2S051 CDC-EOC Review

298 Questions | Total Attempts: 1061

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2S051 Quizzes & Trivia

Questions and Answers
  • 1. 
    The duties and responsibilities of each Air Force career field or specialty are described in AFMAN 36-
    • A. 

      2101

    • B. 

      2110

    • C. 

      2201

    • D. 

      2903

  • 2. 
    Material Managament specailist are NOT responsible for _____.
    • A. 

      Providing support to maintenance activites

    • B. 

      Researching and indentifying materiel requirements

    • C. 

      Performing materiel management systems control funtions

    • D. 

      Preparing, analysing, and evaluating reports, procedures, and policy data.

  • 3. 
    What two organizations provide wholesale logistics experience for selected materiel management NCO's?
    • A. 

      AFMc and GSA

    • B. 

      GSA and Materiel Management Systems

    • C. 

      DLA and AFMC

    • D. 

      Materiel Management Systems and DLA

  • 4. 
    Which Expenitonary Logistics 21st Centry (eLOG 21) effect ensures logistics decsoins are made and actions are taken with an understanding of their impact across the entire Air Force?
    • A. 

      Effect one : Enterprise View

    • B. 

      Effect Two: Intergrated Processes

    • C. 

      Effect Three: Optimized Resources

    • D. 

      Effect Four: Intergrated Technology

  • 5. 
    In support of the eLOG21 intergrated processes, which is NOT a resource?
    • A. 

      Financial

    • B. 

      Acquistion

    • C. 

      Technology

    • D. 

      Infrastructure

  • 6. 
    Local Manufacturing is a term that describes an item ____.
    • A. 

      Designed by a local commodity center

    • B. 

      Sourced from another branch of the service

    • C. 

      Fabricated by a maintenance activity on base

    • D. 

      Purchased by an organization using the GPC

  • 7. 
    What source of supply consists of venders from the local communitity?
    • A. 

      Local manufacture

    • B. 

      Local purchases

    • C. 

      Lateral support

    • D. 

      Other services

  • 8. 
    Which class of supply includes weapons?
    • A. 

      II

    • B. 

      IV

    • C. 

      VI

    • D. 

      VIII

  • 9. 
    Which class of supply includes ammunition?
    • A. 

      III

    • B. 

      V

    • C. 

      VII

    • D. 

      IX

  • 10. 
    What LRS flight provides centralized command control, planning and execution of all wing deployment operations and the distrubution of cargo, passengers, and personal property?
    • A. 

      Deployment and Distrubtion

    • B. 

      Traffic Management

    • C. 

      Materiel Management

    • D. 

      Management and systems

  • 11. 
    Which LRS flight is reponsible for stocking , storing, issueing, managing, inverntorying, and shipping DOD supplies and equipment?
    • A. 

      Materiel Management

    • B. 

      Command section

    • C. 

      Mission Readiness

    • D. 

      Sustainment

  • 12. 
    Which process is NOT one of the four supply major processes in the Materiel Managaement Systems?
    • A. 

      Administration

    • B. 

      Item Accounting

    • C. 

      File maintenance

    • D. 

      Accounting and fianace

  • 13. 
    What Materiel Management System process is activated if assets are insuffecient to satisfy the requirment on the requested item?
    • A. 

      Receipt

    • B. 

      Turn-in

    • C. 

      Due-out

    • D. 

      Shipment

  • 14. 
    Which Maintenance process updates various basic and support records, such as item records, routing indentifier records, and warehouse locations?
    • A. 

      Interchangeable and Substitute Group (ISG)

    • B. 

      Miscellaneous file maintenance

    • C. 

      Follow-up

    • D. 

      Status

  • 15. 
    How often is the AFMAN 23-110, USAF Suply Manual, published?
    • A. 

      Monthly

    • B. 

      Quaterly

    • C. 

      Semiannually

    • D. 

      Annually

  • 16. 
    What is the largest subdivision of the AFMAN 23-110?
    • A. 

      Part

    • B. 

      Section

    • C. 

      Volume

    • D. 

      Paragraph

  • 17. 
    How are hyperlinks identified in the AFMAN23-110?
    • A. 

      Toolbars

    • B. 

      Blue text

    • C. 

      Dark red text

    • D. 

      Solid black text

  • 18. 
    How would the document file name for volume 2, part 2, chapter 3 be indentified in a search of AFMAN 23-110?
    • A. 

      0223

    • B. 

      02023

    • C. 

      020203

    • D. 

      0202030

  • 19. 
    How many characters make up a NSN?
    • A. 

      12

    • B. 

      13

    • C. 

      14

    • D. 

      15

  • 20. 
    What two entities make up the NSN?
    • A. 

      NIIN and Materiel Management Code

    • B. 

      Federal Supply Class and NIIN

    • C. 

      Federal Supply Class and Materiel Management Code

    • D. 

      Material Management Code and Goverement Entity

  • 21. 
    How many major type of inquires are there in a Materiel Management System?
    • A. 

      4

    • B. 

      3

    • C. 

      2

    • D. 

      1

  • 22. 
    Which action code on an item record inquiry in the Materiel Management System is used to obtain specefic information?
    • A. 

      Record retrevial

    • B. 

      Supply management

    • C. 

      Type record account

    • D. 

      Transaction exception

  • 23. 
    What record retervial code in the AMterial management system gives you the transaction history when processing an inquiry?
    • A. 

      1

    • B. 

      2

    • C. 

      3

    • D. 

      4

  • 24. 
    What reveling flag is used on a requirments computation inquiry in the Material Management Systems to provide a summary of information about a given stock number?
    • A. 

      C

    • B. 

      D

    • C. 

      F

    • D. 

      R

  • 25. 
    Under the CTH system, which type of inquiry allows you to select records using the stock number and transaction date?
    • A. 

      Stock number

    • B. 

      Transaction serial number

    • C. 

      Batch miscellaneous option

    • D. 

      Batch transaction date and serial number

  • 26. 
    Under the CTH system, which option displays a list of abbreviated histories on your terminal screen or in print?
    • A. 

      Abbreviated format (option A)

    • B. 

      Short formant (Option B)

    • C. 

      Short format (Option S)

    • D. 

      Long format (Option L)

  • 27. 
    Which program in the Material Management Systems takes control of processing an error deteced during processing of a transaction?
    • A. 

      Reject

    • B. 

      Inquiry

    • C. 

      Mamagement Notice

    • D. 

      Management Support

  • 28. 
    Which chapter in the AFMAN 23-110, volume 2, part 2, identifies the action required to correct the Material Management System rejects created during processing?
    • A. 

      3

    • B. 

      5

    • C. 

      6

    • D. 

      7

  • 29. 
    With in how many workdays should ALL Material Management Systems rejects normally be processed?
    • A. 

      7

    • B. 

      5

    • C. 

      3

    • D. 

      1

  • 30. 
    Which product of the MAterial Management System is used to ensure rejects are processed in a timely manner?
    • A. 

      D818

    • B. 

      D097

    • C. 

      D043

    • D. 

      D019

  • 31. 
    Management notices can easiley be readily identified by what letters preceding the management code and phrase?
    • A. 

      MAN

    • B. 

      MGT

    • C. 

      MNT

    • D. 

      MMT

  • 32. 
    Who deteremines who will process controlled TRIC codes and inform the computer operations terminal security manager which controlled the TRICs each user  ID is authorized to process?
    • A. 

      Individual flight chiefs and terminal security monitors

    • B. 

      Logistics manager

    • C. 

      Computer operations supervisor

    • D. 

      Accountable officer

  • 33. 
    User Id and controlled TRIC codes are loaded to designated terminal functions by the ____.
    • A. 

      Data processing center

    • B. 

      Terminal security manager

    • C. 

      Computer operations supervisor

    • D. 

      Management and systems officer

  • 34. 
    Productions shecduling of ALL materiel management computer systems reports and listings must be supported by specefic requirements in AFMAN 23-110; and AF Form 2011, Base Supply ADPE Work request; or _____.
    • A. 

      A flight request

    • B. 

      A job order number

    • C. 

      A cumulatice reject

    • D. 

      an approved supplement

  • 35. 
    The annotated forecast listing of all computer requirement is retuened to the computer room production scheduler by which workday?
    • A. 

      30th

    • B. 

      20th

    • C. 

      15th

    • D. 

      10th

  • 36. 
    The Air Force supply management group is divided into how many divisions?
    • A. 

      4

    • B. 

      5

    • C. 

      6

    • D. 

      7

  • 37. 
    In the material management, you will primarily deal with which divisions of the Air Force supply management activity group?
    • A. 

      General services administration (GSA) and Defense Logistics Agency (DLA)

    • B. 

      General Support Division (GSD) and material support division(MSD)

    • C. 

