Z2s051 Volume 1. Introduction To Material Management

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1. What is outlined in AFI 36–2101, Classifying Military Personnel (Officer and Enlisted)?

Explanation

The correct answer is "Duties and responsibilities for each Air Force career fields or specialties." This answer is supported by the fact that AFI 36-2101 is a document that outlines the classification of military personnel, which includes their duties and responsibilities. It is not specific to the Air Force Reserve and Air National Guard only, career progression in the materiel management career field, or career progression for each military service agent.

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Z2s051 Volume 1. Introduction To Material Management - Quiz

This quiz titled 'Z2S051 Volume 1. Introduction to Material Management' assesses understanding of Air Force career classifications, responsibilities of material management specialists, and logistics programs. It aims to... see moreenhance knowledge about the broader logistics system and its impact across the Air Force. see less

2. Which one do you like?

Explanation

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3. What two entities make up the national stock number?

Explanation

The national stock number is made up of two entities: the Federal supply classification (FSC) and the national item identification number (NIIN). FSC is a code that categorizes items based on their characteristics and intended use, while NIIN is a unique identification number assigned to each item in the national stock system. Together, these two entities provide a standardized and efficient way to identify and manage items within the national stock system.

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4. Which one do you like?

Explanation

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5. Which one do you like?

Explanation

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6. Which specialized center will be the hub for the integration and management of maintenance/supply chain capabilities?

Explanation

The Air Force Sustainment Center (AFSC) will be the hub for the integration and management of maintenance/supply chain capabilities. This center is responsible for providing sustainment support to the Air Force, including maintenance, repair, and supply chain management. It ensures that the necessary resources and capabilities are available to support the operational readiness of Air Force aircraft and equipment. The AFSC plays a critical role in ensuring that maintenance and supply chain operations are effectively coordinated and managed, making it the appropriate choice for this role.

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7. Which one do you like?

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8. What number must be annotated on all documentation for small arms?

Explanation

The number that must be annotated on all documentation for small arms is the serial number. This unique identifier helps in tracking and identifying individual firearms, ensuring proper documentation and accountability. It is crucial for record-keeping, maintenance, and investigations related to small arms.

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9. What is scanned when returning mobility items through Mobility Inventory and Accountability System (MICAS) web?

Explanation

When returning mobility items through the Mobility Inventory and Accountability System (MICAS) web, the scanned item is the Military ID card or CAC. This is likely because the system requires identification verification in order to track and account for the returned items accurately. Scanning the Military ID card or CAC ensures that the correct individual is returning the items and helps maintain accountability within the system.

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10. The Consolidated Inventory Adjustment Document (IAD) Register (M10) must contain an entry for each adjustment transaction appearing on what two registers?

Explanation

The Consolidated Inventory Adjustment Document (IAD) Register (M10) is a record that tracks adjustment transactions. It is stated that the register must contain an entry for each adjustment transaction appearing on two specific registers. The correct answer is D04 and D06, indicating that the IAD Register should include adjustments from both D04 and D06 registers.

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11. Which transaction is processed to initiate tracer action and update transaction tracer flags on shipment status details?

Explanation

The correct answer is "Tracer action required (TAR)". This transaction is processed to initiate tracer action and update transaction tracer flags on shipment status details. Tracer action is typically taken when there is a need to track or investigate a shipment that is delayed or experiencing issues. By initiating a tracer action, the necessary flags and notifications are updated to ensure that the shipment is closely monitored and necessary actions are taken to resolve any issues.

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12. Copies of source documents for classified items are stamped or handwritten using

Explanation

The correct answer is red ink with the words “Classified Item.” This is because red ink stands out and is easily noticeable, making it an effective way to mark classified items. Additionally, using the words "Classified Item" helps clearly indicate the nature of the document.

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13. What information needs to be aggressively monitored and updated on a mission capability (MICAP) requirement?

Explanation

The status of a mission capability (MICAP) requirement needs to be aggressively monitored and updated. This is important to ensure that the requirement is being met and progress is being made towards achieving the mission capability. By monitoring the status, any issues or delays can be identified and addressed in a timely manner. Regular updates are necessary to keep all stakeholders informed about the progress and any changes in the status of the requirement.

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14. When processing a due-in/due-out (DIT) transaction which code is used to unlink due-in and due-out details?

Explanation

The asterisk (*) is used to unlink due-in and due-out details in a DIT transaction.

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15. When the cost of an item is transferred from the customer's funds into the Supply Management Activity Group-Retail (SMAG-R) account, what type of fund is created?

Explanation

When the cost of an item is transferred from the customer's funds into the Supply Management Activity Group-Retail (SMAG-R) account, a revolving fund is created. A revolving fund is a type of fund that is replenished through the collection of revenue or the recovery of costs, allowing for continuous and ongoing use. This type of fund is commonly used in government agencies or organizations where there is a need for a consistent and flexible source of funding for various activities or expenses.

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16. The quality assurance (QA) program will help identify any area, program, or equipment and system that are not compliant with

Explanation

The quality assurance (QA) program is designed to assess and evaluate various areas, programs, equipment, and systems within an organization. It aims to ensure that they meet the established standards set by regulatory bodies, industry best practices, or internal guidelines. By conducting regular audits, inspections, and tests, the QA program can identify any non-compliant areas and take corrective actions to improve the overall quality and compliance of the organization's operations. Therefore, the correct answer is "standards."

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17. Local manufacture is a term that describes an item

Explanation

The term "local manufacture" refers to the process of creating an item within a maintenance activity located on a military base. This means that the item is not sourced from another branch of service or purchased using the government purchase card. Instead, it is designed and fabricated locally, indicating that the maintenance activity has the capability to produce the item on its own.

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18. What method is used when conducting a complete inventory?

Explanation

When conducting a complete inventory, the method used is a closed warehouse. This means that the warehouse is closed off and inaccessible to anyone during the inventory process. This ensures that no items are added or removed from the inventory while it is being conducted, providing an accurate count of all the items present in the warehouse at that time.

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19. What are the two types of open storage areas?

Explanation

The two types of open storage areas are improved and unimproved. "Improved" refers to storage areas that have been developed or enhanced with features such as pavement, drainage systems, or other infrastructure improvements. On the other hand, "unimproved" storage areas are those that lack these enhancements and may be in their natural state or have minimal development. Therefore, improved and unimproved are the correct types of open storage areas.

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20. If required, in what area will a unit pack of Electrostatic Discharge (ESD) be opened?

Explanation

A unit pack of Electrostatic Discharge (ESD) will be opened in the ESD protective area. This area is specifically designed to prevent electrostatic discharges that can damage sensitive electronic components. Opening the unit pack in this area ensures that the components are protected from any potential ESD damage during the unpacking process.

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21. What logistics readiness squadron (LRS) flight provides centralized command and control, planning, and execution of all wing deployment operations and the distribution of cargo, passengers, and personal property?

Explanation

The correct answer is Deployment and Distribution. The question is asking for the logistics readiness squadron (LRS) flight that is responsible for centralized command and control, planning, and execution of wing deployment operations, as well as the distribution of cargo, passengers, and personal property. The Deployment and Distribution flight is specifically tasked with these responsibilities, making it the correct answer.

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22. Which one do you like?

Explanation

The given question asks for the respondent's preference among the given options. The correct answer is Option 1, indicating that the person likes Option 1 the most out of all the options provided.

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23. Which research process provides chapters and sections on the publication requested allowing you to scroll to the corresponding document?

Explanation

The table of contents is a research process that provides chapters and sections on the publication requested, allowing you to easily navigate and scroll to the corresponding document. It acts as a guide, outlining the structure and organization of the publication, making it convenient to find specific information within the document.

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24. Which process is not one of the four supply major processes in the materiel management system?

Explanation

The correct answer is Administration. In the materiel management system, the four major supply processes are item accounting, file maintenance, and accounting and finance. Administration, although an important aspect of overall management, is not considered one of the four major processes specifically related to supply management.

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25. Which one do you like?

Explanation

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26. Which one do you like?

Explanation

The question asks for a personal preference among the given options. The correct answer is Option 1, indicating that the person likes Option 1 the most out of all the options provided.

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27. Which type of adjusted stock level is assigned to an item to ensure the requisitioning objective remains constant and does not fluctuate due to demand patterns?

Explanation

The type of adjusted stock level that is assigned to an item to ensure the requisitioning objective remains constant and does not fluctuate due to demand patterns is "Fixed". This means that the stock level for the item is set at a predetermined quantity that does not change regardless of the demand patterns. This helps in maintaining a consistent supply of the item and avoiding any disruptions in the requisitioning process.

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28. What is used on a turn-in request for DIFM items indicating what actions were taken by maintenance and LRS/Materiel Management activity?

Explanation

The turn-in request for DIFM items requires the use of an action taken code to indicate the actions taken by maintenance and LRS/Materiel Management activity. This code helps in documenting and tracking the specific actions that were performed on the items being turned in. It provides a standardized way to communicate the steps taken during the maintenance process and helps in maintaining accurate records for inventory management and accountability purposes.

