a key step in ensuring that the correct items are delivered to the customers in a timely manner.

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95. Which scenario is an examble of a warehouse refusal?

Explanation

A warehouse refusal occurs when the quantity in the location is not sufficient to fulfill an issue request. This means that the warehouse does not have enough of the item in stock to fulfill the request, resulting in a refusal to provide the requested quantity.

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96. Where are all unresolved supply discrepancy reports forwarded to when additional help is needed?

Explanation

When additional help is needed for unresolved supply discrepancy reports, they are forwarded to the MAJCOM (Major Command). MAJCOM is responsible for overseeing and coordinating supply chain management functions within a specific branch of the military. They have the authority and resources to provide the necessary assistance in resolving supply discrepancies.

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97. Proir to the personal computer, what did INFOConnect gave you access to ____

Explanation

INFOConnect gave you access to green screens. Prior to the personal computer, green screens were commonly used as a display interface for mainframe computers. These screens had a black background with green text and allowed users to interact with the mainframe system by entering commands and viewing the output. INFOConnect was likely a software or system that provided this access to the mainframe through the green screens.

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98. What handling concept minimizes the possibility that an unauthorized or inadvertent act could degrade the nuclear surety of a nuclear weapon or nuclear weapon system?

Explanation

The handling concept of "Two person" minimizes the possibility of unauthorized or inadvertent acts that could degrade the nuclear surety of a nuclear weapon or nuclear weapon system. This concept requires that two authorized individuals be present and actively involved in any handling or operation of the weapon or system, ensuring that no single individual can compromise its security.

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99. An expendable item is identified by which code in the first position of an expendability, recoverability, repairability, cost (ERCC) designator?

Explanation

An expendable item is identified by the code "X" in the first position of an expendability, recoverability, repairability, cost (ERCC) designator. This code indicates that the item is considered expendable, meaning it is intended to be used once and then discarded or replaced.

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100. What is a major disadvantage in the use of unimproved open storage?

Explanation

The major disadvantage in the use of unimproved open storage is the limited use of Material Handling Equipment (MHE). Unimproved open storage lacks proper infrastructure and facilities for the efficient use of MHE, such as cranes, forklifts, or conveyor belts. This limitation can result in slower and less efficient movement of goods, leading to delays and increased labor costs.

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101. In ES-S, what three sections is the Order Selection Page divided into?

Explanation

The Order Selection Page in ES-S is divided into three sections: Primary Selection Criteria, Secondary Selection Criteria, and Display Criteria. These sections allow users to input the necessary criteria for selecting orders, such as order type, date range, and customer information. The Display Criteria section determines how the selected orders will be displayed, such as sorting options and the number of orders to be shown per page.

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102. What system provides the ablitity to make repair, deployment, sourcing, maintenance, acquistion, re-distribution, forcasting, and other management decisions?

Explanation

Enterprise Solution-Supply is the correct answer because it is a system that provides the ability to make various management decisions related to repair, deployment, sourcing, maintenance, acquisition, redistribution, forecasting, and other aspects. Oracle Discoverer Plus is a business intelligence tool used for querying and analyzing data, SATS is a satellite tracking system, and Weapon System Management Information System is a system specifically designed for managing weapon systems. Therefore, Enterprise Solution-Supply is the most suitable option for the given question.

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103. Who is in charge of all the internal workings of the SATS system?

Explanation

The System Administrator is in charge of all the internal workings of the SATS system. They are responsible for managing and maintaining the system's hardware, software, and network infrastructure. They ensure that the system is running smoothly, troubleshoot any issues that arise, and implement necessary updates and security measures. The System Administrator also handles user accounts, permissions, and overall system configuration.

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104. MRSP will be inventoried within how many workdays after return from a deployment?

Explanation

MRSP will be inventoried within 10 workdays after return from a deployment. This means that the inventory process for MRSP (Military Standard Requisitioning and Issue Procedures) will be completed within 10 workdays after the items are returned from a deployment. This allows for the timely assessment and restocking of MRSP items to ensure availability for future deployments or missions.

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105. What code reflected in the operations plan (OPlan) or time phased force deployment data (TPFDD) defines the number of passenger and amount of cargo that must be moved to meet a wartime tasking?

Explanation

The Unit Type Code (UTC) is a code reflected in the operations plan (OPlan) or time phased force deployment data (TPFDD) that defines the number of passengers and amount of cargo that must be moved to meet a wartime tasking. This code helps in identifying the specific type of unit and the resources required for deployment. It ensures that the appropriate personnel and equipment are allocated and transported accordingly to fulfill the mission requirements.

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106. Which turn-in method is used to process the TIN BEFORE picking up the property?

Explanation

The correct answer is Prepost. Prepost is the turn-in method used to process the TIN before picking up the property. This means that the TIN is processed and completed prior to the property being picked up.

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107. What reveling flag is used on a requirments computation inquiry in the Material Management Systems to provide a summary of information about a given stock number?

Explanation

The correct answer is "R". In Material Management Systems, the flag "R" is used on a requirements computation inquiry to provide a summary of information about a given stock number. This flag indicates that the system will generate a report or display a summary of the stock number's requirements, such as the quantity needed, the date needed, and any other relevant information.

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108. Who is responsible for the cost of disposing hazerdous wastes?

Explanation

The using organization is responsible for the cost of disposing hazardous wastes. This is because they are the ones who generate and use the hazardous materials, so it is their responsibility to properly dispose of them. The using organization should follow the necessary regulations and guidelines for the safe disposal of hazardous wastes to protect the environment and public health.

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109. What is the source of data Supply uses to process turnaround transactions?

Explanation

The source of data Supply uses to process turnaround transactions is the AFTO Form 350.

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110. What TRIC code is used to update the shipment-suspence details?

Explanation

The correct answer is SSC. The TRIC code SSC is used to update the shipment-suspense details.