      Troop support and MSD

    • D. 

      Fuels division and GSD

  • 38. 
    How fequently should you scedule surveillance visits?
    • A. 

      As required

    • B. 

      Quasterly

    • C. 

      Semiannually

    • D. 

      Annually

  • 39. 
    During a surveillance visit, you should coordinate your review of management products with what activity?
    • A. 

      Training element

    • B. 

      Analysis element

    • C. 

      Base personnel

    • D. 

      Statistic data

  • 40. 
    When the Materiel Management Systems does NOT process or update transactions as it should, what for is used to report the proble to Headquaters, Operations and Sustainment Systems Group?
    • A. 

      AF Form 1810

    • B. 

      AF Form 1815

    • C. 

      AF Form 1820

    • D. 

      AF Form 1825

  • 41. 
    Who is responsible for submitting and monitoring diffuculty reports?
    • A. 

      Procedures element

    • B. 

      Data processing center

    • C. 

      Administration element

    • D. 

      Computer operations element

  • 42. 
    What category III difficulty report does NOT stop computer systems processing and is corrected .
    • A. 

      As worload permits

    • B. 

      In the next schedulin release

    • C. 

      On an Air Force suggeston form

    • D. 

      Over the phone with the Materiel Management control center

  • 43. 
    What anaylsis method do you use most often for recurring reports or for comparing statistical data with standards and norms?
    • A. 

      Trend anaylsis

    • B. 

      Special anaylsis

    • C. 

      Problem anaylsis

    • D. 

      Document anaylsis

  • 44. 
    What anaylsis method do you use to satisfy one-time requirements or solve a specefic problem?
    • A. 

      Trend anaylsis

    • B. 

      Special studies

    • C. 

      Problem anaylsis

    • D. 

      Document anaylsis

  • 45. 
    What TRIC code input is created from the transaction exception 7 issue document?
    • A. 

      Due-out release (DOR)

    • B. 

      FIL

    • C. 

      ISU

    • D. 

      Specail Requistions (SPR)

  • 46. 
    What TRIC code is used to indentify a degraded operations shipment or non-directed transfer to Defense Reutilization and Marketing Service?
    • A. 

      4

    • B. 

      5

    • C. 

      6

    • D. 

      7

  • 47. 
    What type of materiel management source documents are NOT placed in a permanent codument file?
    • A. 

      TRIC FIC and FCU

    • B. 

      Source documents with file indicator D

    • C. 

      TRIC FCU

    • D. 

      TRIC FIC

  • 48. 
    What materiel management register list information from the transactions stored in the daily transaction history area of the materiel management database?
    • A. 

      Priority Monitor Report (D18)

    • B. 

      Daily Document Control (D04)

    • C. 

      Consilidated Transaction (M19)

    • D. 

      Conservsion Audit List (R22)

  • 49. 
    What materiel management register may be prepared to replace the Daily Transaction Register (D06)?
    • A. 

      Consilidated Inverntory Adjustment Document (1AD)(M10)

    • B. 

      Daily Document Control (D04),part 1

    • C. 

      Consildated Transaction (M19)

    • D. 

      Conversion Audit List (R22)

  • 50. 
    What Material management register is prepared from transactions histories that are stored and merged on magnetic tapes?
    • A. 

      Daily Document Register (D06)

    • B. 

      Dail Document Control (D04)

    • C. 

      Consildated Transaction (M19)

    • D. 

      Consilidated Inventory Adjustment (1AD)(M10)

  • 51. 
    The Consilidated Inventorty Adjustment Document (1AD) Register (M10) must contain an entry for each adjustment transaction appearing on what two categories?
    • A. 

      D04 and D05

    • B. 

      D04 and D06

    • C. 

      D05 and D06

    • D. 

      D06 and D08

  • 52. 
    What is the purpose of the shipment-suspense program?
    • A. 

      Hold an item that has not been confirmed

    • B. 

      Determine whether an item is lost

    • C. 

      Ensure and item has been shipped

    • D. 

      Put an item on backorder

  • 53. 
    All shipments nad transfers processed through LRS produce what type detail?
    • A. 

      Registered equipment management (REM) vehicles-only or special-spares

    • B. 

      Special-purpose recoverables authorized maintenance (SPRAM)

    • C. 

      Shipment-suspense or shipped-not-credited (SNC)

    • D. 

      Shipment inverntory

  • 54. 
    What TRIC code is used to update the shipment-suspence details?
    • A. 

      SSC

    • B. 

      SSG

    • C. 

      SCG

    • D. 

      SCS

  • 55. 
    What listing is used to manage delinquent shipment suspense details?
    • A. 

      R04

    • B. 

      R23

    • C. 

      R40

    • D. 

      R43

  • 56. 
    What code is assigned if an item record requiring reverse-post action does NOT contain a freeze code?
    • A. 

      I

    • B. 

      Q

    • C. 

      S

    • D. 

      U

  • 57. 
    What is the TRIC code used for an automated reverse-post transaction?
    • A. 

      1AM

    • B. 

      1CC

    • C. 

      1TK

    • D. 

      1WC

  • 58. 
    What information is required to make an automated reverse-post input?
    • A. 

      Transaction serial number, quantity, TTPC

    • B. 

      Transaction serial number, quantity, date

    • C. 

      Transaction serial number, TTPC, and date

    • D. 

      Quantity, TTPC, and date

  • 59. 
    What one postion alpha code is used to indicate how the Materiel Management System accumulates demand data stock leveling and due in from maintenance (DIFM) control?
    • A. 

      Demand code

    • B. 

      Trnasaction codes

    • C. 

      Force Activity Designator

    • D. 

      Urgency justification code

  • 60. 
    Organizations may identify their issues request to Base Supply using either a ___.
    • A. 

      Stock Number or commercial and goverment entity (CAGE) code

    • B. 

      Part number or transportation control number (TCN) number

    • C. 

      Part number or document number

    • D. 

      Stock number part number

  • 61. 
    Which management notice is a result of issue processing and reflects issue,kill or backorder quantity status?
    • A. 

      I004

    • B. 

      I005

    • C. 

      I007

    • D. 

      I023

  • 62. 
    An I007 management notice will be produced when a ____.
    • A. 

      Part number request can be converted to a single stock number under program control.

    • B. 

      Part number request CANNOT be converted to a stock number under program control.

    • C. 

      Stock number request can be converted to multiple part numbers.

    • D. 

      Stock number request CANNOT be converted to a part number.

  • 63. 
    What Material Management System output notifies the core automated maintenance systems (CAMS) of changes in the due-out status?
    • A. 

      DUO

    • B. 

      1SH

    • C. 

      ISU

    • D. 

      CSU

  • 64. 
    Which orginization contacts source of supply directly to obtain status, lateral support, or other assistance?
    • A. 

      EME

    • B. 

      EMS

    • C. 

      LRS

    • D. 

      LSC

  • 65. 
    Who is responsible for ensuring that all local resources are exhausted prior to submitting a MICAP requistion to the source of supply?
    • A. 

      Maintenance only

    • B. 

      Materiel Management Only

    • C. 

      Logistices Manager and Maintenance

    • D. 

      Both Materiel Management and Maintenance

  • 66. 
    What code on the MICAP report (DIC B9x) indentifies the reason for the out-of-stock condition that existed at the time of the MICAP requistion?
    • A. 

      Reason Why

    • B. 

      Report

    • C. 

      Delete

    • D. 

      Cause

  • 67. 
    What core automated maintenance system (CAMS) data screen is used to reconcile the maintenance status of a MICAP requestion?
    • A. 

      I023

    • B. 

      1SH

    • C. 

      233

    • D. 

      731

  • 68. 
    What code found on the MICAP report (DIC B9x) identefies the reason for termination of the MICAP condition?
    • A. 

      Reason why code

    • B. 

      Report code

    • C. 

      Delete code

    • D. 

      Cause code

  • 69. 
    Which report is transmitted to the application sourse of supply to report the initiation termination, or change to a MICAP condition?
    • A. 

      MICAP status report (E40)

    • B. 

      MICAP report (B9*)

    • C. 

      MICAP report(NOR)

    • D. 

      MICAP report (D9*)

  • 70. 
    Y-type details are internally established and maintained in the supply computer for how many days after MICAP terminations?
    • A. 

      30

    • B. 

      45

    • C. 

      60

    • D. 

      90

  • 71. 
    After how many days of computer downtime MUST manual MICAP reporting be accomplished for MICAP incidents?
    • A. 

      4

    • B. 

      3

    • C. 

      2

    • D. 

      1

  • 72. 
    Which Due-in from maintenance (DIFM) detail  record indicates an issue to maintenance?
    • A. 

      Credit

    • B. 