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29. Which one do you like?

Explanation

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30. Management notices can be readily identified by what letters preceding the management code and phrase?

Explanation

Management notices can be readily identified by the letters "MGT" preceding the management code and phrase.

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31. Which one do you like?

Explanation

The question asks for a personal preference, specifically which option the person likes. The correct answer is "Option 1," indicating that the person prefers the first option over the others.

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32. What is the primary reference used for nuclear weapons related materiel (NWRM)?

Explanation

The primary reference used for nuclear weapons related materiel (NWRM) is CJCSI 3150.04, Nuclear Weapons Stockpile Logistics Management and Nuclear Weapons Reports Under the Joint Reporting Structure. This document provides guidance and procedures for managing the logistics of nuclear weapons stockpiles and reporting requirements under the joint reporting structure. It is the authoritative source for ensuring the proper management and accountability of nuclear weapons and related materiel.

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33. What source of supply has responsibility for cradle-to-grave management of every Air Force weapon system?

Explanation

The Air Force Materiel Command (AFMC) is responsible for cradle-to-grave management of every Air Force weapon system. This means that AFMC oversees the entire lifecycle of these systems, from their initial development and acquisition to their eventual retirement and disposal. AFMC ensures that these weapon systems are properly maintained, repaired, and upgraded throughout their service life, and they also handle the disposal and retirement process in an environmentally responsible manner. This comprehensive management approach ensures that the Air Force's weapon systems are effectively and efficiently utilized throughout their lifespan.

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34. What section gives maintenance repair functions in a single facility?

Explanation

A centralized repair facility is a section that provides maintenance repair functions in a single facility. This means that all repair activities are conducted in one location, allowing for efficient coordination and management of maintenance and repair tasks. This helps streamline the repair process and ensures that all necessary repairs are carried out effectively and in a timely manner. Local purchase, local manufacture, and the Defense Logistics Agency (DLA) are not specifically related to providing maintenance repair functions in a single facility.

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35. Which Basic Expeditionary Airfield Resource (BEAR) system includes facilities, equipment, and supplies necessary to establish and support aircraft flight-related operations and maintenance activities for an initial aircraft squadron deployed at a bare base location?

Explanation

The correct answer is "Initial flight line." The question is asking about the Basic Expeditionary Airfield Resource (BEAR) system that includes facilities, equipment, and supplies necessary to establish and support aircraft flight-related operations and maintenance activities for an initial aircraft squadron deployed at a bare base location. The initial flight line is the area where aircraft take off and land, and it includes the necessary infrastructure and resources to support these operations.

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36. Which DD form is red and is used to identify property that is unserviceable and uneconomical to repair?

Explanation

DD Form 1577, Unserviceable (Condemned) Tag is the correct answer because it is specifically used to identify property that is unserviceable and uneconomical to repair. The term "condemned" suggests that the item has been deemed unfit for use and is no longer repairable. This form is used to mark and track such items in order to prevent their further use or repair attempts.

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37. Where will processed returns for unserviceable and condemned assets be transferred to?

Explanation

Processed returns for unserviceable and condemned assets will be transferred to DLADS.

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38. What status is transmitted from the depot when assets are not available for a mission capable (MICAP) requisition?

Explanation

When assets are not available for a mission capable (MICAP) requisition, the status that is transmitted from the depot is "Backorder." This means that the requested assets are currently out of stock or unavailable, and the depot is unable to fulfill the requisition at the moment. The backorder status indicates that the depot will need to wait for the assets to become available again before they can fulfill the request.

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39. An organizational refusal would be a customer's responsibility if the

Explanation

If a customer fails to cancel the due-out, it means that they did not inform the organization that they no longer require the property or item. This could result in the organization preparing the property for the customer and incurring costs, only to find out later that the customer no longer needs it. Therefore, the organizational refusal in this case would be justified as it is the customer's responsibility to cancel the due-out in order to avoid unnecessary expenses for the organization.

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40. Where will an exhaustive search be conducted for asset availability as part of the mission capable (MICAP) verification?

Explanation

An exhaustive search for asset availability as part of the mission capable (MICAP) verification will be conducted in base stocks. Base stocks refer to the inventory of assets that are stored at a particular military base or location. This means that when verifying MICAP, the search will be conducted within the available assets at the specific base, ensuring that all potential options are considered before making a decision.

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41. Which transaction identifier code (TRIC) is used to process a special requisition?

Explanation

The transaction identifier code (TRIC) used to process a special requisition is SPR.

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42. Who will obtain disposition instructions from the Item Manager for equipment items returned to the Logistics Readiness Squadron (LRS)?

Explanation

The Equipment Accountability Element (EAE) will obtain disposition instructions from the Item Manager for equipment items returned to the Logistics Readiness Squadron (LRS). The EAE is responsible for maintaining accurate records of equipment, tracking its location, and ensuring proper accountability. They work closely with the Item Manager to determine the appropriate actions to be taken with returned equipment, such as repair, disposal, or redistribution. The EAE plays a crucial role in managing the equipment inventory and ensuring that it is properly handled and accounted for within the LRS.

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43. A category III difficulty report does not stop computer system processing and is corrected

Explanation

A category III difficulty report is a non-critical issue that does not halt computer system processing. It is corrected based on the workload availability, meaning it will be addressed in the next scheduled release when resources and time permit. This suggests that the issue is not urgent and can be resolved in a planned and systematic manner rather than immediately or through other means like an Air Force suggestion form or over the phone with the materiel management system control center.

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44. What protects items placed in open storage from wet ground conditions?

Explanation

Drainage protects items placed in open storage from wet ground conditions by providing a system to redirect water away from the storage area. It helps to prevent water pooling or seeping into the ground, which can cause damage to the items. Concrete, steel mats, and crushed stone may also provide some level of protection, but they do not specifically address the issue of wet ground conditions like drainage does.

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45. Which report displays data that is helpful in determining what property has been received and has not yet made it to stock?

Explanation

The report that displays data on what property has been received but not yet made it to stock is the "Not put away" report. This report helps in identifying items that have been received but have not been properly stored or organized in the stock area. It allows for tracking and monitoring of inventory to ensure that all received items are accounted for and put away in the appropriate location.

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46. What storage factor is used when items with the slowest turnover rate are stored in areas farther from active stock processing areas?

Explanation

When items with the slowest turnover rate are stored in areas farther from active stock processing areas, the storage factor used is item popularity. This means that the items that are less popular and have a slower turnover rate are stored in areas that are less accessible or further away from the active stock processing areas. By doing so, it allows for more efficient and convenient access to the items that are in higher demand and have a faster turnover rate, optimizing the storage and retrieval process.

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47. Which asset categories are defined in the –21 technical order?

Explanation

The -21 technical order defines three asset categories: maintenance and safety protection equipment, alternate mission equipment, and crew and passenger support equipment.

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48. What is the purpose of performing a due-in from maintenance (DIFM) reconciliation between the Logistics Readiness Squadron (LRS) and the maintenance activities?

Explanation

Performing a due-in from maintenance (DIFM) reconciliation between the Logistics Readiness Squadron (LRS) and the maintenance activities is done to ensure that the maintenance activities actually possess all the DIFM items. This reconciliation process helps in verifying the physical presence of the items and ensures that they are accounted for. It helps in preventing any discrepancies or missing items, allowing for effective management and control of inventory.

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49. What materiel management system process activates if assets are insufficient to satisfy the requirement on the requested item?

Explanation

If assets are insufficient to satisfy the requirement on the requested item, the materiel management system process that is activated is the due-out process. This process involves identifying the shortage and creating a due-out document, which serves as a request to obtain the required item from an external source. The due-out document is then forwarded to the appropriate authority for further action, such as initiating procurement or requesting transfer from another location.

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50. What Department of Defense (DOD) instruction implements requirements and procedures for materiel manager and others who need to work within the supply system?

Explanation

The correct answer is 4140.1-R, DOD Supply Chain Materiel Management Regulation. This instruction implements requirements and procedures for materiel managers and others who need to work within the supply system.

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51. Which military standard requisitioning and issue procedures (MILSTRIP) status has the worst effect on an account?

Explanation

Cancellation status in the military standard requisitioning and issue procedures (MILSTRIP) has the worst effect on an account because it indicates that a requested item or service has been canceled. This means that the account will not receive the requested item, which could potentially disrupt operations or hinder the completion of tasks. It may also result in delays or additional costs to replace the canceled item or find an alternative solution.

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52. What best describes Class III items?

Explanation

Class III items refer to petroleum, oil, and lubricants (POL). This category includes various fuels, oils, and lubricants used by the military for their operations. These items are crucial for maintaining and operating military vehicles, machinery, and equipment. Class III items are essential for ensuring the readiness and effectiveness of the armed forces in the field.

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53. Which one do you like?

Explanation

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54. Which individual must ensure force deletions from the reject processor program are processed for valid reason only?

