What is outlined in AFI 36–2101, Classifying Military Personnel...
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What two entities make up the national stock number?
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Which specialized center will be the hub for the integration and...
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What number must be annotated on all documentation for small arms?
What is scanned when returning mobility items through Mobility...
The Consolidated Inventory Adjustment Document (IAD) Register (M10)...
Which transaction is processed to initiate tracer action and update...
Copies of source documents for classified items are stamped or...
What information needs to be aggressively monitored and updated on a...
When processing a due-in/due-out (DIT) transaction which code is used...
When the cost of an item is transferred from the customer's funds into...
The quality assurance (QA) program will help identify any area,...
Local manufacture is a term that describes an item
What method is used when conducting a complete inventory?
What are the two types of open storage areas?
If required, in what area will a unit pack of Electrostatic Discharge...
What logistics readiness squadron (LRS) flight provides centralized...
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Which research process provides chapters and sections on the...
Which process is not one of the four supply major processes in the...
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Which type of adjusted stock level is assigned to an item to ensure...
What is used on a turn-in request for DIFM items indicating what...
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Management notices can be readily identified by what letters preceding...
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What is the primary reference used for nuclear weapons related...
What source of supply has responsibility for cradle-to-grave...
What section gives maintenance repair functions in a single facility?
Which Basic Expeditionary Airfield Resource (BEAR) system includes...
Which DD form is red and is used to identify property that is...
Where will processed returns for unserviceable and condemned assets be...
What status is transmitted from the depot when assets are not...
An organizational refusal would be a customer's responsibility if the
Where will an exhaustive search be conducted for asset availability as...
Which transaction identifier code (TRIC) is used to process a special...
Who will obtain disposition instructions from the Item Manager for...
A category III difficulty report does not stop computer system...
What protects items placed in open storage from wet ground conditions?
Which report displays data that is helpful in determining what...
What storage factor is used when items with the slowest turnover rate...
Which asset categories are defined in the –21 technical order?
What is the purpose of performing a due-in from maintenance (DIFM)...
What materiel management system process activates if assets are...
What Department of Defense (DOD) instruction implements requirements...
Which military standard requisitioning and issue procedures (MILSTRIP)...
What best describes Class III items?
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Which individual must ensure force deletions from the reject processor...
What term is used to describe selected XD2 items that are candidates...
How many characters make up a national stock number (NSN)?
The purpose of the Air Force Logistics Career Broadening Program is to...
Which product allows you to import stock into the Mobility Inventory...
What transaction identification code is used to update the...
The annotated forecast listing of all computer requirements is...
Which Expeditionary Logistics 21st Century (eLog21) effect ensures...
What is the transaction identification code for an automated...
Which program in the materiel management system takes control of...
What must match the reports or accountable documents with what is...
Who is responsible for ensuring all rejects are corrected from...
Who can elect not to formally activate the control team (CT) when the...
What personal computer (PC) program is used to manage mobility bags...
Short-life reusable containers are expected to survive at least how...
What is assigned to all items inside mobility bags for tracking...
Which corrosives are incompatible and should be stored separately?
Hazardous disposal can generally be grouped into how many categories?
Which transaction is processed to change various data elements on...
Who will Air Force activities report to concerning all discrepancies...
Which search screen in Web Federal Logistics Information System...
Which logistics readiness squadron (LRS) flight consists of the Asset...
What must be planned before the actual start of the storage operation...
How many days prior to the expiration date should type II shelf-life...
In Discoverer, what function allows you to transfer data to other...
The intent of the Enterprise Asset Visibility component is to provide...
Reusable containers come in how many categories?
Materiel management specialists are not responsible for
What releveling flag is used on a requirements computation inquiry in...
Under the consolidated transaction history (CTH) system, which type...
Warehouse stockrooms are sequenced from
When the Materiel Management System detects an error in a transaction...
What transaction identification code (TRIC) is processed to initiate a...
For you to be eligible to apply for the Air Force Logistics Career...
Which serial numbers are used for off-line requisitions?
In support of the Expeditionary Logistics 21st Century's (eLog21)...
Military Management System programs create cancellation requests to...
What part of the due-in document identifies the base that placed the...
Who maintains ownership of supply point assets until they are used?
Which activity and organization code is used when loading a supply...
Which class of supply includes weapons?
What analysis method do you use most often for recurring reports or...
Who is responsible for physical material handling, receipt, storage,...
The transaction identification code (TRIC) FIL establishes what basic...
What section stores small arms for mobility use?
Which type mobility bag (MOBAG) contains cold weather equipment?
What action occurs when Air Force Materiel Command (AFMC) and...
Inventory schedules are prepared
When planning a warehouse layout, what type of space must be kept to a...
Which best describes the next step after an assessment has been...
Markings found on containers that do not apply to presently packaged...