      FIRM

    • C. 

      Issue

    • D. 

      Memo

  • 73. 
    Which listing is used perform the due-in from maintenance (DIFM) reconciliation?
    • A. 

      D19

    • B. 

      D20

    • C. 

      D23

    • D. 

      Q04

  • 74. 
    Which listing is an important tool for monitoring status and maintaining visibility of due-in from maintenance (DIFM) assets?
    • A. 

      D19

    • B. 

      D20

    • C. 

      D23

    • D. 

      Q04

  • 75. 
    How many copies of the AF Form 2005, Turn-in Request, are required for turn-in preparation?
    • A. 

      1

    • B. 

      2

    • C. 

      3

    • D. 

      4

  • 76. 
    Which action taken code indicates an item is NOT authorized for base level repair?
    • A. 

      F

    • B. 

      1

    • C. 

      8

    • D. 

      A

  • 77. 
    What term is used to describe XD items that are candidates for two-level repair?
    • A. 

      Shop repairables

    • B. 

      Two-level reparables

    • C. 

      Equipment reparables

    • D. 

      Depot-level reparables

  • 78. 
    What is the source of data Supply uses to process turnaround transactions?
    • A. 

      DD Form 1348-1A, Issue release/receipt document

    • B. 

      AF Form 2005, Issue/Tur-in request

    • C. 

      I122 management notice

    • D. 

      AFTO Form 350

  • 79. 
    What TRIC is NOT an option for processing after dispositions instrurctions for an unserviceable asset has been received?
    • A. 

      ISU

    • B. 

      TRM

    • C. 

      MSI

    • D. 

      SHP

  • 80. 
    Which input is used for initail stockage and replenishment of supply points?
    • A. 

      MSI

    • B. 

      ISU

    • C. 

      DFM

    • D. 

      AWP

  • 81. 
    Mobility readiness spares package (MRSP) assets are desgined to allow support of a weapon system in a deployed location for how many days before resupply is necessary?
    • A. 

      30

    • B. 

      60

    • C. 

      90

    • D. 

      120

  • 82. 
    What TRIC code is used to load the serial number/control record for RSP authorizations?
    • A. 

      ISU

    • B. 

      MSI

    • C. 

      1EB

    • D. 

      1UB

  • 83. 
    What program is used to perform the readiness spares package RSP reconciliation?
    • A. 

      Q05

    • B. 

      S05

    • C. 

      R07

    • D. 

      S07

  • 84. 
    What TRIC code is used to issue assets from a mobility readiness spares package (MRSP) to the user?
    • A. 

      ISU

    • B. 

      MSI

    • C. 

      1EB

    • D. 

      1UB

  • 85. 
    The decision to transfer MRSP rest with the host and the ____.
    • A. 

      Losing Accountable officer

    • B. 

      Losing MAJCOM

    • C. 

      Gaining MAJCOM

    • D. 

      Gaining Accountable officer

  • 86. 
    MRSP will be inventoried within how many workdays after return from a deployment?
    • A. 

      3

    • B. 

      5

    • C. 

      10

    • D. 

      14

  • 87. 
    What TRIC code is used to assign a deployment flag on a MRSP detail?
    • A. 

      FIL

    • B. 

      FKD

    • C. 

      FME

    • D. 

      1WD

  • 88. 
    For long-term deployments, what input transfers accountablility of selected equipment items?
    • A. 

      1ED/FME

    • B. 

      1ET/FME

    • C. 

      1EB/1UB

    • D. 

      FKD/1WD

  • 89. 
    Deployments are considered long term after how many days?
    • A. 

      90

    • B. 

      120

    • C. 

      180

    • D. 

      365

  • 90. 
    What wartime capability system is used to conduct wartime assessments?
    • A. 

      Readiness Assessment Module (RAM)

    • B. 

      Logistics module-base level (LOGMOD-B)

    • C. 

      Sustainability Assessment Module (SAM)

    • D. 

      PC-Aircraft Sustainability Model (PC-ASM)

  • 91. 
    Who is responsible to select the method for document distribution and creation?
    • A. 

      Team Chief

    • B. 

      ELRS Commander

    • C. 

      Accountable Officer

    • D. 

      Person creating the document

  • 92. 
    To account for all transactions during degraded operations, the proper paperork must be filled out and maintained until the input into the ____.
    • A. 

      Contingency processing system

    • B. 

      Material Management System

    • C. 

      PC-ASM

    • D. 

      INMARSAT

  • 93. 
    What system captures UTC assessments, identifies suitable UTCs to satisfy taskings , and helps forecast shortfalls?
    • A. 

      Weapon System Management Information Systems (WSMIS)

    • B. 

      Mobility Inverntory Control and Accountability Systems (MICAS)

    • C. 

      AEF REporting Tool (ART)

    • D. 

      PC-Aircraft Sustainability Model (PC-ASM)

  • 94. 
    What code reflected in the operations plan (OPlan) or time phased force deployment data (TPFDD) defines the number of passenger and amount of cargo that must be moved to meet a wartime tasking?
    • A. 

      Transaction identification code (TRIC)

    • B. 

      Time-Phased deployment list (TPFDL)

    • C. 

      Controlled item code (CIC)

    • D. 

      Unit Type Code (UTC)

  • 95. 
    What information must be annotated on all documentation for small arms?
    • A. 

      Container number

    • B. 

      Model number

    • C. 

      Serial number

    • D. 

      Load number

  • 96. 
    Which type of MOBAG contain chemical warfare defense equipment?
    • A. 

      A

    • B. 

      B

    • C. 

      C

    • D. 

      D

  • 97. 
    MOBAGs can be built ahead of time and stored using what method?
    • A. 

      Tariff-sizing

    • B. 

      Right-sizing

    • C. 

      Sample-sizing

    • D. 

      MICAS-sizing

  • 98. 
    Shelf life assets are tracked in the MICAS by_____.
    • A. 

      NSN

    • B. 

      Serial number

    • C. 

      Contract/Lot number

    • D. 

      Part number

  • 99. 
    Who serves as the base equipment and authorization activity?
    • A. 

      Equipment accountability officer

    • B. 

      Stock fund manager

    • C. 

      Accountablitiy officer

    • D. 

      Porperty custodian

  • 100. 
    The selection of property custodians requires mutual agreement between_______.
    • A. 

      Equipment accountabilty officer and orginanizational commanders

    • B. 

      Previous custodian and equipment management element

    • C. 

      Organizational commanders and previous custodians

    • D. 

      Accountable officer and organizational commanders

  • 101. 
    What element within an allowance standard established the number of items that can be issued to an individual, activity, or organization?
    • A. 

      Allowance standard

    • B. 

      Authorization

    • C. 

      Basis of issue

    • D. 

      Unit of issue

  • 102. 
    Which code replaces the cost designator in the expendability, recoverability, repairability, cost designator (ERRCD) for an  EQUIPMENT item?
    • A. 

      Excess exception

    • B. 

      Allowance source

    • C. 

      Shipment exception

    • D. 

      Equipment management

  • 103. 
    Which expendability, recoverability, repairability, cost designator (ERRCD) identifies NON- EQUIPMENT inventory data equipment items?
    • A. 

      NF1

    • B. 

      ND1

    • C. 

      XB3

    • D. 

      XD2

  • 104. 
    The equipment custodian uses which AF Form to request non-equipment authorizations inventory data items?
    • A. 

      2005

    • B. 

      2003

    • C. 

      2001

    • D. 

      2000

  • 105. 
    Which AF Form is used to request a change to allowance standard or request an item that requires apporval under miscellaneous allowance source code?
    • A. 

      AF Form 601

    • B. 

      AF Form 600

    • C. 

      AF Form 2001

    • D. 

      AF Form 2005

  • 106. 
    Which turn-in method is used to process the TIN BEFORE picking up the property?
    • A. 

      Automatic

    • B. 

      Post-Post

    • C. 

      Directed

    • D. 

      Prepost

  • 107. 
    What activity code is used to process non-equipment authorizations inventory data equipment turn-ins?
    • A. 

      E

    • B. 

      P

    • C. 

      R

    • D. 

      X

  • 108. 
    What activity code is used to process equipment authorizations inventory data equipment turn-ins?
    • A. 

      E

    • B. 

      P

    • C. 

      R

    • D. 

      X

  • 109. 
    When a piece of equipment is no longer required or authorized, the equipment management section process what input to reduce or delete an authorization?
    • A. 

      FCD

    • B. 

      FIC

    • C. 

      FCI

    • D. 

      FID

  • 110. 
    Which listing is used to indentify out-of-balance conditions?
    • A. 

      Q10

    • B. 

      Q09

    • C. 

      M14

    • D. 

      D04

  • 111. 
    When signed by the property custodian which listing serves as a custody receipt?
    • A. 