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111. What function provides the abuility to query all ES-S transactions from a single user interface?

Explanation

The correct answer is Audit Data Query. This function allows users to query all ES-S (Enterprise Supply System) transactions from a single user interface. It provides a way to retrieve and analyze audit data related to transactions within the system. This query enables users to easily access and review transaction records for auditing purposes or to gather information about the system's activity.

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112. What are tracked  in SATS while an item is in route to its warehouse location delivery destination?

Explanation

During the route to its warehouse location delivery destination, items are temporarily tracked at various locations. These temporary locations could include transit hubs, distribution centers, or other intermediate stops along the way. This tracking allows for better visibility and monitoring of the item's progress until it reaches its final destination.

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113. When item managers sends directives by telephone, letter, or message communications, or in normal redistribution order (DIC A2* or A4*) formats, what is the redistribution type?

Explanation

The correct answer is "Directed." When item managers send directives through various communication methods or redistribution orders, it indicates that the redistribution type is "Directed." This suggests that the item managers are specifically instructing or directing the redistribution of items.

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114. Whic phrase on an issue or shipment document requires you to validate the servicable balance of the property in location?

Explanation

The phrase "SERV BAL = 0" on an issue or shipment document requires you to validate the serviceable balance of the property in location. This means that you need to ensure that the available quantity of the property is zero, indicating that it is not currently in stock or available for use.

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115. What one postion alpha code is used to indicate how the Materiel Management System accumulates demand data stock leveling and due in from maintenance (DIFM) control?

Explanation

The correct answer is "Demand code". The demand code is used to indicate how the Materiel Management System accumulates demand data for stock leveling and due in from maintenance (DIFM) control. It helps in tracking and managing the demand for materials and ensures that the right amount of stock is maintained and that items are received from maintenance when needed.

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116. Which two listings are used to perform due-out review and validation?

Explanation

D18 and R01 are the two listings used to perform due-out review and validation.

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117. Under the CTH system, which type of inquiry allows you to select records using the stock number and transaction date?

Explanation

Under the CTH system, the type of inquiry that allows you to select records using the stock number and transaction date is the stock number. This means that you can search for specific records by entering the stock number and the transaction date, which allows for a more targeted and efficient search process.

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118. Short-life reusable containers are expected to survive atleast how many round-trips?

Explanation

Short-life reusable containers are designed to be used for a limited number of round-trips before they become worn out or damaged. In this case, the correct answer is 10, indicating that these containers are expected to survive at least 10 round-trips before they need to be replaced.

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119. After how many days of computer downtime MUST manual MICAP reporting be accomplished for MICAP incidents?

Explanation

Manual MICAP reporting must be accomplished for MICAP incidents within 1 day of computer downtime. This means that as soon as there is a computer downtime, the manual reporting process should be initiated and completed within 24 hours. This is crucial to ensure that any MICAP incidents are promptly addressed and resolved, minimizing any disruptions or delays in the system.

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120. The periodic interval between successive inventories of CCIs may never exceed how many months?

Explanation

The periodic interval between successive inventories of CCIs may never exceed 12 months. This means that the maximum time allowed between two inventory checks of CCIs is one year. It is important to regularly conduct inventory checks to ensure that all CCIs are accounted for and in good condition. By setting a maximum interval of 12 months, organizations can maintain accurate records of their CCIs and address any issues or discrepancies in a timely manner.

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121. What is the process of arranging data into meaningful order so that you can analyze it more effectively?

Explanation

Sorting is the process of arranging data into a specific order, such as alphabetical or numerical, in order to make it more manageable and easier to analyze. By sorting the data, it becomes easier to identify patterns, trends, or outliers, which can aid in effective analysis. Sorting allows for efficient organization and comparison of data, enabling more accurate and insightful analysis.

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122. How are elcrtronic senstive devices identified on the item record?

Explanation

Electronic sensitive devices are identified on the item record using the Type cargo code 3. This code specifically designates items that are electronic and sensitive in nature. It helps in categorizing and tracking these devices within the item record, ensuring proper handling and care during transportation and storage.

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123. What wartime capability system is used to conduct wartime assessments?

Explanation

The PC-Aircraft Sustainability Model (PC-ASM) is the correct answer because it is a wartime capability system used to conduct wartime assessments. This model specifically focuses on the sustainability of aircraft during wartime operations, evaluating factors such as maintenance, logistics, and supportability. It helps assess the ability of aircraft to sustain operations and provides valuable information for decision-making and resource allocation during wartime.

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124. Within how many days workdays of the start of a cycle inventory should the storage activity complete scheduled validations?

Explanation

The storage activity should complete scheduled validations within 10 workdays of the start of a cycle inventory. This means that the validations need to be finished within 10 days of beginning the inventory process. It is important to complete these validations in a timely manner to ensure accuracy and efficiency in the inventory management system.

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125. Readiness-based level details are idenified by_____.

Explanation

Readiness-based level details are identified by type detail L and activity code A. This means that when determining the readiness level of a certain activity, it falls under type detail L and has activity code A. This classification helps in organizing and categorizing activities based on their readiness level, allowing for better planning and prioritization.

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126. What code is assigned to the item record to indicate the source of supply has cancelled a requisition?

Explanation

The code "REX 1" is assigned to the item record to indicate that the source of supply has cancelled a requisition.

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127. Reusable conatainers come in how many categories?

Explanation

Reusable containers come in two categories.

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128. To prevent unnecessary testing, what tool published by the DLA provides sata on products which have been tested or condemned?

Explanation

The Quality Status List, published by the DLA, provides data on products that have been tested or condemned. This tool helps prevent unnecessary testing by providing information on the quality status of various products. It allows users to quickly determine whether a product has been tested or condemned, saving time and resources.

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129. What document is used to clear the "I" freeze code suspense file?

