CDC 2s071 Volume 3 Multiple Choice Quiz

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2s071 Quizzes & Trivia

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Questions and Answers
  • 1. 

    (401) What management notice is produced when a consolidated shipment is received?

    • A.

      I116

    • B.

      I136

    • C.

      I008

    • D.

      I023

    Correct Answer
    A. I116
  • 2. 

    (401) Which transaction exception code (TEX) code is not used when attempting to process amaterial receipt for a bulk issue item during inventory?

    • A.

      A

    • B.

      C

    • C.

      D

    • D.

      G

    Correct Answer
    A. A
  • 3. 

    (402) Which option is not a category of receipt variances?

    • A.

      Partial receipt

    • B.

      Excess receipt

    • C.

      Shortage receipt.

    • D.

      Serviceable receipt

    Correct Answer
    D. Serviceable receipt
    Explanation
    The options provided in the question are all categories of receipt variances except for "Serviceable receipt." Receipt variances typically refer to discrepancies or differences between the expected quantity of items received and the actual quantity received. "Partial receipt" refers to receiving only a portion of the expected quantity, "Excess receipt" refers to receiving more than the expected quantity, and "Shortage receipt" refers to receiving less than the expected quantity. "Serviceable receipt" does not fit into this category as it does not describe a discrepancy or difference in quantity.

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  • 4. 

    (402) For an overage receipt, what action must be taken on the receipt document?

    • A.

      Write the correct quantity on it

    • B.

      Write the overage quantity on it

    • C.

      Circle the incorrect quantity and put the overage quantity above it.

    • D.

      Circle the incorrect quantity and put the correct quantity actually received above it.

    Correct Answer
    D. Circle the incorrect quantity and put the correct quantity actually received above it.
    Explanation
    When there is an overage receipt, it means that the quantity received is more than what was originally ordered. In such cases, the correct action to be taken on the receipt document is to circle the incorrect quantity (which is the original ordered quantity) and write the correct quantity actually received above it. This ensures that the discrepancy in the quantity is noted and the correct quantity is documented for record-keeping purposes.

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  • 5. 

    (403) Which materiel management complex individuals are authorized to determine the condition of property for the supply account?

    • A.

      Inspectors

    • B.

      In-checkers

    • C.

      Storage personnel

    • D.

      Inventory personnel

    Correct Answer
    A. Inspectors
    Explanation
    Inspectors are authorized to determine the condition of property for the supply account. Inspectors are responsible for conducting thorough inspections of the property to ensure that it meets the required standards and is in good condition. They assess the quality, functionality, and overall condition of the property before it is added to the supply account. This helps in maintaining accurate records and ensuring that only items in good condition are included in the supply account.

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  • 6. 

    (403) The physical state that determines the usefulness of an item to carry out its intended purpose is the

    • A.

      Condition

    • B.

      ERRCD

    • C.

      Identity

    • D.

      Status

    Correct Answer
    A. Condition
    Explanation
    The physical state of an item plays a crucial role in determining its usefulness to carry out its intended purpose. The condition of an item refers to its overall state, including its level of wear and tear, functionality, and any damage or defects it may have. If an item is in good condition, it is more likely to be effective and reliable in fulfilling its intended purpose. Therefore, the condition of an item is a key factor in determining its usefulness.

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  • 7. 

    (403) Which of the following three things does a materiel management inspector use to identify an item?

    • A.

      Stock number, item description, and specifications.

    • B.

      Stock number, nomenclature, and item description

    • C.

      Stock number, reference number, and part number

    • D.

      Stock number, reference number, and item description

    Correct Answer
    D. Stock number, reference number, and item description
    Explanation
    A materiel management inspector uses the stock number, reference number, and item description to identify an item. The stock number is a unique identifier assigned to each item in the inventory, allowing for easy tracking and retrieval. The reference number provides additional information or context about the item, such as its manufacturer or model. Lastly, the item description provides a detailed description of the item, including its specifications and characteristics. By using these three elements together, the inspector can accurately identify and locate the desired item.

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  • 8. 

    (404) What computer input is made to initiate a condition change?

    • A.

      FCC

    • B.

      FCH

    • C.

      FCI

    • D.