      Allowance source code listing

    • B. 

      Consolidated transaction register

    • C. 

      Consilidated inventory document register

    • D. 

      Custodian authorization/ custody receipt listing

  • 112. 
    Which special-purpose recoverables authorized maintenance (SPRAM) assets is used to detect or isolate fault or problem in online equipment?
    • A. 

      Training spares

    • B. 

      Test isolation spares

    • C. 

      Shop standard spares

    • D. 

      Fault isolation spares

  • 113. 
    Which TRIC is used to load, change, or delete special-purpose recoverables authorized maintenance (SPRAM) detail?
    • A. 

      1XA

    • B. 

      1UB

    • C. 

      1WD

    • D. 

      1BS

  • 114. 
    Which report provides a listing of all items authorized, on-hand, and due-out for organizations authorized special-puprose recoverables authorized maintenance (SPRAM) assets?
    • A. 

      D04

    • B. 

      M10

    • C. 

      R25

    • D. 

      R43

  • 115. 
    When your base weapons assets are increased or decreased, what report do you send to the Small Arms at Robins Air Force Base?
    • A. 

      DSM

    • B. 

      MMC

    • C. 

      SRC

    • D. 

      XHA

  • 116. 
    What Matereil Management computer listing do you use to reconcile communications security and weapons assets?
    • A. 

      Conversion Audit List (R22)

    • B. 

      Daily Weapon/COMSEC Report (D21)

    • C. 

      Weapon/COMSEC Reconciliation (R46)

    • D. 

      Consilidated Inventory Adjusted Document Register (M10)

  • 117. 
    What stock leveling term represents the maximum quantity that should be on-hand or on order to sustain current operations?
    • A. 

      Economic order quantity (E0Q)

    • B. 

      Condemned quantity (NCQ)

    • C. 

      Requisition objective (RO)

    • D. 

      Safety-level quantity (SLQ)

  • 118. 
    When one-for-one stick requistioning is not needed, which adjusted minimum level should be used?
    • A. 

      D

    • B. 

      C

    • C. 

      B

    • D. 

      A

  • 119. 
    A request for an adjusted stock level is made on what Air Force form?
    • A. 

      86

    • B. 

      1991

    • C. 

      1996

    • D. 

      2005

  • 120. 
    Which Materiel Management System program is used to review and validate adjusted stock levels?
    • A. 

      R26

    • B. 

      R35

    • C. 

      R43

    • D. 

      R45

  • 121. 
    The Readiness Base Leveling system computes demand levels for what items?
    • A. 

      XF3

    • B. 

      XD

    • C. 

      XB3

    • D. 

      NF1

  • 122. 
    The Materiel Management System uses what document identifier code to respond to readiness-based level allocation?
    • A. 

      DZG

    • B. 

      RBL

    • C. 

      XCA

    • D. 

      XCC

  • 123. 
    Readiness-based level details are idenified by_____.
    • A. 

      Type detail L, Activity code A

    • B. 

      Type detail L , Activity code B

    • C. 

      Type detail C , Activity code A

    • D. 

      Type detail C , Activity code B

  • 124. 
    Which Materiel Management System listing is used to identify a possible readiness-based level (RBL) misallocation?
    • A. 

      R35

    • B. 

      R39

    • C. 

      R43

    • D. 

      R47

  • 125. 
    When item managers sends directives by telephone, letter, or message communications, or in normal redistribution order (DIC A2* or A4*) formats, what is the redistribution type?
    • A. 

      Special

    • B. 

      Transfer

    • C. 

      Directed

    • D. 

      Nondirected

  • 126. 
    What Document identification code indicates a denial to a redistribution order sent by Air For Material Command item managers?
    • A. 

      B7*

    • B. 

      BLO

    • C. 

      FTR

    • D. 

      RDO

  • 127. 
    What TEX code is used to process a return for an item damaged in shipment?
    • A. 

      P

    • B. 

      Q

    • C. 

      R

    • D. 

      Z

  • 128. 
    WHich SHipment exception code is used for assets forzen-do not ship?
    • A. 

      A

    • B. 

      1

    • C. 

      2

    • D. 

      3

  • 129. 
    An automatic requistion to the source of supply is identified by what document identification code?
    • A. 

      AO*

    • B. 

      Due-out (DUO)

    • C. 

      Specail requestion (SPR)

    • D. 

      Due-in cancellation (REC)

  • 130. 
    Program control uses what system to assign a requistion priority for each requisition?
    • A. 

      Core automated maintenance systems (CAMS)

    • B. 

      Military Standard Trace Reconciliation Program (MILSTAMP)

    • C. 

      Military Standard Requisitioning and Issue Procedures (MILSTRIP)

    • D. 

      Uniform Materiel Movement and Issue Procedures (UMMIPS)

  • 131. 
    What codes are used to determine the requisitioning priority desiginator used at the source of supply?
    • A. 

      FAD and deleivery destination

    • B. 

      FAD and UND

    • C. 

      UJC and FAD

    • D. 

      UND and delievery priority

  • 132. 
    What code is assigned to the item record to indicate the source of supply has cancelled a requisition?
    • A. 

      SPC 1

    • B. 

      SPC 5

    • C. 

      REX 5

    • D. 

      REX 1

  • 133. 
    What reconciliation flag on the status detail record indicates that the TRIC code AFC action is to request improved status on a requisition?
    • A. 

      A

    • B. 

      C

    • C. 

      F

    • D. 

      R

  • 134. 
    Supply difficulty for the Air Force-managed items are reported on what AF Form?
    • A. 

      1230

    • B. 

      1250

    • C. 

      1530

    • D. 

      1667

  • 135. 
    To identify shipments that meet the tracer criteria, the military standard movement procedures (MILSTAMP) tracer reconcilation program (GV597) is run atleast  _____.
    • A. 

      Once a month

    • B. 

      Twice a month

    • C. 

      Quaterly

    • D. 

      Semiannually

  • 136. 
    Due-ins that have been receive but remain in the computers because the receipts have not been completely cleared are included on which transportation tracer list?
    • A. 

      Parcel post tracer list

    • B. 

      Transportation tracer list

    • C. 

      Receipt acknowlegded error list

    • D. 

      Consilidated shipment error list

  • 137. 
    Which Materiel Management program identifies all claims receivable/claims payable details that require follow-up, a report discrepancy (ROD) or a supply discrepancy report (SDR)?
    • A. 

      NGV567

    • B. 

      NVG577

    • C. 

      NVG587

    • D. 

      NVG597

  • 138. 
    Which two listings are used to perform due-out review and validation?
    • A. 

      D18 and R01

    • B. 

      Q12 and R01

    • C. 

      Q12 and M37

    • D. 

      M37 and D18

  • 139. 
    How often are UND C due-outs validated?
    • A. 

      Daily

    • B. 

      Weekly

    • C. 

      Monthly

    • D. 

      Quarterly

  • 140. 
    What TEX code is coded on the due-out detail and will prevent an automatic due-out release of assets?
    • A. 

      1 8 H U X or . (Period)

    • B. 

      1 8 H U X or *

    • C. 

      7 8 B H U or . (period)

    • D. 

      7 8 B H U or *

  • 141. 
     When a due-out cancellation was processed in the Core Automated Maintenance System (CAMS), what review code is used on the due-out cancellation input?
    • A. 

      C

    • B. 

      D

    • C. 

      I

    • D. 

      M

  • 142. 
    The factors involved in the due-out release sequence are FAD UJC project code and _____.
    • A. 

      Receipt processing date.

    • B. 

      Document number date

    • C. 

      Requisition number date

    • D. 

      Receipt and requisitioning date

  • 143. 
    How often is FEDLOG updated?
    • A. 

      Daily

    • B. 

      Monthly

    • C. 

      Quaterly

    • D. 

      Annually

  • 144. 
    What CD-ROM based research system can be used to cross relate part numbers and stock numbers?
    • A. 

      CAMS

    • B. 

      MICAP asset sourcing system (MASS)

    • C. 

      FEDLOG

    • D. 

      D043A

  • 145. 
    What TRIC code is used to access the FEDLOG interface from a Materiel Management System enviroment?
    • A. 

      FIL

    • B. 

      1RH

    • C. 

      1RL

    • D. 

      ISU

  • 146. 
    Illustrated parts breakdown (IPBs) are normally identified and published by ____.
    • A. 

      Figure and index

    • B. 

      Model number and series

    • C. 

      -4 series technical orders

    • D. 

      -7 series technical orders

  • 147. 
    Which code in an IPB provides maintenance activities with repair level responsibitlites, support methods , and disposition instructions?
    • A. 

      Next higher assembly (NHA)

    • B. 