Explanation

The Flight Chief must ensure force deletions from the reject processor program are processed for valid reasons only. This is because the Flight Chief is responsible for managing and supervising the daily operations of the flight, including overseeing personnel and ensuring that tasks are carried out in accordance with regulations and policies. Force deletions from the reject processor program involve removing items or individuals from the program forcefully, and it is important that this is done for valid reasons only to maintain the integrity and effectiveness of the program. Therefore, the Flight Chief is the individual who must ensure this.

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55. What term is used to describe selected XD2 items that are candidates for two-level repair?

Explanation

Depot-level reparables are the selected XD2 items that are candidates for two-level repair. These items are sent to a depot-level maintenance facility for repair and maintenance. The term "depot-level reparables" refers to the specific category of items that require extensive repairs and are not suitable for repair at lower-level maintenance facilities. This term is used to differentiate these items from other types of reparables, such as shop reparables or equipment reparables, which may be repaired at a lower level of maintenance.

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56. How many characters make up a national stock number (NSN)?

Explanation

A national stock number (NSN) consists of 13 characters. NSNs are used to identify and classify items of supply in the military supply chain. Each NSN consists of a 4-digit federal supply class (FSC) code, a 2-digit country code, a 9-digit national item identification number (NIIN), and a check digit. The FSC code represents the broad category of the item, the country code indicates the country of origin, the NIIN provides a unique identification for the specific item, and the check digit is used for error detection. Therefore, the correct answer is 13.

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57. The purpose of the Air Force Logistics Career Broadening Program is to promote a better understanding of the whole materiel management system through the cross-utilization of training, knowledge, experience, and

Explanation

The purpose of the Air Force Logistics Career Broadening Program is to promote a better understanding of the whole materiel management system through cross-utilization of training, knowledge, experience, and perspectives. This suggests that the program aims to provide participants with different viewpoints and ways of thinking about the materiel management system. By exposing them to various perspectives, the program helps individuals develop a more comprehensive understanding of the system and potentially identify new approaches or solutions to challenges.

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58. Which product allows you to import stock into the Mobility Inventory and Accountability System (MICAS) web system?

Explanation

The correct answer is Excel spreadsheet. The Mobility Inventory and Accountability System (MICAS) web system allows users to import stock using an Excel spreadsheet. This feature enables users to easily upload and update large amounts of stock data in the system, making inventory management more efficient and accurate.

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59. What transaction identification code is used to update the shipment-suspense detail?

Explanation

The transaction identification code used to update the shipment-suspense detail is SSC.

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60. The annotated forecast listing of all computer requirements is returned to the computer room production scheduler by which workday of the same month it is received?

Explanation

The annotated forecast listing of all computer requirements is returned to the computer room production scheduler on the 15th of the same month it is received.

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61. Which Expeditionary Logistics 21st Century (eLog21) effect ensures logistics decisions are made and actions are taken with an understanding of their impact across the entire Air Force?

Explanation

The correct answer is One: Enterprise view. This effect ensures that logistics decisions are made and actions are taken with an understanding of their impact across the entire Air Force. It emphasizes the importance of taking a holistic approach to logistics, considering the needs and goals of the entire organization rather than just focusing on individual units or departments. By adopting an enterprise view, the Air Force can optimize its resources, streamline processes, and make more informed and effective logistics decisions.

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62. What is the transaction identification code for an automated reverse-post (RVP) transaction?

Explanation

The transaction identification code for an automated reverse-post (RVP) transaction is 1AM.

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63. Which program in the materiel management system takes control of computer processing when an error is detected during processing of a transaction?

Explanation

The program in the materiel management system that takes control of computer processing when an error is detected during processing of a transaction is "Reject." This program is responsible for identifying and flagging any errors or inconsistencies in the transaction data, and it halts further processing to prevent the error from propagating. By rejecting the transaction, the program ensures that the error is addressed and resolved before proceeding with any further processing.

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64. What must match the reports or accountable documents with what is reflected on computer products and forms during quality control?

Explanation

During quality control, it is essential to match the reports or accountable documents with what is reflected on computer products and forms. This ensures that the information presented in the input images is accurate and consistent with the reports. By comparing the input images with the reports, any discrepancies or errors can be identified and corrected, ensuring the quality of the final product.

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65. Who is responsible for ensuring all rejects are corrected from computer records?

Explanation

The flight chief is responsible for ensuring all rejects are corrected from computer records. This role typically involves overseeing the operations and activities of the flight, including managing personnel and resources. As part of their responsibilities, the flight chief would ensure that any rejected items or errors in computer records are identified and rectified in a timely manner. They would coordinate with relevant personnel and departments to address and correct these issues, ensuring the accuracy and integrity of the computer records.

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66. Who can elect not to formally activate the control team (CT) when the system is off-line less than 24 hours?

Explanation

The control team chief is responsible for formally activating the control team (CT) when the system is off-line for less than 24 hours. This means that they have the authority to decide whether or not to activate the CT based on the duration of the system being offline. The flight chief, LRS commander, and logistics manager do not have this authority and cannot elect not to activate the CT.

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67. What personal computer (PC) program is used to manage mobility bags (MOBAGS)?

Explanation

The correct answer is Mobility Inventory Control and Accountability System (MICAS) web. This program is specifically designed to manage mobility bags (MOBAGS). It allows for control and accountability of these bags, ensuring that they are properly accounted for and managed during contingency operations. The other options listed are not specifically designed for managing MOBAGS.

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68. Short-life reusable containers are expected to survive at least how many round-trips?

Explanation

Short-life reusable containers are designed to be used for a limited number of round-trips before they need to be replaced. The correct answer of 10 suggests that these containers are expected to survive at least 10 round-trips before they become unusable or need to be retired.

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69. What is assigned to all items inside mobility bags for tracking purposes through Mobility Inventory Control and Accountability System (MICAS) web?

Explanation

The KIT ID/serial number is assigned to all items inside mobility bags for tracking purposes through the Mobility Inventory Control and Accountability System (MICAS) web. This number allows for easy identification and tracking of individual items within the bags.

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70. Which corrosives are incompatible and should be stored separately?

Explanation

Acids and alkalis should be stored separately because they are incompatible and can react with each other, leading to the release of dangerous gases or even explosions. Acids are substances that release hydrogen ions when dissolved in water, while alkalis are substances that release hydroxide ions. When acids and alkalis are mixed, a neutralization reaction occurs, resulting in the formation of water and a salt. However, this reaction can be highly exothermic and may release a large amount of heat. Additionally, some acids and alkalis can react violently, producing toxic gases or causing the container to rupture. Therefore, it is important to store acids and alkalis separately to prevent any accidental reactions.

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71. Hazardous disposal can generally be grouped into how many categories?

Explanation

Hazardous disposal can generally be grouped into two categories. This means that hazardous waste can be classified into two main types based on their characteristics or properties. This classification helps in identifying and managing the different types of hazardous waste more effectively. By categorizing hazardous waste into two groups, it becomes easier to determine the appropriate disposal methods and regulations for each type, ensuring safe and environmentally responsible handling and disposal of hazardous materials.

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72. Which transaction is processed to change various data elements on retail Materiel Management System due-in details?

Explanation

The correct answer is Due-in/due out (DIT). This transaction is processed to change various data elements on the retail Materiel Management System due-in details. It involves both the due-in and due-out processes, which include tracking and managing the movement of inventory items. This transaction is essential for maintaining accurate records of inventory levels and ensuring that items are properly accounted for in the system.

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73. Who will Air Force activities report to concerning all discrepancies involving classified items?

Explanation

The correct answer is the Security manager because they are responsible for overseeing and managing all security aspects, including classified items, within the Air Force activities. They are the point of contact for any discrepancies or issues related to classified items and ensure that proper protocols and procedures are followed to maintain the security and integrity of these items.

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74. Which search screen in Web Federal Logistics Information System (WebFLIS) allows users to locate manufacturer names for the code entered?

Explanation

The search screen in WebFLIS that allows users to locate manufacturer names for the code entered is Cage. The Cage code is a unique identifier assigned to manufacturers and suppliers doing business with the federal government. By entering the Cage code, users can find the corresponding manufacturer name in the WebFLIS system.

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75. Which logistics readiness squadron (LRS) flight consists of the Asset Management, Maintenance Support, and Customer Support sections?

Explanation

The Materiel Management flight consists of the Asset Management, Maintenance Support, and Customer Support sections. This flight is responsible for managing and maintaining the equipment and supplies needed for military operations. They ensure that the right materials are available at the right time and in the right place.

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76. What must be planned before the actual start of the storage operation to assure the floor and cubic capacity of the warehouse will be used to the greatest extent possible?

Explanation

Before the actual start of the storage operation, it is important to plan the storage areas in order to ensure that the floor and cubic capacity of the warehouse will be utilized to the greatest extent possible. This involves determining the layout and arrangement of the storage areas to optimize space utilization and efficiency. By planning the storage areas effectively, it becomes easier to organize and store items in a way that maximizes the use of available space, allowing for better inventory management and overall warehouse productivity.

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77. How many days prior to the expiration date should type II shelf-life items be scheduled for serviceability testing?