      FCU

    Correct Answer
    A. FCC
    Explanation
    The correct answer is FCC. FCC stands for "Frequency Control Channel" which is a computer input made to initiate a condition change. The frequency control channel is responsible for controlling and regulating the frequency of a device or system, and making changes to this channel can result in a change in the condition or behavior of the system.

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  • 9. 

    (405) Who is notified to determine the shelf life coding for a stored item that appears to bedeteriorating and is excluded from shelf life control?

    • A.

      Inspector and HQ AFMC

    • B.

      Item manager and HQ AFMC

    • C.

      Accountable Officer and HQ USAF

    • D.

      Inventory supervisor and HQ USAF

    Correct Answer
    B. Item manager and HQ AFMC
    Explanation
    The item manager and HQ AFMC are notified to determine the shelf life coding for a stored item that appears to be deteriorating and is excluded from shelf life control. They are responsible for assessing the condition of the item and deciding whether it should be included in the shelf life control process or not. This decision is crucial in order to ensure the quality and safety of the stored items. The inspector, accountable officer, and inventory supervisor may have other roles and responsibilities, but they are not specifically mentioned in this context.

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  • 10. 

    (405) How many days before the expiration date are type II shelf life items scheduled forserviceability testing?

    • A.

      10

    • B.

      15 to 45

    • C.

      60 to 90

    • D.

      120

    Correct Answer
    B. 15 to 45
    Explanation
    Type II shelf life items are scheduled for serviceability testing 15 to 45 days before their expiration date. This means that within this time frame, these items are checked to ensure they are still in good condition and can be used effectively. Testing them too early or too close to the expiration date may result in unreliable results or potential issues with the items' performance.

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  • 11. 

    (405) What transaction identification code (TRIC) is processed to load or delete the functionalcheck flag indicator (F) on functional check assets?

    • A.

      FCD

    • B.

      FCH

    • C.

      FCK

    • D.

      FTR

    Correct Answer
    A. FCD
    Explanation
    The transaction identification code (TRIC) FCD is processed to load or delete the functional check flag indicator (F) on functional check assets.

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  • 12. 

    (405) Which transaction identification code (TRIC) and activity code is used to process itemsaccounted for on mobility readiness spares package (MRSP), war reserve materiel (WRM), orsupply point details to maintenance for a functional check?

    • A.

      ISU, C

    • B.

      ISU, A

    • C.

      MSI, C

    • D.

      MSI, A

    Correct Answer
    C. MSI, C
    Explanation
    The correct answer is MSI, C. This transaction identification code (TRIC) and activity code is used to process items accounted for on mobility readiness spares package (MRSP), war reserve materiel (WRM), or supply point details to maintenance for a functional check.

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  • 13. 

    (406) Who forwards two copies of each time compliance technical order (TCTO) publication with a cover letter to the Materiel management inspector?

    • A.

      Supply In-checker

    • B.

      TCTO kit monitor

    • C.

      Supply Warehouse supervisor

    • D.

      Base Maintenance Quality Control

    Correct Answer
    D. Base Maintenance Quality Control
    Explanation
    Base Maintenance Quality Control is responsible for forwarding two copies of each time compliance technical order (TCTO) publication with a cover letter to the Materiel Management Inspector. They ensure that the necessary TCTO publications are provided to the inspector for review and compliance.

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  • 14. 

    (406) How often are on-the-shelf time-compliance technical order (TCTO) items inspected toensure TCTO compliance is being accomplished?

    • A.

      Weekly

    • B.

      Monthly

    • C.

      Semiannually

    • D.

      Annually

    Correct Answer
    B. Monthly
    Explanation
    On-the-shelf time-compliance technical order (TCTO) items are inspected on a monthly basis to ensure that TCTO compliance is being accomplished. This regular inspection frequency allows for timely identification of any non-compliance issues and ensures that corrective actions can be taken promptly. Inspecting these items monthly also helps in maintaining accountability and adherence to the required standards.

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  • 15. 

    (406) A time-compliance technical order (TCTO) item is identified in the computer by a TCTOflag or by

    • A.

      Other assets indicator “5.”

    • B.

      Other assets indicator “4.”

    • C.