      Illustrated parts breakdown (IBA)

    • C. 

      Numeric parts preference code ( NPPC)

    • D. 

      Source, maintenance, and recoverability (SMR)

  • 148. 
    Which position of the source, maintenance, and recoverability code (SMR) reflects the disposition action for unservicable assets?
    • A. 

      Depot

    • B. 

      Source

    • C. 

      Maintenance

    • D. 

      Recoverability

  • 149. 
    An expendable item is identified by which code in the first position of an expendability, recoverability, repairability, cost (ERCC) designator?
    • A. 

      D

    • B. 

      E

    • C. 

      N

    • D. 

      X

  • 150. 
    Which TRIC code is used to change the Stock number; experdability, recoverability, repairability, cost designator (ERRCD); equipment management code (EMC); routing identifier; or budget code on the item?
    • A. 

      FCU

    • B. 

      FIC

    • C. 

      FID

    • D. 

      FNL

  • 151. 
    What is the maximum number of characters for the descriptive nomenclature field on an item record?
    • A. 

      18

    • B. 

      24

    • C. 

      32

    • D. 

      48

  • 152. 
    For internal records what TRIC changes the unit price, unit of issue, and quantity pack ( except for local purchase items) fields?
    • A. 

      FCU

    • B. 

      FIC

    • C. 

      FID

    • D. 

      FNL

  • 153. 
    What computer systems provides interchangable and subsititute group information? 
    • A. 

      D143B

    • B. 

      D043B

    • C. 

      D071

    • D. 

      C001

  • 154. 
    Which interchangable and subsititution group (ISG) relationship code identifies an item that can only be used in place of another for a particular use or under certain circumstances?
    • A. 

      T

    • B. 

      S

    • C. 

      M

    • D. 

      I

  • 155. 
    Who should help a driver back a vehicle into position for offloading?
    • A. 

      Spotter

    • B. 

      In-checker

    • C. 

      Vehicle assistant

    • D. 

      Transportation personnel

  • 156. 
    Before accepting a shipment, the receiving function representative must ensure that ____
    • A. 

      All containers are accounted for

    • B. 

      Damaged property is returned to the sending activity

    • C. 

      Discrepancies are turned over to the cargo movement representative

    • D. 

      The carrier annotates the reason for discrepancies on the receipt document

  • 157. 
    What type of the receipt must be processed before all others?
    • A. 

      Priority processing

    • B. 

      Safety or security reasons

    • C. 

      Minimize materiel handling

    • D. 

      Protection from the weather

  • 158. 
    Which check is not required by the receiving in-checker?
    • A. 

      NSN

    • B. 

      Warehouse location

    • C. 

      Unit of issue

    • D. 

      Quantity

  • 159. 
    The receiving in-checker sends suspected tampered items to the ___
    • A. 

      Supplier

    • B. 

      Warehouse

    • C. 

      Materiel management inspector

    • D. 

      Cargo movement represntative

  • 160. 
    Before you can access the receipt processing screen, what must you enter on the receipt inquiry screen?
    • A. 

      Quantity

    • B. 

      Stock Number

    • C. 

      Tot box/hold bay location

    • D. 

      System designator and due-in document number

  • 161. 
    Once the on-hand quantity reaches zero, the due-in detail record is ___
    • A. 

      Reset

    • B. 

      Deleted

    • C. 

      Updated

    • D. 

      Suspended

  • 162. 
    Which of the following is NOT a category of receipt discrepancies
    • A. 

      Quantity

    • B. 

      Documentation

    • C. 

      Misidentified item

    • D. 

      Servicable/undamaged items

  • 163. 
    What action must be taken on the receipt document for an overage receipt?
    • A. 

      Sned the items to inspection

    • B. 

      Send the items to the receiving supervisor

    • C. 

      Circle the incorrect quantity and put the correct quantity above it

    • D. 

      Circle the incorrect quantity and put the overage above it

  • 164. 
    Whose responsibility is it to identify or verify the identity of a misidentified item?
    • A. 

      Item manager

    • B. 

      Maintenance

    • C. 

      In-checker

    • D. 

      Inspector

  • 165. 
    When processing misidentified property, what TEX code is required on the receipt input?
    • A. 

      J

    • B. 

      P

    • C. 

      Q

    • D. 

      Z

  • 166. 
    WHen an item is received with a hidden defect, what code is assigned to process the receipt?
    • A. 

      Transaction exception code P

    • B. 

      Transaction exception code Z

    • C. 

      Supply condition code P

    • D. 

      Supply condition code Z

  • 167. 
    What TEX code is used to process a recoverable (XF/XD) FOB if the orginization no longer requires the item and it is not that organizations accountable record?
    • A. 

      *

    • B. 

      +

    • C. 

      -

    • D. 

      @

  • 168. 
    Which materiel management individuals are authorized to determine the condition of property for the supply account?
    • A. 

      In-checkers

    • B. 

      Storage personnel

    • C. 

      Inventory personnel

    • D. 

      Materiel management inspectors

  • 169. 
    What three things are used to identify an item?
    • A. 

      Reference number, part number, and stock number

    • B. 

      Stock number, nomenclature, and item description

    • C. 

      Stock number, item description, and specifications

    • D. 

      Reference number, stock number, and item description

  • 170. 
    What condition tag is used to identifiy new, used, repaired, or reconditioned servicable materiel?
    • A. 

      DD Form 1574

    • B. 

      DD Form 1575

    • C. 

      DD Form 1576

    • D. 

      DD Form 1577

  • 171. 
    What is the purpose of the AF Form 2032?
    • A. 

      Updates inspection data

    • B. 

      Identifies condemned items

    • C. 

      Identifies property turned over to maintenance

    • D. 

      Identifies property in stock that has been suspended

  • 172. 
    For what type of change is and FCH TRIC used?
    • A. 

      Status

    • B. 

      Identity

    • C. 

      Condition

    • D. 

      Serviceability

  • 173. 
    An organizational refusal would be a customer's responsibilty if the ____
    • A. 

      Property was misidentified

    • B. 

      Customer failed to cancel the due-out

    • C. 

      Property delivered was an unsuitable substitute

    • D. 

      Quantity issued was in excess of what the customer ordered

  • 174. 
    When deficienceies are noted during a scheduled warehouse surveillance, within how many days does the inspector conduct a follow-up inspection?
    • A. 

      2

    • B. 

      5

    • C. 

      7

    • D. 

      10

  • 175. 
    Who schedules and accomplishes an aggressive surveillance inspection program for all items in storage?
    • A. 

      Inspector

    • B. 

      Logistics manager

    • C. 

      Accountable officer

    • D. 

      Warehouse supervisor

  • 176. 
    Where are all unresolved supply discrepancy reports forwarded to when additional help is needed?
    • A. 

      MAJCOM

    • B. 

      Stock control functions

    • C. 

      Accountable officer

    • D. 

      Item manager

  • 177. 
    Which materiel managament evaluates and controls incoming SDR?
    • A. 

      Receiving

    • B. 

      Inspection

    • C. 

      Procedures

    • D. 

      Stock control

  • 178. 
    At what temperature must a refrigerated storage CHILL space be maintained?
    • A. 

      Between 50 and 60 F

    • B. 

      Bewtween 32 and 50 F

    • C. 

      Below 32 F

    • D. 

      Below 0 F

  • 179. 
    What are the two types of open storage areas?
    • A. 

      Surfaced and graded

    • B. 

      Graded and covered

    • C. 

      Graded and improved

    • D. 

      Improved and unimproved

  • 180. 
    What protects items placed in open storage from wet ground conditions?
    • A. 

      Concrete

    • B. 

      Drainage

    • C. 

      Steel mates

    • D. 

      Crushed stone

  • 181. 
    What is a major disadvantage in the use of unimproved open storage?
    • A. 

      Adverse weather

    • B. 

      Wet ground conditions

    • C. 

      Slipping on steel mat toppings

    • D. 

      Limited use of MHE

  • 182. 
    The basic resource of an materiel management and distrubtion operation is the ____
    • A. 

      Materiel handling equipment

    • B. 

      Gross space available

    • C. 

      Storage space

    • D. 

      Storage plan

  • 183. 
    When planning a warehouse layout, what type of space must be kept to a minimum so as to increase storage abd utilization?
    • A. 

      Bin rows

    • B. 

      Work areas

    • C. 

      Bulk storage

    • D. 

      Special storage

  • 184. 
    Warehouse stockrooms are sequenced from___
    • A. 

      Left to right only

    • B. 

      Right to left only

    • C. 

      Left to right and front to rear

    • D. 

      Right to left and rear to front

  • 185. 
    What designator is used to identify the storage level in a warehouse location?
    • A. 

      Single number

    • B. 

      Single capital letter

    • C. 