Explanation

Type II shelf-life items should be scheduled for serviceability testing 15 to 45 days prior to the expiration date. This allows enough time to conduct the necessary tests and make any adjustments or replacements if needed before the items expire. Scheduling the testing too close to the expiration date may not leave enough time for any necessary actions to be taken, while scheduling it too far in advance may result in unnecessary testing and potential waste of resources. Therefore, the optimal time frame for serviceability testing is between 15 to 45 days prior to the expiration date.

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78. In Discoverer, what function allows you to transfer data to other application formats?

Explanation

The function in Discoverer that allows you to transfer data to other application formats is "Export". This feature enables users to save data from Discoverer reports in various formats such as Excel, PDF, CSV, or HTML, making it easier to share and analyze the data in other applications. It provides flexibility and convenience for users who need to work with the data in different formats or integrate it into other systems or tools.

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79. The intent of the Enterprise Asset Visibility component is to provide complete visibility of Air Force

Explanation

The correct answer is "owned assets." The Enterprise Asset Visibility component aims to provide comprehensive visibility of the assets that are owned by the Air Force. This means that it focuses on tracking and monitoring the assets that are directly owned by the Air Force, rather than those that are sourced from external entities, experiencing shortages, or classified as repairable assets. The goal is to ensure that the Air Force has complete visibility and control over its owned assets.

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80. Reusable containers come in how many categories?

Explanation

Reusable containers come in two categories.

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81. Materiel management specialists are not responsible for

Explanation

Materiel management specialists are responsible for providing support to maintenance activities, researching and identifying materiel requirements, and preparing, analyzing, and evaluating reports, procedures, and policy data. However, they are not responsible for directing policy and guidance for the career field.

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82. What releveling flag is used on a requirements computation inquiry in the materiel management system to provide a summary of information about a given stock number?

Explanation

The correct answer is R. The "R" flag is used on a requirements computation inquiry in the materiel management system to provide a summary of information about a given stock number. This flag allows users to obtain a consolidated view of the requirements and demand for a specific stock number, helping them make informed decisions about inventory management and procurement.

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83. Under the consolidated transaction history (CTH) system, which type inquiry allows you to select records using the stock number and transaction date?

Explanation

The correct answer is Stock number. In the consolidated transaction history (CTH) system, selecting records using the stock number and transaction date would be done through the Stock number inquiry. This inquiry allows users to search for specific transactions by inputting the stock number and transaction date as search criteria. The system will then retrieve and display the relevant records matching the specified stock number and transaction date.

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84. Warehouse stockrooms are sequenced from

Explanation

The correct answer is "left to right and front to rear." This means that the stockrooms in the warehouse are arranged in a sequence starting from the left side and continuing towards the right side, as well as from the front of the warehouse to the rear. This sequencing allows for efficient organization and retrieval of items, ensuring that everything is easily accessible and maximizing the use of space in the warehouse.

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85. When the Materiel Management System detects an error in a transaction sent by CAMS the image is

Explanation

When the Materiel Management System detects an error in a transaction sent by CAMS, the image is returned to CAMS. This suggests that if there is an error in the transaction, the Materiel Management System does not proceed with the transaction and instead sends the image back to CAMS for correction or further action.

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86. What transaction identification code (TRIC) is processed to initiate a condition change?

Explanation

The transaction identification code (TRIC) processed to initiate a condition change is FCC.

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87. For you to be eligible to apply for the Air Force Logistics Career Broadening Program, you may have up to but not including how many years of time-in-service?

Explanation

The correct answer is 15. This means that in order to be eligible to apply for the Air Force Logistics Career Broadening Program, an individual must have served for at least 15 years.

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88. Which serial numbers are used for off-line requisitions?

Explanation

The serial numbers used for off-line requisitions are 9000-9899.

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89. In support of the Expeditionary Logistics 21st Century's (eLog21) integrated processes, which is not a resource?

Explanation

In the context of Expeditionary Logistics 21st Century's (eLog21) integrated processes, technology is not considered a resource. Resources typically refer to tangible assets or capabilities that can be utilized to achieve a specific objective. In this case, financial, acquisition, and infrastructure are all resources that play a crucial role in supporting the eLog21 processes. However, technology is not categorized as a resource in this context, as it is likely seen as a tool or enabler that supports the utilization of resources rather than being a resource itself.

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90. Military Management System programs create cancellation requests to control

Explanation

Military Management System programs create cancellation requests to control excess stockage. This means that when there is an excess amount of stock or inventory, the system generates cancellation requests to prevent further replenishment of stock. This helps in managing and reducing excess stock levels, ensuring efficient inventory management and cost control.

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91. What part of the due-in document identifies the base that placed the requisition?

Explanation

The address code in the due-in document identifies the base that placed the requisition. This code is used to specify the location or base from where the requisition originated. It helps in tracking the source of the requisition and ensuring that the requested items are delivered to the correct base.

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92. Who maintains ownership of supply point assets until they are used?

Explanation

LRS, or Local Distribution Companies, maintain ownership of supply point assets until they are used. This means that they are responsible for the maintenance and management of these assets until they are put into operation. This ensures that the assets are properly taken care of and ready for use when needed.

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93. Which activity and organization code is used when loading a supply point detail document number?

Explanation

The correct answer is S, 005. This is because the activity code "S" is used when loading a supply point detail document number. The organization code "005" is also used in this process.

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94. Which class of supply includes weapons?

Explanation

Class II includes weapons.

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95. What analysis method do you use most often for recurring reports or for comparing statistical data with standards and norms?

Explanation

Trend analysis is the most frequently used analysis method for recurring reports or comparing statistical data with standards and norms. This method involves examining patterns and changes over time to identify trends and understand the direction and magnitude of the data. By analyzing trends, organizations can gain insights into performance, identify areas for improvement, and make informed decisions based on historical data. It is a valuable tool for monitoring progress, forecasting future outcomes, and benchmarking against industry standards.

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96. Who is responsible for physical material handling, receipt, storage, and processing of war reserve material (WRM) shipment request?

Explanation

Bases are responsible for physical material handling, receipt, storage, and processing of war reserve material (WRM) shipment requests.

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97. The transaction identification code (TRIC) FIL establishes what basic record?

Explanation

The transaction identification code (TRIC) FIL establishes both the item record and the repair cycle record. This means that when the TRIC FIL is used, it creates a basic record that includes information about both the item being recorded and the repair cycle it is a part of. This allows for efficient tracking and management of both the item and its repair cycle.

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98. What section stores small arms for mobility use?

Explanation

The correct answer is Individual protective equipment. This section is responsible for storing small arms that are used for mobility purposes. Small arms are considered part of the individual protective equipment that security forces may need to carry with them for their own protection while on the move.

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99. Which type mobility bag (MOBAG) contains cold weather equipment?

Explanation

Option B is the correct answer because it is stated that this type of mobility bag contains cold weather equipment. The question is asking for the type of mobility bag that includes cold weather equipment, and option B fits this criteria.

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100. What action occurs when Air Force Materiel Command (AFMC) and Contractor Inventory Control Points (CICP) direct asset redistribution?

Explanation

When Air Force Materiel Command (AFMC) and Contractor Inventory Control Points (CICP) direct asset redistribution, the action that occurs is the issuance of redistribution orders. This means that the assets are being moved or transferred from one location to another based on the direction of AFMC and CICP. Redistribution orders ensure that assets are distributed efficiently and effectively to meet operational needs and maintain readiness.

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101. Inventory schedules are prepared

Explanation

Inventory schedules are prepared by fiscal year because it allows businesses to align their inventory management with their financial reporting. By organizing inventory schedules based on the fiscal year, companies can accurately track and report their inventory levels, costs, and valuation for financial statements and tax purposes. This approach ensures consistency and facilitates better financial planning and analysis.

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102. When planning a warehouse layout, what type of space must be kept to a minimum so as to increase storage space and utilization?

Explanation

When planning a warehouse layout, minimizing work areas is important to increase storage space and utilization. Work areas refer to spaces where employees carry out tasks such as packing, sorting, and labeling. By reducing the size of work areas, more space can be dedicated to storage, allowing for greater storage capacity and efficiency. This can lead to better organization and utilization of the warehouse space, ultimately improving productivity and reducing costs.

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103. Which best describes the next step after an assessment has been conducted by quality assurance (QA) with discrepancies?

Explanation

After an assessment has been conducted by quality assurance (QA) with discrepancies, the next step would be to review training requirements. This is because the discrepancies identified in the assessment indicate areas where employees may require additional training or support. By reviewing the training requirements, the organization can address these deficiencies and ensure that employees have the necessary skills and knowledge to perform their tasks effectively. Gathering data and preparing reports may be part of the assessment process, but the immediate focus should be on identifying and addressing the training needs.

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104. Markings found on containers that do not apply to presently packaged materials need to be 

Explanation

Markings found on containers that do not apply to presently packaged materials need to be obliterated. This means that any outdated or irrelevant markings on the containers should be removed or erased. This is necessary to avoid confusion or misinterpretation of the information on the containers. By obliterating these markings, the containers can be properly labeled and the correct information can be conveyed to users or handlers.