Which functional area does Defense Logistics Manual (DLM) 4000.25,...
Which base wide organization utilizes the core automated maintenance...
Which product of the materiel management system is used to ensure...
What is sent to the materiel management computer system when a mission...
An automatic requisition to the source of supply is identified by what...
What two organizations provide wholesale logistics experience for...
What TRIC is not an option for processing after dispositions...
What source of supply consists of vendors from the local community?
What transaction can be processed on an existing requisition that will...
What transaction is used for upgrading and downgrading to and from a...
The repair cycle process concept involving the practice of sending...
The use of Discoverer Viewer is highly encouraged over Discoverer Plus...
How are storage bin rows in a warehouse numbered
How many different types of reports can be processed through the...
What document identification code indicates a denial to a...
When an activity receives a shortage or overage discrepancy on a...
Which activity is responsible for providing Repair Cycle Support with...
What transaction is used to process the updated status and location...
What system is capable of supporting multiple full Materiel Management...
What is a major disadvantage in the use of unimproved open storage?
What term describes the items and quantities of equipment Air Force...
Which Air Force Form is used to request a change to an allowance...
What section should be contacted to ensure an item is physically...
What position is used to identify the storage lot in warehouse...
The most efficient way to determine requirements for adding, changing,...
Which of the following is not a factor to consider when operating...
Who must ensure that additional controls are exercised over all...
Shelf life assets are tracked in the Mobility Inventory Control and...
Which block of the AF form 2005 will the inspector sign or stamp after...
Which system provides the user with information on their requisitions,...
Who serves as the primary point of contact for interfacing with the...
What activity code is used to process equipment authorization...
Who, in coordination with the flight chief, determines who will...
Who ensures that customers who generate waste are held liable for...
How many major types of inquiries are there in the materiel management...
Which action code on an item record inquiry in the materiel management...
Which of the following is not a division within the Supply Management...
What code is assigned if an item record requiring record reversal...
What do you do with the prefilled data on an automated reverse-post...
Which code on an issue request is used by the Materiel Management...
What one position alpha code is used to indicate how the Materiel...
Which maintenance process updates various basic and support records,...
In Enterprise Solution–Supply (ES–S), what are the three...
Which process is very important to prevent rejects and incorrect data...
What action code is used when transferring multiple quantities from a...
What type of materiel management source documents are not placed in a...
What is the purpose of DD Form 2477, Inspection Extension?
What type of material storage is best suited for pesticides, poisons,...
Which property is defined as materiel that requires a high degree of...
Which option in the Mobility Inventory and Accountability System...
When inventory count images are input, the computer compares the...
Which class of supply consists of repair parts?
What automated system was developed to improve the process of tracking...
To indicate that additional research is needed, the inventory recount...
Which instruction prescribes basic guidance and responsibilities for...
What concept may be necessary when there is an overflow of assets that...
What process is used to have shelf life controls and other inspection...
Which issue exception codes identify health hazard items?
Which element within the Logistic Readiness Squadron (LRS) is...
Which listing includes the due-ins that have been received, but remain...
What form is used as an accountable document for items received when...
What data can be obtained when using record retrieval code 5 on an...
Which best describes when a Report of Discrepancy is required?
Who selects highly experienced materiel management personnel for...
Which class of supply consists of ammunition?
What best describes Class X items?
What letter is entered where on the AF Form 2005 for part number...
When performing an inventory on an equipment account, which product is...
Who works with logistics readiness squadron (LRS) quality assurance...
The equipment custodian uses which Air Force form to request...
What benefit can occur by challenging possibly inflated...
What system provides the ability to make repair, deployment, sourcing,...
What item does the Air Force use to aid in inventory and warehouse...
What system captures unit type code (UTC) assessments, identifies...
Which of the following items is not checked when off-loading property...
Where will processed returns in a serviceable condition be forwarded...
What codes are used to determine the requisitioning priority...
Who does the source of supply (SOS) owe an item to when a due-in...
Which materiel management listing is reviewed by the inventory section...
Which of the following identifies the first three positions of a...
What is the maximum number of characters for the descriptive...
Which listing is used to perform the due-in from maintenance (DIFM)...
What interactive processing facility command allows you to add images...
Which individual is designated by the organizational commander or...
Which system is used to globally distinguish one item from all other...
An I007 management notice will be produced when a
The decision to transfer Mobility readiness spares package (MRSP)...
What will the computer scan for in its internal records after an item...
Which redistribution results when local management decides to force...
Which best describes the outcome of a Supply Discrepancy Report (SDR)?
What provides a unique framework that links performance metrics,...
Which object is accessible to the user when logged into INFOConnect?
What transaction identification code (TRIC) code is used to load,...
An automatic adjustment for a pilferable item occurs when the record...
One display line of a terminal screen up to 80 characters long is...
A request for an adjusted stock level is made on what Air Force form?