      Two-position number

    • D. 

      Two-position capital letters

  • 186. 
    What is used to identify a bin subdivison in the warehouse location code 05C045F056D?
    • A. 

      045

    • B. 

      056

    • C. 

      F

    • D. 

      D

  • 187. 
    What letter or symbol is entered in the "Warehouse Location Delete Flag" field when deleting a warehouse location?
    • A. 

      R

    • B. 

      D

    • C. 

      #

    • D. 

      *

  • 188. 
    What supply product is used to clear the warehouse location suspense file?
    • A. 

      Document log

    • B. 

      Transaction log

    • C. 

      Central locator listing

    • D. 

      Daily document register (D04)

  • 189. 
    Within how many days workdays of the start of a cycle inventory should the storage activity complete scheduled validations?
    • A. 

      3

    • B. 

      7

    • C. 

      10

    • D. 

      14

  • 190. 
    The practice of storing items in a way that causes a loss of storage space is called _____
    • A. 

      Honeycombing

    • B. 

      Cross stacking

    • C. 

      Mezzanine

    • D. 

      Potential vacant space

  • 191. 
    Markings found on containers that do NOT apply to presently packaged materiels need to be ______
    • A. 

      Obliterated

    • B. 

      Saved as historical data

    • C. 

      Recycled

    • D. 

      Ignored

  • 192. 
    Which TRIC identifies a warehouse change documnet for an indicative data change?
    • A. 

      FCD

    • B. 

      FIC

    • C. 

      FCH

    • D. 

      1SC

  • 193. 
    What TRIC identifies items that have been misidentified by the manufacturer?
    • A. 

      FCC

    • B. 

      FCL

    • C. 

      FCH

    • D. 

      FCU

  • 194. 
    Whic phrase on an issue or shipment document requires you to validate the servicable balance of the property in location?
    • A. 

      ZERO BAL

    • B. 

      SERV BAL = 0

    • C. 

      SERV BAL = 1

    • D. 

      INSUFFICENT BAL

  • 195. 
    Which scenario is an examble of a warehouse refusal?
    • A. 

      Wrong part is delivered to a customer

    • B. 

      Item in stock requires a supply deficiency report

    • C. 

      Inquiry shows that on-hand balance of an asset is zero

    • D. 

      Quantity in location needed to fill an issue request is not sufficient

  • 196. 
    Which issue exception code identify health hazard items?
    • A. 

      3 6 or N

    • B. 

      E F or 7

    • C. 

      8 9 or M

    • D. 

      H G or 8

  • 197. 
    As a mininum, how often must a utility program be run to identify potentially hazarous item records that do NOT have an issue exception code or health hazard flag assigned?
    • A. 

      Daily

    • B. 

      Weekly

    • C. 

      Monthly

    • D. 

      Quarterly

  • 198. 
    Whic health hazard code indicates an item is a serious health hazard and requires special control?
    • A. 

      1

    • B. 

      8

    • C. 

      9

    • D. 

      M

  • 199. 
    Which corrosives are incompatible and should be serperated in storage?
    • A. 

      Peroxyacetic acid and hydochloric acid

    • B. 

      Organic and nonorganic acid

    • C. 

      Acetic and nonacetic

    • D. 

      Acids and alkalis

  • 200. 
    What type of storage is best suited for pesticides, posions, and certain batteries?
    • A. 

      High risk

    • B. 

      Flammable

    • C. 

      Corrosive

    • D. 

      Low hazard

  • 201. 
    When chemical and petroleum products reach their retest dates, what TRIC is input to suspend the outdated materiel on an unservicable detail and prevent reissue?
    • A. 

      FCA

    • B. 

      FCB

    • C. 

      FCC

    • D. 

      FCD

  • 202. 
    What is the Air Force source for hazardous materiel data and pollution prevention information?
    • A. 

      AFEMS

    • B. 

      AF-CMOS

    • C. 

      AF-EMIS

    • D. 

      AF-HAZMAT

  • 203. 
    To prevent unnecessary testing, what tool published by the DLA provides sata on products which have been tested or condemned?
    • A. 

      Quality Status List

    • B. 

      Chemical Refrence List

    • C. 

      Retest Control List

    • D. 

      Health Hazard Guide

  • 204. 
    Hazardous disposal can be generally grouped into how many categories?
    • A. 

      One

    • B. 

      Two

    • C. 

      Three

    • D. 

      Four

  • 205. 
    Who is responsible for the cost of disposing hazerdous wastes?
    • A. 

      Distribution officer

    • B. 

      DRMS

    • C. 

      Inspection element

    • D. 

      Using organization

  • 206. 
    What type of assets receives priority handling throughout the receiving process and is never left unattended?
    • A. 

      MICAP

    • B. 

      Sensitive

    • C. 

      Pilferable

    • D. 

      Classified

  • 207. 
    What materiel management controlled item code identifies precious metals?
    • A. 

      J

    • B. 

      N

    • C. 

      Q

    • D. 

      R

  • 208. 
    How are elcrtronic senstive devices identified on the item record?
    • A. 

      IEX code 3

    • B. 

      IEX code 4

    • C. 

      Type cargo code 3

    • D. 

      Type cargo code 4

  • 209. 
    Who provides the materiel management inspector a listing of itme rewuiring extensive functional check before installation?
    • A. 

      Job Control

    • B. 

      Quality Control

    • C. 

      Chief of Maintenance

    • D. 

      Maintenance contact point

  • 210. 
    Which activity code is used to process issues to maintenance for functional check items?
    • A. 

      A

    • B. 

      B

    • C. 

      C

    • D. 

      D

  • 211. 
    Ehat type of shelf life code has a definite non-extendable period of shelf life?
    • A. 

      Type A

    • B. 

      Type B

    • C. 

      Type I

    • D. 

      Type II

  • 212. 
    Which TRIC should an inspector use to transfer an unservicable shelf-liife asset to a maintenace function?
    • A. 

      FCC

    • B. 

      ISU

    • C. 

      MSI

    • D. 

      TIN

  • 213. 
    How many days prior to the expiration date should type II self-life items be schedules for serviceablitity testing?
    • A. 

      10

    • B. 

      15 to 45

    • C. 

      60 to 90

    • D. 

      120

  • 214. 
    What computer input is used to load a suspect materiel flag into the item record?
    • A. 

      FCC with suspect flag F

    • B. 

      FCD with suspect flag F

    • C. 

      FCC with suspect flag S

    • D. 

      FCD with suspect flag S

  • 215. 
    What management notice is output when suspended property is placed on an unservicable detail?
    • A. 

      I301

    • B. 

      I103

    • C. 

      I302

    • D. 

      I203

  • 216. 
    What computer input is used to load a TCTO flag?
    • A. 

      FCU

    • B. 

      FCI

    • C. 

      FCC

    • D. 

      FCD

  • 217. 
    When an item is under warranty or guaranty it will be identified as such:
    • A. 

      On the DD Form 1576`

    • B. 

      On the counter

    • C. 

      With a K in the NSN

    • D. 

      TEX code 3

  • 218. 
    The information that must be annotated on the receiving document of a warranty or guaranty item is the serial number,
    • A. 

      Model, and manufacturer's name and address

    • B. 

      Model, and the manufacturer's refrence number

    • C. 

      Part number, and manufacturer's name and address

    • D. 

      Part number, and manufacturer's reference number

  • 219. 
    Which items are not considered a miscellaneous commodity?
    • A. 

      WCDO

    • B. 

      Unserviceable items

    • C. 

      Serviceable items

    • D. 

      Tires

  • 220. 
    What marking indetifies the year of manufacture on an aircraft tire?
    • A. 

      Bin label

    • B. 

      Color tape

    • C. 

      Condition tag

    • D. 

      Identification label

  • 221. 
    The minimum data record on the recap sheet should include the stock number, system designator, quantity, document number,
    • A. 

      Warehouse location, and document identification code

    • B. 

      TRIC, and routing identifier designator

    • C. 

      Warehouse location, and priority

    • D. 

      TRIC, and warehouse location

  • 222. 
    Which program assigns freeze code C to all item records specified within the report parameter for a complete inventory?
    • A. 

      Sample Inventory Program (NGV535)

    • B. 

      Supply Point Listing (Q13)

    • C. 

      Inventory Count File Program (R12)

    • D. 

      Consilidated Inventory Adjustment Document Register (M10)

  • 223. 
    Which materiel management listing is reveiwed by the inventory section to verify that all degraded operations emergency issues have been processed?
    • A. 

      Stock Fund Due-Out Report (M36)

    • B. 

      Daily Document Register (D04)

    • C. 

      Consolidated Inventory Adjustment Document Register (M10)

    • D. 