Explanation

The Annotated 1GP notice is used to clear the "I" freeze code suspense file.

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130. How many copies of the AF Form 2005, Turn-in Request, are required for turn-in preparation?

Explanation

Three copies of the AF Form 2005, Turn-in Request, are required for turn-in preparation. This suggests that there are multiple parties involved in the turn-in process who require a copy of the form. Having three copies ensures that each party involved has a copy for their records and can track the progress of the turn-in.

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131. Establishing connectivity between a desktop personal computer (PC) and the mainframe computer is done with a terminal emulation program called ____

Explanation

INFOConnect is a terminal emulation program that is used to establish connectivity between a desktop personal computer (PC) and a mainframe computer. It allows the PC to emulate a terminal, enabling the user to access and interact with the mainframe system. INFOConnect provides the necessary interface and processing capabilities to facilitate communication between the PC and the mainframe, making it the correct answer for this question.

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132. Illustrated parts breakdown (IPBs) are normally identified and published by ____.

Explanation

Illustrated parts breakdowns (IPBs) are typically identified and published by -4 series technical orders. These technical orders provide detailed information about the parts and components of a specific model or series. They include illustrations, diagrams, and lists of parts, making it easier for maintenance personnel to identify and order the correct parts for repairs and maintenance. The -4 series technical orders are specifically focused on providing this information, making them the correct answer for this question.

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133. The basic resource of an materiel management and distrubtion operation is the ____

Explanation

The basic resource of a material management and distribution operation is the storage space. This is because storage space is essential for organizing and storing materials efficiently. Without sufficient storage space, it would be difficult to manage and distribute materials effectively. Materiel handling equipment, gross space available, and storage plan are all important factors in the operation, but storage space is the fundamental resource that enables the smooth functioning of the operation.

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134. A request for an adjusted stock level is made on what Air Force form?

Explanation

not-available-via-ai

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135. An automatic requistion to the source of supply is identified by what document identification code?

Explanation

An automatic requisition to the source of supply is identified by the document identification code AO*.

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136. Organizations may identify their issues request to Base Supply using either a ___.

Explanation

Organizations may identify their issues request to Base Supply using either a stock number or part number. This means that they can use the unique stock number assigned to a specific item or the part number associated with that item. Both options allow organizations to accurately request the required supplies from Base Supply. The commercial and government entity (CAGE) code, transportation control number (TCN) number, and document number are not mentioned as valid options for identifying issues requests in this scenario.

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137. What category III difficulty report does NOT stop computer systems processing and is corrected .

Explanation

This category III difficulty report does not stop computer systems processing and is corrected in the next scheduling release. This means that the issue identified in the report does not cause a complete halt to the functioning of computer systems and can be resolved in the next scheduled update or release. It implies that the problem is not urgent or critical, but will be addressed in the upcoming release to ensure smooth operation of the systems.

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138. What TRIC code input is created from the transaction exception 7 issue document?

Explanation

The TRIC code input that is created from the transaction exception 7 issue document is Specail Requisitions (SPR).

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139. One of the primary functions that ES-S offers is the ablitiy to __

Explanation

ES-S offers the ability to input orders into the legacy Materiel Management System. This means that users can use ES-S to enter orders into the existing Materiel Management System, which is the older system used for managing materials. This functionality allows for seamless integration between ES-S and the legacy system, ensuring that orders can be easily processed and managed within the organization's established system.

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140. Who serves as the base equipment and authorization activity?

Explanation

The equipment accountability officer is responsible for serving as the base equipment and authorization activity. This role involves maintaining records of equipment, ensuring its proper use and maintenance, and authorizing its allocation to different individuals or departments. The officer is in charge of overseeing the accountability and tracking of all equipment within an organization, ensuring that it is accounted for and used efficiently.

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141. When deficienceies are noted during a scheduled warehouse surveillance, within how many days does the inspector conduct a follow-up inspection?

Explanation

When deficiencies are noted during a scheduled warehouse surveillance, the inspector conducts a follow-up inspection within 10 days. This allows the inspector to assess whether the identified deficiencies have been addressed and corrected within a reasonable timeframe. Conducting a follow-up inspection ensures that any issues are resolved and that the warehouse meets the necessary standards and regulations.

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142. What is the Air Force source for hazardous materiel data and pollution prevention information?

Explanation

AF-EMIS stands for Air Force Environmental Management Information System. It is the source for hazardous material data and pollution prevention information in the Air Force. This system provides comprehensive and up-to-date information on hazardous materials, their handling, storage, and disposal procedures, as well as pollution prevention measures. It helps the Air Force in managing and minimizing the environmental impact of its operations by promoting safe and responsible practices regarding hazardous materials.

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143. Whic health hazard code indicates an item is a serious health hazard and requires special control?

Explanation

Health hazard code 9 indicates that an item is a serious health hazard and requires special control. This code is specifically used for substances that are toxic if swallowed, inhaled, or come into contact with the skin. These substances can cause severe health effects and therefore need to be handled with caution.

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144. Hazardous disposal can be generally grouped into how many categories?

Explanation

Hazardous disposal can generally be grouped into two categories. This means that hazardous waste can be classified into two main types based on its characteristics or properties. These categories help in determining the appropriate methods for handling, storing, and disposing of hazardous waste. By categorizing hazardous waste into two groups, it becomes easier to manage and ensure proper disposal, minimizing the risks to human health and the environment.

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145. What TRIC is NOT an option for processing after dispositions instrurctions for an unserviceable asset has been received?

Explanation

ISU is not an option for processing after disposition instructions for an unserviceable asset have been received.

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146. Which of the following is NOT a category of receipt discrepancies

Explanation

The answer "Servicable/undamaged items" is not a category of receipt discrepancies because receipt discrepancies typically refer to issues or discrepancies related to the quantity, documentation, or identification of items received. "Servicable/undamaged items" do not fall under the category of discrepancies as they do not involve any issues or discrepancies in the receipt process.