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105. Which functional area does Defense Logistics Manual (DLM) 4000.25, Defense Logistics Management System Manual, not pertain to?

Explanation

The Defense Logistics Manual (DLM) 4000.25, Defense Logistics Management System Manual, pertains to the functional areas of Maintenance, Finance, and Supply. However, it does not pertain to the functional area of Safety.

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106. Which base wide organization utilizes the core automated maintenance system (CAMS) to interface with Materiel Management System?

Explanation

The correct answer is Maintenance because the question asks which base wide organization uses the core automated maintenance system (CAMS) to interface with Materiel Management System. The term "maintenance" directly relates to the core automated maintenance system, indicating that this organization is responsible for utilizing CAMS to interface with the Materiel Management System.

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107. Which product of the materiel management system is used to ensure rejects are processed in a timely manner?

Explanation

D818 is the correct answer because it is the product of the materiel management system that is specifically designed to ensure rejects are processed in a timely manner.

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108. What is sent to the materiel management computer system when a mission capable (MICAP) requisition is transmitted to the source of supply with immediately available assets?

Explanation

When a mission capable (MICAP) requisition is transmitted to the source of supply with immediately available assets, a positive status is sent to the materiel management computer system. This indicates that the requested assets are available and can be immediately provided to fulfill the requisition.

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109. An automatic requisition to the source of supply is identified by what document identification code?

Explanation

The correct answer is A0*. A0* is the document identification code for an automatic requisition to the source of supply. This code is used to identify and track the requisition throughout the supply chain process. It indicates that the requisition is automatically generated and sent to the source of supply without any manual intervention.

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110. What two organizations provide wholesale logistics experience for selected materiel management noncommissioned officers (NCO)?

Explanation

The correct answer is Defense Logistics Agency (DLA) and AFMC. These two organizations provide wholesale logistics experience for selected materiel management noncommissioned officers (NCO). The Defense Logistics Agency is responsible for providing logistics support to the military services and other federal agencies, including wholesale logistics management. The Air Force Materiel Command is responsible for providing logistics support to the United States Air Force, including wholesale logistics management. Therefore, these two organizations offer the necessary experience and expertise in wholesale logistics for selected NCOs in materiel management.

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111. What TRIC is not an option for processing after dispositions instructions for an unserviceable asset has been received?

Explanation

The correct answer is ISU because ISU stands for Inventory Storage and Utilization, which is not an option for processing after disposition instructions for an unserviceable asset have been received. ISU is typically used for managing and storing inventory, not for processing assets that are no longer in service. On the other hand, TRIC (Transaction Item Code), TRM (Transaction Reason Code), and MSI (Material Serviceability Inquiry) are all options that can be used for processing after disposition instructions have been received.

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112. What source of supply consists of vendors from the local community?

Explanation

The correct answer is local purchase because it refers to the act of buying goods or services from vendors within the local community. This source of supply supports the local economy and promotes community development. Local purchase also helps to reduce transportation costs and carbon footprint associated with long-distance supply chains.

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113. What transaction can be processed on an existing requisition that will initiate mission capability (MICAP) reporting?

Explanation

When an existing requisition is upgraded, it means that it is being improved or enhanced in some way. This could involve upgrading the specifications, features, or quality of the requested item. Initiating mission capability reporting (MICAP) is important when there is a critical need for a specific item to support a mission. By upgrading the requisition, it indicates that the item requested is being improved to better meet the mission requirements, thereby initiating the MICAP reporting process.

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114. What transaction is used for upgrading and downgrading to and from a mission capability (MICAP) condition?

Explanation

The correct answer is NOR. NOR stands for Not Operationally Ready. It is a transaction used for upgrading and downgrading to and from a mission capability (MICAP) condition. This transaction is used to indicate that a particular equipment or system is not currently in an operational state and needs maintenance or repair before it can be used again.

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115. The repair cycle process concept involving the practice of sending certain XD2 assets directly to the depot for repair, without first attempting to repair them at base level, reduces the number of maintenance levels from

Explanation

The repair cycle process involves sending certain XD2 assets directly to the depot for repair, bypassing the base level repair. This practice reduces the number of maintenance levels from 3 to 2.

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116. The use of Discoverer Viewer is highly encouraged over Discoverer Plus because it

Explanation

The use of Discoverer Viewer is highly encouraged over Discoverer Plus because it uses a lot less bandwidth. This means that it requires less internet data to display the results, making it more efficient and cost-effective. By using less bandwidth, it also ensures faster loading times and smoother performance for users.

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117. How are storage bin rows in a warehouse numbered

Explanation

In a warehouse, storage bin rows are numbered in a way that odd numbers are assigned to the left of the main aisle. This numbering system helps in organizing and locating the storage bins efficiently. By assigning odd numbers to the left of the main aisle, it becomes easier for workers to navigate and find the desired storage bins. It also ensures a systematic arrangement of the bins, making it easier to keep track of inventory and improve overall warehouse management.

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118. How many different types of reports can be processed through the materiel management computer system?

Explanation

The materiel management computer system can process 5 different types of reports.

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119. What document identification code indicates a denial to a redistribution order sent by Air Force Materiel Command item managers?

Explanation

The document identification code "B7*" indicates a denial to a redistribution order sent by AirForce Materiel Command item managers.

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120. When an activity receives a shortage or overage discrepancy on a controlled item, within what time frame from its discovery must the activity submit a discrepancy report?

Explanation

When an activity receives a shortage or overage discrepancy on a controlled item, it is required to submit a discrepancy report within 24 hours from the time of its discovery. This time frame ensures that any issues or discrepancies can be promptly addressed and resolved, allowing for efficient inventory management and accountability. Waiting longer than 24 hours could lead to delays in identifying and rectifying the problem, potentially causing further complications and disruptions in the supply chain.

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121. Which activity is responsible for providing Repair Cycle Support with new status and location for a due-in from maintenance (DIFM) detail?

Explanation

The activity responsible for providing Repair Cycle Support with new status and location for a due-in from maintenance (DIFM) detail is Maintenance. This implies that the Maintenance department is responsible for updating the status and location of items that are due-in from maintenance, ensuring that Repair Cycle Support has accurate information about the items being repaired.

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122. What transaction is used to process the updated status and location for a due-in from maintenance (DIFM) record?

Explanation

The correct answer is TRIC DFM. This transaction is used to process the updated status and location for a due-in from maintenance (DIFM) record.

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123. What system is capable of supporting multiple full Materiel Management System host accounts?

Explanation

The Standard Base Level Computer (SBLC) is capable of supporting multiple full Materiel Management System host accounts. This means that the SBLC can handle multiple accounts for managing and tracking materials, ensuring efficient logistics and inventory management. The other options, Logistics Information Network (LINK), Requirements/Execution Availability Logistics Module (REALM), and Execution and Prioritization of Repair Support System (EXPRESS), do not specifically mention the capability of supporting multiple full Materiel Management System host accounts. Therefore, SBLC is the correct answer.

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124. What is a major disadvantage in the use of unimproved open storage?

Explanation

The major disadvantage in the use of unimproved open storage is the limited use of material handling equipment (MHE). This means that the storage area is not properly equipped to handle the movement and transportation of materials, which can result in inefficiency and delays in operations. Without the necessary equipment, it becomes difficult to load, unload, and transport goods effectively, leading to potential damage and loss of productivity.

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125. What term describes the items and quantities of equipment Air Force activities and individuals normally required to carry out their mission?

Explanation

Allowance standards refer to the items and quantities of equipment that Air Force activities and individuals typically need to fulfill their mission. These standards provide guidelines for the authorized equipment that should be available to support operations. By following allowance standards, Air Force personnel can ensure that they have the necessary equipment to carry out their duties effectively and efficiently. Configuration data, authorization details, and equipment management codes are not specifically related to describing the items and quantities of equipment required for Air Force missions.

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126. Which Air Force Form is used to request a change to an allowance standard or to request an item that requires approval under miscellaneous allowance source code?

Explanation

AF Form 601 is used to request a change to an allowance standard or to request an item that requires approval under miscellaneous allowance source code. This form is specifically designed for Air Force personnel to submit their requests and ensure that the necessary changes or approvals are properly documented and processed.

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127. What section should be contacted to ensure an item is physically available for a customer?  

Explanation

To ensure an item is physically available for a customer, the section that should be contacted is Storage and Issue. This section is responsible for keeping track of inventory and managing the movement of goods within the storage facility. They are in charge of maintaining stock levels and ensuring that items are readily accessible for customers when needed. By contacting the Storage and Issue section, customers can inquire about the availability of specific items and make arrangements for their retrieval.

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128. What position is used to identify the storage lot in warehouse location code 02A003D004C?

Explanation

The position "02" in the warehouse location code is used to identify the storage lot.

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129. The most efficient way to determine requirements for adding, changing, or deleting bench stock authorizations is to process the

Explanation

The most efficient way to determine requirements for adding, changing, or deleting bench stock authorizations is to process the M04.

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130. Which of the following is not a factor to consider when operating mechanized material handling systems (MMHS) to ensure unsafe incidents are eliminated?