      Daily PFMR/OCCR Update and Reconciliation (D11)

  • 224. 
    What document is used to clear the "I" freeze code suspense file?
    • A. 

      Reverse post output document

    • B. 

      Inventory count record

    • C. 

      IRC output document

    • D. 

      Annotated 1GP notice

  • 225. 
    An automatic adjustment for a pilferable item occurs when the record balance does not agree with the recount quantity and the dollar value of the adjustment is at least less then ___
    • A. 

      $25

    • B. 

      $50

    • C. 

      $100

    • D. 

      $1,000

  • 226. 
    When researching a physical overage, what is the maximum number of months from the current date do you go to the last inventory adjustment?
    • A. 

      Three

    • B. 

      Six

    • C. 

      12

    • D. 

      18

  • 227. 
    The last page of the M10 shows the number of sample inventories in progress over how many days?
    • A. 

      15

    • B. 

      30

    • C. 

      45

    • D. 

      60

  • 228. 
    The ERRCD for bench stock iems must be____
    • A. 

      XB3

    • B. 

      XF3

    • C. 

      XD2

    • D. 

      ND2

  • 229. 
    When controlled items, approved by the unit commander in writing, are placed on bench stock, they are assigned issue exception code__
    • A. 

      J

    • B. 

      K

    • C. 

      M

    • D. 

      N

  • 230. 
    How many days before a scheduled semiannual phase II bench stock review is a complete inventory and replenishment done?
    • A. 

      5

    • B. 

      10

    • C. 

      15

    • D. 

      20

  • 231. 
    How often must bench stock be SRD data and MRA levels be validated?
    • A. 

      Monthly

    • B. 

      Quarterly

    • C. 

      Semiannually

    • D. 

      Annually

  • 232. 
    The principle of "preposition materiel" includes all of the following except
    • A. 

      Don't obstruct other materiel movements

    • B. 

      Position containers to facilitate picking up

    • C. 

      Keep the length and number of moves to a minimum

    • D. 

      Use conveyors to reduce accidents and prevent damage

  • 233. 
    Which type of  warehouse equipment is part of SAS?
    • A. 

      Conveyors

    • B. 

      Affixed cranes

    • C. 

      Overhead trolleys

    • D. 

      General purpose shelves

  • 234. 
    Which of the following is NOT a factor to consider when operating MHHS to ensure unsafe incidents are eliminated?
    • A. 

      Operational deficiencies

    • B. 

      Workload breakdown

    • C. 

      General layout

    • D. 

      Cost

  • 235. 
    Short-life reusable containers are expected to survive atleast how many round-trips?
    • A. 

      10

    • B. 

      25

    • C. 

      50

    • D. 

      100

  • 236. 
    Reusable conatainers come in how many categories?
    • A. 

      1

    • B. 

      2

    • C. 

      3

    • D. 

      4

  • 237. 
    • A. 

      Sensitive

    • B. 

      COMSEC

    • C. 

      Classified

    • D. 

      NWRM

  • 238. 
    The periodic interval between successive inventories of CCIs may never exceed how many months?
    • A. 

      12

    • B. 

      15

    • C. 

      18

    • D. 

      24

  • 239. 
    Who is responsible for the accuracy of inventory held to include units maintaining COMSEC and equipment in-use assets?
    • A. 

      Storage activity

    • B. 

      Mobility section

    • C. 

      Inspection section

    • D. 

      Equipment element

  • 240. 
    Air Force organizations will formally designate, in writing, personnel permitted and authorized to accept controlled materiel in accordance with Air Force Instruction (AFI)
    • A. 

      314-1

    • B. 

      31-4-1

    • C. 

      31-401

    • D. 

      34-101

  • 241. 
    What handling concept minimizes the possibility that an unauthorized or inadvertent act could degrade the nuclear surety of a nuclear weapon or nuclear weapon system?
    • A. 

      Retinal identification

    • B. 

      Special markings

    • C. 

      Fingerprinting

    • D. 

      Two person

  • 242. 
    Who is responible for the health of assigned items to meet mission requirements over the lifecycle of these assets?
    • A. 

      AFMC item management team

    • B. 

      LRS commander

    • C. 

      DLA

    • D. 

      Item manager

  • 243. 
    At least how many individual options does  SATS have built-in within the reports list?
    • A. 

      10

    • B. 

      15

    • C. 

      20

    • D. 

      25

  • 244. 
    Who is responsible for issuing all user and customer identification numbers and privileges and for maintaining the database, restoring files, initilazing the Radio Frequency (RF) network, and the Materiel Management Systems interface?
    • A. 

      System Adminisrator

    • B. 

      Network technician

    • C. 

      Customer

    • D. 

      User

  • 245. 
    Who is in charge of all the internal workings of the SATS system?
    • A. 

      User

    • B. 

      Customer

    • C. 

      Network technitian

    • D. 

      System Administrator

  • 246. 
    Hen a customer receives assets from the LRS whatever other item besides a PIN does the individual need to accept property?
    • A. 

      Signature

    • B. 

      Smart card

    • C. 

      Security Clearance

    • D. 

      SATS card

  • 247. 
    How many types of hand-held terminals are used in the SATS system?
    • A. 

      One

    • B. 

      Two

    • C. 

      Three

    • D. 

      Four

  • 248. 
    The type of hand-held terminals that uses a Symbol Technologies Hand Held Fuzzy Logic Scanner is the Intermec Janus ____
    • A. 

      2010

    • B. 

      2020

    • C. 

      5023

    • D. 

      5032

  • 249. 
    What happens during a warming-boot?
    • A. 

      Many applications reset to orignal settings

    • B. 

      Configuration settings and files retained

    • C. 

      Many settings revert to the default factory settings

    • D. 

      The SATS application is not retained

  • 250. 
    Which of the following is NOT correct concerning a cold-boot?
    • A. 

      Configuration settings and files are retained

    • B. 

      The network and scanner parameters are retained

    • C. 

      Some settings revert to the default factory settings

    • D. 

      It is necessary to re-flash the SATSapplication onto the hand-held terminal

  • 251. 
    Software is loaded into hand-held terminals through a process called____
    • A. 

      Configuration

    • B. 

      Transferring

    • C. 

      Installing

    • D. 

      Flashing

  • 252. 
    At minimum, what Microsoft Windows operating system is required for flashing a hand-held terminal?
    • A. 

      95

    • B. 

      98

    • C. 

      XP

    • D. 

      2000

  • 253. 
    What are tracked  in SATS while an item is in route to its warehouse location delivery destination?
    • A. 

      No warehouse location

    • B. 

      Temporary location

    • C. 

      Permanent locations

    • D. 

      Assigned locations

  • 254. 
    What two types of Movements are users allowed to perform on a hand-held terminal?
    • A. 

      Individual and bulk

    • B. 

      Single and multiple

    • C. 

      Temporary and permanent

    • D. 

      Assigned and no warehouse locataions

  • 255. 
    Which hand-held terminal function allows the user to place items into the warehouse location?
    • A. 

      Pull

    • B. 

      Delievery

    • C. 

      Put Away

    • D. 

      Movement

  • 256. 
    Ll are functions of the Pull process except___
    • A. 

      Regular pull

    • B. 

      Pull by label

    • C. 

      Pull by location

    • D. 

      High priority pull

  • 257. 
    Which of these actions does not occur when scanning receipts (REC) through SATS?
    • A. 

      Clears the REC document from SATS

    • B. 

      Greatly reduces Document Control workload

    • C. 

      Clears the REC document control record from the Materiel Management System

    • D. 

      Eliminates the need of sending a hardcopy receipt document to Document Control

  • 258. 
    What function indicates that an item has been transferred from the receiving area to the next step in the storage and delivery process?
    • A. 

      Pull

    • B. 

      Delievery

    • C. 

      Put Away

    • D. 

      Reject and Movement

  • 259. 
    What process verifies that the user has placed an item in the correct location in the warehouse?
    • A. 

      Pull

    • B. 

      Delievery

    • C. 

      Put Away

    • D. 

      Movement

  • 260. 
    What does the Pull process involve?
    • A. 

      Delivering property to the customer

    • B. 

      Issuing property from the warehouse

    • C. 

      Tracking an interim location for an item

    • D. 

      Placing an item in the proper storage location

  • 261. 
    How many pre-sorted reports are available to the SATS users?
    • A. 

      10

    • B. 

      17

    • C. 

      24

    • D. 

      31

  • 262. 
    When processing reports in the SATS, option that allows you to filter data for your specific requirments are called___
    • A. 

      Selection types

    • B. 

      Parameters

    • C. 

      Data lists

    • D. 

      Sorts

  • 263. 
    The report that provides a snapshot of the effectiveness of the meeting customer requirements with on-the-shelf assets is referred to as the items_____
    • A. 