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147. What TRIC code is used to issue assets from a mobility readiness spares package (MRSP) to the user?

Explanation

The correct answer is MSI. The TRIC code MSI is used to issue assets from a mobility readiness spares package (MRSP) to the user.

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148. The core of asset management is the ____

Explanation

The correct answer is "Stock Control System." The core of asset management refers to the central component or the foundation on which the entire process is built. In asset management, a stock control system plays a crucial role in tracking and managing inventory. It helps in monitoring stock levels, recording stock movements, and ensuring efficient stock replenishment. By implementing a stock control system, organizations can effectively manage their assets, optimize inventory levels, and reduce costs.

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149. Which system provides the user with information on their requistions , with emphasis placed on the flight line base level users?

Explanation

TRACKER is the system that provides the user with information on their requisitions, specifically focusing on the flight line base level users. It is designed to track and manage requisitions, ensuring that users have access to the necessary information regarding their requests. This system is specifically tailored for flight line base level users, indicating its emphasis on meeting their needs and requirements.

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150. What TEX code is used to process a recoverable (XF/XD) FOB if the orginization no longer requires the item and it is not that organizations accountable record?

Explanation

The correct answer is "+". In TEX code, the "+" symbol is used to process a recoverable (XF/XD) FOB if the organization no longer requires the item and it is not part of that organization's accountable record.

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151. What Material Management System output notifies the core automated maintenance systems (CAMS) of changes in the due-out status?

Explanation

The correct answer, 1SH, refers to the Material Management System output that notifies the core automated maintenance systems (CAMS) of changes in the due-out status. This output is likely a code or identifier used within the system to indicate and communicate these changes to the CAMS.

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152. During a surveillance visit, you should coordinate your review of management products with what activity?

Explanation

During a surveillance visit, coordinating the review of management products with the analysis element is important. This is because the analysis element plays a crucial role in examining and evaluating the management products, such as reports, data, and performance indicators. By coordinating with the analysis element, you can ensure that the review is comprehensive and accurate, as they have the expertise to assess the effectiveness and efficiency of the management practices being implemented. This collaboration helps in identifying any areas of improvement or potential risks that need to be addressed.

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153. Which interavtive processing facility command changes the name of the workspace?

Explanation

The correct answer is "NAME" because the NAME command is used in interactive processing facilities to change the name of the workspace. It allows users to give a new name to the current workspace, providing flexibility and organization in managing workspaces.

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154. The Audit Data Query enhances your ability to query transactions information efficiently for what type of audits?

Explanation

The Audit Data Query enhances your ability to query transactions information efficiently for internal and external audits. This means that it allows you to easily retrieve and analyze data related to both internal audits conducted within the organization and external audits conducted by external entities such as regulatory bodies or auditors. This feature helps in ensuring compliance with internal policies and external regulations, identifying potential risks or issues, and improving overall audit processes.

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155. The supply Interface System residue images are considered delinquent after how many hours?

Explanation

The supply Interface System residue images are considered delinquent after 24 hours.

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156. Deployments are considered long term after how many days?

Explanation

Deployments are considered long term after 120 days. This means that after 120 days, a deployment is considered to be a long-term commitment. It implies that deployments that last for less than 120 days are considered short-term or temporary.

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157. Which management notice is a result of issue processing and reflects issue,kill or backorder quantity status?

Explanation

I004 is the correct answer because it is a management notice that reflects the status of issue, kill, or backorder quantity. This notice is generated as a result of issue processing, indicating any issues or problems with the quantity of items being issued or the status of backorders.

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158. An I007 management notice will be produced when a ____.

Explanation

An I007 management notice will be produced when a part number request cannot be converted to a stock number under program control. This means that if a request for a specific part number cannot be fulfilled with an available stock number, the system will generate an I007 management notice to inform the user that the requested part is not currently in stock.

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159. What activity code is used to process equipment authorizations inventory data equipment turn-ins?

Explanation

The activity code "E" is used to process equipment authorizations inventory data equipment turn-ins.

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160. Which code in an IPB provides maintenance activities with repair level responsibitlites, support methods , and disposition instructions?

Explanation

The correct answer is Source, maintenance, and recoverability (SMR). SMR codes provide maintenance activities with repair level responsibilities, support methods, and disposition instructions. These codes help in determining the source of repair, whether it is at the organizational, intermediate, or depot level. They also provide information on the maintenance support required, such as special tools, equipment, or skills. Additionally, SMR codes provide instructions on the recoverability of the item, whether it can be repaired and reused or if it needs to be replaced.

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161. How fequently should you scedule surveillance visits?

Explanation

The correct answer is annually because scheduling surveillance visits once a year allows for regular monitoring and assessment of the situation. This timeframe ensures that any potential issues or risks can be identified and addressed in a timely manner. Additionally, an annual schedule provides a consistent and manageable approach to surveillance, allowing for proper planning and allocation of resources.

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162. When the Materiel Management Systems does NOT process or update transactions as it should, what for is used to report the proble to Headquaters, Operations and Sustainment Systems Group?

Explanation

When the Materiel Management Systems does not process or update transactions correctly, the AF Form 1815 is used to report the problem to Headquarters, Operations, and Sustainment Systems Group. This form serves as a communication tool to notify the relevant authorities about the issue and seek resolution. It helps in documenting and tracking the problem, ensuring that it is appropriately addressed by the responsible department.

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163. What happens during a warming-boot?

Explanation

During a warming-boot, the configuration settings and files are retained. This means that the settings and files that were previously set or saved in the system will remain unchanged after the warming-boot process. Other settings may revert to default factory settings, but the configuration settings and files will not be affected. The SATS application, however, is not retained during this process.

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164. Who is responsible to select the method for document distribution and creation?