      NPPC “5.”

    • D.

      NPPC “4.”

    Correct Answer
    D. NPPC “4.”
  • 16. 

    (406) What computer input is used to load a time compliance technical order flag?

    • A.

      FCC

    • B.

      FCD

    • C.

      FCI

    • D.

      FCU

    Correct Answer
    B. FCD
    Explanation
    The correct answer is FCD. FCD is the computer input used to load a time compliance technical order flag. This input is likely a code or command that is entered into a computer system to indicate that a time compliance technical order flag needs to be loaded or activated.

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  • 17. 

    (407) Which computer input is used to load a suspect materiel flag to an item?

    • A.

      FCC with an “F” in position 48

    • B.

      FCD with an “F” in position 48

    • C.

      FCC with an “S” in position 48

    • D.

      FCD with an “S” in position 48

    Correct Answer
    D. FCD with an “S” in position 48
    Explanation
    The correct answer is FCD with an "S" in position 48. This answer suggests that in order to load a suspect material flag to an item, the input should be in the form of FCD with an "S" in position 48. This implies that the FCD code is used for this specific purpose and the "S" flag indicates that the item is suspected of containing material that may be hazardous or problematic in some way.

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  • 18. 

    (407) Who maintains inquiry images for items that are unsuitable for Air Force use?

    • A.

      Stock Control

    • B.

      Production control

    • C.

      Repair Cycle Support

    • D.

      Materiel Management inspector

    Correct Answer
    D. Materiel Management inspector
    Explanation
    A Materiel Management inspector is responsible for maintaining inquiry images for items that are unsuitable for Air Force use. This means that they are in charge of ensuring that any items that are deemed unsuitable or inappropriate for use by the Air Force are properly documented and stored. They are responsible for inspecting and managing the inventory of these items, ensuring that they are accounted for and properly disposed of if necessary. This role is crucial in maintaining the integrity and safety of the Air Force's equipment and supplies.

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  • 19. 

    (407) The Inspection Offline Checklist (R32) should be processed at least

    • A.

      Weekly

    • B.

      Monthly

    • C.

      Quarterly

    • D.

      Semiannually

    Correct Answer
    B. Monthly
    Explanation
    The Inspection Offline Checklist (R32) should be processed at least monthly to ensure regular and timely inspections are conducted. Processing the checklist on a monthly basis allows for the identification of any issues or maintenance needs that may have arisen since the last inspection. This frequency ensures that any necessary repairs or adjustments can be made promptly, minimizing the risk of potential hazards or equipment failures. Regular monthly inspections also help to maintain the overall safety and efficiency of the inspected area or equipment.

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  • 20. 

    (408) The document that specifies materiel safety data sheets (MSDS) requirements forgovernment purchases is

    • A.

      AFMAN 23–110

    • B.

      AFMAN 23–210

    • C.

      FED-STD–313

    • D.

      FED–PUB 313.

    Correct Answer
    C. FED-STD–313
    Explanation
    The correct answer is FED-STD–313. This document specifies the requirements for materiel safety data sheets (MSDS) for government purchases. AFMAN 23–110 and AFMAN 23–210 are not related to MSDS requirements. FED–PUB 313 is not a valid option.

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  • 21. 

    (408) Which activity must approve all additions or deletions to the Health Hazard ApprovalListing (HHAL)?

    • A.

      Bioenvironmental Engineering Services

    • B.

      Maintenance contact point

    • C.

      Customer service

    • D.

      Item manager

    Correct Answer
    A. Bioenvironmental Engineering Services
    Explanation
    Bioenvironmental Engineering Services must approve all additions or deletions to the Health Hazard Approval Listing (HHAL). This is because Bioenvironmental Engineering Services are responsible for assessing and managing potential health hazards in an organization. They have the expertise and knowledge to evaluate the impact of any additions or deletions to the HHAL and ensure that the necessary precautions are taken to protect the health and safety of individuals.

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  • 22. 

    (409) How are electrostatic sensitive devices (ESD) identified on the item record?

    • A.

      Issue exception code “3.”

    • B.

      Issue exception code “4.”

    • C.

      Type cargo code “3.”

    • D.

      Type cargo code “4.”