Explanation

Cost is not a factor to consider when operating mechanized material handling systems (MMHS) to ensure unsafe incidents are eliminated. Factors such as operational deficiencies, workload breakdown, and general layout are important considerations to prevent unsafe incidents. However, cost, although relevant for budgeting and financial planning, does not directly impact the safety of the system.

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131. Who must ensure that additional controls are exercised over all weapons movements, marshaling, and deployments at the deployed location?

Explanation

The Accountable Officer (AO) or commander must ensure that additional controls are exercised over all weapons movements, marshaling, and deployments at the deployed location. This responsibility falls on the AO or commander because they have the overall authority and accountability for the weapons and their usage. They are responsible for ensuring that proper procedures and protocols are followed to maintain the security and control of the weapons at all times. This includes overseeing the movements, marshaling, and deployments of the weapons to prevent any unauthorized access or misuse.

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132. Shelf life assets are tracked in the Mobility Inventory Control and Accountability System (MICAS) web by

Explanation

Shelf life assets are tracked in the Mobility Inventory Control and Accountability System (MICAS) web by contract/lot number. This means that the system uses the contract or lot number to keep track of these assets. The contract/lot number is a unique identifier that allows for easy identification and tracking of these assets throughout their shelf life. By using this number, the system can ensure that these assets are properly managed and maintained, and can also help with inventory control and accountability.

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133. Which block of the AF form 2005 will the inspector sign or stamp after the in-checker has signed and dated block A?

Explanation

After the in-checker has signed and dated block A of the AF form 2005, the inspector will sign or stamp block B.

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134. Which system provides the user with information on their requisitions, with emphasis placed on the flight line base level user?

Explanation

TRACKER is the correct answer because it is a system that provides the user with information on their requisitions, specifically focusing on the flight line base level user. RAMPS, LINK, and SCS are not mentioned as systems that provide this type of information to the user.

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135. Who serves as the primary point of contact for interfacing with the Air Force Sustainment Center (AFSC) on behalf of maintenance customers?

Explanation

The Maintenance Support Liaison (MSL) serves as the primary point of contact for interfacing with the Air Force Sustainment Center (AFSC) on behalf of maintenance customers. They act as a liaison between the AFSC and the maintenance customers, ensuring effective communication and coordination between the two parties. The MSL is responsible for addressing any maintenance-related issues, providing support and guidance to the customers, and facilitating the flow of information between the AFSC and the maintenance customers.

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136. What activity code is used to process equipment authorization inventory data equipment turn-ins?

Explanation

The correct answer is E. The activity code E is used to process equipment authorization inventory data equipment turn-ins.

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137. Who, in coordination with the flight chief, determines who will process controlled transaction identification codes (TRIC) and informs the computer operations terminal security manager which controlled TRICs each user identification (user ID) is authorized to process?

Explanation

Terminal security monitors, in coordination with the flight chief, determine who will process controlled transaction identification codes (TRIC) and inform the computer operations terminal security manager which controlled TRICs each user identification (user ID) is authorized to process. They play a crucial role in ensuring the security and authorization of users to process specific TRICs, working closely with the flight chief and the computer operations terminal security manager.

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138. Who ensures that customers who generate waste are held liable for waste disposition under

Explanation

The Environmental Protection Agency (EPA) ensures that customers who generate waste are held liable for waste disposition under Defense Logistics Agency Disposition Services (DLADS). The EPA is responsible for enforcing regulations and policies related to waste management and disposal. They work to protect human health and the environment by ensuring that waste is properly handled and disposed of in accordance with federal laws.

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139. How many major types of inquiries are there in the materiel management system?

Explanation

There are four major types of inquiries in the materiel management system. The question asks for the number of major types of inquiries, and the correct answer is 4.

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140. Which action code on an item record inquiry in the materiel management system is used to obtain specific information?

Explanation

The action code "Record retrieval" on an item record inquiry in the materiel management system is used to obtain specific information. This action allows the user to retrieve and access specific details or data related to an item record. It enables the user to view and extract the desired information from the system, providing them with the specific data they need for analysis, decision-making, or any other purpose.

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141. Which of the following is not a division within the Supply Management Activity Group- Retail (SMAG-R)?

Explanation

The Air Force Working Capital Fund is not a division within the Supply Management Activity Group-Retail (SMAG-R). SMAG-R is a group that focuses on supply management in the retail sector, and the Air Force Working Capital Fund is a financial management tool used by the Air Force to finance and manage its working capital requirements. It is not a specific division within SMAG-R.

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142. What code is assigned if an item record requiring record reversal action does not contain a freeze code?

Explanation

If an item record requiring record reversal action does not contain a freeze code, the code assigned to it would be Q.

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143. What do you do with the prefilled data on an automated reverse-post (RVP) input?

Explanation

When dealing with the prefilled data on an automated reverse-post (RVP) input, the correct action is to screen for accuracy and input it. This means that the data should be carefully reviewed and checked for any errors or inconsistencies before being entered into the system. By doing so, any inaccuracies or mistakes can be identified and corrected, ensuring that the inputted data is reliable and accurate.

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144. Which code on an issue request is used by the Materiel Management System to select the correct internal program to process an input transaction?

Explanation

The Materiel Management System uses the Transaction Identification Code (TRIC) on an issue request to select the correct internal program to process an input transaction. The TRIC serves as a unique identifier for each type of transaction, allowing the system to determine the appropriate program to handle the request. This helps ensure that the transaction is processed correctly and efficiently within the system.

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145. What one position alpha code is used to indicate how the Materiel Management System accumulates demand data for stock leveling and due in from maintenance (DIFM) control?

Explanation

The correct answer is "Demand code." This is because the demand code is used to indicate how the Materiel Management System accumulates demand data for stock leveling and due in from maintenance (DIFM) control. It helps track and manage the demand for materials and ensures that the appropriate stock levels are maintained.

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146. Which maintenance process updates various basic and support records, such as item records, routing identifier records, and warehouse locations?

Explanation

The correct answer is Miscellaneous file maintenance. This process involves updating various basic and support records such as item records, routing identifier records, and warehouse locations. It is a maintenance process that ensures the accuracy and completeness of these records, allowing for efficient operations and inventory management.

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147. In Enterprise Solution–Supply (ES–S), what are the three sections of the Order Selection Page?

Explanation

The correct answer is "Primary Selection Criteria, Secondary Selection Criteria, and Display Criteria." In the context of Enterprise Solution-Supply (ES-S), the Order Selection Page is divided into three sections. The Primary Selection Criteria section includes the essential criteria that must be fulfilled for an order to be selected. The Secondary Selection Criteria section consists of additional criteria that can be used to further refine the order selection process. Lastly, the Display Criteria section determines how the selected orders will be displayed on the page.

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148. Which process is very important to prevent rejects and incorrect data from being processed during recovery?

Explanation

Sequencing is the correct answer because it refers to the process of arranging data or events in a specific order. In the context of recovery, sequencing is crucial to prevent rejects and incorrect data from being processed. By ensuring that data is processed in the correct order, errors and inconsistencies can be detected and corrected before they cause further issues. This helps maintain the integrity and accuracy of the recovered data, making sequencing an important process in preventing errors during recovery.

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149. What action code is used when transferring multiple quantities from a mobility readiness spares package (MRSP) or War Reserve Materiel (WRM) detail record?

Explanation

The action code "M" is used when transferring multiple quantities from a mobility readiness spares package (MRSP) or War Reserve Materiel (WRM) detail record.

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150. What type of materiel management source documents are not placed in a permanent document file?

Explanation

Source documents with file indicator D are not placed in a permanent document file. This means that these documents are not stored for long-term record keeping. The other options, TRIC FIC and FCU, are transaction identification codes and not source documents.

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151. What is the purpose of DD Form 2477, Inspection Extension?

Explanation

DD Form 2477, Inspection Extension, is used to update inspection data. This form is used to extend the inspection period for equipment or property that requires additional time for inspection. By using this form, the inspection data can be updated to reflect the extended inspection period. This helps to ensure that accurate and up-to-date inspection information is maintained for the equipment or property in question.

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152. What type of material storage is best suited for pesticides, poisons, and certain batteries?

Explanation

The best type of material storage for pesticides, poisons, and certain batteries is low hazard. This means that the storage area should have minimal risks associated with it, ensuring the safety of individuals and the environment. It is important to store these materials in a secure and controlled environment to prevent any accidents or harm.

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153. Which property is defined as materiel that requires a high degree of protection and control due to statutory requirements or regulations?

Explanation

Sensitive property is defined as material that requires a high degree of protection and control due to statutory requirements or regulations. This means that sensitive property is subject to specific rules and regulations that dictate how it should be handled, stored, and protected. It is important to ensure that sensitive property is securely managed to prevent unauthorized access or disclosure, as well as to comply with legal requirements.

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154. Which option in the Mobility Inventory and Accountability System (MICAS) web system allows you to scan the bar code or opt to enter the stock number of items received?