Explanation

The Team Chief is responsible for selecting the method for document distribution and creation. This role is typically assigned to someone who oversees a team or group of individuals and is responsible for making decisions related to the team's operations and processes. In this case, selecting the method for document distribution and creation falls under the Team Chief's responsibilities, as it is directly related to the team's workflow and communication processes.

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165. The selection of property custodians requires mutual agreement between_______.

Explanation

The selection of property custodians requires mutual agreement between the Equipment Accountability Officer and Organizational Commanders. This is because the Equipment Accountability Officer is responsible for overseeing the management and accountability of equipment, while the Organizational Commanders have authority over personnel assignments within the organization. Therefore, both parties need to agree on the selection of property custodians to ensure that the individuals chosen are suitable for the role and capable of fulfilling their responsibilities effectively.

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166. Who schedules and accomplishes an aggressive surveillance inspection program for all items in storage?

Explanation

The correct answer is Inspector. The inspector is responsible for scheduling and implementing an aggressive surveillance inspection program for all items in storage. They are in charge of ensuring that all items are properly inspected and maintained to meet the required standards. The inspector plays a crucial role in identifying any issues or discrepancies in the storage area and taking necessary actions to address them.

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167. User Id and controlled TRIC codes are loaded to designated terminal functions by the ____.

Explanation

The terminal security manager is responsible for loading user IDs and controlled TRIC codes to designated terminal functions. This role ensures that the appropriate access and security measures are in place for each terminal user. The terminal security manager plays a crucial role in maintaining the integrity and security of the system by controlling and managing user access and privileges.

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168. Which action taken code indicates an item is NOT authorized for base level repair?

Explanation

The action taken code "1" indicates that an item is NOT authorized for base level repair.

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169. Which position of the source, maintenance, and recoverability code (SMR) reflects the disposition action for unservicable assets?

Explanation

The recoverability code (SMR) reflects the disposition action for unserviceable assets in the "Recoverability" position. This code indicates whether an item is reparable, reparable only at depot level, or non-reparable. It helps determine the appropriate action to take for assets that cannot be repaired and need to be disposed of.

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170. Who is responible for the health of assigned items to meet mission requirements over the lifecycle of these assets?

Explanation

The item manager is responsible for the health of assigned items to meet mission requirements over the lifecycle of these assets. They are in charge of managing and maintaining the inventory, ensuring proper maintenance and repairs, and coordinating with various stakeholders to ensure that the items are available and in good condition when needed. The item manager plays a crucial role in ensuring the operational readiness and effectiveness of the assets.

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171. Software is loaded into hand-held terminals through a process called____

Explanation

The correct answer is "flashing" because in the context of hand-held terminals, flashing refers to the process of loading software into the device's memory or firmware. This process typically involves transferring the software from a computer or another device to the terminal's storage using specialized software or tools. Flashing is commonly used to update or install new software versions, patches, or custom firmware on hand-held terminals.

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172. When one-for-one stick requistioning is not needed, which adjusted minimum level should be used?

Explanation

When one-for-one stick requisitioning is not needed, the adjusted minimum level that should be used is A.

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173. What two organizations provide wholesale logistics experience for selected materiel management NCO's?

Explanation

DLA (Defense Logistics Agency) and AFMC (Air Force Materiel Command) are the two organizations that provide wholesale logistics experience for selected materiel management NCO's. These organizations are responsible for managing and providing logistical support for the military, including procurement, storage, distribution, and maintenance of supplies and equipment. By working with DLA and AFMC, materiel management NCO's gain valuable experience and knowledge in wholesale logistics operations, which is essential for effectively managing and coordinating the flow of materials within the military supply chain.

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174. Which Materiel Management program identifies all claims receivable/claims payable details that require follow-up, a report discrepancy (ROD) or a supply discrepancy report (SDR)?

Explanation

The Materiel Management program that identifies all claims receivable/claims payable details that require follow-up, a report discrepancy (ROD) or a supply discrepancy report (SDR) is NVG587.

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175. Which Due-in from maintenance (DIFM) detail  record indicates an issue to maintenance?

Explanation

The correct answer is "FIRM" because it stands for "Fault Isolation and Rectification Memo." This record indicates an issue to maintenance as it provides details about the fault or problem that needs to be addressed and rectified.

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176. What Material management register is prepared from transactions histories that are stored and merged on magnetic tapes?

Explanation

The correct answer is "Consolidated Transaction (M19)". This register is prepared from transaction histories that are stored and merged on magnetic tapes. It helps in keeping track of all the transactions and provides a consolidated view of the transactions for material management purposes.

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177. What code is assigned if an item record requiring reverse-post action does NOT contain a freeze code?

Explanation

If an item record requiring reverse-post action does not contain a freeze code, the code assigned to it is Q.

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178. Which items are not considered a miscellaneous commodity?

Explanation

Serviceable items are not considered a miscellaneous commodity because they are in working condition and can be used for their intended purpose. Unlike unserviceable items, which are no longer functional, serviceable items have value and can be sold, reused, or repaired. Tires, on the other hand, can be considered a separate category as they are a specific type of item rather than a general classification like miscellaneous commodities.

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179. Hen a customer receives assets from the LRS whatever other item besides a PIN does the individual need to accept property?

Explanation

When a customer receives assets from the LRS, besides a PIN, the individual needs to accept a smart card. A smart card is a portable device that contains embedded integrated circuits. It is used for various purposes such as identification, authentication, and data storage. In this case, the smart card may be required to access and manage the received assets effectively.

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180. What materiel management register list information from the transactions stored in the daily transaction history area of the materiel management database?

Explanation

The Daily Document Control (D04) register lists information from the transactions stored in the daily transaction history area of the materiel management database. This register keeps track of all the documents and records related to material management on a daily basis. It provides a comprehensive overview of the transactions that have taken place, including details such as date, time, type of transaction, and any associated documentation. This register is essential for maintaining accurate and up-to-date records, ensuring proper control and accountability of materials within the organization.