    Correct Answer
    C. Type cargo code “3.”
    Explanation
    Electrostatic sensitive devices (ESD) are identified on the item record by typing cargo code "3." This code indicates that the item is sensitive to electrostatic discharge and requires special handling to prevent damage.

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  • 23. 

    (409) Which transaction identification code (TRIC) and activity code is used to process anelectrostatic sensitive device (ESD) on a detail record to maintenance for testing?

    • A.

      ISU, “E.”

    • B.

      MSI, “E.”

    • C.

      ISU, “C.”

    • D.

      MSI, “C.”

    Correct Answer
    D. MSI, “C.”
    Explanation
    The correct answer is MSI, "C." This transaction identification code (TRIC) and activity code is used to process an electrostatic sensitive device (ESD) on a detail record to maintenance for testing. The TRIC "MSI" stands for Maintenance Support Information, indicating that the transaction is related to maintenance activities. The activity code "C" refers to the specific activity of testing. Therefore, using MSI, "C" would be the appropriate TRIC and activity code combination for processing an ESD for testing in maintenance.

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  • 24. 

    (410) The responsibility for maintaining effective property management of all Air Force-ownedproperty belongs to

    • A.

      Commanders

    • B.

      Supervisors

    • C.

      Flight chiefs

    • D.

      Individuals at all levels

    Correct Answer
    D. Individuals at all levels
    Explanation
    The responsibility for maintaining effective property management of all Air Force-owned property belongs to individuals at all levels. This means that everyone within the Air Force, regardless of their rank or position, has a responsibility to ensure that the property is well-managed and taken care of. This includes following proper procedures for handling and maintaining the property, reporting any damages or issues, and being accountable for its use. By assigning this responsibility to individuals at all levels, it ensures that everyone is actively involved in property management and promotes a sense of ownership and accountability.

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  • 25. 

    (410) Who appoints responsible individuals with the lawful duty to maintain accurate records ofproperty?

    • A.

      MAJCOM POC.

    • B.

      Chief enlisted manager

    • C.

      Logistics group commander

    • D.

      Wing or vice-wing commander

    Correct Answer
    D. Wing or vice-wing commander
    Explanation
    The Wing or vice-wing commander is responsible for appointing individuals with the lawful duty to maintain accurate records of property. This individual holds a high-ranking position within the organization and has the authority to select and assign individuals to this important task. They understand the importance of accurate record-keeping and trust in the capabilities of those they appoint to fulfill this responsibility.

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  • 26. 

    (411) Who was chartered by HQ USAF as the centralized Air Force program manager for allMechanized Materiel Handling Systems (MMHS) and Storage Aids Systems (SAS)?

    • A.

      Storage Systems Program Office

    • B.

      Materials Handling Engineering Office

    • C.

      Materials Handling Development Office

    • D.

      Materials Storage and Handling Systems Office

    Correct Answer
    B. Materials Handling Engineering Office
    Explanation
    The Materials Handling Engineering Office was chartered by HQ USAF as the centralized Air Force program manager for all Mechanized Materiel Handling Systems (MMHS) and Storage Aids Systems (SAS).

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  • 27. 

    (411) Which type of warehouse equipment is part of a Storage Aid System (SAS)?

    • A.

      Conveyors

    • B.

      Affixed cranes

    • C.

      Overhead trolleys

    • D.

      General-purpose shelves

    Correct Answer
    D. General-purpose shelves
    Explanation
    General-purpose shelves are part of a Storage Aid System (SAS) because they provide a storage solution for various types of items. These shelves can be adjusted or customized to accommodate different sizes and shapes of products, making them versatile and suitable for a wide range of storage needs. They are commonly used in warehouses to organize and store goods efficiently, allowing for easy access and retrieval when needed. Unlike conveyors, affixed cranes, and overhead trolleys, general-purpose shelves do not involve mechanized or automated systems but rather rely on manual handling and organization.

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  • 28. 

    (412) Prime factors in determining the best possible space layouts for storage operations are

    • A.

      Size, quantity, and type items stocked

    • B.

      Size of facility and number of personnel assigned

    • C.

      Efficiency of operations and effective space utilization

    • D.