      Pulled

    • B. 

      Not pulled

    • C. 

      Received by Customer

    • D. 

      Not received by customer

  • 264. 
    Maintenance processing is only performed_____
    • A. 

      On the workstation

    • B. 

      At the end of the day

    • C. 

      By appointed personnel

    • D. 

      With the hand-held terminal

  • 265. 
    The batch hand-held terminal login sub-process allowd users to log into the hand-held terminal when no ____
    • A. 

      SATS session is available

    • B. 

      Communications dock is available

    • C. 

      Radio frequency (RF) available

    • D. 

      Workstation is available

  • 266. 
    How many INFOConnect paths does the SATS use to communicate with the Materiel Management Syastem?
    • A. 

      Zero

    • B. 

      One

    • C. 

      Two

    • D. 

      Three

  • 267. 
    • A. 

      Provides Materiel Management System-generated SATS transaction to SATS

    • B. 

      Process the output documents sent from Materiel Management System to SATS

    • C. 

      Captures the DEpartment of the DEfense Form 1348-1A and updates SATS witht the data

    • D. 

      Sends the SATS-generated Materiel Management System transactions to Matereil Management System

  • 268. 
    What happed to the hand-held (HTT) and workstation transactions when the Matereil Management System and SATS are unable to interface?
    • A. 

      Both are halted until the SATS and Matereil M

    • B. 

      Boith are maintained in the SATS database, in the order they have been generated

    • C. 

      The workstation transactions are halted; the HTT transactions are maintained

    • D. 

      The workstations transactions are maintained; the HTT transactions are halted

  • 269. 
    In Discoverer, what is a logical grouping of database tables or views that apply to your specific data requirements?
    • A. 

      Joins

    • B. 

      Sorts

    • C. 

      Reports

    • D. 

      Business area

  • 270. 
    In Discoverer Plus, what filters the data to display only the exact information you want?
    • A. 

      Calculations

    • B. 

      Percentages

    • C. 

      Parameters

    • D. 

      Conditions

  • 271. 
    Which worksheet item enables you to summarize rows and columns quickly and easily?
    • A. 

      Sorts

    • B. 

      Totals

    • C. 

      Parameters

    • D. 

      Calculations

  • 272. 
    What is the process of arranging data into meaningful order so that you can analyze it more effectively?
    • A. 

      Conditioning

    • B. 

      Arranging

    • C. 

      Calculating

    • D. 

      Sorting

  • 273. 
    What worksheet item offers pre-defined choices of data when you open a workbook?
    • A. 

      Totals

    • B. 

      Conditions

    • C. 

      Parameters

    • D. 

      Percentages

  • 274. 
    In order to process pre-defined reports and modify the display of results in a worksheet, you would need to use the Discoverer ____
    • A. 

      Reporter

    • B. 

      Viewer

    • C. 

      Query

    • D. 

      Plus

  • 275. 
    In Discoverer, what function allows youb to transfer data to other application formats?
    • A. 

      Report

    • B. 

      Import

    • C. 

      Export

    • D. 

      Print

  • 276. 
    What system provides the ablitity to make repair, deployment, sourcing, maintenance, acquistion, re-distribution, forcasting, and other management decisions?
    • A. 

      Oracle Discoverer Plus

    • B. 

      Enterprise Solution-Supply

    • C. 

      SATS

    • D. 

      Weapon System Management Information System

  • 277. 
    The intent of Enterprise Asset Visibility component is to provide complete visibility of Air Force _______
    • A. 

      Owned assets

    • B. 

      Sourced assets

    • C. 

      Asset shortages

    • D. 

      Repairbale assets

  • 278. 
    One of the primary functions that ES-S offers is the ablitiy to __
    • A. 

      Migrate orders into Weapon System Management System (WSMIS)

    • B. 

      Input orders into the legacy Materiel Management System

    • C. 

      Update orders in the SATS

    • D. 

      Transfer orders into Discoverer

  • 279. 
    In ES-S, which is not type of order provided by the Order Placement Page?
    • A. 

      Requistion

    • B. 

      Common issue

    • C. 

      Depot Retail Issue

    • D. 

      Maintenance Issue

  • 280. 
    ES-S provides the capability to query and view orders in what three legacy systems?
    • A. 

      D043; SATS; Materiel Management System

    • B. 

      D043A; SATS; Materiel Management System

    • C. 

      Materiel Management System; D035A; D035K

    • D. 

      D035A; D035K; D043

  • 281. 
    In ES-S, what three sections is the Order Selection Page divided into?
    • A. 

      Basic Selection Criteria, Additional Selection Criteria, and Display Criteria

    • B. 

      Required Selection Criteria, and Display Criteria

    • C. 

      Order Selection Criteria, Supplement Selection Criteria, and Display Criteria

    • D. 

      Primary Selection Criteria, Secondary Selection Criteria, and Display Criteria

  • 282. 
    What function provides the abuility to query all ES-S transactions from a single user interface?
    • A. 

      Asset Query

    • B. 

      Audit Data Query

    • C. 

      Process Orders Query

    • D. 

      Process Standard Base Supply System Transactions

  • 283. 
    The Audit Data Query enhances your ability to query transactions information efficiently for what type of audits?
    • A. 

      Management and inventory

    • B. 

      Issue and requistion

    • C. 

      Internal and external

    • D. 

      Single and multiple

  • 284. 
    The core of asset management is the ____
    • A. 

      TRACKER

    • B. 

      Stock Control System

    • C. 

      Recoverable Assembly Process

    • D. 

      Recoverable Consumption Items Requistions Systems - D041

  • 285. 
    What on-line systems combines the issue, shipment, receipt, and transfer of wholesale and retail materiel?
    • A. 

      Stock Control System (SCS)

    • B. 

      Logistics Information Network (LINK)

    • C. 

      Visual Logistics Information Processing System (VLIPS)

    • D. 

      Standard Automated Materiel Management Systems (SAMMS)

  • 286. 
    Which system provides the user with information on their requistions , with emphasis placed on the flight line base level users?
    • A. 

      TRACKER

    • B. 

      RAMPS

    • C. 

      LINK

    • D. 

      SCS

  • 287. 
    Which module has standalone caspability used by unit commanders to determine their war fighting capabilities?
    • A. 

      Pipeline Performance Analysis System

    • B. 

      Supporabiltity, Analysis, and Visibility

    • C. 

      Dyna-Metric Microcomputer Analysis System

    • D. 

      Weapon System Management Information System

  • 288. 
    Which module supports repair execution, item distrubtin, and manages flow of recoverable assets in and out of depot repair?
    • A. 

      Radiness Assessment Module

    • B. 

      Propulsion Requirement System

    • C. 

      Requirements/Execution Availability Logistics Module

    • D. 

      Execution and Prioritization of Repair Support System

  • 289. 
    What has the capability to support multiple full Materiel Management System accounts?
    • A. 

      LSC

    • B. 

      DECCs

    • C. 

      HQ SSG

    • D. 

      OSSG

  • 290. 
    Establishing connectivity between a desktop personal computer (PC) and the mainframe computer is done with a terminal emulation program called ____
    • A. 

      Interface Processing Facility

    • B. 

      INFOConnect

    • C. 

      SATS

    • D. 

      OSSG

  • 291. 
    Proir to the personal computer, what did INFOConnect gave you access to ____
    • A. 

      Green screens

    • B. 

      Blue screens

    • C. 

      Mainframe

    • D. 

      Internet

  • 292. 
    What type of vairable begins with a dollar sign and have preset names?
    • A. 

      Set

    • B. 

      User

    • C. 

      System

    • D. 

      Notation

  • 293. 
    What interactive processing facility command allows you to add images saved in other files to your job stream?
    • A. 

      IN

    • B. 

      ADD

    • C. 

      CALL

    • D. 

      ACCEPT

  • 294. 
    Which interavtive processing facility command changes the name of the workspace?
    • A. 

      XQT

    • B. 

      NAME

    • C. 

      ACCEPT

    • D. 

      CHANGE

  • 295. 
    In an interactive processing facility, what are the two editing modes within the full screen mode?
    • A. 

      Editl update

    • B. 

      Input; output

    • C. 

      Update; output

    • D. 

      Input; edit

  • 296. 
    Which directory contains commonly used programs, compliers, and other processors?
    • A. 

      RECALL

    • B. 

      Work

    • C. 

      System

    • D. 

      Home

  • 297. 
    The supply Interface System residue images are considered delinquent after how many hours?
    • A. 

      24

    • B. 

      36

    • C. 

      48

    • D. 

      72

  • 298. 
    After how many days are the Supply Interface System residue images deleted?
    • A. 

      5

    • B. 

      7

    • C. 

      10

    • D. 

      14