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181. When your base weapons assets are increased or decreased, what report do you send to the Small Arms at Robins Air Force Base?

Explanation

When there are changes in the base weapons assets, the report that needs to be sent to the Small Arms at Robins Air Force Base is the DSM report.

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182. What system captures UTC assessments, identifies suitable UTCs to satisfy taskings , and helps forecast shortfalls?

Explanation

The AEF Reporting Tool (ART) captures UTC assessments, identifies suitable UTCs to satisfy taskings, and helps forecast shortfalls. It is a system specifically designed for this purpose, making it the correct answer. The other options, Weapon System Management Information Systems (WSMIS), Mobility Inventory Control and Accountability Systems (MICAS), and PC-Aircraft Sustainability Model (PC-ASM), do not have the same functionality as ART in capturing UTC assessments and forecasting shortfalls.

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183. What element within an allowance standard established the number of items that can be issued to an individual, activity, or organization?

Explanation

The basis of issue refers to the element within an allowance standard that determines the number of items that can be issued to an individual, activity, or organization. It sets the criteria or guidelines for issuing a specific quantity of items based on factors such as need, demand, or operational requirements. This ensures that the right amount of items is allocated to each entity, preventing shortages or excesses.

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184. Ehat type of shelf life code has a definite non-extendable period of shelf life?

Explanation

Type I shelf life code has a definite non-extendable period of shelf life. This means that once the product reaches its expiration date, it cannot be used or consumed safely beyond that point. Type I shelf life codes are typically used for perishable goods or products with strict safety regulations, where it is crucial to ensure that the product is consumed within a specific timeframe to avoid any potential risks to health or quality.

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185. What computer input is used to load a suspect materiel flag into the item record?

Explanation

The correct answer is FCD with suspect flag S. This input is used to load a suspect material flag into the item record. The FCD stands for "Flag Change Data" and it is used to update or change the flags in the item record. In this case, the suspect flag is being set to S, indicating that the material is considered suspect. This input is important for tracking and managing materials that may have quality or safety issues.

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186. This is defined as components that are critical to launch, enable, inhibit, and authenticate status ( code and critical components); are classified once installed and used; serialized items installed on operationally deployed weapons systems; items removed/ replaced as end items (there are critical parts inside but are not normally removed separatley).

Explanation

The correct answer is NWRM. NWRM stands for Non-Serialized Weapons-Related Materiel. According to the explanation provided, NWRM refers to items that are critical to launch, enable, inhibit, and authenticate status, and are classified once installed and used. These items are serialized and installed on operationally deployed weapons systems, and while they may have critical parts inside, they are not normally removed separately.

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187. In order to process pre-defined reports and modify the display of results in a worksheet, you would need to use the Discoverer ____

Explanation

To process pre-defined reports and modify the display of results in a worksheet, you would need to use the Discoverer Viewer. The Viewer allows users to access and interact with pre-defined reports, providing a user-friendly interface to view, analyze, and modify the data displayed in the reports. It allows for customization of the report layout, filtering of data, and drill-down capabilities to explore detailed information. The Viewer is specifically designed for users who need to consume and manipulate reports without the need for advanced querying or programming skills.

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188. For internal records what TRIC changes the unit price, unit of issue, and quantity pack ( except for local purchase items) fields?

Explanation

The correct answer is FCU. FCU stands for Field Change Unit and it is responsible for changing the unit price, unit of issue, and quantity pack fields for internal records. It does not apply to local purchase items.

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189. The last page of the M10 shows the number of sample inventories in progress over how many days?

Explanation

The correct answer is 30. This suggests that the last page of the M10 shows the number of sample inventories in progress over a period of 30 days.

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190. What stock leveling term represents the maximum quantity that should be on-hand or on order to sustain current operations?

Explanation

The correct answer is Requisition objective (RO). The requisition objective represents the maximum quantity that should be on-hand or on order to sustain current operations. It is an important stock leveling term that helps organizations ensure they have enough inventory to meet their operational needs without overstocking or running out of stock. The RO is determined based on factors such as demand patterns, lead time, and desired service level. By setting a requisition objective, organizations can effectively manage their inventory and optimize their supply chain operations.

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191. What information is required to make an automated reverse-post input?

Explanation

To make an automated reverse-post input, the transaction serial number is needed to identify the specific transaction that needs to be reversed. The TTPC (Transaction Type Code) is required to determine the type of transaction being reversed. Finally, the date is necessary to accurately record when the reverse-post input is made. The quantity is not mentioned as a requirement for making an automated reverse-post input.

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192. Material Managament specailist are NOT responsible for _____.

Explanation

Material Management specialists are responsible for providing support to maintenance activities, researching and identifying material requirements, and preparing, analyzing, and evaluating reports, procedures, and policy data. However, they are NOT responsible for performing material management systems control functions.

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193. Which expendability, recoverability, repairability, cost designator (ERRCD) identifies NON- EQUIPMENT inventory data equipment items?

Explanation

The correct answer for this question is NF1. The ERRCD NF1 identifies NON-EQUIPMENT inventory data equipment items. This means that NF1 is used to categorize items that are not considered equipment but are still part of the inventory data.

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194. What program is used to perform the readiness spares package RSP reconciliation?

Explanation

not-available-via-ai

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195. What codes are used to determine the requisitioning priority desiginator used at the source of supply?

Explanation

The codes used to determine the requisitioning priority desiginator used at the source of supply are FAD and UND. These codes help in identifying the priority level for requisitioning and ensure that the necessary items are delivered to the correct destination in a timely manner.

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196. What condition tag is used to identifiy new, used, repaired, or reconditioned servicable materiel?

Explanation

DD Form 1574 is used to identify new, used, repaired, or reconditioned servicable materiel.