      Number, size, and geographical location of supported organizations

    Correct Answer
    C. Efficiency of operations and effective space utilization
    Explanation
    The prime factors in determining the best possible space layouts for storage operations are efficiency of operations and effective space utilization. This means that the most important considerations when designing storage layouts are how efficiently the operations can be carried out and how effectively the available space can be utilized. This involves factors such as optimizing workflows, minimizing travel distances, maximizing storage capacity, and ensuring that the space is used in the most efficient and effective way possible.

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  • 29. 

    (412) What item storage factor is used when items with the slowest turnover rate are stored inareas farther from active stock processing areas?

    • A.

      Quantity

    • B.

      Similarity

    • C.

      Popularity

    • D.

      Size and weight

    Correct Answer
    C. Popularity
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "Popularity". When items with the slowest turnover rate are stored in areas farther from active stock processing areas, the factor that is considered is their popularity. Popularity refers to the demand or frequency of sales for a particular item. By storing less popular items farther from active areas, it allows for easier access and quicker retrieval of items that are in higher demand and have a faster turnover rate.

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  • 30. 

    (412) When you increase the amount of space for an item in a location to eliminate overflow into another item’s location, you are implementing what item storage factor?

    • A.

      Quantity

    • B.

      Similarity

    • C.

      Popularity

    • D.

      Size and weight

    Correct Answer
    A. Quantity
    Explanation
    When you increase the amount of space for an item in a location to eliminate overflow into another item's location, you are implementing the item storage factor of Quantity. This means that you are adjusting the storage space based on the number or quantity of items that need to be stored in a particular location. By increasing the space, you ensure that there is enough room to accommodate all the items without any overflow or congestion.

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  • 31. 

    (412) Which warehouse aisle runs the entire length of the warehouse?

    • A.

      Fire

    • B.

      Main

    • C.

      Service

    • D.

      Working

    Correct Answer
    B. Main
    Explanation
    The main aisle is the warehouse aisle that runs the entire length of the warehouse. This aisle is typically used for the movement of goods and equipment throughout the warehouse and provides access to all other aisles and storage areas. It is the primary pathway for employees and machinery to navigate the warehouse and is essential for efficient operations.

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  • 32. 

    (412) Which warehouse aisle can increase the possibility of pilferage in a warehouse?

    • A.

      Main

    • B.

      Service

    • C.

      Working

    • D.

      Personnel

    Correct Answer
    D. Personnel
    Explanation
    The personnel aisle can increase the possibility of pilferage in a warehouse because it is an area where employees have easy access to products and inventory. Employees may be tempted to steal items when they are in close proximity and have the opportunity to do so without being noticed. Therefore, having a personnel aisle in a warehouse increases the risk of theft and pilferage.

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  • 33. 

    (413) The practice of storing items in a way that causes a loss of storage space is called

    • A.

      Honeycombing

    • B.

      Cross stacking

    • C.

      Mezzanine storage

    • D.

      Potential vacant space

    Correct Answer
    A. Honeycombing
    Explanation
    Honeycombing refers to the practice of storing items in a way that causes a loss of storage space. This occurs when there are gaps or voids between items, resulting in inefficient use of the available storage area. Honeycombing can lead to wasted space, reduced storage capacity, and difficulties in locating and accessing stored items.

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  • 34. 

    (413) How much clearance space, in inches, must be maintained below automatic sprinkler heads in a storage space when stack heights exceed 15 feet?

    • A.

      12

    • B.

      18

    • C.

      24

    • D.

      36

    Correct Answer
    D. 36
    Explanation
    In storage spaces where stack heights exceed 15 feet, a clearance space of 36 inches must be maintained below automatic sprinkler heads. This is necessary to ensure that the sprinkler heads have enough space to effectively distribute water in case of a fire. A larger clearance space is required in these situations to prevent any obstruction or interference with the sprinkler system's functionality.

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  • 35. 

    (413) How many inches of clearance space must be maintained around light or heating fixtures in a storage space?

    • A.

      12

    • B.

      18

    • C.

      24

    • D.