Explanation

In the Mobility Inventory and Accountability System (MICAS) web system, the option to scan the bar code or manually enter the stock number of items received is "Receive stock." This option allows users to track and record the receipt of items into the inventory system.

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155. When inventory count images are input, the computer compares the record balance with the

Explanation

When inventory count images are input, the computer compares the record balance with the physical count quantity. This means that the computer checks if the quantity of items recorded in the inventory system matches the actual quantity of items counted during the physical inventory count. This comparison helps identify any discrepancies or errors in the inventory records, allowing for accurate inventory management and control.

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156. Which class of supply consists of repair parts?

Explanation

Class IX consists of repair parts. This class of supply includes items such as components, assemblies, and subassemblies that are used for the repair, overhaul, or modification of equipment. These repair parts are essential for maintaining and restoring the functionality of various systems and equipment.

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157. What automated system was developed to improve the process of tracking assets through base level materiel management channels, to reduce the amount of paper produced and stored in the warehouse, to allow bar code scanning of data to reduce data entry errors, and speed data in the Logistics Readiness Squadron (LRS)?

Explanation

The correct answer is Asset Management. This system was developed to improve the process of tracking assets through base level materiel management channels, reduce the amount of paper produced and stored in the warehouse, allow bar code scanning of data to reduce data entry errors, and speed up data in the Logistics Readiness Squadron (LRS). This system helps in efficient management and tracking of assets, reduces paperwork, and improves data accuracy and speed in the LRS.

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158. To indicate that additional research is needed, the inventory recount image contains a research indicator of

Explanation

The correct answer is AR. In inventory management, the AR indicator stands for "Additional Research." This indicator is used to highlight that further investigation or research is required regarding the inventory recount. It suggests that there may be discrepancies or issues that need to be addressed and resolved before finalizing the inventory count. By using the AR indicator, the inventory management team can ensure accuracy and completeness in their inventory records.

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159. Which instruction prescribes basic guidance and responsibilities for managing public property under Air Force control by authorizing and directing commanders to manage government property under their command?

Explanation

The correct answer is "Management of Government Property in Possession of the Air Force—AFI 23–111." This instruction provides basic guidance and responsibilities for managing public property under Air Force control. It authorizes and directs commanders to manage government property under their command.

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160. What concept may be necessary when there is an overflow of assets that cannot be stocked in the primary location?

Explanation

When there is an overflow of assets that cannot be stocked in the primary location, the concept of reserve location becomes necessary. Reserve location refers to an additional storage area or backup facility where excess assets can be stored temporarily until they can be accommodated in the primary location. This helps in managing the overflow and ensures that the assets are still accessible when needed.

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161. What process is used to have shelf life controls and other inspection functions for RSP assets?

Explanation

COSIS is the process used to have shelf life controls and other inspection functions for RSP assets. This implies that COSIS is a system or method specifically designed to monitor and manage the shelf life of assets and conduct inspections. TAV, SIFS, and DIREPS are not mentioned or explained in the question, so it can be inferred that they are not relevant to the process of shelf life controls and inspection functions for RSP assets.

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162. Which issue exception codes identify health hazard items?

Explanation

Exception codes are used in hazardous materials transportation to identify specific types of hazards associated with the materials being transported. In this question, the correct answer is 8, 9, or M. These exception codes specifically identify health hazard items. The other options listed in the question are not associated with health hazards.

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163. Which element within the Logistic Readiness Squadron (LRS) is responsible for providing secure storage for weapons?

Explanation

The element within the Logistic Readiness Squadron (LRS) that is responsible for providing secure storage for weapons is Mobility. This suggests that the Mobility team is in charge of ensuring that weapons are stored safely and securely.

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164. Which listing includes the due-ins that have been received, but remain in the computers because the receipts have not been completely cleared?

Explanation

The correct answer is "Receipt acknowledged error." This listing refers to due-ins that have been received but are still in the computers because the receipts have not been completely cleared. This suggests that there is an error in acknowledging the receipt, causing the due-ins to remain in the system.

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165. What form is used as an accountable document for items received when in-checking property?

Explanation

DD Form 1348-1A is used as an accountable document for items received when in-checking property. This form is commonly known as a Material Release Order (MRO) and is used by the Department of Defense to document the receipt of goods and services. It provides detailed information about the items received, such as the quantity, description, and condition of the items. The form also includes information about the recipient, the date of receipt, and any special handling instructions. By using this form, the accountable personnel can ensure proper tracking and accountability of the received items.

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166. What data can be obtained when using record retrieval code 5 on an item record inquiry?

Explanation

When using record retrieval code 5 on an item record inquiry, the data that can be obtained is the repair cycle record. This means that the information related to the repairs and maintenance performed on the item can be accessed. The repair cycle record provides details such as the dates of repairs, types of repairs, and any other relevant information regarding the item's repair history.

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167. Which best describes when a Report of Discrepancy is required?

Explanation

A Report of Discrepancy is required when there are instances of incorrect material being received, unacceptable substitutes being provided, or duplicate shipments occurring. This report helps to document and rectify any discrepancies in the material received, ensuring that the correct items are provided and any duplicates or unacceptable substitutes are addressed.

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168. Who selects highly experienced materiel management personnel for customer support visits?

Explanation

The correct answer is Logistics readiness squadron (LRS) leadership. The LRS leadership is responsible for selecting highly experienced materiel management personnel for customer support visits. They have the authority and knowledge to determine which personnel are best suited for these visits based on their expertise and experience in materiel management. This ensures that the customers receive the necessary support and assistance from knowledgeable individuals.

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169. Which class of supply consists of ammunition?

Explanation

Class V consists of ammunition.

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170. What best describes Class X items?

Explanation

Class X items refer to materiel that is specifically designated to support nonmilitary programs. This means that these items are not intended for use in military operations or activities, but rather for supporting civilian or nonmilitary initiatives. It is important to distinguish Class X items from other categories such as repair parts, major end items, or medical materiel, as these are all different classifications with specific purposes.

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171. What letter is entered where on the AF Form 2005 for part number requests?

Explanation

In the AF Form 2005, part number requests are entered in position 8. The correct letter to enter in this position is P.

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172. When performing an inventory on an equipment account, which product is used to record the out-of-balance conditions?

Explanation

The Custodian authorization/custody receipt listing (CA/CRL) (R14) is used to record out-of-balance conditions when performing an inventory on an equipment account. This document provides a record of the authorization and custody of equipment, allowing for tracking and verification of the equipment's location and status. By comparing the information on the CA/CRL with the physical inventory, any discrepancies or out-of-balance conditions can be identified and addressed. This helps ensure the accuracy and completeness of the equipment inventory.

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173. Who works with logistics readiness squadron (LRS) quality assurance (QA) to develop local programs for solving problems identified by management?

Explanation

Training works with logistics readiness squadron (LRS) quality assurance (QA) to develop local programs for solving problems identified by management. This is because training plays a crucial role in ensuring that employees have the necessary skills and knowledge to perform their jobs effectively. By working with QA, training can identify areas where employees may need additional training or support in order to address problems identified by management. This collaboration helps to improve overall performance and efficiency within the logistics readiness squadron.

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174. The equipment custodian uses which Air Force form to request non-equipment authorization inventory data items?

Explanation

The equipment custodian uses Air Force form 2005 to request non-equipment authorization inventory data items.

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175. What benefit can occur by challenging possibly inflated urgency-of-need designators (UNDs) and urgency justification codes (UJCs) on an issue request?

Explanation

Challenging possibly inflated urgency-of-need designators (UNDs) and urgency justification codes (UJCs) on an issue request can reduce the number of UMMIPS violations. UMMIPS is a system that prioritizes and tracks the movement and issue of materials. By challenging inflated UNDs and UJCs, it ensures that only items with genuine urgency are given priority, reducing the chances of violating UMMIPS rules. This helps in maintaining the integrity and effectiveness of the UMMIPS system.

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176. What system provides the ability to make repair, deployment, sourcing, maintenance, acquisition, re-distribution, forecasting, and other management decisions?

Explanation

The correct answer is Enterprise Solution–Supply. This system provides the ability to make repair, deployment, sourcing, maintenance, acquisition, re-distribution, forecasting, and other management decisions. It is a comprehensive solution that covers all aspects of supply chain management and helps organizations optimize their operations and make informed decisions. Oracle Discoverer Plus is a business intelligence tool, Standard Asset Tracking System is focused on tracking assets, and Weapon System Management Information System is specific to managing weapon systems.

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177. What item does the Air Force use to aid in inventory and warehouse validation?

Explanation

Bar code labels are used by the Air Force to aid in inventory and warehouse validation. These labels contain unique information that can be easily scanned and tracked, allowing for efficient and accurate inventory management. By using bar code labels, the Air Force can quickly identify and locate items, ensuring that inventory levels are accurate and that the warehouse is properly organized. This helps streamline operations and reduces the risk of errors or misplaced items.

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178. What system captures unit type code (UTC) assessments, identifies suitable UTCs to satisfy taskings, and helps forecast shortfalls?