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197. Due-ins that have been receive but remain in the computers because the receipts have not been completely cleared are included on which transportation tracer list?

Explanation

The correct answer is "Receipt acknowledged error list." This list includes due-ins that have been received but are still in the computers because the receipts have not been completely cleared. It helps track and identify any errors or issues with the receipt acknowledgment process.

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198. How often is the AFMAN 23-110, USAF Suply Manual, published?

Explanation

The AFMAN 23-110, USAF Supply Manual, is published on a quarterly basis. This means that it is released four times a year. This frequency allows for regular updates and revisions to be made to the manual, ensuring that the information contained within it remains current and accurate. Publishing the manual quarterly also allows for timely dissemination of any changes or new procedures to the personnel who rely on it for their supply operations.

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199. What TEX code is coded on the due-out detail and will prevent an automatic due-out release of assets?

Explanation

The correct answer is "1 8 H U X or . (Period)". This TEX code is coded on the due-out detail and will prevent an automatic due-out release of assets.

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200. What activity code is used to process non-equipment authorizations inventory data equipment turn-ins?

Explanation

The activity code "P" is used to process non-equipment authorizations inventory data equipment turn-ins. This code specifically refers to the processing of inventory data related to equipment turn-ins that are not classified as equipment authorizations.

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What information must be annotated on all documentation for small...
Management notices can easiley be readily identified by what letters...
What are the two types of open storage areas?
Markings found on containers that do NOT apply to presently packaged...
Who should help a driver back a vehicle into position for offloading?
Which LRS flight is reponsible for stocking , storing, issueing,...
What type of materiel management source documents are NOT placed in a...
Warehouse stockrooms are sequenced from___
The practice of storing items in a way that causes a loss of storage...
What is the largest subdivision of the AFMAN 23-110?
How are hyperlinks identified in the AFMAN23-110?
How many characters make up a NSN?
What two entities make up the NSN?
The ERRCD for bench stock iems must be____
Local Manufacturing is a term that describes an item ____.
The receiving in-checker sends suspected tampered items to the ___
What protects items placed in open storage from wet ground conditions?
What anaylsis method do you use most often for recurring reports or...
Which Expenitonary Logistics 21st Centry (eLOG 21) effect ensures...
What LRS flight provides centralized command control, planning and...
Which check is not required by the receiving in-checker?
Which issue exception code identify health hazard items?
Which corrosives are incompatible and should be serperated in storage?
At what temperature must a refrigerated storage CHILL space be...
Which hand-held terminal function allows the user to place items into...
Which type of MOBAG contain chemical warfare defense equipment?
How would the document file name for volume 2, part 2, chapter 3 be...
An organizational refusal would be a customer's responsibilty if...
With in how many workdays should ALL Material Management Systems...
When signed by the property custodian which listing serves as a...
Before accepting a shipment, the receiving function representative...
Which class of supply includes weapons?
What Materiel Management System process is activated if assets are...
Which action code on an item record inquiry in the Materiel Management...
Which chapter in the AFMAN 23-110, volume 2, part 2, identifies the...
The Consilidated Inventorty Adjustment Document (1AD) Register (M10)...
What is the purpose of the shipment-suspense program?
In Discoverer, what function allows youb to transfer data to other...
When planning a warehouse layout, what type of space must be kept to a...
What is the TRIC code used for an automated reverse-post transaction?
Shelf life assets are tracked in the MICAS by_____.
What process verifies that the user has placed an item in the correct...
Under the CTH system, which option displays a list of abbreviated...
Which of the following is NOT a factor to consider when operating MHHS...
Which program in the Material Management Systems takes control of...
What CD-ROM based research system can be used to cross relate part...
MOBAGs can be built ahead of time and stored using what method?
Who is responsible for ensuring that all local resources are exhausted...
An automatic adjustment for a pilferable item occurs when the record...
The intent of Enterprise Asset Visibility component is to provide...
The decision to transfer MRSP rest with the host and the ____.
What letter or symbol is entered in the "Warehouse Location...
What supply product is used to clear the warehouse location suspense...
Which materiel management individuals are authorized to determine the...
In support of the eLOG21 intergrated processes, which is NOT a...
Which class of supply includes ammunition?
How many days prior to the expiration date should type II self-life...
The equipment custodian uses which AF Form to request non-equipment...
Productions shecduling of ALL materiel management computer systems...
What computer systems provides interchangable and subsititute group...
To account for all transactions during degraded operations, the proper...
Which Maintenance process updates various basic and support records,...
Which special-purpose recoverables authorized maintenance (SPRAM)...
What type of assets receives priority handling throughout the...
What is the maximum number of characters for the descriptive...
What anaylsis method do you use to satisfy one-time requirements or...
What marking indetifies the year of manufacture on an aircraft tire?
What is used to identify a bin subdivison in the warehouse location...
What Matereil Management computer listing do you use to reconcile...
What Document identification code indicates a denial to a...
Supply difficulty for the Air Force-managed items are reported on what...
How many major type of inquires are there in a Materiel Management...
Which product of the MAterial Management System is used to ensure...
Who deteremines who will process controlled TRIC codes and inform the...
Which listing is an important tool for monitoring status and...
All shipments nad transfers processed through LRS produce what type...
When researching a physical overage, what is the maximum number of...
Who is responsible for issuing all user and customer identification...
What designator is used to identify the storage level in a warehouse...
Whose responsibility is it to identify or verify the identity of a...
WHich SHipment exception code is used for assets forzen-do not ship?
The duties and responsibilities of each Air Force career field or...
Which process is NOT one of the four supply major processes in the...
Once the on-hand quantity reaches zero, the due-in detail record is...
Which AF Form is used to request a change to allowance standard or...
What type of storage is best suited for pesticides, posions, and...
Which type of  warehouse equipment is part of SAS?