      36

    Correct Answer
    B. 18
    Explanation
    In a storage space, a clearance space of 18 inches must be maintained around light or heating fixtures. This is necessary to ensure that there is enough space for proper ventilation and to prevent any potential fire hazards. It allows for adequate airflow and reduces the risk of objects coming into contact with the fixtures, reducing the chances of damage or accidents.

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  • 36. 

    (413) The total or maximum amount of weight that can be stored in a specific amount of floorspace is known as

    • A.

      Scale load

    • B.

      Weight limit

    • C.

      Floor load limit

    • D.

      Weight restriction

    Correct Answer
    C. Floor load limit
    Explanation
    The term "floor load limit" refers to the maximum weight that can be safely stored or placed on a specific amount of floorspace. This limit is determined by the structural capacity of the floor and is important to ensure the safety and integrity of the building. It is crucial to adhere to the floor load limit to prevent damage to the floor and potential accidents or collapses.

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  • 37. 

    (414) Which method of storage helps to ensure that the oldest items are issued before theybecome outdated?

    • A.

      First in, last out

    • B.

      First in, first out

    • C.

      Stock by serial number

    • D.

      Rotation of new items to the front

    Correct Answer
    B. First in, first out
    Explanation
    First in, first out (FIFO) is a method of storage where the items that are received first are issued or used first. This ensures that the oldest items are issued before they become outdated because they are prioritized over newer items. By following this method, the stock is rotated and utilized in the order it was received, reducing the risk of items becoming expired or obsolete.

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  • 38. 

    (414) What type items (including narcotics, precious metals, arms, and ammunition) require ahigh degree of protection and control due to statutory requirements or regulations?

    • A.

      Sensitive items

    • B.

      Pilferable items

    • C.

      Protective items

    • D.

      Highly desired items

    Correct Answer
    A. Sensitive items
    Explanation
    Sensitive items require a high degree of protection and control due to statutory requirements or regulations. These items, including narcotics, precious metals, arms, and ammunition, are considered sensitive due to their potential for misuse or harm if they fall into the wrong hands. Therefore, strict measures are put in place to ensure their security and prevent unauthorized access or theft.

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  • 39. 

    (414) What supply-controlled item code is assigned to precious metals?

    • A.

      J

    • B.

      N

    • C.

      Q

    • D.

      R

    Correct Answer
    D. R
    Explanation
    The correct answer is R. In the context of supply-controlled item codes, R is assigned to precious metals. This code indicates that these items are regulated and controlled due to their high value and potential for misuse or illegal activities. By assigning the R code, it allows for proper tracking, documentation, and control of precious metals to ensure their proper handling and prevent unauthorized use or distribution.

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  • 40. 

    (414) How often must the combination on combination padlocks be changed for classifiedstorage?

    • A.

      Monthly

    • B.

      Quarterly

    • C.

      Semiannually

    • D.

      Annually

    Correct Answer
    D. Annually
    Explanation
    Combination padlocks for classified storage must be changed annually. This ensures that the security of the classified information is maintained and reduces the risk of unauthorized access. Changing the combination regularly helps to prevent anyone from memorizing or guessing the combination over time. By changing the combination annually, the padlocks remain secure and the classified storage remains protected.

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  • 41. 

    (415) What individual or activity schedules and conducts a warehouse location validation forsatellite accounts?

    • A.

      MS&D officer

    • B.

      Storage activity

    • C.

      Inventory activity

    • D.

      Accountable officer

    Correct Answer
    B. Storage activity
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "Storage activity." In a warehouse location validation for satellite accounts, it is the storage activity that schedules and conducts the validation. This involves verifying the accuracy and completeness of inventory records, ensuring proper storage and organization of goods, and assessing the overall efficiency of the warehouse operations. The storage activity plays a crucial role in maintaining the integrity and reliability of the warehouse location for satellite accounts.

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  • 42. 

    (415) All assigned warehouse locations must be validated at least

    • A.

      Monthly

    • B.

      Quarterly

    • C.

      Semiannually

    • D.

      Annually

    Correct Answer
    D. Annually
    Explanation
    Warehouse locations need to be validated periodically to ensure accuracy and efficiency in inventory management. Validating them annually allows for sufficient time to assess any changes or updates required in the warehouse layout. This frequency strikes a balance between regular checks and avoiding excessive administrative burden. Quarterly or monthly validations may be too frequent and time-consuming, while semiannual validations may not provide enough oversight. Therefore, annual validation is the most suitable option.