Explanation

The AEF Reporting Tool (ART) captures unit type code (UTC) assessments, identifies suitable UTCs to satisfy taskings, and helps forecast shortfalls. This suggests that ART is a system specifically designed to manage and track UTC assessments, taskings, and resource availability. The other options, such as Weapon System Management Information System (WSMIS), Mobility Inventory Control and Accountability System (MICAS), and PC–Aircraft Sustainability Model (PC–ASM), do not mention these specific functionalities, making them less likely to be the correct answer.

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179. Which of the following items is not checked when off-loading property from a carrier?

Explanation

When off-loading property from a carrier, the production date of the item is not checked. The other options, such as the shipping label, obvious damage, and transportation control number, are typically checked to ensure that the correct item is being off-loaded, there is no visible damage, and the item is properly documented and tracked during transportation. However, the production date is not relevant in this context and therefore not checked.

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180. Where will processed returns in a serviceable condition be forwarded to after receiving a "notice to stock" document?

Explanation

After receiving a "notice to stock" document, processed returns in a serviceable condition will be forwarded to an appropriate storage facility. This means that the returns will be stored in a designated location that is suitable for preserving their condition until further action is taken. It is important to store them properly to ensure that they remain in good condition and can be easily accessed when needed.

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181. What codes are used to determine the requisitioning priority designator used at the source of supply?

Explanation

The codes used to determine the requisitioning priority designator used at the source of supply are the Force Activity Designator (FAD) and the urgency-of-need designator (UND). These codes help prioritize the requisitions based on the specific needs and urgency of the request.

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182. Who does the source of supply (SOS) owe an item to when a due-in detail is established after being requisitioned?

Explanation

When a due-in detail is established after being requisitioned, the source of supply (SOS) owes the item to the requisitioning activity. The requisitioning activity is the entity that requested the item and is responsible for receiving and using it. The SOS is responsible for fulfilling the requisition and delivering the item to the requisitioning activity.

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183. Which materiel management listing is reviewed by the inventory section to verify that all degraded operations emergency issues have been processed?

Explanation

The Daily Document Register (D04) is reviewed by the inventory section to verify that all degraded operations emergency issues have been processed. This register keeps track of all the daily documents related to materiel management, including emergency issues. By reviewing this register, the inventory section can ensure that all degraded operations emergency issues have been addressed and processed accordingly.

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184. Which of the following identifies the first three positions of a Materiel Management unit type code (UTC)?

Explanation

The first three positions of a Materiel Management unit type code (UTC) are identified by the code JFB.

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185. What is the maximum number of characters for the descriptive nomenclature field on the item record?

Explanation

The maximum number of characters for the descriptive nomenclature field on the item record is 32. This means that the field can accommodate up to 32 characters of text or information.

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186. Which listing is used to perform the due-in from maintenance (DIFM) reconciliation?

Explanation

D23 is the correct answer because it is the only option that is related to the due-in from maintenance (DIFM) reconciliation. The other options (D19, D20, Q04) do not mention anything about DIFM reconciliation. Therefore, D23 is the most appropriate listing to perform the DIFM reconciliation.

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187. What interactive processing facility command allows you to add images saved in other files to your job stream?

Explanation

The correct answer is "IN". The "IN" command in interactive processing facility allows users to add images saved in other files to their job stream. This command is commonly used to incorporate graphics or visual elements into a job or program.

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188. Which individual is designated by the organizational commander or chief of staff agency to have safeguarding responsibility for government property in their possession?

Explanation

The individual designated as a property custodian is responsible for safeguarding government property in their possession. They are entrusted with the responsibility of ensuring that the property is properly maintained, accounted for, and protected from loss or damage. The property custodian plays a crucial role in managing and overseeing the use of government property within an organization.

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189. Which system is used to globally distinguish one item from all other items that the Department of Defense (DOD) buys or owns?

Explanation

Item Unique Identification (IUID) is the system used to globally distinguish one item from all other items that the Department of Defense (DOD) buys or owns. This system assigns a unique identifier to each item, allowing for better tracking, inventory management, and maintenance of assets. It helps in ensuring accurate and timely information about the location, status, and maintenance history of each item, improving efficiency and reducing costs for the DOD.

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190. An I007 management notice will be produced when a

Explanation

When an I007 management notice is produced, it means that a part number request cannot be converted to a stock number under program control. This notice is generated when the system is unable to convert the requested part number into an available stock number based on the program's control and regulations.

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191. The decision to transfer Mobility readiness spares package (MRSP) rests with the host and the

Explanation

The decision to transfer Mobility readiness spares package (MRSP) rests with the gaining MAJCOM. This means that it is the responsibility of the receiving MAJCOM to determine whether or not to transfer the MRSP. The losing Accountable Officer and losing MAJCOM do not have the authority to make this decision.

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192. What will the computer scan for in its internal records after an item was repaired and turned in serviceable?

Explanation

After an item is repaired and turned in serviceable, the computer will scan for due-outs in its internal records. This means that it will check for any items that are still awaiting repair or have been requested for repair but have not yet been returned. By scanning for due-outs, the computer can ensure that all necessary repairs have been completed and that all items are accounted for before being returned to service.

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193. Which redistribution results when local management decides to force shipment and/or redistribution of base operating stocks?

Explanation

When local management decides to force shipment and/or redistribution of base operating stocks, the resulting redistribution is called "nondirected." This means that the redistribution is not specifically directed or targeted towards any particular location or group. It is a general redistribution of stocks to ensure that they are distributed evenly or as needed across all locations or groups.

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194. Which best describes the outcome of a Supply Discrepancy Report (SDR)?

Explanation

The outcome of a Supply Discrepancy Report (SDR) is to notify the shipping organization that a discrepancy exists. This means that if there is any difference or inconsistency in the supply items being shipped, the SDR will inform the shipping organization about it. The purpose of this notification is to ensure that the discrepancy is addressed and resolved appropriately. The other options, such as notifying MAJCOM of overage items or authorizing processing of identification or condition change, do not accurately describe the outcome of an SDR.

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195. What provides a unique framework that links performance metrics, processes, best practices, and people into a unified structure?

Explanation

The correct answer is Supply-chain operations reference (SCOR). SCOR provides a unique framework that connects performance metrics, processes, best practices, and people into a unified structure. It is a widely used model for managing and measuring supply chain activities and performance. SCOR helps organizations to align their supply chain strategies with business goals and improve overall supply chain efficiency and effectiveness. It provides a standardized language and set of metrics that enable companies to benchmark their performance against industry standards and identify areas for improvement.

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196. Which object is accessible to the user when logged into INFOConnect?

Explanation

When logged into INFOConnect, the user can access green screens. Green screens refer to the text-based user interface that is commonly used in mainframe systems. These screens display information and allow the user to input commands or navigate through the system. Blue screens typically refer to the infamous "blue screen of death" that appears in Windows operating systems when a critical error occurs. Mainframe is a type of computer that is known for its high processing power and reliability. Password is a security measure used to authenticate and grant access to a user.

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197. What transaction identification code (TRIC) code is used to load, change, or delete interchangeable and substitution group (ISG) items?

Explanation

The correct answer is FIS. The transaction identification code (TRIC) code FIS is used to load, change, or delete interchangeable and substitution group (ISG) items.

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198. An automatic adjustment for a pilferable item occurs when the record balance does not agree with the recount quantity and the dollar value of the adjustment is no more than

Explanation

An automatic adjustment for a pilferable item occurs when there is a discrepancy between the recorded balance and the recount quantity. In such cases, the dollar value of the adjustment is considered. The correct answer is $100 because if the dollar value of the adjustment is no more than $100, it is automatically adjusted. This means that if the discrepancy is within this limit, the system will make the adjustment without requiring any further action from the user.

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199. One display line of a terminal screen up to 80 characters long is called

Explanation

A display line of a terminal screen up to 80 characters long is referred to as a screen line.

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200. A request for an adjusted stock level is made on what Air Force form?

Explanation

not-available-via-ai

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What form is used as an accountable document for items received when...
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Who selects highly experienced materiel management personnel for...
Which class of supply consists of ammunition?
What best describes Class X items?
What letter is entered where on the AF Form 2005 for part number...
When performing an inventory on an equipment account, which product is...
Who works with logistics readiness squadron (LRS) quality assurance...
The equipment custodian uses which Air Force form to request...
What benefit can occur by challenging possibly inflated...
What system provides the ability to make repair, deployment, sourcing,...
What item does the Air Force use to aid in inventory and warehouse...
What system captures unit type code (UTC) assessments, identifies...
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Where will processed returns in a serviceable condition be forwarded...
What codes are used to determine the requisitioning priority...
Who does the source of supply (SOS) owe an item to when a due-in...
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Which individual is designated by the organizational commander or...
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An I007 management notice will be produced when a
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What will the computer scan for in its internal records after an item...
Which redistribution results when local management decides to force...
Which best describes the outcome of a Supply Discrepancy Report (SDR)?
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Which object is accessible to the user when logged into INFOConnect?
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One display line of a terminal screen up to 80 characters long is...
A request for an adjusted stock level is made on what Air Force form?
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