Which listing is used perform the due-in from maintenance (DIFM)...
The annotated forecast listing of all computer requirement is retuened...
What term is used to describe XD items that are candidates for...
What action must be taken on the receipt document for an overage...
What source of supply consists of venders from the local communitity?
Which report is transmitted to the application sourse of supply to...
What does the Pull process involve?
Which scenario is an examble of a warehouse refusal?
Where are all unresolved supply discrepancy reports forwarded to when...
Proir to the personal computer, what did INFOConnect gave you access...
What handling concept minimizes the possibility that an unauthorized...
An expendable item is identified by which code in the first position...
What is a major disadvantage in the use of unimproved open storage?
In ES-S, what three sections is the Order Selection Page divided into?
What system provides the ablitity to make repair, deployment,...
Who is in charge of all the internal workings of the SATS system?
MRSP will be inventoried within how many workdays after return from a...
What code reflected in the operations plan (OPlan) or time phased...
Which turn-in method is used to process the TIN BEFORE picking up the...
What reveling flag is used on a requirments computation inquiry in the...
Who is responsible for the cost of disposing hazerdous wastes?
What is the source of data Supply uses to process turnaround...
What TRIC code is used to update the shipment-suspence details?
What function provides the abuility to query all ES-S transactions...
What are tracked  in SATS while an item is in route to its...
When item managers sends directives by telephone, letter, or message...
Whic phrase on an issue or shipment document requires you to validate...
What one postion alpha code is used to indicate how the Materiel...
Which two listings are used to perform due-out review and validation?
Under the CTH system, which type of inquiry allows you to select...
Short-life reusable containers are expected to survive atleast how...
After how many days of computer downtime MUST manual MICAP reporting...
The periodic interval between successive inventories of CCIs may never...
What is the process of arranging data into meaningful order so that...
How are elcrtronic senstive devices identified on the item record?
What wartime capability system is used to conduct wartime assessments?
Within how many days workdays of the start of a cycle inventory should...
Readiness-based level details are idenified by_____.
What code is assigned to the item record to indicate the source of...
Reusable conatainers come in how many categories?
To prevent unnecessary testing, what tool published by the DLA...
What document is used to clear the "I" freeze code suspense...
How many copies of the AF Form 2005, Turn-in Request, are required for...
Establishing connectivity between a desktop personal computer (PC) and...
Illustrated parts breakdown (IPBs) are normally identified and...
The basic resource of an materiel management and distrubtion operation...
A request for an adjusted stock level is made on what Air Force form?
An automatic requistion to the source of supply is identified by...
Organizations may identify their issues request to Base Supply using...
What category III difficulty report does NOT stop computer systems...
What TRIC code input is created from the transaction exception 7 issue...
One of the primary functions that ES-S offers is the ablitiy to __
Who serves as the base equipment and authorization activity?
When deficienceies are noted during a scheduled warehouse...
What is the Air Force source for hazardous materiel data and pollution...
Whic health hazard code indicates an item is a serious health hazard...
Hazardous disposal can be generally grouped into how many categories?
What TRIC is NOT an option for processing after dispositions...
Which of the following is NOT a category of receipt discrepancies
What TRIC code is used to issue assets from a mobility readiness...
The core of asset management is the ____
Which system provides the user with information on their requistions ,...
What TEX code is used to process a recoverable (XF/XD) FOB if the...
What Material Management System output notifies the core automated...
During a surveillance visit, you should coordinate your review of...
Which interavtive processing facility command changes the name of the...
The Audit Data Query enhances your ability to query transactions...
The supply Interface System residue images are considered delinquent...
Deployments are considered long term after how many days?
Which management notice is a result of issue processing and reflects...
An I007 management notice will be produced when a ____.
What activity code is used to process equipment authorizations...
Which code in an IPB provides maintenance activities with repair level...
How fequently should you scedule surveillance visits?
When the Materiel Management Systems does NOT process or update...
What happens during a warming-boot?
Who is responsible to select the method for document distribution and...
The selection of property custodians requires mutual agreement...
Who schedules and accomplishes an aggressive surveillance inspection...
User Id and controlled TRIC codes are loaded to designated terminal...
Which action taken code indicates an item is NOT authorized...
Which position of the source, maintenance, and recoverability code...
Who is responible for the health of assigned items to meet mission...
Software is loaded into hand-held terminals through a process...
When one-for-one stick requistioning is not needed, which adjusted...
What two organizations provide wholesale logistics experience for...
Which Materiel Management program identifies all claims...
Which Due-in from maintenance (DIFM) detail  record...
What Material management register is prepared from transactions...
What code is assigned if an item record requiring reverse-post action...
Which items are not considered a miscellaneous commodity?
Hen a customer receives assets from the LRS whatever other item...
What materiel management register list information from the...
When your base weapons assets are increased or decreased, what report...
What system captures UTC assessments, identifies suitable UTCs to...
What element within an allowance standard established the number of...
Ehat type of shelf life code has a definite non-extendable period of...
What computer input is used to load a suspect materiel flag into the...
This is defined as components that are critical to launch, enable,...
In order to process pre-defined reports and modify the display of...
For internal records what TRIC changes the unit price, unit of issue,...
The last page of the M10 shows the number of sample inventories in...
What stock leveling term represents the maximum quantity that should...
What information is required to make an automated reverse-post input?
Material Managament specailist are NOT responsible for _____.
Which expendability, recoverability, repairability, cost designator...
What program is used to perform the readiness spares package RSP...
What codes are used to determine the requisitioning priority...
What condition tag is used to identifiy new, used, repaired, or...
Due-ins that have been receive but remain in the computers because the...
How often is the AFMAN 23-110, USAF Suply Manual, published?
What TEX code is coded on the due-out detail and will prevent an...
What activity code is used to process non-equipment authorizations...
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