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  • 43. 

    (415) The storage activity should complete scheduled validations within how many workdays ofthe start of a cycle inventory?

    • A.

      3

    • B.

      7

    • C.

      10

    • D.

      14

    Correct Answer
    C. 10
    Explanation
    The storage activity should complete scheduled validations within 10 workdays of the start of a cycle inventory. This means that the process of validating the inventory should be finished within 10 workdays from the beginning of the inventory cycle. This ensures that the inventory is accurately accounted for and any discrepancies or issues are identified and addressed in a timely manner.

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  • 44. 

    (416) “FID” entries on the Daily Document Register are arranged sequentially by

    • A.

      ERRCD

    • B.

      Location

    • C.

      Stock number

    • D.

      Priority designator

    Correct Answer
    B. Location
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "location". The "FID" entries on the Daily Document Register are arranged sequentially based on their location. This means that the entries are organized in a specific order according to where they are located.

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  • 45. 

    (416) When property is found in a location with a corresponding FID entry on the DailyDocument Register (D04), what must be entered on the special inventory request?

    • A.

      Account delete code

    • B.

      Location of the property

    • C.

      New warehouse location

    • D.

      Condition of the property

    Correct Answer
    B. Location of the property
    Explanation
    When property is found in a location with a corresponding FID entry on the DailyDocument Register (D04), the location of the property must be entered on the special inventory request.

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  • 46. 

    (417) All copies of a warehouse refused document are forwarded to what supply element?

    • A.

      Analysis

    • B.

      Receiving

    • C.

      Inventory

    • D.

      Equipment

    Correct Answer
    C. Inventory
    Explanation
    In this question, the correct answer is "Inventory". When all copies of a warehouse refused document are forwarded, they are sent to the inventory supply element. This suggests that the document is related to inventory management and tracking. The other options, analysis, receiving, and equipment, do not specifically pertain to the forwarding of warehouse refused documents.

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  • 47. 

    (418) When controlled items, which are not already specified by an item exception (IEX) code,are approved by the unit commander in writing to be placed on bench stock, they are assignedissued IEX code

    • A.

      J

    • B.

      K

    • C.

      M

    • D.

      N

    Correct Answer
    D. N
    Explanation
    When controlled items are approved by the unit commander in writing to be placed on bench stock, they are assigned an issued IEX code. The correct answer is N.

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  • 48. 

    (418) How many days before a scheduled semiannual phase II review is a complete inventory and replenishment done?

    • A.

      5

    • B.

      10

    • C.

      15

    • D.

      20

    Correct Answer
    C. 15
    Explanation
    A complete inventory and replenishment is done 15 days before a scheduled semiannual phase II review. This allows enough time to assess the current inventory levels, identify any shortages or excesses, and place orders for replenishment. Doing this 15 days in advance ensures that the inventory is fully stocked and ready for the review, minimizing any potential disruptions or delays in the process.

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  • 49. 

    (418) How often must standard reporting designator (SRD) data and minimum reserveauthorization (MRA) levels be validated?

    • A.

      Monthly

    • B.

      Quarterly

    • C.

      Semiannually

    • D.

      Annually

    Correct Answer
    D. Annually
    Explanation
    SRD data and MRA levels must be validated annually. This means that once a year, these standard reporting designator data and minimum reserve authorization levels need to be checked and confirmed for accuracy and compliance. This validation process ensures that the data and levels are up to date and in line with the required standards and regulations.

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  • 50. 

    (418) What listing controls the assignment of bench stock item numbers and helps shop personnel locate bench stock items?

    • A.

      M04

    • B.

      R26

    • C.

      R31

    • D.

      S04

    Correct Answer
    D. S04
    Explanation
    The listing control that assigns bench stock item numbers and helps shop personnel locate bench stock items is S04.

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Our quizzes are rigorously reviewed, monitored and continuously updated by our expert board to maintain accuracy, relevance, and timeliness.

  • Current Version
  • Mar 21, 2023
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • Mar 23, 2010
    Quiz Created by
    Diezeitgeist
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